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BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MƠN TIẾNG ANH 12 NĂM 2021


CĨ ĐÁP ÁN TRƯỜNG THPT HỒ TÙNG MẬU



1. Đề số 1



PART A: LISTENING (3 points):
HƯỚNG DẪN THI NGHE HIỂU:


- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần


- Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh bằng tiếng Anh đã có trong từng phần nghe.
I. Section 1: Question 1-9


Question 1-4: Choose the best answer to every question
1. Why would the woman prefer not to live in London?


A. It’s too big B. It’s an unfriendly place


B. It’s too far from Liverpool D. It makes her tired


2. What does the woman say about the people she knows in London?
A. She would like to find out more about them


B. She thinks they are uninteresting
C. She thinks they have to work too hard


D. She thinks they hardly show any interest in things
3. The man dislikes village life because


A. You can’t keep any private property
B. People in villages like doing nothing


C. Everybody knows about your private life
D. People in villages never stop talking


4. What does the man say about people in London?
A. They think everyone should be the same as them
B. They don’t go out much


C. They try to make friends with you


D. They don’t usually mind how people behave


Question 5-9 Indicate whether the statements are True or False
5. The woman came from Liverpool


6. The woman doesn’t know many people in London


7. The man thought people in London had a very unrealistic idea about country life
8. The man said he had stolen his mother’s money to come to London


9. The man thought people should go out to make friends in London.


1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________


5________


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II. Section 2: Question 10-22


Complete the checklist of career goals with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
CAREER GOALS



Goal 1 To start a career
Goal 2 10. ____________
Goal 3 11. ____________
Goal 4 12. ____________


Question 13-14 Complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS


Applicants should hand in their application forms between (13)___________ and December.
And anyone who wants to apply for the University of Oxford and Cambridge should submit their
form by (14)_______________


Question 15-17: Look at the note and tick if the information is correct according to what you
hear.


SOURCE OF INFORMATION
A. Student magazines
B. Rankings


C. Reference books
D. Government offices
E. Prospectuses


15__________ 16___________ 17_________


Question 18-22 Decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F)


18. The speaker mentioned students should adopt many study methods in the course, such as
brainstorming sessions, field trips, seminars, tutorials and peer review.


19. British universities only offer accommodation for the refreshment



20. According to the speaker, before a student made a decision, he should confirm what kind of
social life the school could offer.


21. If you go to the same university, all the courses would cost the same
22. Students may apply for financial help or scholarships in British universities.


18_______ 19__________ 20__________ 21________ 22________


III. Section 3


Question 23-30: Fill in the missing information with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
GREENPEACE SAVE THE CAMPAIGN


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There are only 2,000 (26)___________ left, and although the species is (27)_________, there
is no sign that their population is growing.


Only three countries (28)___________, (29)__________and (30)___________
PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (5 points)


IV. Choose the correct answer to each question (1 point)


1. Children can be difficult to teach because of their short attention ____


A. limit B. span C. duration D. time


2. Read that sign, please. It says “English ………here.”


A. speaking B. spoken C. should speak D. must speak



3. Few people can do creative work unless they are in the right _____of mind


A. frame B. trend C. attitude D. tendency


4. He could provide no documentary evidence to _____ up his claim that dinosaurs had
once inhabited these hills.


A. back B. fill C. make D. hold


5. Because of road works, traffic is restricted to one ______ in each direction


A. lane B. row C. alley D. path


6. They turned down the proposal_____ that it didn’t fulfill their requirement


A. by reason B. on the grounds C. as a cause D. allowing


7. _____ the public’s concern about the local environment, this new road scheme will have
to be abandoned.


A. as regards B. In view of C. In the event of D. However much
8. I hadn’t been riding before and I could barely ... the horse at first.


