TIẾNG ANH 12 - SAMPLE TEST

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BÀI TẬP ÔN THI TN. THPTQG – KHỐI 12 
ĐỀ SỐ 01

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose

underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following 
questions.

Question 1: A. serves B. hopes C. likes D. writes

Question 2: A. substantial B. initiate C. particular D. attention 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs 
from the other threeinthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions

Question 3: A. express B. effort C. employ D. reduce

Question 4: A. preference B. attraction C. advantage D. infinitive 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part 
that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The passengers, tired after a very long trip, was relaxing in every available 
seat in the airport lobby.

A. the B. very C. was relaxing D. available

Question 6: If we had more time last week, we would certainly have finished the project 
on time.

A. had B. certainly C. the D. on time

Question 7: Sleeping, resting, and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.

A. sleeping B. to drink C. juice D. best ways

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to 
each of the following questions.

Question 8: I’d like to see that football match because I once this year.
A. haven’t seen B. don’t see C. weren’t seeing D. didn’t see 
Question 9: They always kept on good with their next-door neighbors for 
the children’s sake.

A. will B. friendship C. terms D. relations

Question 10: Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn’t have 
enough ___ .

A. confide B. confident C. confidential D. confidence

Question 11: Our new coach is popular the whole team.

A. for B. to C. by D. with

Question 12: Don’t go too fast! I can’t up with you.

A. keep B. go C. walk D. run

Question 13: I have no idea where .

A. has she got that information B. she got that information 
C. did she get that information D. that information has she got

Question 14: That’s story I have ever heard.

A. a ridiculous B. the ridiculous

C. the more ridiculous D. the most ridiculous
Question 15: We bought some .

A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses 
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses

Question 16: non-verbal language is important aspect of interpersonal
communication.

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Question 17: Their apartment looks nice. In fact, it’s .

A. extremely comfortable B. extreme comfortably

C. extreme comfortable D. extremely comfortably

Question 18: My teacher is one of the people .

A. I look up to them B. whom look up to

C. I look up to D. to who I look up to

Question 19: In my company, the director deputy usually the responsibility for
organizing meetings and conferences.

A. makes B. gets C. becomes D. takes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response 
to complete each of the followingexchanges.

Question 20: ―Would you mind turning down the TV? I’m

working!‖ ― .‖

A. Yes, I’m working, too. B. Not at all. I’ll do it now. 
C. Thank you. I’m pleased. D. No, I wouldn’t be working. 
Question 21: ―Please, lock the door carefully before you leave the

room.‖ ― .‖

A. I won’t tell you when I do it. B. I’m thinking of selling the house. 
C. That’s for sure. D. I’m sorry. I did it last night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in 
meaning to the underlined word(s )in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Mr. Gerstein was particularly taken aback to hear that sleeping problems are 
often linked to physical problems.

A. surprised B. intended C. determined D. relieved

Question 23: I shouldn’t go outside without a raincoat because it’s raining cats and dogs. 
A. it’s just started to rain B. it’s raining very heavily

C. it’s going to rain D. it’s drizzling

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: I could only propose a partial solution to the crisis in the company.

A. half B. halfway C. effective D. complete

Question 25: Inadequate supply of oxygen to the blood can cause death within minutes.

A. Sufficient B. Nonexistent C. Rich D. Useful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is 
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: You ought to make up your mind now.

A. It is high time you made up your mind. B. Making up your mind is necessary. 
C. It is possible to make up your mind. D. You should have made up your mind. 
Question 27: ―No, no, you really must stay a bit longer!‖ said the boys.

A. The boys denied my staying a bit longer.
B. The boys refused to let me stay a bit longer.
C. The boys didn’t agree to let stay a bit longer.
D. The boys insisted on my staying a bit longer.
Question 28: My uncle didn’t recognize me until I spoke.

A. My uncle recognized me not until I spoke
B. Only when my uncle recognized me did I speak
C. Not until I spoke did my uncle recognize me

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best

combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: I picked up my book. I found that the cover had been torn 
A. When picking up my book, the cover had been torn

B. On picking up my book, I saw that the cover had been torn
C. The cover had been torn when my book picked up

D. Picked up, the book was torn

Question 30: Home schooling is apparently very successful. Many people still believe in 
the benefits of traditional schooling.

A. Because home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe
in the benefits of traditional schooling

B. As long as home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe
in the benefits of traditional schooling

C. Even though home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still
believe in the benefits of traditional schooling

D. In spite of home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe
in the benefits of traditional schooling.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to 
indicate the

correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night
but can't find the energy to get out of bed (31)_________for school? According to a new 
report, today's generation of children are in danger of getting so (32)_________sleep that 
they are putting their mental and physical health at (33)_________. Adults can easily 
survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night, (34)_________teenagers require nine or ten
hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (35)_________anything 
between two and five hours' sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.

By Tim Falla and Paul A. Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP 
Question 31. A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at time

Question 32. A. few B. less C. much D. little

Question 33. A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger

Question 34. A. or B. because C. whereas D. so

Question 35. A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes

 Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

It used to be that people would drink coffee or tea in the morning to pick them up and get
them going for the day. Then cola drinks hit the market. With lots of caffeine and sugar,
these beverages soon became the pick-me-up of choice for many adults and teenagers. Now
drink companies are putting out so-called "energy drinks." These beverages have the
specific aim of giving tired consumers more energy.

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Another problem is that there are so many things in the beverages. Nobody knows for sure
how all of the ingredients in energy drinks work together.

Dr. Brent Bauer, one of the directors at the Mayo Clinic in the US, cautions people about
believing all the claims energy drinks make. He says, —It is plausible if you put all these
things together, you will get a good result. || However, Dr. Bauer adds the mix of
ingredients could also have a negative impact on the body. —We just don't know at this
point,|| he says.

(Source: —Reading Challenge 2||, Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen, Compass 
Publishing)

Question 36. The beverages mentioned in the first paragraph aim to give 
consumers________.

A. caffeine B. sugar C. more energy D. more choices

Question37. The word "it" in the second paragraph refers to________.

A. one example B. the company C. Red Bull D. thirst quencher

Question38. According to the passage, what makes it difficult for researchers to know if an 
energy drink gives people energy?

A. Natural chemicals in a person's body B. The average age of the consumer 
C. The number of beverage makers D. The mixture of various ingredients 
Question 39. The word —plausible|| in the passage is closest in meaning to________.

A. impossible B.reasonable C. typical D. unlikely 
Question 40. What has Dr. Bauer probably researched?

A. Countries where Red Bull is popular B. Energy drinks for teenage athletes

C. Habits of healthy and unhealthy adults D. Vitamins and chemicals in the body. 
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Bauer does not seem to believe the claims of energy drink makers. 
B. Colas have been on the market longer than energy drinks.

C. It has been scientifically proved that energy drinks work. 
D. The makers of Red Bull say that it can revitalize a person. 
Question 42. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Caffeine is bad for people to drink.

B. it is uncertain whether energy drinks are healthy. 
C. Red Bull is the best energy drink.

D. Teenagers should not choose energy drinks.



Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet 
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50

What is 'extreme' weather? Why are people talking about it these days? 'Extreme' weather is
an unusual weather event such as rainfall, a drought or a heat wave in the wrong place or at
the wrong time. In theory, they are very rare. But these days, our TV screens are constantly
showing such extreme weather events. Take just three news stories from 2010: 28
centimetres of rain fell on Riode Janeiro in 24 hours, Nashville, USA, had 33 centimetres of
rain in two days and there was record rainfall in Pakistan.

The effects of this kind of rainfall are dramatic and lethal. In Rio de Janeiro, landslides
followed, burying hundreds of people. In Pakistan, the floods affected 20 million people.
Meanwhile, other parts of the world suffer devastating droughts. Australia, Russia and East

Africa have been hit in the last ten years. And then there are unexpected heat waves, such as
in 2003 in Europe. That summer, 35,000 deaths were said to be heat-related.

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weather cycles, El Niño and La Niña, originate in the Pacific Ocean. The heat from the
warm ocean rises high into the atmosphere and affects weather all around the world. On the
other hand, the temperature of the Earth's oceans is slowly but steadily going up. And this is
a result of human activity. We are producing greenhouse gases that trap heat in the Earth's
atmosphere. This heat warms up the atmosphere, land and oceans. Warmer oceans
produce more water vapour - think of heating a pan of water in your kitchen. Turn up the
heat, it produces steam more quickly. Satellite data tells US that the water vapour in the
atmosphere has gone up by four percent in 25 years. This warm, wet air turns into the rain,
storms, hurricanes and typhoons that we are increasingly experiencing. Climate scientist,
Michael Oppenheimer, says that we need to face the reality of climate change. And we also
need to act now to save lives and money in the future.

(Source: © 2015 National Geographic Learning, www.ngllife.com/wild-weather)
Question43. It is stated in the passage that extreme weather is________.

A. becoming more common B. not a natural occurrence

C.difficult for scientists to understand D. killing more people than ever before 
Question44. The word —lethal || in the second paragraph probably means ,

A. far-reaching B. long-lasting C.happening soon D. causing deaths 
Question45. What caused thousands of deaths in 2003?

A. a period of hot weather B. floods after a bad summer 
C.a long spell of heavy rain D. large-scale landslides

Question46. According to the passage, extreme weather is a problem because _.

A. we can never predict it B. it only affects crowded places 
C.it's often very destructive D. its causes are completely unknown 
Question47. The word —that 11 in the third paragraph refers to________.

A. Earth's oceans B. human activity

C.greenhouse gases D. Earth's atmosphere

Question48. Extreme weather can be caused by________.

A. satellites above the Earth B. water vapour in the atmosphere 
C.very hot summers D. water pans in your kitchen 
Question49. Satellites are used to________.

A. change the direction of severe storms 
B. trap greenhouse gases in the atmosphere

C.measure changes in atmospheric water vapour
D. prevent climate from changing quickly

Question 50. Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage?
A. Extreme weather is substantially influenced by human activity.

B. Unusual weather events are part of natural cycles, 
C.We can limit the bad effects of extreme weather.

D. Such extreme weather is hardly the consequence of human activity.

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ĐỀ SỐ 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose 
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the 
following questions.

Question 1: A. gesture B. surgery C. engine D. regard

Question 2: A. flour B. pour C. hour D. sour

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs 
from the other threein theposition ofprimarystressin each

ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 3: A. possession B. politics C. refusal D. decision 
Question 4: A. development B. preservative C. congratulate D. preferential 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part 
that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: My mother doesn’t care how much does the washing machine cost 
because she is going to buy it anyway.

A. doesn’t care B. does the washing machine cost C. because D. to buy

Question 6: Nora hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.

A. hardly never B. an C. to play D. in

Question 7: Both Mr. and Mrs. Smith are explaining children the rules of the game. 
 A. Both B. Mr. and Mrs. Smith C. are D. children the rules of the game 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to

each of the following questions.

Question 8: I this letter around for days without looking at it.

A. am carrying B. will be carrying C. carry D. have been carrying 
Question 9: It was not until she had arrived home remembered her appointment
with the doctor.

A. that she B. and she C. she D. when she had

Question 10: I accidentally Mike when I was crossing a street downtown
yesterday.

A. kept an eye on B. caught sight of C. lost touch with D. paid attention to 
Question 11: entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.

A. With B. On C. At D. During

Question 12: I would really your help with this assignment.

A. respect B. take C. appreciate D. than

Question 13: The price of fruit has increased recently, the price of vegetables
has gone down.

A. otherwise B. whether C. whereas D. when

Question 14: I am considering my job. Can you recommend a good company?

A. to move B. changing C. to change D. moving

Question 15: Can you keep calm for a moment? You noise in class!

A. are always made B. always make

C. have always made D. are always making

Question 16: These measures have been taken with a to increasing the
company's profits.

A. goal B. view C. reason D. reason

Question 17: Anyone scholastic record is above average can apply
for the scholarship.

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Question 18: You feel so because there's nothing you can do to make the
child better.

A. unhelpful B. helpless C. thoughtful D. helpful

Question 19: The manager had his secretary the report for him.

A. to have typed B. typed C. type D. to type

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable 
response or question to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Janet: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this 
evening?" Susan: " ."

A. I don't agree, I'm afraid. B. You‟re welcome.

C. I feel very bored. D. That would be great.

Question 21: A: ― detective stories?‖

B: ―In my opinion, they are very good for teenagers.‖
 A. What do you think about B. Are you fond of

C. How about D. What do people feel about

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST 
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. 
But it was not long ago that there were no such things as matches or lighters.

A. a device that uses electricity, oil or gas to produce light.

B. a small device that produces a flame for lighting cigarettes, etc.

C. the energy from the sun, a lamp, etc. that makes it possible to see things 
D. a hot bright stream of burning gas that comes from something that is on fire 
Question 23: The downside of this approach is that it is difficult to measure its 
efficacy.

A. negative aspect B. positive aspect C. advantage D. strength

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE 
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Don‟t take it as a piece of cake, hiking is very tiring task.

A. something that is easy to do B. something that is very challenging to 
do

C. something that is rewarding to do D. something that is dangerous to do 
Question 25: Her husband, who had died three years previously, had left her well-off.

A. wealthy B. miserable C. better off D. penniless

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is 
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: We were all surprised when she suddenly came back. 
A. All of us found it surprising that she suddenly came back.
B. The fact that we were surprised made her come back.
C. All of us were amazing to see her come back.

D. She was surprised, coming back suddenly.

Question 27: Because she was irritated by her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left 
him.

A. Irritating with her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.
B. Being irritating by her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.

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Question 28: I can’t help feeling worried about Tom. 
A. I find it impossible not to worry about Tom.
B. I don’t worry about Tom.

C. I can do nothing to help Tom.
D. I cannot help Tom stop worrying.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best 
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Put your coat on. You will get cold. 
A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.
B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.

C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.
D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.

Question 30: Flora was alone again in her tiny room. She couldn’t help crying a little. 
A. Flora couldn’t help crying a little as to be alone again in her tiny room.

B. Flora couldn’t help crying a little during being alone in her tiny room.
C. Alone again in her tiny room, Flora couldn’t help crying a little.

D. Being alone again in her tiny room, and then Flora couldn’t help crying a little.



Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer 
sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered 
blanks from 31 to 35.

WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY

A good memory is often seen as something that comes naturally, and a bad memory as
something that cannot be changed, but actually (31)_________is a lot that you can do to
improve your memory.

We all remember the things we are interested in and forget the ones that bore us. This
no doubt explains the reason (32)_________schoolboys remember football results
effortlessly but struggle with dates from their history lessons! Take an active interest in
what you want to remember, and focus on it (33)_________. One way to make yourself
more interested is to ask questions - the more the better!

Physical exercise is also important for your memory, because it increases your heart
(34) and sends more oxygen to your brain, and that makes your memory work better. 
Exercise also reduces stress, which is very bad for the memory.

The old saying that —eating fish makes you brainy— may be true after all. Scientists
have discovered that the fats (35)_________in fish like tuna, sardines and salmon — as
well as in olive oil — help to improve the memory. Vitamin-rich fruits such as oranges,
strawberries and red grapes are all good brain food, too.

(Source: —New Cutting Edge, Cunningham, S. & Moor. 2010. Harlow: Longman)

Question 31. A. there B. it C. that D. this

Question 32. A. why B. what C. how D. which

Question 33. A. hardly B. slightly C. consciously D. easily

Question 34. A. degree B. level C. rate D. grade

Question 35. A. made B. existed C. founded D. found



Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B,Cor D on your answer 
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

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Ocean, and cyclones in the Indian Ocean. They occur in both the northern and southern
hemispheres. Large ones have destroyed cities and killed hundreds of thousands of
people.

Tropical cyclones begin over water that is warmer than 27 degrees Celsius (80 degrees
Fahrenheit) slightly north or south of the earth’s equator. Warm, humid air full of water
vapor moves upward. The earth's rotation causes the growing storm to start to rotate
around its center (called the eye). At the certain height, the water vapor condenses,
changing to liquid and releasing heat. The heat draws more air and water vapor upward,
creating a cycle as air and water vapor rise and liquid water falls. If the cycle speeds up
until winds reach 118 kilometers per hour, the storm qualifies as a tropical cyclone.
Most deaths in tropical cyclones are caused by storm surge. This is a rise in sea level,
sometimes seven meters or more, caused by the storm pushing against the ocean's
surface. Storm surge was to blame for the flooding of New Orleans in 2005. The storm
surge of Cyclone Nargis in 2008 in Myanmar pushed seawater nearly four meters deep
some 40 kilometers inland, resulting in many deaths.

Question 36. As stated in paragraph 1, tropical cyclones are storms with winds blowing 
at speeds of

A. more than 100 kph B. at least 200 kph

C. less than 100 kph D. no less than 200 kph

Question 37. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to________.

A. sweet-sounding names B. wind speeds

C. tropical cyclones D. weather professionals

Question 38. According to the passage, tropical cyclones are called typhoons 
in________.

A. the Indian Ocean B. the Arctic Ocean

C. the Atlantic Ocean D. the Pacific Ocean

Question 39. The word "humid" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. moist B. dry C. thin D. thick

Question 40. Which the following comes first in the process of storm formation?

A. Liquid water falls B. Warm, humid air moves upward

C. Water vapor condenses D. Wind speed reaches 118 kph 
Question 41. According to the passage, a storm surge is________.

A. a rise in sea level B. pushing seawater C. a tropical cyclone D. inland flooding 
Question 42. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?

A. Cyclone Forecasting B. Tropical Cyclones

C. Storm Surges D. Cyclone Formation



Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer 
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 
The concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop, backyard or
community gardens scattered among downtown city streets and surrounding

neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and within and beyond the Puget Sound region,
it means a great deal more. "Urban agriculture doesn't necessarily equate to production
that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area, "says Jason Niebler, who directs the
Sustainable Agriculture Education (SAgE) initiative at Seattle Central Community
College. "It means we are providing for growing population food needs from
surrounding rural landscapes, as well as from the core urban landscape."

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increasingly more rural with distance. The hope is that such land use planning, from the
inner core to the outer rings, will encourage local ecologically sound sustainable food
production. This, in turn, will create local jobs and decrease reliance on distant food
products that originate from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.

That's the idea behind SAgE, believed to be the nation's first metropolitan-based
community college sustainable agriculture program that emphasizes farming practices
across diverse landscape types from urban centers to surrounding rural environs. "It's
small scale agriculture with an urban focus" Niebler says. "Any urban population, large
or small, can practice sustainable agriculture, improve food security and protect the
environment, which ultimately results in resilient food systems and communities."
SAgE is a part of National Science Foundation's Advanced Technological Education
(ATE) Program, which is providing the project with $157,375 over two years. ATE's
goal is to support projects that strengthen the skills of technicians who work in

industries regarded as vital to the national's prosperity and security. The support largely
goes to community colleges that work in partnership with universities, secondary
schools, businesses and industries, as well as government agencies, which design and
implement model workforce initiatives.

The SAgE project focuses on the environmental, socioeconomic, political and cultural
issues related to sustainable food systems, within Puget Sound watersheds through

student and community education and research, and technological innovation. The
curriculum offers courses that cover such issues as agricultural ecology, urban food
systems, food politics and ethics, soil science, sustainable food production and
technology, the integration of food and forests, and career opportunities.

"We've created a curriculum that is fundamental in nature, addressing the principles of
sustainable agriculture and what a food system is - how it functions both locally and
globally," Niebler says. "These courses are challenging, robust and inspirational. One of
the really wonderful things about them is that we offer service learning opportunities,
where students volunteer a portion of their time to working with local partner

organizations. They can do a research project, or a service learning option. The ideal
would be to prompt students into careers that involve sustainable practices in an urban
agriculture setting."

Adapted from "Promoting Sustainable Agriculture" by Mariene Cimons
Question 43. It is stated in the passage that Jason Niebler________.

A. preserves the core urban landscape 
B. provides food for Seattle's population

C. studies at Seattle Central Community College 
D. directs the SAgE Initiative

Question 44. It can be inferred from the passage that the conventional idea of urban 
agriculture ________ .

A. focuses mainly on agriculture within and beyond the Puget Sound region 
B. aims at food production and consumption in both rural and urban regions 
C. is associated with production only in metropolitan urban areas.

D. concerns with food production in any city's surrounding areas

Question 45. The word "concentric" in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to________. 
A. coming from different places B. having the same size

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Question 46. Which of the following is supposed to be an outcome of the SAgE's new 
land use planning?

A. Dependence on distant food products.

B. Increased food production in large scale farms 
C. Employment opportunities for local residents 
D. Modernized farming practices in rural environs

Question 47. The curriculum of SagE at Seattle Central Community College offers 
courses covering the following EXCEPT________.

A. agricultural ecology B. career opportunities.

C. urban system development D. integration of food and forests 
Question 48. In Niebler's opinion, the courses offered by the SAgE project 
are________.

A. functional but impractical B. robust but unpromising 
C. challenging and costly D. hard but encouraging 
Question 49. The word "them" in paragraph 6 refer to________.

A. courses B. opportunities C. principles D. students 
Question 50. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. The curriculum that the SAgE project designs is fundamental in nature. 
B. The SAgE project alone will offer student sufficient jobs in urban agriculture. 
C. ATE helps to improve the skill of technicians in the nation major industries. 
D. Resilient food systems can be attributed to sustainable agricultural practices.

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ĐỀ SỐ 3

Question 1: A. kidney B. knowledge C. killer D. kite

Question 2: A. ought B. brought C. fought D. drought

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs 
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following 
questions.

Question 3: A. problem B. village C. police D. worker

Question 4: A. effectiveness B. satisfaction C. curriculum D. appropriate 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part 
that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Although it was the first time Vietnam hosted so a big sports event, the 
Games were a great success.

A. although B. the first time C. so D. were

Question 6: Do not start a book unless you can see from the first few pages that it is one 
you can easy read and understand.

A. unless B. from C. it is one D. easy

Question 7: One of the most important measures to be taken to promote the develop of a 
country is to constantly carry out economic reforms.

A. measures B. develop C. constantly D. carry out 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to 
each of the following questions.

Question 8: One of the men was lying on the ground after down by a piece of rock
A. knocking B. being knocked C. knocking him D. was knocked 
Question 9: The number of working women in China from 49% in 1980 to
nearly 65% today

A. has been increasing B. has increased

C. is increasing D. have increased

Question 10: My uncle took photography when he retired from work

A. after B. over C. up D. on

Question 11: Helen is traveling to Germany tomorrow on her first working trip and she 
is very excited it

A. for B. against C. about D. with

Question 12: These people for the most successful company in the town

A. are seeming to work B. seem working

C. seem to be working D. are seem to be working

Question 13: This job working very long hours

A. includes B. consists C. involves D. contains

Question 14: When he was 20, he developed for the personal computer

A. the world first computer’s language B. the computer language for the first world
C. the world’s first computer language D. the first world’s computer language

Question 15: When I came, the salesperson was to the customers how to use
a new kind of washing machines.

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Question 16: my parents gave me the fish tank

A. It was on my birthday when B. It was my birthday on that 
C. It was my birthday that D. It was on my birthday that 
Question 17: This is the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do

A. by heart B. by chance C. by far D. by myself

Question 18: It is great to watch sportsmen in their national costumes into
the stadium

A. marching B. marched C. having marched D. to march 
Question 19: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as as possible

A. economizing B. economic C. uneconomically D. economically 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: ―How would you like your tea?‖

― .‖

A. Yes, please. Thanks B. With milk, please

C. Thank you very much D. It’s fantastic. Thank you 
Question 21: ―Don’t forget to drop me a line when you settle

down.‖ ―Trust me, .‖

A. I will. I’ll keep you in touch B. I won’t. I’ll keep you posted

C. I don’t. I’ll keep you in touch D. I drop you a line when I settle dow 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Setting off on an expedition without thorough preparation and with 
inadequate equipment is tempting fate

A. taking a risk B. going round in circles

C. losing heart D. having panic

Question 23: Peter didn’t mean to be disrespectful to his teacher. He just couldn’t 
control his temper.

A. showing lack of trust B. showing nervousness 
C. showing impolite behaviour D. showing lack of attention

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE 
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Nancy concurred with her boss about the new direction the company 
was taking

A. disagreed B. agreed C. surrendered D. confessed

Question 25: ―We strongly believe that he’s innocent of the crime. We do not think 
that he did it.‖

A. clean B. guilty C. faultless D. crimeless

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is 
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: He cannot practice scuba diving because he has a weak heart

A. The fact that he has a weak heart cannot stop him practicing scuba diving.
B. Scuba diving makes him suffer from having a weak heart

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Question 27: People believe that neither side wanted war 
A. Neither side is believed to have wanted war

B. Neither side is responsible for the outbreak of war
C. War is believed to be wanted by either side

D. It is believed that war broke out from both sides

Question 28: Although she is intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school 
A. In spite of intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school

B. Despite being intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school
C. Even though her intelligence, she doesn’t do well at school

D. In spite the fact that she is intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best 
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot 
A. The students next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
B. The students next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
C. The students next to me kept chewing gum, bothering me a lot.
D. The students next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot

Question 30: I write to my friends overseas regularly. I don’t want to lose touch with them 
A. It is important for me to send letters to my friends abroad to keep them up to date on
events in my life

B. I keep in touch with my friends in foreign countries by writing to them from time to
time

C. My friends try not to lose contact with me by writing very often

D. In order to not lose touch with my friends abroad, I write to them on a regular basis.



Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet 
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 
31 to 35.

Library is a collection of books and other informational materials made available to
people for reading, study, or reference. The word library comes (31)_________liber; the 
Latin word for "book". (32)_________, library collections have almost always contained a 
variety of materials. Contemporary libraries maintain collections that include not only
printed materials such as manuscripts, books, newspapers, and magazines,
(33)_________audio visual and online databases. In addition (34)_________ maintaining 
collections within library buildings, modern libraries often feature tele-communications
links that provide users with access to information at remote sites.

The central mission of a library (35)_________to collect, organize, preserve, and 
provide access to knowledge and information. In fulfilling this mission, libraries preserve a
valuable record of culture that can be passed down to succeeding generations.

From "Library (institution) " by Richard S. Halsey et al.

Question 31: A. to B. in C. from D. out

Question 32: A. Therefore B. Instead C. However D. Despite 
Question 33: A. but also B. as well C. only if D. or else

Question 34: A. in B. on C. from D. to

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 Read the following passage and mark the letter Af B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired than
flying to London from New York? The answer may be a clear case of biology not being
able to keep up with technology. Deep inside the brain there is a "clock" that governs every
aspect of the body's functioning: sleep and wake cycles, levels of alertness, performance,
mood, hormone levels, digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates all of these
functions on a 24-hour basis and is called the circadian clock (from the Latin, circa "about"
+ dies "day").

This body clock programmes us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m and again
between 3-5 p.m. Afternoon tea and siesta times are all cultural responses to our natural
biological sleepiness in the afternoon. One of the major causes of the travelers' malady
known as jet lag is the non-alignment of a person's internal body clock with clocks in the
external world. Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian clock, which then has
to adjust to the new time and patterns of light and activity. To make matters more complex,
not all internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your sleep/wake may adjust to a
new time zone at one rate, while your temperature adjusts at a different pace. Your
digestion may be on a different schedule altogether.

Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural tendency of the body clock is to extend our
day beyond 24 hours. It is contrary to our biological programming to shrink our day. That
is why travelling in a westward direction is more body-clock friendly than flying east.
NASA studies of long haul pilots showed that westward travel was associated with

significantly better sleep quantity and quality than eastward flights. When flying west, you
are "extending" your day, thus travelling in the natural direction of your internal clock.
Flying eastward will involve "shrinking" or reducing your day and is in direct opposition to
your internal clock's natural tendency.

One of the more common complaints of travelers is that their sleep becomes disrupted.

There are many reasons for this: Changing time zones and schedules, changing light and
activity levels, trying to sleep when your body clock is programmed to be awake,
disruption of the internal circadian clock and working longer hours. Sleep loss, jet lag and
fatigue can seriously affect our ability to function well. Judgment and decision-making can
be reduced by 50%, attention by 75 percent, memory by 20 percent and communication by
30 percent. It is often suggested that you adjust your watch as soon as you board a plane,
supposedly to try to help you adjust to your destination's schedule as soon as you arrive.
But it can take the body clock several days to several weeks to fully adjust to a new time
zone.

