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BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MƠN TIẾNG ANH 10


NĂM 2021 CĨ ĐÁP ÁN TRƯỜNG THPT ĐẠI VIỆT


1. Đề số 1



A. LISTENING (15 points)


Hướng dẫn phần thi Nghe hiểu: Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần.
Mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có
trong bài nghe.


Part 1: Listen to a conversation between an optometrist and a patient and fill in the form.
Write no more than 3 words or numbers for each blank.


PATIENT RECORD


Time of appointment (1)...


Given name Simon Anthony


Family name (2)...


Date of birth (3)..., 1989


Address (4)..., Adam Terrace, Wellington


Name of insurance company (5)...


Date of last eye test September 2006


Patient's observations Problems: seeing the distance



Part 2: You are going to hear a travel agent discussing the holiday booking with 2


customers. Listen to their conversation and decide whether the statements are True (T),
False (F) or Not given (NG).


Statements T F NG


6. They want to book a holiday for July


7. They have decided where to go for the holiday.


8. Both customers are free to travel in the first week.


9. Last year, both of them visited France


10. They would like to go to the mountains for skiing this year


11. They don't want to go to Italy because the dates don't suit them.


12. They don't like to go to Sweden because there are no beaches


13. It would be 385 pounds for them to visit Portugal.


14. The customers prefer to visit Portugal by flight from London.


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B. PHONETICS (5 points). Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the
others.


16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed



18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable


19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
C. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS


I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15
points).


21. Hoa: "Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?"
Mary: "_________"


A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I'd like one. Thank you.


C. That's impossible. I can't afford a new one. D. Neither. I'm going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: "What a lovely house you have!"


Mr John: "_________"


A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it's not costly D. I think so.


23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you B. haven't you C. did you D. had you


24. You can't tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality


25. "How is it going?" - "________"



A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn't grumble


26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is


27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test


C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test


28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act
responsibly.


A. whose B. whom C. which D. when


29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view


30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for


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A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done


32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been


33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices



C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating


34. They're staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being


35. "I have an idea. Let's go for a swim on Sunday afternoon". - "________"
A. OK, what time? B. You're kidding C. I know D. I'm sure


II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. We found it ____________ (THRILL) to your wonderful news.
37. He left the room without any ____________ (EXPLAIN).


38. He didn't feel happy because he worked ____________ (SUCCESS).
39. Many people expressed ____________ (DISAGREE) with the whole idea.


40. There was a ____________ (WIDE) dissatisfaction with the government's policies.
41. Her health has ____________ (BAD) considerably since we last saw her.


42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart
diseases and other ____________ (SICK).


43. He was ____________ (INFORMATION) of the consequences in advance.


44. I was kept ____________ (WAKE) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (SURFACE).


ĐÁP ÁN


A. LISTENING: (15 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
Part 1:



1. 10 am 2. Lee 3. June 1st 4. University Hall 5. Health for Life
Part 2:


6. T 7. F 8. F 9. T 10. NG 11. T 12. NG 13. T 14. F 15. NG
B. PHONETICS: (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B


C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.


I. Choose the word, phrases or expression which best completes each sentence. (15
points) (1 point for each correct answer)


21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. A 28.B
29. D 30. A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. A


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36. THRILLING 37. EXPLANATION


38. UNSUCCESSFULLY 39. DISAGREEMENTS
40. WIDESPREAD 41. WORSENED


42. SICKNESSES 43. INFORMED
44. AWAKE 45. RESURFACING


III. Choose the underlined word or phrases in each sentence that needs correcting. (5
points) (1 point for each correct answer)


46. A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. C
D. READING



I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don't need all of
them. (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)


51. G 52. D 53. E 54. F 55. A


II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
(10 points) (1 point for each correct answer)


56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D


III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer. (10 points) (1 point for each correct
answer)


66. D 67. A 68. B 69. B 70. C
71. A 72. C 73. B 74. B 75. C
E. WRITING


I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)


76. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.


Or (Since we didn't have anything else to do, we decided to go for a walk.)
77. As well as being bad-tempered, she's very lazy.


78. She flatly refused to apply for that kind of job.


79. This school isn't as/so good as the one (that/which) I studied at last year.


Or (This school isn't as/so good as the one at which/ where I studied last year.)
80. You'll miss the bus if you don't leave now.


Or (You'll miss the bus unless you leave now.)


II. Use the words or phrases suggested to write full sentences to make a letter. (10
points)


Dear Sir or Madam.


81. I am writing to complain about the/a hair drier (0.5) (which/that I) bought in your shop last
Saturday (0.5) and the treatment (which/that) I received (0.5) when trying/I tried to return it a
few days later. (0.5)


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83. The first time I tried to use it, (0.5) the handle became extremely hot (0.5) and within a few
minutes part of the plastic casing began to melt. (0.5)


84. I turned it off immediately (0.5) and returned it with the receipt to your shop on Saturday.
(0.5)


85. I explained the situation to one of the/ your assistants (0.5) and asked for my/the money
back (0.5) but I was told (that I had) to speak to you. (0.5)


86. Unfortunately, you were not available that day, (0.5) so I am writing instead. (0.5)
87. I enclose the hair drier (0.5) and a/the copy of the original receipt. (0.5)


88. Please send me a full refund (0.5) as soon as possible (0.5)
Yours faithfully.


III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic. (10p)


Gợi ý phần cho điểm chi tiết như sau:


1. Form: (paragraph) (1 point) (Đoạn văn khơng xuống dịng - Đủ số từ)
2. Content: (4 points )


Good topic sentence (0.5 p) and appropriate supporting ideas (3.5 points)
3. Language: (5 pts)


+ Appropriate vocabulary (1.5p)
+ Suitable connectors (0.5)
+ Correct grammar (2.5 p)
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5p)

2. Đề số 2



B. PHONETICS (5 points)


Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.


16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
C. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS


I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15
points).


21. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “_________”



A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!”


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A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.


23. You have never been to Italy, ________?


A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.


A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “________”


A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn’t grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.


A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.


A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test


28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act
responsibly.


A. whose B. whom C. which D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.


A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.


A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.


A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been


33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices


C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).


36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news.


37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain).


38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked ____________ (success).


39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea.


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41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her.



42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart


diseases and other ____________ (sick).


43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance.


44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.


45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface).