A. get into B. get out of C. get on D. get off


9. Let’s get to the ……..of the discussion to save time.


A. core B. centre C. point D. importance


10. The meeting didn’t _____ until late.



A. end up B. break up C. come about D. breakthrough


1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________


5________


6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________


10________


V. Fill in each blank with a suitable particle or preposition (1 point)
1. What a mess! Sam’s toys haven’t been put ________


2. I must warn you that if you have anything to say, it’ll be taken ________ and may be used in
evidence against you.


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4. I’m in no hurry. I’ll hang __________here until you are ready.
5. The little boy’s ear stuck__________ from under his school cap.
6. I am Polish ________birth, but I have French nationality.


7. Your plan doesn’t allow __________ changes in the weather.
8. How are you ___________ for work?


9. He muttered a few words and __________ that he left.


10. _________its new conductor, the orchestra has established an international reputation.


1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________



5________


6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________


10________


VI. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them (1 point)


In countries where two or more languages are spoken, language is frequently a political and
highly emotive issue. Although Canada is officially bilingual, the French – speaking province of
Quebec introduced the law in 1976 which, in other measures, banned languages rather than
French on commercial signs and restricted admissions to English speaking schools. In 1988,
the supreme court of Canada rules that some in sections of this law were illegal. No sooner had
they done so than thousands of French speakers took to the street protest. Under the regime of
General Franco, a Basque language spoken by about 600,000 people in Spain was forbidden.
So strict was this ban that people using Basque in public could be imprisoned.


Lingual suppression still goes on, but on the whole, governments today are more tolerable of
their minority languages. Nowhere has this reverse of attitudes been more pronounced than in
Wales. Until the twentieth century, Welsh was all along illegal, and its usage was forbidden in
schools and at many places of work. Only a long campaign of protests and vandalism by Welsh
speakers in the 1960s did the British government allow Welsh to become an official language.


1_______________ 2__________ ___ 3__________ _


4_______________ 5_____________ 6___________


7_______________ 8_____________ 9___________ 10________


VII. Supply the correct form of the words in the bracket (1 point)


SCIENCE 2002


“Science 2002” is the name given to an imaginative development which aims to make (1.
science) ... and technological developments exciting, even to people who thought they
were (2. interest) ... in the subject. As well as its main permanent (3. exhibit)
..., there is also a changing (4. select) ... of educational programs, such
as sessions for schools and colleges, and adults (5. train) ... course. Everyone can share
the (6. excite) ... of experiments and discovery. Even (7. experience) ... visitors
can carry out simple experiments with the help of (8. special) ... who are always available
to give them all the (9. practice) ... advice and guidance they need. What’s more, the
friendly staff are keen to provide a (10. welcome) ... atmosphere.


1_________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________


6_________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________


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Millions of years ago, trees from now vanished forests (1) ______(produce) a sticky substance
that slowly (2)_____(harden) into sparkling rocks. Often, the hardening sap (3)_____(drip) onto
an unlucky grasshopper or beetle, (4)____(encase) it in a premature tomb. Today, a piece of
amber with such content is worth thousands of dollars. However, not long ago, miners


(5)______(toss) out these pieces, (6) ______(believe) them to be flawed and worthless. The
preservation of creatures in amber is amazing. Scientist are able to cut the amber and (7)_____
(expose) the actual structures of a prehistoric creature’s muscles, eyes, jaws and nervous
systems. Although amber supplies (8)______(decline) in some areas of the world, it is doubtful
that the supplies will be depleted any time soon. New deposits always (9)____(discover),
(10)_____(guarantee) a rich link to the past.


1_______¬_ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________



6_______¬_ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________


PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (7 points)


IX. Read the following text and decide which word best fits each blank (3 points)
SPORTS PHOTOGRAPHY


Sport as a spectacle and photography as a way of recording action, have developed together.
At the turn of the 20th century, Edward Muybridge was experimenting with photographs of
movement. His pictures of a runner (1)_____ in every history of photography. Another milestone
was when the scientist/photographer Harold Edgerton (2)_____ the limits of photographic
technology with his study of a (3)_____ of milk hitting the surface o of a dish of milk. Another
advance was the development of miniature cameras in the late 1920s which made it possible
for sports photographers to (4)_____ their cumbersome cameras behind.