Question 36: The main function of the body clock is to________.

A. govern all the body's responses B. regulate the body's functions

C. help us sleep D. help US adapt to a 24-hour cycle

Question 37: The word "It" refers to________.

A. the programme B. the body clock C. the function D. the brain 
Question 38: Jet lag________.

A. makes our body clock operate badly B. causes our body clock to change 
C. extends the hours of our body clock D. upsets our body's rhythms 
Question 39: The word "malady" is closest in meaning to

A. illness B. bore C. thought D. feeling

Question 40: The direction you fly in________.

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Question 41: According to the article, ________

A. various factors stop US sleeping when we fly.

B. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying. 
C. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making. 
D. jet lag can affect different abilities differently.

Question 42: On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article ________ 
A. makes no suggestions.

B. says there is nothing you can do.

C. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock. 
D. suggests changing the time on your watch.



Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet 
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid
material such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures.
Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when
dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms
bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost
electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions.
The lost electrons are free to move in what are known as a sea of electrons. Since the
electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure
together.

An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are
free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy
such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing

through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The
only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is
graphite (what the 'lead' of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again
the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to
flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make
the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to
move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic
substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow.

Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because
they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow
easily. Water itself is a poor conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant
amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but
overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved
charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that
occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that
is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more
conductive.

By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie, Science for Primary School Teacher. OUP 
Question 43: Electrical conductivity is________.

A. one of the most important properties of metals 
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials

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Question 44: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to________. 
A. the absence of free electrons B. its atoms with a positive charge

C. the way its atoms bond together D. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms 
Question 45: The word "outermost‖ in paragraph 1 mostly means________.

A. the lightest B. nearest to the inside

C. furthest from the inside D. the heaviest

Question 46: The atoms of a metal can bond together because________. 
A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons

B. electrons can flow in a single direction 
C. they lose all of electrons

D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions

Question 47: Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because________. 
A. it has free electrons B. its charged ions can flow easily 
C. it cannot create any charge ions D. it charged ions are not free to move 
Question 48: The word "they‖ in paragraph 3 refers to.

A. charged ions B. electric currents

C. charged particles D. electrical insulator

Question 49: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands 
because.

A. the water itself is a good conductor of electricity

B. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive 
C. the water contains too many neutral molecules

D. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive 
Question 50: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A. Electrical Energy B. Electrical Devices

C. Electrical Insulators D. Electrical Conductivity

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ĐỀ SỐ 4

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation 
in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. hotel B. post C. local D. prominent

Question 2: A. spear B. wear C. bear D. pear

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main 
stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. disastrous B. humorous C. unanimous D. ambiguous 
Question 4: A. redundant B. descendant C. relevant D. consultant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. 
Question 5: In purchasing(A) a winter coat(B), it is very important for trying(C) it on with heavy(D) 
clothing underneath.

Question 6: Excavations in several mounds and villages on the east bank(A) of the Euphrates River have 
revealed(B) the city of Nebuchadnezzar, an ancient community that had been laying(C) under later(D)
reconstructions of the city of Babylon.

Question 7: Gettysburg has been preserve(A) as a national historic monument because(B) it was the site 
of a major Civil War battle in which many lives(C) were lost(D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following questions

Question 8: There ____ a number of reasons for the falloff the Roman Empire. 
A. are said to have been B. said to be

C. are said being D. was said being

Question 9: I suggest the room ____ before Christmas.

A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate 
Question 10: ___ wooden buildings helps to protect them from damage due to weather.

A. The paint B. Painted C. By painting D. Painting 
Question 11: Poor management brought the company to ____ of collapse.

A. the edge B. the foot C. the ring D. the brink

Question 12: The new sports complex will accommodate an Olympic-sized swimming pool and other 
____, including a fitness center and a spa, to name just a few.

A. facilities B. categories C. qualities D. supplies 
Question 13: – Would you mind helping me? - _________________.

A. No, a problem B. Sure, no problem C. No, I wouldn’t D. Yes, I would 
Question 14: – Would you rather have coffee or orange juice? - ____________.

A. I like both B. I have either

C. Either, please D. I’d rather to have coffee

Question 15: When she was ____ grade 9, she wished to have someone who would stand beside her ____ 
thick and thin.

A. of/ in B. in/ through C. at/ between D. in/ between 
Question 16: When Martin ____ the car, he took it out for a drive.

A. had repaired B. has repaired C. repaired D. was repairing 
Question 17: He was ____ enough to admit that he knew nothing about the subject.

A. honest B. kind C. kind D. smart

Question 18: She is so ____ to her children that she has decided to quit her job to stay at home and look 
after them.

A. responsible B. kind C. devoted D. persistent

Question 19: She has always shown her great self- _____ in not becoming angry. 
A. controlled B. controlled C. controlling D. controller 
Question 20: She is intelligent ____ lazy.

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Question 21: – I stayed at a hotel while in New York. 
- Oh, did you? You ____ with Barbara.

A. could have stayed B. could stay C. would stay D. must have stayed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in

meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 22: The twins look so much alike that no one can tell them apart. 
A. distinguish between them B. point out with them

C. spoil them D. pick them out

Question 23: With respect to maneuverability, few birds can equal the capabilities of the hummingbird, 
which hovers for long periods and even flies backward.

A. With regard to B. With fondness to C. In appreciation of D. In favor of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in 
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 24: The massacre of the Jews in World War II has accounted for its people’s hostility towards 
foreigners.

A. disease B. hazard C. offence D. friendliness

Question 25: I have a vague recollection of meeting him when I was a child.

A. apparent B. indistinct C. indistinct D. ill-defined

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions

Colors and Emotions

Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to

me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?

Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is
something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either
reflects your current state of being or reflects the color or emotion that you need.

The colors that you wear affect you much more than they reflect the people around you. Of course,
they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all
day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on
the color or emotion that I need for the day

Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are
meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in
motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be
healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your
emotions.

Question 26: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other. 
B. Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. 
C. Colorful clothes can change your mood.

D. Colors can help you become healthy.

Question 27: Who is more influenced by the colors you wear?

A. You are more influenced B. The people around you are more influenced

C. both A and B D. neither A nor B

Question 28: Which of the following can be affected by color? 
A. your need for thrills B. your friend’s feelings

C. your appetite D. your mood

Question 29: According to the passage, what creates disease?

A. wearing the color black B. being open to your emotions 
C. ignoring your emotions D. exposing yourself to bright colors 
Question 30: The term intimately in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.

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Question 31: The phrase saturated with in paragraph 3 is closest meaning to

A. covered with B. bored with C. in need of D. lacking in 
Question 32: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. to give an objective account of how colors affect emotions. 
B. to prove the relationship between color and emotion

C. To persuade the reader that colors can influence emotions and give a person more energy. 
D. to show that colors are important for a healthy life.

Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to 
each of the following questions.

Question 33: His irresponsible attitude is putting his career in jeopardy. 
A. His so irresponsible that he has no career.

B. His irresponsible attitude is endangering his career.

C. His career is to jeopardize irresponsible attitude 
D. Both A and C

Question 34: Never have people been so well informed as they are now, thanks to TV news programs. 
A. People have been so informative thanks to TV news programs.

B. Thanks to TV news programs, people are now too well informed.

C. People are better informed than they have been, thanks to TV news programs 
D. TV news programs are very informative than before and people are better informed.

Question 35: Had he known more about the internet, he would have invested in some computer 
companies.

A. Knowing about the internet helped him invest in some computer companies. 
B. Knowing about the internet, he would have invested in some computer companies.

C. He would have invested in some computer companies without his knowledge of the internet. 
D. He did not know much about the internet and he did not invest in any computer companies.

Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word 
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks .

Sugar tastes sweet because of thousands of receptors on the tongue which connect the substance
with the brain. The taste of sweetness is universally accepted as the most pleasurable known, although it is
a fructose. Abundant is the most common occurring sugar, (36)______ of which include fruit and honey.
Sucrose, which supplies glucose to the body, is (37)______ from the sugar cane plant, and white sugar
(pure sucrose) is used by food technologists to (38)______ sweetness in other substances. Approximately
a dozen artificial sweeteners have been discovered; one of the earliest was Sorbitol from France.

Manufacturers add large amounts of sugar to foodstuffs but never more than the (39)______
required to produce the optimum pleasurable taste. Surprisingly, this amount is similar for different people
and in different cultures. No one has (40)______ discovered a way to predict whether a substance will
taste sweet, and it was by chance alone that all the man-made chemical sweeteners were found to be
sweet.

Question 36: A. roots B. origins C. sources D. sources 
Question 37: A. drawn B. extracted C. cited D. made

Question 38: A. smell B. detect C. taste D. measure

Question 39: A. maximum B. excess C. extremity D. limit

Question 40: A. just B. yet C. still D. already

Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair 
of sentences in the following questions.

Question 41: On the one hand, I’d love to study Japanese. On the other hand, I really haven’t got the time. 
A. Nevertheless I would love to study Japanese, I really haven’t got the time.

B. I really haven’t got the time; as a result, I would love to study Japanese. 
C. Because I haven’t got the time, I would love to study Japanese.

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Question 42: I ate the soup. After that I remembered that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of it. 
A. It was not until I ate the soup did I remember that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of it. 
B. As soon as I remembered that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of soup I ate it.

C. Only after eating the soup did I remember that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of it. 
 D. Hardly had I forgotten to give my little sister some of it when I ate the soup.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
answer to each of the questions.

Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after the Earth was formed. Yet another three
billion years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life’s transition
from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life.
What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of the first
terrestrial organisms is based on megafossils-relatively large specimens of essentially whole plants and
animals. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive megafossil
record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization reflected the
evolution of modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this view, primitive vascular plants first colonized the
margins of continental waters, followed by animals that feed on the plants, and lastly by animals that
preyed on the plant-eaters. Moreover, the megafossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified
explosively near the boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400
million years ago.

Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the sediments below this
Silurian-Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by
putting the rocks in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence form sediments that were
deposited near the shores of the ancient oceans- plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small
animals. In many instances the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter. Although
they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of them fossils consist of the
organic remains of the organism.

These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously unknown organisms,
but have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multicellular organisms. Our views
about the nature of the early plant and animal communities are now being revised. And with those
revisions come new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms.

Question 43: In what order did the organisms first appear on earth? 
A. vascular plants, plant-eating animals, carnivores

B. carnivores, plant-eaters, megafossils 
C. mega fossils, prey hunters, plant-eaters 
D. seed plants, ferns, megafossils

Question 44: What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in the third paragraph? 
A. They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.

B. They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils. 
C. They are older than the mega fossils.

D. They consist of modern life-forms.

Question 45: According to the theory that the author calls ―the traditional view‖ what was the first form 
of life to appear on land?

A. Bacteria B. Meat-eating animal

C. Plant-eating animals D. Vascular plants 
Question 46: What is the following paragraph likely to discuss?

A. the existence of previously unknown organisms

B. the revision of human views on the nature of early plant and animal communities

C. comparison and contrast between the first terrestrial life forms and newly discovered fossils 
D. what the first terrestrial life forms might have been

Question 47: The word ―entombed‖ is closest in meaning to ______

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Question 48: Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils? 
A. The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised. 
B. Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.

C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained.

D. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.

Question 49: With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree? 
A. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.

B. The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved. 
C. New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last 400 million years.

D. The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about ages of 
fossils.

Question 50: According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago? 
A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out

B. New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate 
C. The megafossils were destroyed by floods. 
D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas.

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ĐỀ SỐ 5

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs 
from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. founder B. country C. mouth D. about

Question 2: A. accessed B. recorded C. developed D. searched

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to 
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 3: You won’t be penalized for venturing a guess, so be sure not to leave any questions 
unanswered.

A. punished B. discouraged C. motivated D. rewarded

Question 4: I think we cannot purchase this device this time as it costs an arm and a leg.

A. is cheap B. is confusing C. is expensive D. is painful

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three 
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 5: A. attract B. discuss C. confide D. follow

Question 6: A. chemistry B. romantic C. interpret D. attention 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: The smell of chalk always evokes memories of my school days.

A. revises B. brings C. recalls D. catches

Question 8: His second venture, a software firm, is booming and will soon be ready to take on more staff.

A. dismiss B. adopt C. prepare D. employ

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to 
each of the following questions.

Question 9: Joey put all his money on the lottery, which was his big mistake. 
A. Joey may not have put all his money on the lottery.

B. Joey can’t have put all his money on the lottery. 
C. Joey needn’t have put all his money on the lottery. 
D. Joey shouldn’t have put all his money on the lottery.

Question 10: In Venezuela, beauty contests are more popular than football. 
A. In Venezuela, football is not as popular as beauty contests.

B. In Venezuela, beauty contests are not as popular as football. 
C. In Venezuela, football is more popular than beauty contests. 
D. In Venezuela, beauty contests are as popular as football.

Question 11: ―You should have informed me of the change in advance.‖ The boss said to his secretary. 
A. The boss advised his the secretary to inform him of the change in advance.

B. The boss blamed his secretary for not informing him of the change in advance. 
C. The boss thanked his secretary for informing him of the change in advance. 
D. The boss encouraged his secretary not to inform him of the change in advance.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following question.

Question 12: Andrew is a very disciplined employee. He _____ great importance to coming to work in 
time.

A. affixes B. attaches C. admits D. attributes

Question 13: All his companies had been successful and he was known to be _____ rich.

A. excessively B. completely C. extremely D. thoroughly

Question 14: It is of great _____ to show your interest and politeness when you are having a job 
interview.

A. importance B. importantly C. unimportant D. important

Question 15: Josh would never forget _____ by his parent through no fault of his own.

A. being scolded B. to have scolded C. having scold D. to be scolded 
Question 16: ______, we couldn’t make out the gist of the passage.

A. Due to Romeo’s carefully explanations B. As Romeo carefully explained

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Question 17: I don’t mind walking long distances, because I know it _____ me good.