III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5
points).


46. Last week unless my mother had had enough money, she would have bought that toy for
me.


A B C D
47. It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.
A B C D


48. Those people say that it is such polluted air that they can’t breath, don’t they?
A B C D
49. It is noisy enough in this room, so I would rather you stop shouting like that.
A B C D


50. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president of the university, is intelligent, capable
and awareness of the problem to be solved.


A B C
D



D. READING


I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all of
them. (5 points).


A. terrible B. size C. hope


D. wrong E. loose F. problem G.
want


Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people (51)________ to be fashionable, but they don’t
want to look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or school, perhaps
because they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the


(52)_________ size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit
overweight. Very (53)________ clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the
washing machine, then you have the same (54)________! If you buy light cotton clothes, then
they might not be warm enough for winter. If your shoes are not tight, and if you aren’t dressed
for the cold, you might look good, but feel (55)________!


II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
(10 points)


Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As


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provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including
their libraries. (59) ________, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed
federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (60)______ of new library


technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.


Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school
districts (61) _______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public
school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (62) ______
capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often
have fully staffed libraries (63) _______ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular
and instructional support. In (64) ______, school districts in many poor areas house their
libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally
staffed by volunteers, who organize and (65) ______ books that are often out-of-date,
irrelevant, or damaged.


56. A. freshly
57. A. though
58. A. that


59. A. Nevertheless
60. A. fine


61. A. go


62. A. educational
63. A. for


64. A. country
65. A. attain


B. recently
B. with
B. who


B. Therefore
B. fee
B. come
B. economical
B. with
B. converse
B. obtain
C. frequently
C. during
C. which
C. Consequently
C. cost
C. rely
C. political
C. on
C. contrast
C. contain
D. newly
D. when
D. this
D. Otherwise
D. sum
D. stay
D. financial
D. by
D. conflict
D. maintain
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D(10 points).


Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season.



Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh
meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in
1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of
canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing
and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the
1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however,
inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from
tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily
diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers
to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship


perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s,


northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes,
previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased
use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice


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Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods
that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford


meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits,


vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
66. What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. Causes of food spoilage C. Population movements in the nineteenth century
B. Commercial production of ice D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet



67. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to


A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
68. During the 1860’s, canned food products were


A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.
69. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use


A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920


70. The word” them” in line 13 refers to


A. refrigerator cars B. growers C. perishables D. distances.


71. The word” fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to


A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device
72.The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice


A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule


73. The word “ Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to


A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because
74. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage
75. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?



A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.


C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners


E. Writing


I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentences printed before. (5 points)


76. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.


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- As well ...
78. “ Nothing will persuade me to apply for that kind of job.” She said.


_ She flatly...
79. The school I studied at last year was better than this one.


- This school isn’t...
80. You must leave now, or you’ll miss the bus.


- You’ll miss...
II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences of a letter. (10
points)


Dear Sir or Madam.


81. I/ write/ complain/ hair drier/ buy/ your shop/ last Saturday/ and/ treatment/ I receive/ when/ I


try/ return/ a few days later.


82.I buy/ hair drier/ Wednesday, November 22nd<sub>. </sub>


83. first time/ try/ use/ handle become/ extremely hot/ and within a few minutes/ part/ plastic
casing/ begin/ melt.


84. I turn/ off/ immediately/ return/ with/ receipt/ your shop/ Saturday.


85. I explain/ situation/ one/ assistants/ ask/ money back/ but / be told/ speak/ you.
86. Unfortunately you/ not available/ that day/ I/ write instead.


87. I enclose/ hair drier/ copy of/ original receipt.
88. Please send/ full fund/ soon/ possible.
Yours faithfully,


III. Write a paragraph of about 250 words on the following topic: (10 points)
Critical thinking makes one be more reasonable and creative.


---THE END---

3. Đề số 3



I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.


1. A. food B. good C. tooth D. tool


2. A. classical B.composer C. answer D. serious


3. A. increase B. widespread C. death D. residential



4. A. realize B. teacher C. reason D. feature


5. A. treated B. asked C. sacred D. suggested


II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR


1. Hurry up! They've only got _______seats left.
A. a little B. a few C. a lot of D. plenty of


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3. I'd rather you _______anyone what I said.
A. don't tell B. won't tell C. didn't tell D. not to tell


4. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when ______ next.
A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet


5. Tom is having someone _______ the newspaper to her.
A. bring B. to bring C. bringing D. who brings


6. They were just _______ us about Anna's new boyfriend.
A. talking B. saying C. speaking D. telling


7. You've got to try to keep _______ as you grow older.
A. act B. active C. action D. actor


8. He was offered the job ...his qualifications were poor
A. although B. in spite of C. because of D. because


9. It's no use ... a language if you don't try tospeak it
A. learned B. to learn C. learn D. learning



10. He ... me to take a lawyer to the court with me
A. advised B. suggested C. threatened D. insisted


11. I really prefer just about anything ...watching TV
A. from B. or C. than D. to


12. Gold ...near San Francisco in 1848 and thegold rush started the following year.
A. has been discovered B. discovered


C. was discovered D. is discovered


13. I regret ... you that we can't approve yourapplication
A. inform B. to inform C. informing D. informed


14. If I had gone to the bank this morning, I ...money from you now
A. would not borrow B. would not have borrowed


C. will not borrow D. will no have borrowed


15. It was ... 2005 that he became an actor.
A. until that B. not when C. not until D. until when
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital.


1. He is engrossed in doing (SCIENCE) ... research.
2. They entered the areas without (PERMIT) ...
3. He wants (WIDTH) ... his knowledge of the subject.
4. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER) ...species.
5. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE). ...device?



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8. (ACCURATE)...is very important in scientific experiments.
9. His (DECIDE)... to retire surprised all of the workers.
10. He was very ( PRIDE)... ...of the work he had done.


IV. Put the verbs into correct forms.


1. If I (have) ... your address, I would send you a postcard.
2. Two millions (not/be) ... a large number of money.


3. They (show) ... more than fifty films in Hanoi since June.


4. It's already 32o<sub>C. It (be) ... very hot. </sub>


5. I get used to (live)... in the bigcity.


6. I must remind my students that this grammar point needs (revise)...
7. We found it very difficult (reach)... adecision.