The significance of television as a transmitter of sport has (5)_____ the prospects of still
photographers. All those people who watch a sports event on TVG, with all its movement and
action, (6)_____ the still image as a reminder of the game. The (7)_____majority of people do
not actually (8)_____ sports events, but see them through the eyes of the media. And when
they look at sports photography, they look not so much for a (9)____of the event as for
emotions and relationships with which they can (10)_____.


Looking back, we can see how (11)_____ sports photography has changed. (12)_____ sports
photographers were as interested in the stories behind the sport as in the sport itself.


Contemporary sports photography (13)_____the glamour of sport, the color and the action. But
the best sports photographers today still do more than (14)_____tell the story of the event.
They (15)_____in a single dramatic moment the real emotions of the participants.


1. A. exhibit B. show C. demonstrate D. feature



2. A. extended B. enlarged C. prolonged D. spread


3. A. splash B. drip C. dash D. drop


4. A. put B. leave C. lay D. keep


5. A. assisted B. aided C. benefited D. improved


6. A. choose B. value C. praise D. cheer


7. A. high B. wide C. vast D. main


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9. A. preservation B. store C. record D. mark


10. A. identify B. share C. unite D. join


11. A. highly B. radically C. extremely D. severely


12. A. Early B. First C. Initial D. Primary


13. A. outlines B. signals C. emphasizes D. forms


14. A. alone B. simply C. singly D. only


15. A. seize B. grasp C. capture D. secure


1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________


5________



6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________


10________


11_______ 12__________ 13__________ 14________ 15________


X. Read and choose the best answer for the question (2 points)


Biographies of Mohammed are both numerous and unreliable. Non was written in his lifetime,
and all are plagued by legends and embellishments. The best known ones are, based on the
Hadiths, or “traditions”, which are dubious historical value. The Koran may be the only


trustworthy account of the major event of his life.


Mohammed, “the praised One”, founder and prophet of Islam, was born in Mecca in the years
570. He became an orphan at the age of six and was taken into the care of his uncle,
Abu-Talib. The tribe of Fihr, to which Mohammed’s family belonged, was then on the rise. (1)They
had become the keepers and guardians of the Kaaba in Mecca, a site of pre-Islamic Arab
worship (and now the holiest place in Islam). Their preeminence made it easier for Mohammed
to accomplish his later religious and political conquest. (2)


(3) Mohammed’s early life was spent as a shepherd and caravan attendant. He is thought to
have been quiet man, much given to fasting and prayer. At the age 25 he married a rich, older
widow, Khadeejah.(4) The frequent commercial journey he made after his marriage allowed him
to learn the rudiments of Judaism and Christianity.


When Mohammed was forty years old, he received what he believed to be a call from the Angel
Gabriel, inaugurating his career as a phrophet of Allah and the apostle of Arabia. His first
converts included his wife and daughter, his adopted son Ali, and his slave Zayd. Mohammed’s


attacks on traditional Arab belief provoked ourage and persecution in Mecca, which drove him
to the city of Medina in 622. There he was welcomed as God’s prophet, and found a growing
number of supporters. With their help he conquered several Arab, Jewish and Christian tribes,
of marched triumphantly back to Mecca in 630, destroyed the idols, and united all the tribes
under one religion. He made his last pilgrimage to Mecca with 40,000 followers in 632 and died
soon afterward of a fever at the age of 63.


After Mohammed’s death, his successors, the caliphs, aspired to make Islam a world religion
through the conquest of foreign lands. In less than a century they succeeded in taking


Palestine, Syria, Mesopotania, Egypt, North Africa, and southern Spain. In 732 the Muslim
armies were at last defeated at Tours, where their western conquests ended. But they went on
to conquer Oersia, Afghanistan, and part of India. When the Mongols and Turks conquered the
Muslims in the thirteenth century, they adopted Islam as their own religion.