A. gives B. gets C. does D. plays

Question 18: If _____ access to education, children living in poverty will have a brighter future. 
A. providing B. are provided C. having provided D. provided 
Question 19: Human beings are _____ greatest threat to the survival of endangered species.

A. an B. Ø C. the D. a

Question 20: I looked the word up in the dictionary to refresh my _____ of its exact meaning.

A. thoughts B. memory C. mind D. brain

Question 21: Mike came across his old friend – Maria while he _____ along the street.

A. was walking B. would walk C. walked D. had walked

Question 22: Jane never gives her mother a hand in housework _____ she has a lot of free time.

A. although B. since C. in spite of D. because of

Question 23: Rita is not _____ of doing this work – she should change her class.

A. capable B. possible C. suitable D. habitual

Question 24: If you eat too much, you _____ the price by putting on weight.

A. were paying B. paid C. will pay D. would pay

Question 25: Nowadays, most people rely _____ the mass media as their main source of information.

A. to B. in C. on D. with

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete 
each of the following exchanges.

Question 26: Peter is having dinner at Wendy’s house.

- Peter: ―This steamed crab is so delicious!‖

- Wendy: ―_____‖

A. I’m glad you like it. B. No, don’t worry. C. Sure. I’d love to. D. I’m afraid not. 
Question 27: Joana and David, two students, are talking about studying abroad.

- Joana: ―I think studying abroad is the only way to get a well-paid job.‖
- David: ―_____. There’re still many different ways to get it.‖

A. You’re exactly right B. I don’t think so C. There’s no doubt about it D. That’s what I 
think

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction 
in each of the following questions.

Question 28: My brother and I go sometimes swimming together with our uncle’s family. 
 A B C D 
Question 29: Those famous pictures hanging on the gallery wall painted in France. 
 A B C D

Question 30: Her father used to be a distinguishable professor at the university. Many students 
worshipped him. A B C
 D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions.

Nepal has made important progress over the past few years to promote equality, but the country still has
one of the highest rates of child marriage in the world. 41% of Nepalese girls are married before the age of

18.

Poverty is both a cause and consequence of child marriage in Nepal. Girls from the wealthiest families
marry 2 years later than those from the poorest, who are seen as an economic burden, and who drop out of
school and earn little money.

Food insecurity plays an important role too. Nepalese families that do not have enough food to eat are
more likely to marry their daughters at a young age to decrease the financial burden. One study shows
that 91% of people who had secure access to food married over the age of 19.

Dowry is also common practice in many communities. Parents marry their daughters as soon as possible
because the money they have to pay to the groom’s family is higher if their daughter is older. Since 2010,
the legal age of marriage is 20 for both men and women, or 18 with parental consent, according to the
Nepalese Country Code.

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progress in Nepal over the past 3 years with a clear government commitment to ending child marriage and
civil society cooperation. The Ministry of Women, Children and Social Welfare is currently developing
Nepal’s first national strategy on child marriage in collaboration with UNICEF Nepal and Girls Not
Brides Nepal. However, the post-earthquake and post-fuel crisis environment has meant progress is slow
and the national strategy has been delayed.

(Adapted from

Question 31: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? 
A. Nepal’s strategies to child protection programming.

B. Nepal Government in an attempt to reduce social inequality. 
C. Child marriage – A completely tractable problem in Nepal. 
D. One type of child abuse in Nepal: Child Marriage.

Question 32: According to paragraph 2, in Nepal, girls from needy families ______. 
A. can get married two years later than those are from poor families

B. are forced to drop out of school because their parents have no money 
C. play an important role in bolstering their household finances

D. have to get married earlier than those are from affluent families 
Question 33: The word ―those‖ in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. families B. girls C. rates D. years

Question 34: The word ―burden‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. cargo B. potency C. issue D. load

Question 35: According to the last paragraph, how many years will a rule-breaker spend in jail?

A. about two years B. over three years C. from one to three years D. exactly three 
years

Question 36: The word ―imprisonment‖ in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ______.

A. emblem B. salvation C. detention D. custody

Question 37: According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true? 
A. Nepalese families have a tendency to marry their daughters at a young age.

B. Parents who marry their children before the allowed age normally pay a fine.

C. According to the law, if people have their parents’ permission, they are allowed to marry at 18.

D. The age of marriage in Nepal depends on the money the families have.

Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that ______.

A. Nepal had the highest overall prevalence of child marriage in the world 
B. Families want to marry their daughters soon to earn money

C. The recent earthquake was negative for the eradication of child marriage 
D. The government is not doing much to put an end to child marriage

Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Adult Learners

Adult learners have many characteristics that distinguish them from school or college learners. Firstly,
they come to courses with experiences and knowledge in diverse areas. They often prefer (39)______
learning activities that enable them to draw on the skills and experience they have acquired. In the main,
adults have realistic aims and have valuable (40) _____ into what is likely to be successful. (41) _____,
they are readily able to relate new facts to past experiences and enjoy having their talents explored in
learning situations. Adults have established opinions and beliefs, (42) _____ have been formed over time
through their experience of families, work, community, or politics.

A majority of adults also have (43) _____ motivation and their effort increases because of their desire to
learn. They are also motivated by the relevance of the material to be addressed, and learn better when
material is related to their own needs and interests.

(Adapted from “Complete Advanced” by Guy Brook-Hart and Simon Haines)

Question 39: A. practical B. practically C. practice D. practicality

Question 40: A. uptake B. ability C. insight D. grasp

Question 41: A. However B. As a result C. In contrast D. In addition

Question 42: A. that B. who C. which D. where

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair 
of sentences in the following questions.

Question 44: Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting. 
A. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting. 
B. Only after investing in the company did Hans informs us of his arrival at the meeting.

C. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company. 
D. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting. 
Question 45: Susan didn’t apply for the job in the library. She regrets it now.

A. Susan regrets applying for the job the in library. 
B. If only Susan applied for the job in the library. 
C. Susan regrets to apply for the job in the library.

D. Susan wishes she had applied for the job in the library.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions.

Table manners differ around the world. If you visit a friend’s home for a meal, it’s good to know about
the customs they follow.

If you are invited to a Moroccan's home, bring a gift of sweet pastries, nuts, figs, dates, or flowers to the
hostess. In many traditional homes, people often sit on the floor to eat a meal. Often, everyone shares food
from the same 10 plate. The plate is put in the centre of the table. Usually, everyone also drinks water
from the same glass. Only eat the food in front of you. Don’t reach across someone for food. It is common
to use your fingers and small pieces of bread to eat food. Use only your right hand to eat. Don’t say ―no‖
to food. If the host of the meal offers you food or drink, take some and try a little. In many Moroccan
homes, it is common to take off your shoes.

Tanzania is known for its fresh fish and spices. Don’t act scared if your meal comes with its head still on
the plate. It is polite to try a bite of everything. In many Tanzanian homes, people sit at a table on small
stools to eat. It is OK to eat with your right hand, using bread or chapati to pick up food. Everyone may
take food from the same plate, but it is not usual for people to share drinks. You may compliment the cook
on a delicious meal, but don’t exaggerate. In some parts of Tanzania, men and women will sit at different
tables. Also remember: It is common to take off your shoes in the home, but it is rude to show the bottom
of your foot.

(Adapted from Active Skills for Reading Intro by Neil J Anderson)
Question 46: Which best serves as the title for the passage? 
A. Table Manners across some cultures in the world

B. Tips for foreigners when having meal in Tanzania 
C. Table Manners - Ultimate Guide to Dining Etiquette 
D. Table Manners in Morocco: Things to do for everyone 
Question 47: The word ―they‖ in paragraph 1 refers to _____.

A. meals B. friends C. customs D. manners

Question 48: According to the passage, why does the writer think it is good to know about customs in 
other countries?

A. You can order food in a restaurant. B. You can know how to eat healthy. 
C. You can act in a proper way. D. You can learn the language. 
Question 49: The word ―offers‖ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. exchanges B. provides C. attends D. receives

Question 50: According to paragraph 3, which of the following should you NOT do in Tanzania?

A. take off your shoes B. eat with your hands

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ĐỀ SỐ 6

Questions 1-2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word 
whoseunderlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following 
questions.

Question 1: A. kites B. hopes C. balls D. kicks

Question 2: A. purpose B. compose C. suppose D. propose

Questions 3-4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs 
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. onfide B. gather C. divide D. maintain

Question 4: A. compulsory B. certificate C. category D. accompany 
Questions 5-7: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part 
that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: Upon (A) reaching the destination, a number of personnel (B) is expected (C) to change their

reservations and (D) proceed to Hawaii.

Question 6: (A) However type of raw materials (B) is used in making (C) paper, the process is 
(D)essentially the same.

Question 7: There (A) were (B) too many books (C) on the shelves that I didn’t know which one (D) to 
choose.

Questions 8 -19: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to 
each of the following questions.

Question 8: Hoa asked Nam ______________________________.

A. where he had gone the night before B. where had he gone the night before 
C. where he went the night before D. where he went last night

Question 9: You’ll probably come _________the problems of culture shocks when you study abroad.

A. up with B. up to C. down with D. up against

Question 10: ________, we tried our best to complete it.

A. Difficult as the homework was B. As though the homework was difficult 
C. Thanks to the difficult homework D. Despite the homework was difficult

Question 11: Mr. Putin won a fourth term as Russia's president, picking up more than three quarters of the 
vote with _________ of more than 67 percent.

A. an outcome B. a turnup C. a turnout D. an output

Question 12: For Arabic speakers, more than two consonants together can be difficult to _______, so they 
often insert a short vowel between them.

A. announce B. denounce C. pronounce D. renounce

Question 13: I’m not going to go ice skating! I’d only fall over and __________ a fool of myself.

A. create B. show C. do D. make

Question 14: We like ________ policies.

A. American recent economic B. recent American economic

C. recent economic American D. economic recent American

Question 15: I __________the garden. No sooner had I finished watering it than it came down in torrents.

A. shouldn’t have watered B. mustn’t have watered

C. can’t have watered D. needn’t have watered

Question 16: If Nam had passed the GCSE examination, he __________to take the entrance examination 
to the university.

A. would have been allowed B. would have allowed C. will have allowed D. would allow 
Question 17: She ______ me a very charming compliment on my painting.

A. made B. showed C. took D. paid

Question 18: Let’s go to the library, ___________?

A. shall we B. will we C. would we D. should we

Question 19: If I _______that there was a test yesterday, I would not be punished now.

A. would know B. have known C. had known D. knew

Questions 20-21: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable 
response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Mary: ―The food is great. I'll get the bill.‖ - Peter: ―_______‖

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Question 21: Peter: ―Could you fill it up, please?‖ - Ivan: ―_______‖

A. Sure. Shall I check the oil as well? B. Not at all. I’ll fill the oil for you. 
C. Certainly. My job is to fill in the application. D. Where? Of course not.

Questions 22-23: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) 
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followings.

Question 22: People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation.

A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood

Question 23: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.

A. nearly B. essentially C. comparatively D. approximately

Questions 24-25: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) 
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followings.

Question 24: Most of the guests at the dinner party chose to dress elegantly, but one man wore jeans and 
a

T-shirt; he was later identified as a high school teacher.

A. unsophisticatedly B. decently C. gaudily D. gracefully

Question 25: That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about.

A. behaving cleverly B. good behavior C. behaving nice D. behaving improperly 
Questions 26-28: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is 
closest in meaning to each of the followings.

Question 26: This is the first time we have been to the circus.

A. We have been to the circus some times before. B. We had been to the circus once before. 
C. We have ever been to the circus often before. D. We have never been to the circus before. 
Question 27: She didn’t stop her car because she didn’t see the signal.

A. If she saw the signal, she would have stopped her car. 
B. If she had seen the signal, she would have stopped her car. 
C. If she saw the signal, she would stop her car.

D. If she had seen the signal, she would stop her car.

Question 28: I find myself at a loss to understand Harold’s behavior. 
A. I lost contact with Harold, so I couldn’t understand his behavior. 
B. I have to lose a lot to understand Harold’s behavior.

C. I understood Harold’s behavior completely. 
D. I find Harold's behavior quite incomprehensible.

Questions 29-30: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that 
best combines each pair of sentences in the followings.

Question 29: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her. 
A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.

B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.

C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project. 
D. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t continue with the project.

Question 30: Hemingway developed a very concise writing style. His name is well- known 
throughout the world.

A. Hemingway, whose name is well- known throughout the world, developed a very concise writing style. 
B. Hemingway, whose is name well- known throughout the world, developed a very concise writing style. 
C. Hemingway, his name is well- known throughout the world, developed a very concise writing style. 
D. Hemingway, who developed a very concise writing style, his name is well- known throughout the 
world.

Questions 31-35: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet 
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. 
To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (31)
_______ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone 
you have known all your life or someone you have grown (32) _______ with.

There are all sorts of things that can (33) _______ about this special relationship. It may be the result of

enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have

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To the (35) _______ of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understands us better than anyone
else. It's the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets.

Question 31: A. give B. have C. share D. spend

Question 32: A. up B. in C. through D. on

Question 33: A. bring B. cause C. provide D. result

Question 34: A. However B. Yet C. In addition D. Therefore

Question 35: A. ajorially B. majority C. majorial D. major

Questions 36-42: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet 
to indicate the correct answer to each of the s from 36 to 42.

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom
and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its
construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen acre structure near the Nile river
is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and
the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the
pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The
ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid
were based on astronomical observations.

Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further
scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many
of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are

prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have 
supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial
beings of ancient past. Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior
to any known today?

Question 36: In the second passage, the word ―prophesied‖ is closest in meaning to _______.

A. foretold B. terminated C. precipitated D. affiliated

Question 37: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?

A. Advanced tools of measurement B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface 
C. Advanced technology D. Observation of the celestial bodies 
Question 38: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passageways? 
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.

B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.

C. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh. 
D. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.

Question 39: The word ―feat‖ in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to _______.

A. accomplishment B. festivity C. appendage D. structure

Question 40: What is the best title for the passage? 
A. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid 
B. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops

C. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid 
D. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza

Question 41: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world? 
A. It was built by a super race.

B. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies. 
C. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.

D. It was very old.

Question 42: What has research of the base revealed?