8. The last time he (see)... in the public he (wear)... a grey suit.
9. Was she to speak to him like that, he (be) ...very angry.
V. Put into the blank a suitable preposition.


1. We started our trip... ..foot last week.
2. You can't leave the country...a passport.
3. New York is famous...its skyscrapers.
4. Is modern English different ...old English?
VI. Writing


1. "You had better go to see the doctor immediately," Jone said.



John advised...
2. The painters painted his house last week.


He ...
3. It is not worth asking Ms. Hoa to help.


There's no ...
4. I'm sorry I didn't go to University


I regret...
5. I never intended to go to the meeting.


I never had...
6. He forgot about the gun until he got home.
Not until...


7.You really should be able to dress yourself by now !
It's high time...
8. As soon as I put the phone down, it rang again!


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Had ...
10. People say that he beats his wife.


He...


VII. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
1. The sick needs to be looked after. So money must be spent on hospitals.


2. The accident looked seriously at first but nobody was injured.



3. All the students are looking forward to spending their free time to enjoy their Tet holiday.
4. My family lived in Hue since 1990 to 1996, but we are now living in Sai Gon.


5. She left her job soon to devote more time into her family.
6. It is not until his father came home which hedid his homework.
7. The children are exciting about the field trip.


8. In spite interruption, she was still able to finish her assignment before class.
9. Her well-known film, that won several awards, was about the life of Lenin.
10. You've seen her new car, haven't you? What does it like?


VIII. Read the following passage carefully, and then choose the best answer.


We know that every year less than 100 people are attacked by sharks and about 5 to 10 of
these people die. But, let's look at the other side of the story - How many sharks do people kill?
Well, I think you already know this: People kill many more sharks. Every year, people hunt and
kill thousands of sharks. One reason people kill sharks is for sport; they hunt them just for fun.
Some people started to have contests to see who kill the most sharks or the biggest sharks.
Another reason that people kill sharks is for food. In some countries, such as the United States
and Great Britain, shark meat is a popular food. In other countries, such as China, people use
shark fins to make soup. Because so many people like to eat shark, fishing boats catch a lot of
sharks to sell for food. So, for both of these reasons, people are killing many sharks. Some
biologists are getting worried that the number of sharks is getting too small. That's why many
biologists think we should stop killing so many sharks, and instead try to protect them - or else
some day they may all be gone. Some countries have already passed some laws to help


protect sharks. The United States, for example, has passed laws that limit the number of sharks
that people can kill for food or for sport. So even though some people like to hunt sharks, we do
need to protect them.



1. How many sharks are hunted and killed every year?
A. thousandsB. manyC. five to tenD. one hundred


2. People want to kill sharks because________
A. they are afraid of sharks.


B. shark meat is a popular food.


C. they get their enjoyment from killing sharks
D. B and C are correct.


3. The number of sharks in the world is ________
A. not getting worried by some biologists.


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C. getting bigger.
D getting smaller.


4. Why do biologists want to protect sharks?
A. Because they want to learn more about sharks.
B. Because of the number of sharks that were killed.


C. Because they are afraid some day sharks may no longer exist.
D. Because shark fins can be used in medicine.


5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The governments prohibited people from killing sharks.
B. Laws have been passed in sharks' defence.


C. People like to hunt sharks.



D. People are killing many sharks for some reasons.
IX. Read the passage and choose the correct choice.


All over the world people listen to classical music. Classical music is cult to describe. It means
different things to different people. Some famous classical composers were Bach, Vivaldi,
Haydn and Mozart. In their music, they did not tell a story or show strong emotion. They wanted
to make a beautiful, interesting design. They wanted to write lovely sounds. Then composers
started to interpret ideas. They told stories about wars, armies and soldiers. They wrote about
religion. Sometimes they composed music for holidays. They told love stories and showed
strong emotion. Some of these composers were Beethoven, Schumann Chopin, Mendelssohn,
Wagner, and Tchaikovsky. Classical music stays with people a long time. Bach wrote about 300
years ago, Beethoven wrote about 200 years ago, and Tchaikovsky wrote over 100 years ago.
Sometimes people close their eyes to listen to classical music. When they close their eyes, they
can see the design. They can listen to the same classical music many times and enjoy it.


Sometimes it is difficult to understand. The listener has to think about it. However, we can all
learn to enjoy some classical music. It is very important to people.


1. Classical music is famous ______.
A. in the Western


B. in Europe


C. in the United States
D. all over the world


2. The first classical composers wanted to ______.
A. tell stories about religion


B. write lovely sounds


C. show strong emotion
D. B and C


3. What kind of stories did some composers not tell in their music?
A. love


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D. racial integration
4. Beethoven ________.


A. composed his music a long time ago.
B. just wanted to make an interesting design.
C. did not tell a story.


D. wrote sonic music that was difficult to understand.


5.People sometimes close their eyes when they listen to classical music in order to ________.
A. understand it clearly.


B. think about the design.


C. form the picture of the design in their mind.
D. hear the same classical music many times.
6.Classical music ________.


A. is different from people to people.


B. is different to understand so the listener always has to think about it.
C. was composed by famous musicians very long time ago.


D. is necessary for people because it makes life more colorful.



X. Choose one option that best fits each of the numbered blank. (2.5 points)


The Statue of Liberty, one of America’s most familiar images, is on [1]______ island in New
York Harbour. It is a symbol of freedom. This is the statue of a woman [2]______ is wearing a
loose robe and a crown on her head. Her right hand holds a burning [3]______ and left hand
holds a tablet with the date July 4,1776 on it. The statue weighs 205 tons and is 46 m high. It
stands on a stone and concrete base. The base and pedestal increase the height of the
monument to 93 m. The outside is made [4]______ copper. Inside, it has an iron frame. The
statue was [5]______ in 1884, and then transported to America in 1886. Tourist can visit the
statue from 9.30 a.m to 5 p.m daily except Christmas Day.


1. A. ф B. a C. the D. an


2. A. whom B. who C. which D. where
3. A. torch B. tablet C. crown D. robe
4. A. in B. with C. of D. from


5. A. was completing B. completes C. had completed D. completed


XI. Write a short paragraph (about 140 words) about the advantages and disadvantages
of the Internet.


4. Đề số 4


I. LISTENING


HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU


Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây, mở đầu và kết
thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.



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Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.