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Shiah, or Schismatics, upheld the divine right of Mohammed’s son Ali to be his father’s
successor.


1. What is the topic of the passage?


A. The founding and spread of Islam C. the basis of Islamic belief


B. The tribe of Mohammed D. Islam after Mohammed


2. According to the passage, what is the problem with most accounts of Mohammed’s life?
A. They were written by non-Muslims


B. They do not describe his early life
C. They contain some false information
D. They have been destroyed



3. The word which refers to


A. Tribe B. family C. uncle D. Mohammed


4. Which is the best place for the following sentence?


“Of the six children, only their daughter Fatima survived into adulthood”


A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D(4)


5. The word inaugurating is closest in meaning to


A. Improving B. confirming C. beginning D. expanding


6. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the underlined
sentence in the passage?


A. Mohammed’s supports in Mecca asked him to go to Media to fight against attacks on
Arab belief.


B. People in Mecca who became angry about Mohammed’s persecution were forced to go
to Media.


C. Mohammed’s traditional Arab belief led to great anger against Mohammed in Mecca and
later in Medina


D. Mohammed had to go to Medina after angering people in Mecca with his criticism of
older Arab belief.



7. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that


A. Mohammed’s belief did not differ much from traditional Arab beliefs
B. Before Mohammed, Arabs did not all practice the same religion
C. The Arabs had no religion before Mohammed


D. Media was a more religious city than Mecca


8. According to the reading, what helped Mohammed in his conquests?
A. The power of his tribe


B. The support of the caliphs


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A. The Muslim armies won their final victory at Tours


B. The Mongols converted to Islam after being conquered by the Muslims


C. The Turks and Mongols became Muslims after their defeat of the Muslim armies.
D. Because of their defeat in 73, the Muslim armies lost most of the territory they had
conquered.


10. The Schismatic wanted


A. To make Islam a world religion
B. To choose the caliphs themselves


C. To let Ali take Mohammed’s place as leader
D. To divide Muslims into various sects


XI. Read the text and fill in each numbered blank with ONE word. (2 points)



British television is the big success story of post-war years. Little (1) …..than a limited
experiment before the war, it blossomed in (2)………. years following 1945. (3) …..1955,
commercial television began. Today, 90 per cent of population have television in (4)
………homes.


In 1960, a committee of enquiry was (5)………up, (6)…………..the chairmanship of Sir Harry
Pilkington, to investigate the working of broadcasting. The Pilkington Report, published in 1962,
had (7)………to say: “Television has been (8)……….a mirror of society, but the metaphor, (9)
………….striking, wholly misses the major issue of the responsibility (10)……….the


broadcasting authorities, what is the (11) ……to reflect? It is to reflect the best or the worst
(12)…………us?


One cannot escape the question by saying that it must do both one must ask then
(13)……….. it is to present the best and the worst with complete indifference and


(14)…….comment. Television (15)……..not, and cannot, merely reflect the moral standards of
society. It must affect (16)……….either by changing or by reinforcing them”.


All broadcasting, and television (17)……….., must be ready and anxious to experiment, to
show (18)………..new and unusual, to give a hearing (19)………… dissent. Here, broadcasting
must be worst willing to make mistakes; for if it does not, it will (20)……….no discoveries.


1_______¬_ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________


6_______¬_ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________


11_______¬_ 12__________ 13__________ 14________ 15________



16_______¬_ 17__________ 18__________ 19________ 20________


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Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
given word. Do not change the word given. You must use between THREE AND EIGHT
WORDS; including the word given


Example


Do you mind if I watch you while you paint? (OBJECTION)
Do you have any objection while you pain?