A. There are cracks in the foundation B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body 
C. A superior race of people built in D. The lines represent important events

Question 43-50: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet 
to indicate the correct answer to each of the s from 43to 50.

INTERNET JOBS

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expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of Webmaster.
However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and
responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a Webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a Webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software the
website the Webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require
different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or
externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also
depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to
help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job

description.

Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer applications.
However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content
jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a ―new media’.The term ―new media‖
is difficult to define because it compasses a constantly growing set of new technologies and skills.

Specifically, it includes websites, email, internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video,
interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration, video games, virtual
reality, and computer artistry.

Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many
companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance
workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers
from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to such online
jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own country.

How much can a person make in these kinds of careers? As with many s related to today’s evolving
technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with Internet
skills salaries well over $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 per year, but salaries
can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known to make between $40,000 to $70,000
a year.

Question 43: Which of the followings is true about the job of the freelance writers? 
A. They may work with others in the company.

B. It is considered a ―content‖ job. 
C. They manage hardware and software.

D. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.

Question 44: The word ―vary‖ in paragraph 6 can be best replaced by _______.

A. decrease B. change C. differ D. increase

Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that _______. 
A. only skilled workers make good money

B. online workers can work full-time online 
C. it is easy to become a webmaster

D. workers with limited computer skills can not work online

Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters? 
A. They never work independently.

B. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for. 
C. They require a minimal level of expertise.

D. They do not support software products.

Question 47: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To inform people about the tasks and the roles of a webmaster. 
B. To inform people about employment related to the Internet. 
C. To inform people about the computer industry.

D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.

Question 48: According to the passage, all of the followings are TRUE except _______.

A. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.

B. Online workers can not free themselves from the office. 
C. ―New media‖ is not easy to define.

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Question 49: Which of the followings is not mentioned as part of the ―new media‖?

A. Internet technology B. writing skills C. websites D. video games. 
Question 50: The word ―identify‖ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. name B. discover C. encounter D. estimate

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ĐỀ SỐ 7

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the 
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 01: A. defended B. composed C. completed D. supported
Question 02: A. pressure B. pleasure C. leisure D. measure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in 
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 03: A. enrol B. rural C. allow D. prefer
Question 04: A. enterprise B. commitment C. inflation D. collection
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each 
of the following questions.

Question 05 : It was in 1989_______ the Berlin Wall collapsed.

A. which B. that C. when D. what

Question 06: He can’t speak German ____________ he has a university degree in German.
A. because B. despite C. in spite of D. even though
Question 07: _______ it with my own eyes, I would never have believed it.

A. Had I not seen B. Unless I had not seen
C. If I had seen D. Provided I had seen

Question 08: Marie Curie was the first and only woman_______ two Nobel prizes.
A. that win B. to be won C. who win D. to win
Question 09: Our company wants to take on those who are …... for the job.

A. useful B. qualified C. available D. skilled

Question 10: I_______ an old friend of mine in the street this morning.We haven’t seen each other for
ages. A. ran into B. ran out C. came over D. came round

Question 11: Students who need extra money can find …... part time job.

A. a B. an C. the Ø D. no article
Question 12: I remember_______ him a message yesterday.

A. sent B. sending C. sends D. to send
Question 13: The man said that he_______ her the day before.

A. met B. have met C. will meet D. had met
Question 14: You need a …... diet to lead a healthy lifestyle.

A. well-mannered B. well-preserved C. well-balanced D. well-informed
Question 15: What are the_______ between women in old time and women in modern time?

A. differs B. different C. difference D. differences
Question 16: _______ you study for these exams_______ you will do.

A. The harder/ the better B. The more / the much

C. The hardest / the best D. The more hard / the more good

Question 17: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very…...
A. kind - hearted B. narrow- minded C. open - minded D. absent - minded

Question 18: The government has …... measures to promote the development of the economy.
A. achieved B. made C. carried D. taken

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the 
italic word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were 
shortlisted for the interview.

A. class B. hand C. small number D. small amount
Question 20: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to 
the italic word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding which 
goods she was going to buy.

A. excessive B. limited C. required D. abundant
Question 22. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.

A. failed to pay B. was paid much money
C. had a bad personality D. paid in full

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete 
each of the following exchanges.

Question 23: Mai and Daisy are at the school yard.

Mai: "I'm really excited for Aunt Mary's surprise birthday party this afternoon! Aren't you?
Daisy: ―...‖

A. Oh! I didn't know she was older. B. Really? What happened next?
C. Uh-huh! What then? D. Yeah! How old is she?

Question 24: Lan and Nam are talking about the exam test of their school.
-Lan: ―The exam test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this term!‖
- Nam: ―…….. but I think it’s quite easy.‖

A. I couldn’t agree more B. You’re absolutely right

C. I don’t see in that way. D. I understand what you’re saying

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or 
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Water is necessary for life. People can live only a few days (25)______ it. Yet nearly 25 million
people die each year because of it. Both industrial nations and developing countries are worried about the
(26)______ and quantity of water in the world.

Even though people, animals, agriculture, and industry use a lot of water, there is more than enough
on the earth. Water covers about three-quarters of the Earth’s surface. However, 97.4 percent of it is salt
water. Three-fourths of the Earth’s fresh water is frozen in glaciers and in the great polar ice caps. Most
of the water we use (27)______ from rivers, lakes, and the atmosphere. Less than one percent of the
Earth’s water is usable, and we use it over and over again.

One of the (28)______ about water is distribution. Water is not always distributed where the large
(29)______ centers are. Some regions get enough rain. But it is all in one or two short rainy seasons.
Question 25: A. with B. without C. for D. in

Question 26: A. characteristics B. conditions C. situation D. quality
Question 27: A. comes B. arrives C. goes D. gets
Question 28: A. cases B. things C. problems D. facts
Question 29: A. people B. men C. women D. population

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to 
each of the questions from 30 to 34.

At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately in
need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were very few public schools
because of the strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be laborers should not ―waste‖ their
time on education but should instead prepare themselves for their life’s work. It was in the face of this
public sentiment that educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous
of the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As
Superintendent of Education in the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes,
which were soon matched in other school districts around the country. He extended the school year from
five to six months and improved the quality of teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher
salaries. Although these changes did not bring about a sudden improvement in the educational system,
they at least increased public awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system.

Question 30: The best title for the passage could be ______.
A. A Flight for Change

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D. The Beginnings of Reform in American Education

Question 31: The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed ______.
A. a high level of intelligence B. a strong educational background
C. a lot of money D. good grades

Question 32: The word ―desperately‖ in the passage mostly means ______.

A. partly B. urgently C. completely D. obviously

Question 33: According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans
because…………...

A. education at the time was so cheap

B. people had nothing else to do except go to school

C. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with their spare time
D. all citizens should be educated in a republic

Question 34: The word ―they‖ in the passage refers to…………..

A. teachers B. salaries C. changes D. districts

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

In the history of technology, computers and calculators were innovative developments. They are 
essentially different from all other machines because they have a memory. This memory stores
instructions and information. In a calculator, the instructions are the various functions of arithmetic, which
are permanently remembered by the machine and cannot be altered or added to. The information consists
of the numbers keyed in.

An electronic pocket calculator can perform almost instant arithmetic. A calculator requires an input unit
to feed in numbers, a processing unit to make the calculation, a memory unit, and an output unit to display
the result. The calculator is powered by a small battery or by a panel of solar cells. Inside is a microchip
that contains the memory and processing units and also controls the input unit, which is the keyboard, and
the output unit, which is the display.

The input unit has keys for numbers and operations. Beneath the keys is a printed circuit board
containing a set of contacts for each key. Pressing a key closes the contacts and sends a signal along a pair
of lines in the circuit board to the processing unit, in which the binary code for that key is stored in the
memory. The processing unit also sends the code to the display. Each key is connected by a different pair
of lines to the processing unit, which repeatedly checks the lines to find out when a pair is linked by a key.
The memory unit stores the arithmetic instructions for the processing unit and holds the temporary
results that occur during calculation. Storage cells in the memory unit hold the binary codes for the keys
that have been pressed. The number codes, together with the operation code for the plus key, are held in
temporary cells until the processing unit requires them.

When the equals key is pressed, it sends a signal to the processing unit. This takes the operation code - 
for example, addition - and the two numbers being held in the memory unit and performs the operation on
the two numbers. A full adder does the addition, and the result goes to the decoder in the calculator’s
microchip. This code is then sent to the liquid crystal display unit, which shows the result, or output, of the
calculation.

Question 35: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To discuss innovative developments in technology

B. To compare computers and calculators with other machines
C. To summarize the history of technology

D. To explain how a calculator works

Question 36: What can be inferred about machines that are not calculators or computers?

A. They cannot store information in a memory. B. They are less expensive than computers.
C. They have simple memory and processing units. D. They are older than computers.

Question 37: The word "innovative" in paragraph 1 could best replaced by_______.
A. recent B. important C. revolutionary D. complicated
Question 38: In what part of the calculator are the processing and memory units?

A. The battery B. The solar cells C. The output unit D. The microchip
Question 39: According to the passage, one function of the memory unit is_______.

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C. to send codes to the display unit D. to alter basic arithmetic instructions
Question 40: The word "This" in paragraph 5 refers to_______.

A. the plus key B. the processing unit C. the memory unit D. the equals key
Question 41: The word "contacts" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______.

A. commands B. codes C. locations D. connections

Question 42: Which of the following could NOT be said about calculators?
A. Pressing a key activates a calculator.

B. The calculator’s "thinking" takes place in the processing and memory units.

C. Calculators require a lot of instructions to operate quickly.

D. Calculators and computers are similar.

Mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in 
each of the following questions.

Question 43: The lady who had invited us heard me telling my wife the dinner terrible, so I was
embarrassed.

A B C D
Question 44: After writing it, the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed into the
department

A B C
secretary before the end of the month.

Question 45: They are known that colds can be avoided by eating the right kind of food and taking

exercise regularly. A B C
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to 
each of the following questions.

Question 46: If the Test of Written English had been required by my university, I would have taken it

along with the TOEFL.

A. I took the Test of Written English with the TOEFL although my university didn’t require it.
B. I took both Test of Written English and the TOEFL because my university required them.
C. I did not take the Test of Written English with the TOEFL because my university did not
require it.

D. I took the Test of Written English but not the TOEFL when it was required at my university.
Question 47: The students did not take to their new lecturer.

A. The new lecturer was unpopular with his students.
B. The students didn’t follow the new lecturer.
C. The new lecturer didn’t care his students.

D. The students didn’t understand what the new lecturer said.
Question 48: "No, it’s not true. I didn’t steal the car!" Peter said.

A. Peter did not intend to steal the car. B. Peter denied stealing the car.
C. Peter refused to steal the car. D. Peter admitted stealing the car.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each 
pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying .
A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.

B. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
C. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
D. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand.

Question 50: They're my two sisters. They aren't teachers like me.
A. They're my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
B. They're my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me.
C. Like me, neither of my two sisters aren't teachers.

D. They're my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.

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ĐỀ SỐ 8

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part 
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. processed B. infested C. balanced D. reached

Question 2. A. create B. creature C. easy D. increase

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other 
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. ritual B. diverse C. affect D. belief

Question 4. A. influence B. typical C. dependent D. character

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following questions.

Question 5. At first, she was trained to be ___________ scripwriter, but later she worked as ___________ 
secretary.

A. the/ a B. a/ a C. the/ the D. a/ the

Question 6. If I ___________ in London now, I could visit British Museum.

A. were B. had been C. have been D. would be

Question 7. I ___________ here since I arrived in the country ten years ago.

A. had been living B. am living C. live D. have been

living

Question 8. We have to start early ___________ we’ll be late for school.

A. so that B. although C. or else D. consequently

Question 9. To be ___________ good terms with someone is to have a good relationship with someone.

A. on B. in C. with D. about

Question 10. Instead of ___________ about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent.

A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited 
Question 11. ___________ the desalination plant, the company could offer an effective solution to the 
problem of water scarity.

A. To build B. Having built C. Being built D. Having been built 
Question 12. My mother encouraged me ___________ for recycling.

A. collect B. to collect C. collecting D. collected 
Question 13. Teachers and councilors work with ___________ students to find out specific need.

A. disable B. disabled C. disability D. disabilities

Question 14. As a parent, one of the most important goals is to ___________ children who will become 
independent and self-reliant in the future.

A. raise B. bring C. grow D. take

Question 15. The villagers had to work hard in fields all day and could hardly ___________ ends meet. 
 A. do B. know C. make D. fly

Question 16. When a couple can ___________ chores in a way that spouses feel satisfied with the 
outcome, they are showing mutual respect for one another.

A. cut B. run C. take D. divide

Question 17. One of the ways we ___________ our teenager’s needs as parent is by giving them 
attention.

A. watch B. solve C. share D. meet

Question 18. Her ___________ to medicine was so great that she had little time for anything else. 
 A. importance B. dedication C. emphasis D. reputation 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.

A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 20. The student apologized to his teacher for submitting the essay late.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.

Question 21. We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their desks by eight 
o'clock and take good care of their own business.

A. manage an inflexible system B. have a good voyage

C. run faster than others D. organize things inefficiently 
Question 22. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.

A. uncomfortable B. warm C. lazy D. dirty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to 
complete the following exchanges.

Question 23. "How about an evening riverboat tour?" – ―___________.‖

A. No, it’s good to do so. Β. Actually I’ve never gone on an evening riverboat tour. 
 C. No, I’ve never gone an evening riverboat tour. D. Actually I’ve gone twice this week. 
Question 24. - 'I think the teacher should give us more exercise.’ - ―___________.‖

A. Yes, let’s B. OK

C. That’s rubbish D. That's just what I was thinking

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

WORKING MOTHERS

Reliable studies have shown that the children of working mothers have no more problems than
children whose mothers stay at home. My personal view is that mothers should work if they wish.

Some women have invested so much in a career that they cannot (25) ___________ to give it 
up. Others have to work because of economic necessity, and there are also those who are simply not
(26) ___________ out to be full-time parents.

There appear to be several options when it comes to choosing childcare. These range from child minders through to
granny or the kind lady across the street. (27) ___________, however, many parents don't have any choice; they
have to accept anything they can get.