Part 1: You will hear a tellephone message about a Business Studies course. For each
question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. (1mark)


BUSINESS STUDIES COURSE


Course start date: (1)______________________


Course begins with: (2)______________________ about business
What students mustn’t bring to class: (3)________________________
Visitors’ car park: next to the (4)________________________
Language classes available: Spanish and (5)________________________


Part 2: You will hear a man called Frank, talking on the radio about looking for ships that
sank at sea long ago. Supply the blanks with missing details for questions 6-10. Write
NO MORE THAN THREE words in each space provided. (1mark)


6) Frank is a teacher, not a full- time ___________________________


7) He is looking for ___________________________from an enormous ship called The
Seabird.


8) He used gold which he found on an eighteenth- century sailing ship to make his
___________________________


9) He gave some things from his collection to ______________________
10) He ‘d advise people who enjoy diving to join some excellent



diving___________________________


Part 3: You will hear a man telling a group of students about a trip to the theatre. Answer
the questions, your answer should be short in the form of notes. (1mark)


11) What is the name of the play by Andrew Mc.Vitie?
_________________________________________
12) Where does he hand out the tickets?


_________________________________________
13) How much do the tickets cost?


_________________________________________
14) Where will they go for an ice cream and a coffee?
_________________________________________
15) Where can the students get off to take the bus home?
_________________________________________


Part 4: Listen to an interview with a woman called Rachel who is talking about the shows
she puts on for children and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to questions 16-20.
(1 mark).


16. Before the children were born, Rachel worked as
A. an art teacher.


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D. a doctor.


17. Who first thought of doing a show at a party?
A. Rachel’s husband



B. Rachel’s children
C. Rachel’s parents
D. Rachel’s students


18. Rachel’s neighbour, Lena, helps by
A. making some dolls for the show.
B. performing in the shows.


C. writing the music for the shows.
D. preparing cloths for the shows.


19. When Rachel did a play about a lion
A. the children laughed too much.


B. the children were frightened.
C. the children’s parents complained.
D. the children loved it too much.


20. How do Rachel’s daughters help her?
A. They show new dolls to their school friends.
B. They think of ideas for new stories.


C. They give their opinions on her new plays.
D. They make new dolls for her plays.


II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR


Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each of the following questions and
write their answers (A, B, C, D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.2 point)
1. For a family with two children who need full-time childcare, so-called ______________ in


which one parent is always at home while the other is at work – saves an average of £11,700 a
year.


A. shared parenting B. shift parenting
C. attachment parenting D. filled parenting


2. If you don’t take exercise you__________________the risk of getting ill.
A. stand B. face C. suffer D. run


3.We are all______________ the opinion that hydrocarbons in the atmosphere contribute to
global warming.


A. of B. with C. on D. in


4. Can you wait thirty seconds while I________________in to the post office for some stamps?
A. saunter B. brezee C. pop in D. go


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A. never-never B. now and now C. up and up D. pay tomorrow
6. The police are_______________an accident which took place this afternoon.


A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D. investigating
7. The chess players tried very hard to___________ each other with every move in the
tournament.


A. outnumber B. outwit C. outcome D. outweigh
8. If you are_____________with this test, perhaps you should attempt an easier one.
A. stumbling B. stressed C. struggling D. straining
9. I am doing badly. I’ll have to pull my_______________up.


A. stockings B. shoes C. socks D. trousers



10. ______________ caculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out of before
the end of the next century.


A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt


11. I dread _________________ what would have happened if there’d been an accident.
A. think B. to think C. to thinking D. the thought
12. His new method of teaching is like _____________ of fresh air to his students.
A. a blow B. a waft C. a wind D. a breath


Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (0.8 point)


THE DICTIONARY OF NATIONAL BIOGRAPHY


Just over one hundred years ago, the last volume of a tremendous work of reference
entitled The Dictionary of National Biography rolled off the printing presses.


(13)...(ADMIT), this 21-volume shelf-filler may not immediately sound like the most
thrilling read in the world. As entertainment, you might imagine it ranks some way below a
(14)...(POLITICS) autobiography. But you would be very, very wrong.


The DNB, like the Oxford English Dictionary, is one of the great monuments to British
culture and also a hugely enjoyable work in its own right. It is, quite simply, an


(15)...(ALPHABET) dictionary of potted biographies of all the notable men and women
who had lived in Britain since the year dot. It was produced between 1885 and 1900, and it
remains (16)...(EMPHASIS) an achievement of the Victorian period, richly redolent of
19th century confidence and (17)...(CAPABLE), energy and optimism. It is also a


monument to the enormous variety of the British national character, and the dictionary is
immeasurably (18)...(RICH) by this aspect. There are not only great statesmen,
generals, writers, but also hundreds of wonderfully colourful characters, who you can discover
only by leafing idly through a volume of the DNB on a wet afternoon down at your local library.
The way in which the DNB was produced was very British too: on a shoestring, out of
sheer dedication, and with no state (19) ...(INTERFERE) whatsoever. It was the
private endeavour of a group of (20)...(ENTHUSE), scholars and freelance journalists,
as opposed to, for instance, the Austrian equivalent, produced under the oppressive auspices
of the imperial Academy of Vienna.


Part 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to


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21. The clubs meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace.


A. neglected B. regenerated C. furnished D. renovated


22. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for


physicists it bordered on the miraculous.


A. adjustment B. agility C. flexibility D. inflexibility


23. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.


A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess


24. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.


A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate



25. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.


A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant
Part 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to


indicate the word or phrase that is the SAME meaning to the underlined part in each
of the following questions. (0.5 point)


26. My brother is obsessed with online games.


A. consumed by B. disliked C. interested in D. liked


27. The new cow boy-film catches the fancy of the children.


A. attracts B. amuses C. surprises D. satisfies


28. Teenagers are often apathetic to politics.


A. different B. interested C. lackadaisical D. excited


29. His problems in study all stem from his laziness.


A. result B. caused C. effected D. leaded


30. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable reservation.


A. carelessness B. incautious C. imprudent D. carefulness
READING



Part 1: Read the following passage, and write the letter A, B, C, or D in your numbered
boxes to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 51 to 60. There
is an example at the beginning (0). (1 mark)


Once upon a time, people left school or university, joined a company and stayed with it until
they retired. The concept of a job for life is now long ……… (0), and nowadays many


employees find it hard to stay loyal to their companies for even a relatively short (51) …………of
time. According to a recent survey, this is particularly (52) ………in London, where more
than half of those asked said that they constantly (53) ………on eye on other job


opportunities, (54) …………they are fairy happy in their existing jobs. A high number of London
workers say that they are always on the (55) ………, although they are content and


motivated in their current position.