1. It is extremely important that company rules are observed
utmost Observation


____________________¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________________________importance.


2. Sooner or later, Michael will have to ___ fact that he’s not going to win another major race.
terms Sooner or later, Michael will have to _______________fact that he’s not going to win
another major race.


3. The film didn’t live up to our expectations, despite all the publicity.


short The film _________¬¬¬_______________our expectations, despite all the publicity
4. Although the Government has introduced new legislation, the transport crisis is growing
worse


brought Although new legislation____________________, the transport crisis is growing worse.
5. The plans for the new bypass were not popular with many people.


favour Many people were __________________the new bypass


XIII. Writing task 2 (4 points)


The pie chart shows the main reasons why agricultural land become less productive. The table
shows how these causes affected three regions of the world during 1990s.


Summaries the information by selecting and reporting the main features and makes comparison
where relevant.


Causes of worldwide land degradation


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Deforestation Over- cultivation Over-grazing Total land degraded


North America 0,2 3,3 1,5 5%


Europe 9,8 7,7 5,5 23%


Oceania* 1,7 0 11,3 13%


*A large group of islands in the South Pacific including Australia and New Zealand
ĐÁP ÁN


PART A: LISTENING (3 points): (0,1 x 30 = 3 points)


1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D


5. F 6. F 7. T 8. F 9. T


10. build your CV 11. gain 12. broaden skills


13. September 14. October 15



15 – 17 (any order): B, C, E


18. F 19. F 20. F 21. F 22. T


23. fishing technology 24. faster 25. extinct 26. blue whales


27. protected 28. Iceland 29. Norway 30. Japan


PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (5 points)


IV. Choose the correct answer to each question (1 point)(01 x 10 = 1 point)


1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A


6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B


V. Fill in each blank with a suitable particle or preposition (1 point) (01 x 10 = 1 point)


1. away 2. down 3. out 4. around 5. out


6. by 7. for 8. off 9. with 10. under


VI. There are 10 mistakes . Find and correct them (1 point)(01 x 10 = 1 point)


1. a law  the law 2. in other  among other 3. rather than  other than
4. a Basque  the Basque 5. lingual  linguistics 6. tolerate  tolerant


7. reverse  reversal 8. Along  but 9. usage  use



10. protests  protest


VII. Supply the correct form of the words in the bracket (1 point) (01 x 10 = 1 point)
1. scientific 2. uninterested 3. exhibition 4. selection 5. training
6. excitement 7. inexperienced 8. specialists 9. practical 10. welcoming
VIII. Supply the correct form of the verbs (1 point)(01 x 10 = 1 point)


1. produced 2. hardened 3. would drip 4. encasing 5. tossed


6. believing 7. expose 8. are declining 9. are always being discovered
10. guaranteeing.


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IX. Read the text and decide which word best fits each blank (3 points)(0,2 x 15 = 3 points)


1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D


6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. A


11. B 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. C


X. Read and choose the best answer for the question (2 points)(0,2 x 10 = 2 points)


1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C


6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. C


XI. Read the text and fill in with ONE word. (2 points) (0,1 x 20 = 2 points)


1. more 2. the 3. In 4. their 5. set



6. under 7. this 8. called 9. although 10. of


11. mirror 12. in 13. if 14. without 15. should


16. them 17. especially 18. something 19. to 20. make


PART D: WRITING ( 5 points)


XII. Writing task 1 (1 point) (0,2 x 5 = 1 point)


1. Observation of the company rules is of the utmost importance.


2. Sooner or later, Michael will have to come to terms with the fact that he’s not going to win
another major race


3. The film fell short of our expectation.


4. Although new legislation has been brought in, the transport crisis is growing worse.
5. Many people were not in favour of the plans for the new bypass


XIII. Writing task 2 (4 points)
1. Content: (1,5 points)


a. Providing all main ideas and details as required
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively


- 4 main causes, among which over grazing accounts for the greatest part.