No (28) ___________ how good the available childcare may be, some children protest if their
parents are not around. This is a perfectly normal stage in a child’s development. Babies over the age
of six months become dependent on mum and close family members, so make sure that you allow (29)
___________ time to help your child settle in.

And don’t forget; if you want to do the best for your children, it's not the quantity of time you spend
with them, it’s the quality that matters.

Question 25. A. bear B. decide C. hope D. expect

Question 26. A. made B. cut C. brought D. born

Question 27. A. In addition B. In practice C. In order D. In contrast

Question 28. A. way B. matter C. surprise D. exception

Question 29. A. little B. no C. lots D. plenty of

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Stonehenge

Big rocks are very heavy, so we need a lot of people to move them. This is why Stonehange in England is
such an amazing creation.

The stones in Stonehenge are much heavier than buses. We do not know why people moved the heavy
stones to stonehenge. We do not even know what stonehenge was used for. Some scientists believe that
Stonehange was used for watching the stars in the sky. This is because the stone seem to follow the pattern
of the stars at night.

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Question 30. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Big rocks and the stars B. The mysteries of Stonehenge

C. The pattern of the stars in Stonehenge D. How Stonehenge was built 
Question 31. According to the author, what did people think of Stonehenge after they found human 
bones?

A. They thought Stonehenge might be for scientists to work.
 B. They thought Stonehenge might be a place to watch stars. 
 C. They thought Stonehenge might be just a circle.

D. They thought Stonehenge might be a place for burrying dead people.

Question 32. According to the passage, which of the following is true about Stonehenge? 
A. The stones in Stonehenge are greater than buses in length.

B. The stones in Stonehenge are greater than buses in height.
 C. The stones in Stonehenge are greater than buses in size. 
 D. The stones in Stonehenge are greater than buses in weight. 
Question 33. The word ―This‖ in paragraph 2 refers to ___________. 
 A. the sky

B. Stonehenge

C. the belief that Stonehenge was used for watching the stars.
D. the pattern of the stars at night.

Question 34. It can be inferred from the passage that ___________ 
 A. scientists have found out why Stonehenge was built.

B. stonehenge is an interesting tourist attraction.
C. the information about Stonehenge is inaccurate.
D. Stonehenge was a multi-purposed creation.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Millons of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually conidered unusual not to
use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find the phones are
more than a means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The exposion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried.
Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of
mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are
worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are
bad for your health.

On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use
mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning
equipment. In one case, a travelling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss.
He couldn’t remember even simple tasks. He would often foget the name of his own son. This man used to
talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years.
His family doctor balmed his mobile phone use, but his employer’s doctor didn’t agree.

What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech
machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone cmpanies agree
that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.

As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s best to use mobile phones less
often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you
really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future,
mobile phones may have a waming label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it’s wise not to
use your mobile phone too often.

Question 35. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because 
___________

A. they make them look more stylish.
B. they keep the users alert all the time.

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Question 36. Doctors have have tentatively concluded that cell phones may ___________. 
A. cause some mental malfunction B. change their user’s temperament. 
C. change their users’ social behaviors. D. damage their users’ emotions. 
Question 37. ―Negative publicity‖ in the passage most likely means ___________.

A. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones.

B. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.

C. the negative public use of cell phones. 
 D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.

Question 38. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ___________. 
 A. the smallest units of the brain. B. the mobility of the mind and the body. 
 C. the resident memory. D. the arteires of the brain.

Question 39. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ___________. 
 A. had a problem with memory. B. abandoned his family.

C. suffered serious loss of mental ability. D. could no longer think lucidly. 
Question 40. The word ―potentially‖ in the passage most closely means ___________.

A. certainly B. obviously C. privately D. possibly

Question 41. According to the writer, people should _______.

A. keep off mobile phones regularly. B. never use mbile phones in all cases. 
C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies. D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases. 
Question 42. The most suitable title for the passage could be _______.

A. Technological Innovations anf Their Price. B. The Way Mobile Phones Work. 
 C. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular. D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs 
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Although the quantity was small, we had supplies enough to finish (D) the experiment.

A. Although B. was C. supplies enough D. to finish

Question 44. The food that is cooking in the kitchen is smelling delicious.

A. The food B. is cooking C. is smelling D. delicious

Question 45. We must be quick. There is a little time left.

A. must be B. is C. a little time D. left

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning 
to each of the following sentences.

Question 46. The captain to his men: 'Abandon the ship immediately!" 
 A. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately. 
 B. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately. 
 C. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately. 
 D. The captain requested his men to abandon the ship immediately 
Question 47. He can hardly understand this matter because he's too young. 
 A. This matter is too hard for him to understand.

B. He's young, but he can understand this matter. 
 C. The matter was difficult but he can understand it.

D. Hardly can he understand this matter because he's too young. 
Question 48. You needn't have taken so many warm clothes there. 
 A. It's not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there. 
 Β. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don't need. 
 C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there. 
 D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each 
pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The better the weather is, ___________.

A. the beaches get the more crowded B. the beaches get the most crowded 
 C. the most crowded the beache get D. the more crowded the beaches get 
Question 50. It's a pity that you didn't tell us about this.

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ĐỀ SỐ 9

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs 
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. enough B. loud C. about D. amount

Question 2: A. endangered B. established C. swallowed D. damaged
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the 
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. habitat B. different C. industry D. introduce
Question 4: A. disappearance B. vulnerable C. conservation D. generation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following questions.

Question 5: 15,589 species (7,266 animal species and 8,323 plant species) are now considered ____ risk
___extinction.

A. at / of B. on / in C. for / with D. in / at

Question 6: John failed again. He _______ harder.

A. must have tried B. should have tried C. can tried D. may have tried
Question 7: Chemical wastes from factories are _______ that cause serious damage to species habitats.

A. pollutes B. pollutants C. pollutions D. polluters

Question 8: _______ is the existence of a wide variety of plant and animal species living in their natural
environment. .

A. Biodiversity B. Conservation C. Globe D. Individual
Question 9: I am not deaf. You _______ shout.

A. must B. mustn't C. need D. needn’t

Question 10: When I arrived, he brought me a biscuit and ____ some tea.

A. has made B. making C. made D. makes

Question 11: ____ student in the class got good marks on the test.

A. Every B. All C. Most D. Some

Question 12: He was the first person __________ the room

A. entering B. to enter C. to be enter D. having entered
Question 13: When the Titanic started sinking, the passengers were ______.

A. horrifying B. apprehensive C. panic-stricken D. weather-beaten

Question 14: I’m afraid I’m not really___ to comment on this matter.

A. qualitative B. quality C. qualified D. qualifying
Question 15: Through an ______, your letter was left unanswered.

A. overcharge B. overtime C. oversight D. overtone
Question 16 : Dr. Evans has_______ a valuable contribution to the life of the school.

A. made B. created C. done D. caused

Question 17 : Students are often advised to look at the first and last_______ of a book before attempting 
to read it in details. A. titles B. headings C. chapters

D. paragraphs

Question 18: I cannot bear the noise of my brother’s radio; it________ me from my work.

A. distracts B. perturbs C. interrupts D. disturbs

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the 
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: The changes in a person’s physical and emotional state caused by drinking alcohol are 
known as intoxication.

A. drunkenness B. poison C. sleepiness D. excitement
Question 20: The drought was finally over as the fall brought in some welcome rain.

A. heatware B. harvest C. summer D. aridity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in 
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 21: His policies were beneficial to the economy as a whole.

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Question 22: Adverse weather conditions made it difficult to play the game.

A. favorable B. bad C. comfortable D. severe

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete 
each of the following exchanges.

Question 23: Today John is visiting Anne’s house. Now he is in Anne’s house.

~ Anne: "Make yourself at home." ~ John: "____________ "
A. Not at all. Don’t mention it B. Thanks! The same to you!
C. That’s very kind of you. Thank you. D. Yes, can I help you?
Question 24: George and Frankie are talking about their hobbies.

George: ―In my opinion, action films are exciting‖. Frankie: ―_______________‖ 
A. What are opinion! B. There’s no doubt about it.
C. Yes, you can do it. D. Your opinion is exactly.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of 
communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech.
When there is a language (25) ………, communication is accomplished through sign language in
which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to (26)

……… to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and
exact and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot.

Body language (27) ……… ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or 
unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signfies
approval, while shaking the head (28) ……… a negative reaction.

Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with 
the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide,
warm, and instruct people.

(29) ……… verbalization is most common form of language, other systems and techniques
also express human thoughts and feelings.

Question 25: A. barrier B. obstacles C. divisions D. separation

Question 26: A. refer B. rotate C. resort D. revolve

Question 27: A. progresses B. transmits C. remits D. emits
Question 28: A. predicates B. abdicates C. indicates D. implicates

Question 29: A. While B. As C. Because D. Until

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions.

Rainforests are found in the tropical areas north and south of the equator. Rainforests can also be found 
throughout Africa, Asia, Australia and Central America. Especially, the largest rainforest in the world is 
the Amazon rainforest in South America. In fact, the Amazon rainforest has long been recognized as a 
repository of ecological services not only for local tribes and communities, but also for the rest of the

world. It is also the only rainforest that we have left in terms of size and diversity.

The Amazon rainforest is thought to be important in controlling local and regional climates. The millions 
and millions of trees in the rainforest absorb tremendous amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere 
and produce much of the oxygen humans and animals depend upon for survival. The Amazon Rainforest 
is called the "lungs of our planet" because it produces twenty percent of the world's oxygen.

Furthermore, rainforests help maintain the water cycle by producing large amounts of rainfall every 
year, and one fifth of the world's fresh water is also found in the Amazon Rainforest. In addition, it also 
is an important home to various species of plants and wildlife on the planet and eighty percent of the 
food we eat first grew in the rainforest. Finally, rainforests could cure us because twenty-five percent of 
the drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only in rainforests.

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simply to talk about the problem. We must act now before it is too late to do anything about it. Join us
now. Save the Earth. This is too important to ignore.

Question 30: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Where rainforests are found B. Which is the largest rainforest in the world 
C. Facts about rainforests. D. How many animals live in rainforests. 
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 about rainforests?

A. Oxygen B. Drugs used to fight and cure diseases 
C. Fresh water D. Consequences of rainforest destruction 
Question 32: Why is the Amazon Rainforest called ―Lungs of the planet‖?

A. It provides much of our air. B. It uses much of the world’s oxygen. 
C. It helps us breathe. D. It helps circulation.

Question 33: The word ―absorb‖ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. destroy B. reduce C. take up D. come over

Question 34: What is the most likely reason why the author is astonished that we are destroying 
rainforests?

A. It will be too difficult to grow food without them. B. They are necessary for the fight against 
cancer.

C. It will be too expensive to replant them. D. They are necessary for the health of our 
planet.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions.

Putting Cars on Autopilot

Automobile accidents are one of the leading causes of death each year. Accidents can occur due to
drunk driving, mechanical problems, carelessness, or a whole assortment of other reasons. In the near
future, these problems could be solved by eliminating the person behind the wheel. Driverless cars may
soon be turning all vehicle owners into "backseat drivers".

Driverless cars are vehicles that use several technologies to operate without human input. Through
GPS, they can find a location on a map and plan the best route to get there. They may also use radar to
detect other vehicles and avoid them when necessary. One company involved with developing driverless
cars is Google. It is developing software called Google Chauffer which powers the vehicles. The

technology isn’t cheap though, as Google robotic cars contain about $150,000 worth of equipment. In
2012, Google began testing the cars on the road with a highly-skilled driver in the driver's seat, and a
Google engineer in the

passenger seat. In case there are any malfunctions, the human driver can step on the brakes or turn the
wheel to take control of the automobile. Other car manufacturers are also working on implementing
automated options into their cars. For example, the 2014 Mercedes-S class offers advanced cruise control
using radar, lane warnings, and even detects, and warns drivers when they appear tired.

Many Americans seem open to the idea, as three states have already passed laws that make it legal
for driverless cars to be on the road. Still there will be some stumbling blocks to overcome before the
roads are controlled by digital decision- makers. Firstly, companies will need to provide proof that
driverless cars were tested a lot and are truly safe. Automobile manufacturers will also have to find a way
to

bring down costs, as few people would be able to afford the equipment required. Driverless cars could also
potentially become targets for computer hackers. If a hacker were somehow able to override the software
system, they could cause accidents or malfunctions. There are also economic issues to consider. If
driverless cars became successful, millions of truck, bus, and taxi drivers would likely lose their jobs.
Despite these issues, all indications suggest that it should be just a matter of time before humans are no
longer needed behind the wheel.

Question 35: Which of the following is the advantage of driverless cars over ordinary ones?

A. no malfunctions B. no drunk driving C. absolute safety D. no computer hacking
Question 36: What do driverless cars use radar for?

A. To see if other things are close to them B. To go slightly faster than the speed limit

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Question 37: What is Google Chauffer?

A. It's a nickname for the person who drives a Google car.
B. The person who sits in the passenger seat of a Google car

C. The first driverless car that was manufactured by Google.
D. A computer programme that tells driverless cars what to do.

Question 38: Why does the author suggest that Americans are OK with the concept of driverless cars?
A. Most Americans don't like to drive very much anyway.

B. Americans always accept robotic inventions.

C. Some local governments have said it's OK to use them.

D. In polls, Americans always say that they prefer driverless cars.

Question 39: What is one reason why some people are hesitant to accept driverless cars?
A. They feel that the quality of the cars will be too low.

B. They are worried that many drivers might lose their jobs.

C. They feel that this will force them to take the train to work every day.
D. The car owner will have nothing to do behind the wheel.

Question 40: According to the passage, all of the following are true about driverless cars EXCEPT thai
A. There is a trend for car companies to develop the automated qualities for their products.

B. Driverless cars may depend on some other devices on the road.
C. Google completed the technology for driverless cars in 2012.
D. There is a concern about the malfunctions due to several reasons.

Question 41: The word "them" in the second paragraph refers to ____________
A. drivers B. obstacles C. robots D. routes

Question 42: The word "malfunction" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _
A. a hardware upgrade B. an extra feature

C. a secret password D. a failure to work properly

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs correcting in 
each of the following sentences .