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job hunters, the growing lack of company loyalty could end up being a big problem for


employers. Perhaps surprisingly, the (60) ………factor attracting job seekers was not more
money, but challenging and interesting work.


0. A. done B. over C. gone D. finished


51. A. stage B. point C. section D. period
52. A. right B. true C. actual D. real
53. A. hold B. put C. keep D. place
54. A. just as B. as well C. so that D. even if
55. A. lookout B. search C. watch D. pursuit
56. A. serves B. delivers C. provides D. fulfills
57. A. engaged B. registered C. appointed D. recorded


58. A. manner B. approach C. style D. custom
59. A. least B. maximum C. lowest D. minimum
60. A. biggest B. widest C. largest D. highest


Part 2: For questions 61-70, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable
word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the


passage. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1 mark)


They were all wipes out before science had a chance to discover (0) them , but only the


dodo’s name has lived on. However, experts have now been (61) ………to reconstruct
the appearance of dozens of long-extinct birds and animals from the same remote tropical isles
(62) ………the dodo lived.


The islands of Mauritius, Reunion and Podrigues in the Indian Creatures Ocean were home to
hundreds of unique and rare creatures before humans first set foot (63) ………in 1958. In
about 150 years, at (64) ………45 species had been lost forever as a (65)


………of hunting and the introduction of other species. “(66) ………happened on
these islands is a sad tale,” says Dr Julian Hume, a pale ethnologist who worked on the project.
Now researchers have recreated what the extinct animals and birds would looked


(67)………from fragments of bone, fossils and descriptions made (68)


………travelers at the time. Following 30 years of research, they have managed to
produce detailed pictures of (69) ………the extinct creatures looked and behaved for a


new book (70) ………The Lost Land Of The Dodo.



Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions 71–80.


A. My mum is the team manager for the Olympic diving team and when I was a baby I used to
go with her to the pool and jump in and out now I practice diving every day after school and on
Saturdays. I’m really too tall to be a great diver and my long legs make it difficult to do


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B. Last year our netball team was promoted to the top league and so the coach became very
strict. At that level, every move is scrutinized and discussed, which makes everyone feel very
pressured. There’s a lot of competition to get chosen for the team and sometimes I got
substituted. When I played last year, I would look at the subs sitting on the sidelines and not
really care, but when I started to become one myself I had a whole new perspective on the
game. Now I realize that when you’re not the best at a sport it doesn’t seem as much fun as
when you’re a top player. I left the team earlier this year, as the pressure of playing in matches
was too much; it was becoming a frustration instead of a recreation. I still enjoy playing netball
with my friends in gym classes, when I can relax without worrying about impressing my coach
all the time.


C. I was good at football and I really enjoyed playing left back in the school team. Then one
Saturday when I was 14, I went to watch the local ice hockey team play. It was so exciting and
became a real turning point in my life. School football seems so dull in comparison. I discovered
that there was a local women’s ice hockey team just being set up. At first, the coach thought I
was too young and too inexperienced as I’d only done occasional fun skating on Saturday
afternoons. But she agreed to give me a trial and I have been playing for three years now. I’ll
really find out what I can do in June when we go to take part in a women’s international ice
hockey competition in Prague.


D. I knew I was serious about rugby when I scored a try in my first game. I was named ‘player
of the year’ at my club last year and I’m also captain of my school team. My uncle often comes
to watch me play. He’s very competitive so that is probably why I am too. Losing makes me feel
that I’ve done something wrong. It doesn’t happen very often, though. I’m not normally an


aggressive person but, on the rugby pitch, I am. I don’t think girls should play rugby as it’s so
aggressive and they could easily get injured. Most of my schoolmates play rugby and all of
them are sporty. I can’t really imagine my life without rugby! I’m going to agricultural college
when I leave school and eventually will take over my uncle’s farm, but l hope there’ll still be time
for lots of rugby. If I have a son, I’ll want to help coach his team and I’d be disappointed if he
wasn’t interested in sports. I’ll definitely be a competitive dad!


For questions 71–80 locate the paragraph in which the following information is
mentioned. Write the letter of each paragraph in the corresponding boxes.
71. He / She thinks winning is the most important thing


72. He / She feel their sport has both a positive and negative impact on their social life
73. He / She thinks that their sport may be inappropriate for a particular group of people
74. He / She has changed their mind about participating in competitive sport


75. He / She has long-term plans which include continued involvement in their sport
76. He / She is realistic about their chances of being very successful


77. He / She thinks playing their sport changes their character
78. He / She is looking forward to a new challenge


79. He / She has friends locally who share their passion for sport


80. He / She thinks it is easier to perform well in their sport when they are calm.


Part 4: For questions 81-85, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list
of headings below. Write the correct numbers (i- x) in the corresponding numbered
boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0) ( 1 mark)


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A America’s tobacco industry has launched a fresh assault in its war against the


anti-smoking movement. Six tobacco groups are suing the US Environmental Protection Agency,
claiming that its recent report on the dangers of second- hand smoke is based on sloppy
science and is unfairly damaging their trade. Anti- smoking groups say the lawsuit is a Canute-
like attempt to stem a tide of anti- smoking legislation sweeping the US.


B In January, the EPA released a long- awaited report on passive smoking. It considered


more than 30 studies around the world that compared the incidence of lung cancer in non-
smoking woman whose husbands smoked with that in those whose husbands did not. The
report included that wives of smokers had a higher risk of developing lung cancer, and that the
risk increased with the amount of smoke inhaled. Passive smoking causes 3,000 deaths a year
from lung cancer in the US alone, it said. On the basic of this and other evidence- for instance,
that smoke is clearly carcinogenic when inhaled directly- the EPA added environmental tobacco
smoke to its list of known human carcinogens. The report also concluded that second- hand
smoke aggravates asthma and causes respiratory illness and ear infections in children.


C The tobacco industry countered that the study was shoddy and misleading,


characterized by “ a preference for political correctness over sound science”. The tobacco
groups pointed out that the increased incidence of lung cancer was seen only when the


statistical test was relaxed from the usual 95 per cent confidence to a less rigorous 90 per cent.
They also accused the EPA of ignoring several studies that the contradict the agency’s


conclusion.


D On 22 June, the six groups- Philip Morris, R. J. Reynolds Tobacco and four groups


representing growers and retailers- jointly sued the EPA to have the study declares null and
avoid, and to throw out human carcinogen classification, which they claim goes beyond the


EPA’s legal mandate. “ Unfortunately, it is the tobacco farmers, their families and the


communities who- if the EPA is not stopped- will have to pay for this misguided actions”, says
John Berry, a lawyer for the Council for Burley Tobacco of Lexington, Kentucky.


E The EPA stands by its report. “ We’ve been hearing them for years”, says spokesman


Dave Ryan. “ We think the suit is frivolous”. Major medical groups also back the report. “ This
lawsuit is just another example of tobacco conglomerates blowing smoke in the faces of


American”, says Lonnie Bristow, chair of the American Medical Association’s Board of Trustees.
“ An industry that kills 450,000 citizens every year cannot be trusted”.


F The charge of scientific manipulation is unfounded, says Morton Lippmann, a lung


expert from New York University who chaired an external review of the EPA report. The 90 per
cent confidence limit is reasonable given the difficulties of studying second- hand smoke, he
says, as was the omission of some recent studies. “ You could wait forever for this study and
the next study”, he says. In fact, the additional studies they’re so anxious to include couldn’t
possibly change the conclusion. The omitted study most often cited by the tobacco industry
found a 30 per cent increase in the risk of lung cancer in passive smokers exposed to the
highest levels of smoke. Lippmann also notes that the EPA report, while the most complete, is
not the first study to conclude that passive smoking increases the risk of cancer.


List of headings


i. Danger of passive smoking
ii. EPA’s opinion of the lawsuit
iii. Tobacco industry vs. the EPA
iv. Chances of developing lung cancer


v. Stop the EPA


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vii. A groundless report
viii. A report as good as any
0. Paragraph A


81. Paragraph B
82. Paragraph C
83. Paragraph D
84. Paragraph E
85. Paragraph F


Part 5. Read the following passage and answer questions (86- 95).


For questions 86- 95, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write
your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.(1,0 mark)


ARE YOU A MACHINE OF MANY PARTS?


What will future historians remember about the impact of science during the last decade


of the 20th<sub> century? They will not be much more concerned with many of the marvels that </sub>


currently preoccupy us, such as the miraculous increase in the power of home computer and
the unexpected growth of the Internet. Nor will they dwell much on global warming, the loss of
biodiversity and other examples of our penchant for destruction. Instead, the end of the


20th<sub> century will be recognized as the time when, for better or worse, science began to bring </sub>


about the fundamental shift in our perception of ourselves.



It will be the third time that science has force us to re- evaluate who we are. The first
time, of course, was the revolution that began with Copernicus in 1543 and continued with
Kepler, Galileo and Newton. Despite the Church’s opposition, we came to realize that the Earth
does not lie at the centre of the universe. Instead, we gradually found we live on a small planet
on the edge of a minor galaxy, circling one star in a universe that contains billions of others. Our
unique position in the universe was gone forever.


A few centuries later, we were moved even further from stage centre. The Darwinian
revolution removed us from our position as a unique creation of God. Instead, we discovered
we were just another part of the animal kingdom proud to have “ a miserable ape for a
grandfather”, as Thomas Huxley put it in 1860. We know now just how close to the apes we
are- over 90% of our genes are the same as those of the chimpanzee.


Increasing knowledge of our own genetics, is one of the driving force in the third great
conceptual shift that will soon take place. Others are the growing knowledge of the way our
minds work, our new ability to use knowledge of the nervous system to design drugs that affect
specific states of mind and the creation of the sophisticated scanners which enable us to see
what is happening inside our brains. In the third revolution, we are taking our own selves to
pieces and finding the parts which make up the machine that is us.


Much of the new knowledge from genetics, molecular biology and the neuro- sciences is
esoteric. But its cultural impact is already running ahead of science. People begin to see


themselves not as wholes with a moral centre but the result of the combined action of parts for
which they have little responsibility.


It’s Nobody’s Fault is the title of the popular American book on “ difficult” children. Many


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ADD is currently the world’s fastest growing psychological problem. In the United States,


a survey show that 1.5m children between the ages of five and eighteen were being treated
with a drug, Ritalin, for the disorder. Since then the number taking the drug is believed to have
doubled.


You might, as many people do, question the way in which the disorder has been
diagnosed on such a staggering scale. But that is not the point. The cultural shift is that people
are not responsible for the disorders, only for obtaining treatment for t parts of them that have
gone wrong.


The more we know about the parts of ourselves, the more cures for our defects will


appear. Prozac is one example. The best- selling Listen to Prozac claimed the drug “ can


transform pessimists into optimists, turn loners into extroverts”. And Prozac, the book explained,
“ was not so much discovered as planfully created, through the efforts of a large pharmaceutical
firm… the likely result of this form of research is not medicines that correct particular illnesses
but medicines that affect clusters of functions in the human brain.”


Even when a treatment is not to hand, the notion that we are made of “ clusters of
functions” remains strong. Genetic analysis supports this view. A gene linked to alcoholism has
been located and a Gallup poll has revealed that the great majority of Americans consider
alcoholism to be a disease. There are claims of genes too for obesity, homosexuality and even
for laziness.


Some claims about genes may be silly. Or you may think that the current conceptual
shift is just a re- run of old arguments about the relative roles of nature and nurture. Instead,
take one drug, Viagra, as an example of the new way of thinking about ourselves. If you suffer
from impotence, it might have a variety of physiological causes. Or you might just be anxious
about sexual performance. But Viagra does not make such fine distinctions: it acts at the level
of the chemical reactions that control the blood flow needed to maintain an erection.



Once we can dissect ourselves into parts and know how the parts work, it really does
not matter what was the initial cause of the problem. If you own a car and the brakes wear out
quickly, it is not important whether you’ve been driving the car too hard or you bought cheap
brake shoes to begin with. You just need to change the brakes.


The more direct means we have of changing who we are, through changing the parts
that we are composed of, the harder becomes the question of who was the person who made
the decision to change, before becoming someone else. This will be the real issue for the


21th<sub> century: who are we, if we are the sum of our parts and science has given us the power to </sub>


change those parts?