Question 43: Every member of the class were invited to the party by the form teacher.
A B C D

Question 44: The Oxford English Dictionary is well- known for including many different meanings of
A B C
words and to give real examples.

Question 45: Historically, it was the 3rd Asian games in Japan that tennis, volleyball, table tennis and

A B C
hockey were added.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meannig to 
each of the following questions.

Question 46: Harry no longer smokes a lot.

A.Harry now smokes a lot. B. Harry used to smoke a lot

C. Harry didn’t use to smoke a lot. D. Harry rarely smoked a lot.
Question 47: ―Remember to bring your book,‖ he said

A. He said I remembered to bring my book. B. He warned me against bringing my book.
C. He reminded me to bring my book. D. He asked me if I remembered to bring my book.
Question 48 No matter what your requirement is, John answers it admirably.

A. Whatever your requirement, John meets it admirably.

B. John meets all your needs in life. C. John gives admirable answer to all your needs.
D. John meets none of your requirements admirably.

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Question 49: Sue is very slow. She can’t understand what you might say.
A. Sue is not enough quick to understand what you might say.
B. Sue is so slow to understand what you might say.

C. So slow is Sue that she can’t understand what you might say.
D. What you migt say, Sue can understand slowly.

Question 50: Peter told us about his leaving the school. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after his leaving the school did Peter inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Peter told us that he would leave the school did he arrive at the meeting.
C. Hardly had Peter inform us about his leaving the school when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Peter arrivel at the meeting than he told us about his leaving the school

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ĐỀ SỐ 10

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part 
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. fixed B. turned C. looked D. helped

Question 2: A. healthy B. breath C. beneath D. breathe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other 
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. nervous B. award C. relax D. police

Question 4: A. degree B. obtain C. worship D. career

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following questions.

Question 5: John is________ only child in his family so his parents love him a lot.

A. the B. an C. Ø D. a

Question 6: If you study harder every day , you ...the examination.

A. passing B. pass C. passed D. will pass

Question 7. I first met her four years ago when we ___ at a middle school.

A. had been studying B. are studying C. have been studying D. were studying
Question 8.―Have you really got no money ________ you’ve had a part-time job this term?‖

A. since B. although C. in spite of D. because of
Question 9. Mai Huong congratulated me ……….the exam with flying colors.

A. about passing B. on passing C. of passing D. to pass
Question 10.On _______ he had won, he jumped for joy.

A. having B. he was told C. being told D. telling

Question 11: ________ in the US in 1977, this festival is celebrated with feasts and songs in the home
for seven days and nights.

A. Africa introduced B. Africa introducing

C. Introducing from Africa D. Introduced from Africa
Question 12. You should know ……….. a thick good book quickly.

A. to read B. reading C.how to read D. the way for reading

Question 13. The Vietnamese Women’s Football team ……….. defended the SEA Games Champion
title.

A. success B. successful C. successfully D. succeed
Question 14. Lan is said ……….. a special prize.

A. that won B. to have won C. to winning D. that she won
Question 15. What would happen if our environment were ………?

A. destroys B. destruction C. destroy D.destroy
Question 16. My sister is very fond ……….. eating chocolate candy.

A. with B. at C. of D. about
Question 17. They spoke ……… for us to understand.

A. slow enough B. so slowly C. too slow D.slow enough
Question 18. She………..traveling abroad for half the year after she had children.

A. refused B. decided C. gave up D. wanted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to 
the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 19. You must apply yourself to your work more.

A. improve B. carried out C. did quickly D. concentrate on

Question20. John is the black sheep in our family. He almost ended up in jail a few times when we were
younger.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to 
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. Indian men agree that it is unwise to confide in their wives.

A. believe in B. reveal news to C. hide feelings D. keep secrets
from

Question 22. Whistling or clapping hands to get a person’s attention is considered discourteous.

A. politely B. polite C. rude D. embarrassing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to 
complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. Maria comes into class with a new hair style. Belinda gives her a compliment:
- Belinda: ―Your look great with the new hair style, Maria!‖ - Maria: ―_______‖

A. No, it's not good. B. Oh, that's right.

C. Thanks. It’s nice of you to say so. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 24. Laura and David are talking about the benefits of swimming.

- Laura: ―I think swimming helps us exercise all our muscles.‖ - David: ― __________.‖
A. You can do it. Thanks anyway B. There is no doubt about it

C. Not at all. You can make it D. Yes, swimming does, too

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to29.

The warming ot the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, factories and power
(25)_________. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it form a kind of screen that keeps or
allows the sunshine in but stop the Earth heat (26)_________ getting out. It works like a greenhouse,
that’s why we call (27)_________ the Green House effect.

Because ot this effect, the Earth is getting warmer alt the time. This (28)_________ in temperature
will cause big changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (29)_________ the
poles will melt.

Question 25: A. companies B. factories C. sites D. station

Question 26: A. from B. up C. against D. away

Question 27: A. is B. be C.it D. them

Question 28: A. raise B. rise C. drop D. fall

Question 29: A. covering B. covers C. covered D. cover

Read the following passage carefully and choose from the four given options (marked A, B, C or D) one 
best solution finish each of the questions that follow.

Along with jogging and swimming, cycling is one of the best all-round forms of exercise. It can
help to increase your strength and energy, giving you more efficient muscles and stronger heart. But
increasing your strength is not the only advantage of cycling. Because you’re not carrying the weight of
your body on your feet, it’s a good form of exercise for people with painful feet or backs. However, with
all forms of exercise it’s important to start slowly and build up gently. Doing too much too quickly can
damage muscles that aren’t used to working. If you have any doubts about taking up cycling for health
reasons, talk to your doctor and ask his/her advice.

Ideally you should be cycling at least two or three times a week. For the exercise to be doing you
good, you should get a little out of breath. Don’t worry that if you begin to lose your breath, it could be
dangerous and there must be something wrong with your heart. This is simply not true; shortness of breath
shows that the exercise is having the right effect. However, if you find you are in pain then you should
stop and take a rest, at least two or three times a week.

Question 30. According to the writer, it is best to go cycling___.

A. once a week B. at least two or three times a month

C. at least two or three times a week D. every day

Question 31. You should not worry about the shortness of breath because___.
A. it shows that there is something wrong with your heart

B. it is a sign of exercise having the right effect
C. it shows that you should stop and take a rest

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Question 32. People with back problems might go cycling because___.

A. it helps them to relieve their backache B. it helps to make their backs become stronger
C. it enables them to carry the weight of their body on their feet

D. it does not make them carry the weight of their body on their feet

Question 33. Which of the following is NOT included in the advantages of cycling?
A. Increasing you strength and energy B. Making you look younger
C. Giving you better muscles D. Giving you a stronger heart

Question 34. All forms of exercise must be started___.

A. gradually B. quickly C. violently D. strenuously

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer for each of the questions from 7 to 16

Canadian English is a regional variety of North American English that spans almost the entire
continent. Canadian English became a separate variety of North American English after the American
Revolution, when thousands of Loyalists, people who had supported the British, left the United States and
fled north to Canada. Many Loyalists settled in southern Ontario in the 1780s, and their speech became the
basis for what is called General Canadian, a definition based on the norms of urban middle-class speech.
Modern Canadian English is usually defined by the ways in which it resembles and differs from American
or British English. Canadian English has a great deal in common with the English spoken in the United
States, yet many Americans identify a Canadian accent as British. Many American visitors to Canada

think the Canadian vocabulary sounds British – for example, they notice the British ―tap‖ and ―braces‖
instead of the American ―faucet‖ and ―suspenders‖. On the other hand, many British people identify a
Canadian accent as American, and British visitors think the Canadians have become Americanized, saying
―gas‖ and ―truck‖ for ―petrol‖ and ―lorry‖.

People who live outside North America often find it difficult to hear the differences between
Canadian and American English. There are many similarities between the two varieties, yet they are far 
from identical. Canadian English is instantly recognizable to other Canadians, and one Canadian in a
crowded room will easily spot the other Canadian among the North Americans.

There is no distinctive Canadian grammar. The differences are mainly in pronunciation,
vocabulary, and idioms. Canadian pronunciation reflects the experience of a people struggling for national
identity against two strong influences. About 75 per cent of Canadians use the English ―zed‖ rather than
the American ―zee‖ for the name of the last letter of the alphabet. On the other hand, 75 per cent of
Canadians use the American pronunciation of ―schedule‖, ―tomato‖, and ―missile‖. The most obvious and
distinctive feature of Canadian speech is probably its vowel sound, the diphthong ―/ou/‖. In Canada, ―out‖
is pronounced like ―oat‖ in nearby U.S. accents. There are other identifying features of Canadian vowels:
for example, ―cot‖ is pronounced the same as ―caught‖ and ―collar‖ the same as ―caller‖.

An important characteristic of the vocabulary of Canadian English is the use of many words and phrases
originating in Canada itself, such as ―kerosene‖ and ―chesterfield‖ (―sofa‖). Several words are borrowed
from North American Indian languages, for example, ―kayak‖, ―caribou‖, ―parka‖, and ―skookum‖
(―strong‖). The name of the country itself has an Indian origin; the Iroquois word ―kanata‖ originally
meant ―village‖. A number of terms for ice hockey – ―face-off‖, ―blue-line‖, and ―puck‖ – have become
part of World Standard English.

Some features of Canadian English seem to be unique and are often deliberately identified with
Canadian speakers in such contexts as dramatic and literary characterizations. Among the original
Canadian idioms, perhaps the most famous is the almost universal use of ―eh?‖ as a tag question, as in
―That’s a good movie, eh?‖ ―Eh‖ is also used as a filler during a narrative, as in ―I’m walking home from

work, eh, and I’m thinking about dinner. I finally get home, eh, and the refrigerator is empty.‖

The traditional view holds that there are no dialects in Canadian English and that Canadians cannot
tell where other Canadians are from just by listening to them. The linguists of today disagree with this
view. While there is a greater degree of homogeneity in Canadian English compared with American
English, several dialect areas do exist across Canada. Linguists have identified distinct dialects for the
Maritime Provinces, Newfoundland, the Ottawa Valley, southern Ontario, the Prairie Provinces, the Arctic
North, and the West.

Question 35: According to the passage, how did Canadian English become a distinct variety of North
American English?

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B. Growth of the middle class led to a standard school curriculum.
C. A large group of Loyalists settled in one region at the same time.
D. Linguists noticed that Canadians spoke a unique dialect.

Question 36: The word ―norms‖ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ―_____‖.

A. words B. history C. ideas D. patterns

Question 37: The phrase ―a great deal in common with‖ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ―_____‖.
A. the same problems as B. easier pronunciation than

C. many similarities to D. different words for

Question 38: In paragraph 2, what point does the author make about Canadian English?
A. American and British visitors define Canadian English by their own norms. 
B. Canadians speak English with an accent that Americans cannot understand.
C. Canadian English is more similar to American than to British English.
D. Canadian English has many words that are not in other varieties of English.

Question 39: The phrase ―the two varieties‖ in paragraph 3 refers to _____.

A. Canadian English and American English B. general Canadian and North American
C. British English and Canadian English D. people who live outside North American
Question 40: The word ―spot‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. prefer B. find C. describe D. ignore

Question 41: Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in
paragraph 4?

A. Canadian English has been strongly influenced by both British and American English.

B. Canadians have tried to distinguished themselves as a nation, and this effort is shown in their 
pronunciation.

C. Canada is the only nation where people can deliberately choose which pronunciation they prefer.
D. Many newcomers to Canada must work hard to master the national style of pronouncing English.
Question 42: All of the following words originated in North American Indian languages EXCEPT _____.

A. parka B. kerosene C. Canada D. kayak

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs 
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. I believe that only very self-confident, knowledge and attentive students will prefer 100% of

eye contact time. A B C
D

Question 44. The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A B C D

Question 45. Ancient people used pots for cooking, storing food, and carry things from place to place.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to 
each of the following questions.

Question 46: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.
A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship

B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb
C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb
D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb
Question 47: Nick always forgets his wife’s birthday.

A. At no time Nick remembers his wife's birthday.
B. Nick never remembers his wife’s birthday.
C. Nick sometimes remembers his wife's birthday.
D. Nick remembers his wife’s birthday all the time.
Question 48: If you practise harder, you will have better results.

A. The harder you practise, the best results vou will have.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair 
of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Linda lives in a house. The house is opposite my house.
A. Linda lives in a house where is opposite my house.

B. Linda lives in a house which is opposite my house.
C. Linda lives in a house who is opposite my house.
D. Linda lives in a house and which is opposite my house.

Question 50: We had prepared everything carefully for the party. Few guests came.
A. In spite of having prepared everything for the party carefully, few guests came.
B. despite our careful preparation for the party, few guests came.