86. What is the most important scientific progress in the 20th<sub> century?</sub>
A. The development of computer technology.


B. The birth and growth of the Internet.
C. Mankind’s ability to control global warning.
D. People’s new knowledge of themselves.
87. What did Copernicus discover?


A. The Earth does not lie at the centre of the universe.
B. The Church was wrong about the history of mankind.
C. Human beings live on a small planet.


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88. What did Darwin discover?


A. Human beings were a unique creation of God.



B. Human beings and apes shared a common ancestor.
C. Human beings were lucky while apes were miserable.
D. Human beings and chimpanzees were nearly identical.


89. Which of the following is NOT “ one of the driving forces in the third great
conceptual shift” ? ( paragraph 4).


A. Knowledge of our own genetics.
B. Knowledge of the way our mind works.


C. Knowledge of how to use sophisticated scanners.


D. Knowledge of how to design drugs that effect specific states of mind.


90. Which of the following is likely to be the main idea of the book It’s nobody’s Fault?
A. Many children are suffering from ADD.


B. ADD is the problem for the problematic children.
C. Some people’s brains do not have neurotransmitters.
The way people are brought up determines their behavior.
91. How many people are taking Ritalin in the US?
A. Less than 1.5 million people.


B. 1.5 million of the people aged 5-18.
C. 3 million of the people aged 5- 18.
D. More than 3 million teenagers.


92. Which of the following reflects the cultural shift?


A. More people are diagnosed to be suffering from mental disorders.


B. People do not responsible for the problems they have.


C. More people are seeking mental treatment.


D. People begin t question the accuracy of doctors’ diagnoses.
93. What is Prozac?


A. A book
B. A medicine
C. A type of people
D. A mental disorder.


94. Genetic analysis seem to have confirmed that there is a gene in our body that is
responsible for


A. alcoholism
B. obesity


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95. Which of the following does the drug Viagra illustrate?
A. “Some claims about genes may be silly” (Paragraph 11)


B. We have a “ new way of thinking about ourselves” (Paragraph 11)


C. A physical disorder “ might have a variety of physiological causes”. (Paragraph 11)


D. “People …are….obtaining treatment for the parts of them that have gone wrong.” (Paragraph
8)


WRITING



Part 1: For questions 96- 100, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
means the same as the sentence printed before it.( 1 point)


96. The bus driver cannot be blamed for the accident in any way.


=> In ...
97. This button mustn’t be touched under any circumstances.


=> Under no...
98. She doesn’t get on well with her neighbor any more.


=> She has...
99. Tom does a very good immitation of the English teacher.


=> Tom takes...
100. It was necesary for you to go so much trouble on my behalf.


=> You needn’t ...


Part 2: The bar chart below gives information about the percentage of the population
living in urban areas in the world and in different continents. (1.5 point)


Write a report (of about 150 words) describing the information in the chart.


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...
...
...
...
Part 3:



In many countries today, the eating habits and lifestyle of children are different from
those of previous generations. Some people say this has had a negative effect on their
health. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? (2.5 point)


Write about 250 words to support your position (and do not include your personal information).
---THE END---


5. Đề số 5



PART II. PHONETICS


Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words.(5
points)


11. A. address B. confusion C. device D. article
12. A. photogenic B. disabled C. exhibition D. volunteer
13. A. announce B. typical C. gradually D. attitude


14. A. understand B. concentrate C. chemical D. access
15. A. nation B. women C. allow D. college


PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR


I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10
points)


16. When I was a child, I used to___________ in that house.


A. live B. to live C. living D. to living
17. I am having some days___________ tomorrow. I will visit you.



A. off B. of C. out D. in
18. It___________ better if they would tell everybody in advance.


A. is B. will be C. would be D. were
19. Washing machines, dishwashers and vacuum cleaners are___________.


A. working machines B. useless machines C. sewing machines D. labour-saving machine
20. Do you know the man_________ next to our teacher?


A. standing B. stood C. stand D. to stand
21. Hoa and Quan quarreled_________ each other sometime.


A. in B. at C. with D. by


22. “Where do you live now?” – “I live in Hanoi; my__________.
A. parents too do B. parents do C. parents do, too D. parents also do.
23. A number of students___________ volunteered to the job.


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24. My classmate told me to watch movies in English___________ learn spoken English better.
A. so as B. so that C. in order that D. in order to


25. Amy, ___________ car had broken down, was in a very bad mood.
A. who B. whom C. whose D. that


II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10 points)


26. I’m glad to know that you are going___________ a picnic.


27. At the moment, most of the town is being covered___________ snow.



28. In this company, everybody is responsible___________ turning off the lights before leaving.
29. The boy fell___________ the water and was drowned.


30. He suffered___________ constant sleepiness.


31. They have been absent___________ school very often lately.
32. Is she capable___________ using computers?


33. They have made use___________ the house after remodeling it.


34. They stayed___________ home because Andy wasn’t keen___________ going out in the
rain.


35. I wrote the letter to complain___________ the good I bought in the shop.


III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 points)


36. He is engrossed in doing (SCIENCE)___________ research.
37. They entered the areas without (PERMIT)___________.
38. He wants (WIDTH)___________ his knowledge of the subject.
39. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER)___________ species.
40. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE)___________ device?


41. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED)___________ of animals in national parks.
42. The architecture in the downtown area is a successful (COMBINE)___________ of old and
new.


43. He came first in the poetry (COMPETED)___________.



44. Street noise is one of the (ADVANTAGE)___________ of living in a big city.


45. The Vietnamese government has done a lot to eliminate hunger and (POOR)___________.
PART IV. READING


I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10
points)


SPRING


When is the Spring season?


Spring is the season succeeding Winter and preceding Summer. Spring (46)________ to the
season as well as to ideas of rebirth, rejuvenation, renewal, resurrection, and regrowth. During
Spring an important celebration (47)________: Easter Day. It varies between March 22 and
April 25 in Western (48)________, and between April 4 and May 8 in Eastern Christianity.


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Spring is a time when flowers bloom and trees begin to grow and (49)________. The days grow
longer and the temperature in most areas become more (50)________. You can also


contemplate the melting of ice and thawing of the ground. The weather during this period
becomes much sunnier while hibernating animals begin to (51)___________ of hibernation.


What to do during the Spring Season?
There are so many things to do to enjoy Spring:


Plan a holiday and (52)_________ a trip. Vacations aren't just for summer anymore!
Take a walk in a (53)_________ of flowers.


Meditate: Contemplate and (54)_________ on the beauty of nature. Forget the worries of


everyday life and empty the mind. Concentrate on the sounds and the scent of nature.
Spot the things you want to change in your life. Spring is a time for (55)__________.
46. A. takes B. has C. means D. refers
47. A. takes part in B. takes note C. takes into D. takes place
48. A. hope B. interest C. tradition D. belief
49. A. recall B. reproduce C. repeat D. remove
50. A. hot B. scorching C. temperate D. cold
51. A. come into B. come after C. come before D. come out
52. A. make B. take C. have D. get
53. A. plot B. bunch C. field D. pack
54. A. reflect B. describe C. show D. draw
55. A. rebuilding B. rebirth C. reconstruction D. reminder
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10 points)


These stories of killer bees in the news in recent years have attracted a lot of attention as the
bees have made their way from South America. Killer bees are reputed to be extremely


aggressive in nature, although experts that their aggression may have been somewhat inflated.


The killer bee is a combination of the very mild European strain of honeybee and the
considerably more aggressive African bee, which was created when the African strain was
imported into Brazil in 1955. The African bees were brought into Brazil


because their aggression was considered an advantage: they were far more productive than


their European counterparts in that they spent a higher percentage of their time working and
continued working longer in inclement weather than did the European bees.


These killer bees have been known to attack humans and animals, and some fatalities have
occurred. Experts point out, however, that the mixed breed known as the killer bee is actually



not at all as aggressive as the pure African bee. They also point out that the attacks have a


chemical cause. A killer bee stings only when it has been disturbed; it is not aggressive by
nature. However, after a disturbed bee stings and flies away; it leaves its stinger embedded in
the victim. In the vicera attached to the embedded stinger is the chemical isoamyl acetate,
which has an odor that attracts other bees. As other bees approach the victim of the original
sting, the victim tends to panic, thus disturbing other bees and causing them to sting. The new
stings create more of the chemical isoamyl acetate which attracts more bees and increases the
panic level of the victim. Killer bees tend to travel in large clusters or swarms and thus respond
in large numbers to the production of isoamyl acetate.


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A. the creation of the killer bee


B. the chemical nature of killer bees attacks
C. stories in the media about killer bees
D. ways of producing honey


57. The word "inflated" in paragraph 1 means_________.


A. aired B. exaggerated C. blown D. burst
58. Why were African bees considered beneficial?


A. They spent their time traveling.


B. They were productive, even in inclement weather.
C. They produced an unusual type of honey.


D. They didn't work hard in inclement weather.



59. The word 'their' in paragraph 2 refers to_________.


A. the European bees' B. the African bees'
C. the killer bees' D. the honey bees'
60. It is stated in the passage that killer bees_________.


A. are less aggressive than African bees B. never attacks animals
C. are more deadly than African bees D. always attack African bees


61. The pronoun 'They' in paragraph 3 refers to_________.


A. humans and animals B. fatalities C. experts D. killer bees


62. Which is NOT mentioned in the passage as a contributing factor in an attack by killer bees?
A. Panic by the victims B. The odor of isoamyl acetate


C. Disturbance of the bees D. Inclement weather


63. In which paragraph does the author describe the size of the groups in which killer bees
move?


A. Paragraph 3 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 2 and 3 D. Paragraph 1
64. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of killer bees?


A. attack humans and animals
B. are aggressive by nature


C. travel in large clusters


D. are a combination of European honeybee and African bee


65. The main idea of this passage is that killer bee_________.
A. are not purebred


B. have been moving unexpectedly
C. have been in the news a lot recently


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I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it. (15 points)


66. Tom hasn’t watched a football match for 2 months.


→ The last_____________________________________________________________.
67. “You should apply for that job. It is suitable for you.” Kevin said to me.


→ Kevin________________________________________________________________.
68. I didn’t have time so I was late.


→ If ____________________________________________________________________.


69. It is necessary to give the employee a full bonus.


→ _______________________________________________________________________.
70. What I saw in the football match surprised me .


→ I_______________________________________________________________________.


71. His second attempt on the world record was successful.


→ He broke_____________________________________________________________.
72. They were all arrested because of his incompetence.



→ Had__________________________________________________________________.


73. Please don’t smoke in the kitchen.


→ I’d rather____________________________________________________________.
74. “That’s a lovely new dress, Jean”, said her mother.


→ Jean’s mother complimented ______________________________________.
75. I don’t really like her even though I admire her achievements.


→ Much________________________________________________________________.


II. The number of people using computers is increasing rapidly. What are the benefits of
a computer?


You should write a paragraph of about 250 words on this topic. (10 points)
________THE END________


ĐÁP ÁN
PART I: LISTENING


Section 1. (10pts) 01. A 02. B 03. A 04. B 05.C


Section 2. (10pts) 06. Business plan 07. 3 days 08. book keeping 09.


18th April 10.
PART II. PHONETICS


Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts)


11. D 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C


PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR


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16. A 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C
II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION. (10pts)


26. on 27. with 28. for 29. into 30. from
31. from 32. of 33. of 34. at – on 35. about


III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts)


36. scientific 37. permission 38. widen 39. endangered
40. miraculous 41. variety 42. combination 43. competition
44. disadvantages 45. poverty


PART IV. READING


I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each
space. (10pts)


46. D 47. D 48. C 49. B 50. C 51. D 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. D
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
56. C 57. B 58. B 59. B 60. A 61. C 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. D
PART V. WRITING


I. (10pts)


66. The last time Tom watched a football match was 2 months ago.
67. Kevin advised me to apply for that job.



68. If I had had time, I wouldn’t have been late.


69. It is necessary for the employee to be given a full bonus.
(It is necessary that the employee should be given a full bonus.)


70. I was surprised at what I saw in the football match.


71. He broke the world record in his second attempt.


72. Had it not been for his incompetence, they wouldn’t have been arrested.


73. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in the kitchen.
74. Jean’s mother complimented on her new dress.


75. Much as I don’t really like her, I admire her achievements.


II. (15 points)


Marking scheme: The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.


Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students.


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