C. Although everything for party prepared carefully, few guests came.

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ĐỀ SỐ 1

Đáp án

1-A 2-C 3-B 4-A 5-C 6-A 7-B 8-A 9-C 10-D

11-D 12-A 13-B 14-D 15-C 16-B 17-A 18-C 19-D 20-B
21-C 22-A 23-B 24-D 25-A 26-A 27-D 28-C 29-B 30-C
31-C 32-D 33-C 34-C 35-B 36-C 37-C 38-D 39-B 40-D
41-C 42-B 43-A 44-D 45-A 46-C 47-C 48-B 49-C 50-D

ĐỀ SỐ 2

Đáp án

1- D 2- B 3- B 4- D 5- B 6- A 7- D 8- D 9- A 10- B

11- B 12- C 13- C 14- B 15- D 16- B 17- B 18- B 19- C 20- D
21- A 22- B 23- A 24- B 25- D 26- A 27- C 28- A 29- B 30- C

31-A 32-A 33-C 34-C 35-B 36-A 37-C 38-D 39-A 40-B

41-A 42-B 43-D 44-C 45-D 46-C 47-C 48-D 49-A 50-B

ĐỀ SỐ 3

Đáp án

1-B 2-D 3-C 4-B 5-C 6-D 7-B 8-B 9-B 10-C

11-C 12-C 13-C 14-C 15-A 16-D 17-C 18-A 19-D 20-B

21-A 22-A 23-C 24-A 25-B 26-C 27-A 28-B 29-B 30-B

31-C 32-A 33-D 34-D 35-C 36-B 37-B 38-D 39-A 40-C

41-D 42-A 43-A 44-C 45-C 46-D 47-D 48-B 49-B 50-D

ĐỀ SỐ 4

Đáp án

1-D 2-A 3-B 4-C 5-C 6-C 7-A 8-A 9-A 10-D

11-D 12-A 13-B 14-C 15-B 16-A 17-A 18-C 19-B 20-C

21-A 22-A 23-A 24-D 25-A 26-A 27-A 28-D 29-C 30-C

31-A 32-C 33-B 34-C 35-D 36-C 37-B 38-D 39-A 40-B

41-A 42-C 43-A 44-C 45-D 46-D 47-B 48-A 49-A 50-B

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1 B 31 D

2 B 32 D

3 D 33 B

4 A 34 D

5 D 35 C

6 A 36 C

7 C 37 B

8 D 38 C

9 D 39 A

10 A 40 C

11 B 41 D

12 B 42 C

13 C 43 D

14 A 44 C

15 A 45 D

16 D 46 A

17 C 47 B

18 D 48 C

19 C 49 B

20 B 50 C

21 A

22 A

23 A

24 C

25 C

26 A

27 B

28 B

29 D

30 B

ĐỀ SỐ 6

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Question 1: A. kites B. hopes C. balls D. kicks

Question 2: A. purpose B. compose C. suppose D. propose

Question 3: A. onfide B. gather C. divide D. maintain

Question 4: A. compulsory B. certificate C. category D. accompany

Questions 5-7: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part 
that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: Upon (A) reaching the destination, a number of personnel (B) is expected (C) to change their
reservations and (D) proceed to Hawaii.

Question 6: (A) However type of raw materials (B) is used in making (C) paper, the process is

(D)essentially the same.

Question 7: There (A) were (B) too many books (C) on the shelves that I didn’t know which one (D) to
choose.

Questions 8 -19: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to

each of the following questions.

Question 8: Hoa asked Nam ______________________________.

A. where he had gone the night before B. where had he gone the night before

C. where he went the night before D. where he went last night

Question 9: You’ll probably come _________the problems of culture shocks when you study abroad.
A. up with B. up to C. down with D. up against

Question 10: ________, we tried our best to complete it.

A. Difficult as the homework was B. As though the homework was difficult

C. Thanks to the difficult homework D. Despite the homework was difficult

Question 11: Mr. Putin won a fourth term as Russia's president, picking up more than three quarters of the
vote with _________ of more than 67 percent.

A. an outcome B. a turnup C. a turnout D. an output

Question 12: For Arabic speakers, more than two consonants together can be difficult to _______, so they
often insert a short vowel between them.

A. announce B. denounce C. pronounce D. renounce

Question 13: I’m not going to go ice skating! I’d only fall over and __________ a fool of myself.
A. create B. show C. do D. make

Question 14: We like ________ policies.

A. American recent economic B. recent American economic

C. recent economic American D. economic recent American

Question 15: I __________the garden. No sooner had I finished watering it than it came down in torrents.

A. shouldn’t have watered B. mustn’t have watered
 C. can’t have watered D. needn’t have watered

Question 16: If Nam had passed the GCSE examination, he __________to take the entrance examination
to the university.

A. would have been allowed B. would have allowed

C. will have allowed D. would allow

Question 17: She ______ me a very charming compliment on my painting.

A. made B. showed C. took D. paid

Question 18: Let’s go to the library, ___________?

A. shall we B. will we C. would we D. should we

Question 19: If I _______that there was a test yesterday, I would not be punished now.

A. would know B. have known C. had known D. knew

Questions 20-21: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable 
response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Mary: ―The food is great. I'll get the bill.‖ - Peter: ―_______‖

A. Yes, speak to you soon. B. No, this is on me. C. It's nothing.

D. Don't mention it.

Question 21: Peter: ―Could you fill it up, please?‖ - Ivan: ―_______‖

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C. Certainly. My job is to fill in the application. D. Where? Of course not.

Questions 22-23: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) 
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followings.

Question 22: People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation.

A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood

Question 23: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.

A. nearly B. essentially C. comparatively D. approximately

Questions 24-25: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) 
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followings.

Question 24: Most of the guests at the dinner party chose to dress elegantly, but one man wore jeans and
a

T-shirt; he was later identified as a high school teacher.

A. unsophisticatedly B. decently C. gaudily D. gracefully

Question 25: That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about.

A. behaving cleverly B. good behavior C. behaving nice D. behaving
improperly

Questions 26-28: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is 
closest in meaning to each of the followings.

Question 26: This is the first time we have been to the circus.

A. We have been to the circus some times before. B. We had been to the circus once before.

C. We have ever been to the circus often before. D. We have never been to the circus before.

Question 27: She didn’t stop her car because she didn’t see the signal. 
A. If she saw the signal, she would have stopped her car.

B. If she had seen the signal, she would have stopped her car.

C. If she saw the signal, she would stop her car.

D. If she had seen the signal, she would stop her car.

Question 28: I find myself at a loss to understand Harold’s behavior. 
A. I lost contact with Harold, so I couldn’t understand his behavior.
B. I have to lose a lot to understand Harold’s behavior.

C. I understood Harold’s behavior completely.

D. I find Harold's behavior quite incomprehensible.

Questions 29-30: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that 
best combines each pair of sentences in the followings.

Question 29: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her. 
A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.

B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.

C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project.

D. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t continue with the project.

Question 30: Hemingway developed a very concise writing style. His name is well- known 
throughout the world.

A. Hemingway, whose name is well- known throughout the world, developed a very concise writing style.

B. Hemingway, whose is name well- known throughout the world, developed a very concise writing style.

C. Hemingway, his name is well- known throughout the world, developed a very concise writing style.

D. Hemingway, who developed a very concise writing style, his name is well- known throughout the
world.

Questions 31-35: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet

to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (31)

_______ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone
you have known all your life or someone you have grown (32) _______ with.

There are all sorts of things that can (33) _______ about this special relationship. It may be the result of
enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have

immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for ages. (34) _______, it really takes you years to
get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend.

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else. It's the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets.

Question 31: A. give B. have C. share D. spend

Question 32: A. up B. in C. through D. on

Question 33: A. bring B. cause C. provide D. result

Question 34: A. However B. Yet C. In addition D. Therefore

Question 35: A. ajorially B. majority C. majorial D. major

Questions 36-42: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet 
to indicate the correct answer to each of the s from 36 to 42.

construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen acre structure near the Nile river
is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and
the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the
pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The
ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid
were based on astronomical observations.

Question 36: In the second passage, the word ―prophesied‖ is closest in meaning to _______.

A. foretold B. terminated C. precipitated D. affiliated

Question 37: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?

A. Advanced tools of measurement B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface
C. Advanced technology D. Observation of the celestial bodies

Question 38: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passageways?

A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.

B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.

C. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh.

D. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
Question 39: The word ―feat‖ in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to _______.

A. accomplishment B. festivity C. appendage D. structure

Question 40: What is the best title for the passage?

A. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid

B. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops

C. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid

D. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza

Question 41: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?

A. It was built by a super race.

B. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.

C. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.

D. It was very old.

Question 42: What has research of the base revealed?

A. There are cracks in the foundation B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body

C. A superior race of people built in D. The lines represent important events

Question 43-50: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet 
to indicate the correct answer to each of the s from 43to 50.

INTERNET JOBS

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However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and
responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a Webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a Webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software the
website the Webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require
different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or
externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also
depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to
help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job

description.

Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many

companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance
workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers
from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to such online
jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own country.

Question 43: Which of the followings is true about the job of the freelance writers?

A. They may work with others in the company.

B. It is considered a ―content‖ job.

C. They manage hardware and software.

D. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.

Question 44: The word ―vary‖ in paragraph 6 can be best replaced by _______.

A. decrease B. change C. differ D. increase

Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that _______.

A. only skilled workers make good money

B. online workers can work full-time online

C. it is easy to become a webmaster

D. workers with limited computer skills can not work online

Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?

A. They never work independently.

B. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.

C. They require a minimal level of expertise.

D. They do not support software products.

Question 47: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To inform people about the tasks and the roles of a webmaster.

B. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.

C. To inform people about the computer industry.

D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.

Question 48: According to the passage, all of the followings are TRUE except _______.

A. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.

B. Online workers can not free themselves from the office.

C. ―New media‖ is not easy to define.

D. There are online jobs available for workers with minimal computer skills.

Question 49: Which of the followings is not mentioned as part of the ―new media‖?

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Question 50: The word ―identify‖ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. name B. discover C. encounter D. estimate

………

ĐỀ SỐ 7

Question 05 : It was in 1989_______ the Berlin Wall collapsed.

A. which B. that C. when D. what

A. Had I not seen B. Unless I had not seen
C. If I had seen D. Provided I had seen

A. useful B. qualified C. available D. skilled

Question 10: I_______ an old friend of mine in the street this morning.We haven’t seen each other for
ages. A. ran into B. ran out C. came over D. came round

Question 11: Students who need extra money can find …... part time job.

A. a B. an C. the Ø D. no article

Question 12: I remember_______ him a message yesterday.

A. sent B. sending C. sends D. to send
Question 13: The man said that he_______ her the day before.

A. met B. have met C. will meet D. had met
Question 14: You need a …... diet to lead a healthy lifestyle.

A. well-mannered B. well-preserved C. well-balanced D. well-informed
Question 15: What are the_______ between women in old time and women in modern time?
A. differs B. different C. difference D. differences
Question 16: _______ you study for these exams_______ you will do.

A. The harder/ the better B. The more / the much

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Question 17: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very…...
A. kind - hearted B. narrow- minded C. open - minded D. absent - minded

Question 18: The government has …... measures to promote the development of the economy.
A. achieved B. made C. carried D. taken

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the 
italic word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were 
shortlisted for the interview.

A. class B. hand C. small number D. small amount
Question 20: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.

A. hopeless B. hopeful C. unsuccessful D. successful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to 
the italic word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding which 
goods she was going to buy.

A. excessive B. limited C. required D. abundant
Question 22. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.

A. failed to pay B. was paid much money
C. had a bad personality D. paid in full

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete 
each of the following exchanges.

Question 23: Mai and Daisy are at the school yard.

Mai: "I'm really excited for Aunt Mary's surprise birthday party this afternoon! Aren't you?
Daisy: ―...‖

A. Oh! I didn't know she was older. B. Really? What happened next?
C. Uh-huh! What then? D. Yeah! How old is she?

Question 24: Lan and Nam are talking about the exam test of their school.
-Lan: ―The exam test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this term!‖
- Nam: ―…….. but I think it’s quite easy.‖

A. I couldn’t agree more B. You’re absolutely right

C. I don’t see in that way. D. I understand what you’re saying

(26)______ and quantity of water in the world.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to 
each of the questions from 30 to 34.

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time on education but should instead prepare themselves for their life’s work. It was in the face of this
public sentiment that educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous
of the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As
Superintendent of Education in the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes,
which were soon matched in other school districts around the country. He extended the school year from
five to six months and improved the quality of teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher
salaries. Although these changes did not bring about a sudden improvement in the educational system,
they at least increased public awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system.

Question 30: The best title for the passage could be ______.

A. A Flight for Change

B. American Education in the Beginning of the 19th Century
C. Nineteenth - the Century of Reform

D. The Beginnings of Reform in American Education

Question 31: The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed ______.
A. a high level of intelligence B. a strong educational background

C. a lot of money D. good grades

Question 32: The word ―desperately‖ in the passage mostly means ______.

A. partly B. urgently C. completely D. obviously

Question 33: According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans
because…………...

A. education at the time was so cheap

B. people had nothing else to do except go to school

C. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with their spare time
D. all citizens should be educated in a republic

Question 34: The word ―they‖ in the passage refers to…………..

A. teachers B. salaries C. changes D. districts

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

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B. To compare computers and calculators with other machines
C. To summarize the history of technology

D. To explain how a calculator works

Question 36: What can be inferred about machines that are not calculators or computers?

A. They cannot store information in a memory. B. They are less expensive than computers.

C. They have simple memory and processing units. D. They are older than computers.
Question 37: The word "innovative" in paragraph 1 could best replaced by_______.

A. recent B. important C. revolutionary D. complicated
Question 38: In what part of the calculator are the processing and memory units?

A. The battery B. The solar cells C. The output unit D. The microchip
Question 39: According to the passage, one function of the memory unit is_______.

A. to control the keyboard B. to store temporary results during calculation
C. to send codes to the display unit D. to alter basic arithmetic instructions

Question 40: The word "This" in paragraph 5 refers to_______.

A. the plus key B. the processing unit C. the memory unit D. the equals key
Question 41: The word "contacts" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______.

A. commands B. codes C. locations D. connections

Question 42: Which of the following could NOT be said about calculators?

A. Pressing a key activates a calculator.

B. The calculator’s "thinking" takes place in the processing and memory units.
C. Calculators require a lot of instructions to operate quickly.

D. Calculators and computers are similar.

Mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in 
each of the following questions.

Question 43: The lady who had invited us heard me telling my wife the dinner terrible, so I was
embarrassed.

A B C D
Question 44: After writing it, the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed into the
department

A B C
secretary before the end of the month.

Question 45: They are known that colds can be avoided by eating the right kind of food and taking

exercise regularly. A B C
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to

each of the following questions.

Question 46: If the Test of Written English had been required by my university, I would have taken it
along with the TOEFL.

D. I took the Test of Written English but not the TOEFL when it was required at my university.
Question 47: The students did not take to their new lecturer.

A. The new lecturer was unpopular with his students.
B. The students didn’t follow the new lecturer.
C. The new lecturer didn’t care his students.

D. The students didn’t understand what the new lecturer said.
Question 48: "No, it’s not true. I didn’t steal the car!" Peter said.

A. Peter did not intend to steal the car. B. Peter denied stealing the car.
C. Peter refused to steal the car. D. Peter admitted stealing the car.

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Question 49: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying .
A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.

D. They're my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.

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Đề kiểm tra tiếng anh10: test 01 ( duration: 15 minutes) I. Choose the one (A, B, C or D) ppt