- the effects the 3 causes to different regions at different degree and the total land degraded.
2. Organization & Presentation: (1 point)



a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The report is well-structured


3. Language: (1 point)


a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures
b. Good use of grammatical structures


4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: (0,5 points)
a. Intelligible handwriting


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3. Đề số 3



PART A: PHONETICS (1 point)


I. Identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of other words in the group
1. A. redundant B. descendant C. relevant D. consultant


2. A. argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive
3. A. compensate B. sacrifice C. renovate D. contribute
4. A. associate B. original C. stability D. accelerate
5. A. tremendous B. luminous C. enormous D. autonomous


PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (9 points)
II. Choose the correct answer to each question (2 points)


1. The brochure stated the hotel was situated ... beside the sea.
A. direct B. right C. precise D. exact
2. All candidates will be treated equally_____ of their age or background.


A. notwithstanding B. discounting C. irrelevant D. irrespective
3. “Another cup of coffee?” – “No, but thanks ...”


A. not at all B. for all C. all the same D. you for all
4. You are late again. Try to be ... in future.


A. accurate B. punctual C. efficient D. reliable


5. In some educational systems, ………education is post-secondary education up to the
level of a bachelor’s degree.


A. graduate B. postgraduate C. undergraduate D. lower-graduate
6. . ……Japanese he speaks is often heard in the countryside.


A. A B. An C. Any D. The
7. The majority of nurses are women, but in the higher ranks of the medical profession
women are in a …………..


A rarity B. minority C. scarcity D. minimum
8. Why don’t the police take _____ measures against crime?


A. affective B. ineffective C. effective D. efficient


9. ……….the consequences, I would never have contemplated getting involved.
A. If I realizedB. Had I realizedC. Unless I realizedD. When I had realized
10. The Silence of the Lambs is the most ... film I’ve ever seen.
A. terrified B. terrifying C. scared D. excited
III. Put the correct form of the verbs (1 point)


- What you (1. mean) ..., the accident (2. be) ... my fault? If it (3. be) ...,


surely I (4. not call) ... the police.


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- When the school finally (7. close) ... its doors in 1988, Mr. Roberts (8. teach) ...
there for 25 years. As a result, he (9. decide) ... to take early retirement and (10. be)
... now to be seen tending his garden most sunny afternoon.


IV. Put the correct form of the words in brackets (2 points )


1. People used to suffer from their life-time physical ________ (normal)
2. If you think I am going to marry you, then I’m afraid you’re very much ____(take).
3. The man was found guilty of fraud and sentenced to three years _____ (prison)
4. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later _____ when a medical


check proved that he had been taking drugs (qualify)
5. The recent hurricane caused _____ damaged (wide)
6. Jim is one of the most _____ members of the committee (speak)
7. We try to ensure the ____ of our employees (be)
8. The dictionaries are with the other_______ books. (refer)
9. I was annoyed at his _________to co-operate. (refuse)
10.Thank you for your present. It was very ________ of you to send it. (think)
V. Fill in the gaps in the letter with a suitable preposition (2 points)


Dear Mr Rees,


Thank you for your letter of 21 June. I was very disturbed by your account (1)____ what


happened (2)______ our hotel last week and I am writing to apologizefor this. I can understand
that you were shocked by the way the employee spoke to you. There can be no excuse


(3)_____such behaviour and I fully understand why you felt the need to complain (4)_____the


situation. I can provide no explanation _____(5) the way the receptionist behaved.


Our hotel group has a reputation forbeing good at looking (6)_____ our customers, and I am
very sorry that your experience (7)_____our service did not confirm this. I intend to deal with the
staff member appropriately and I will ensure that she does not repeat this behaviour by sending
her (8)______ a retraining course next week. I would like to assure you that the behaviour you
encountered is not typical (9)_____our staff.


As the manager, I am responsible for all of our employees, so please accept my apologizes
again and this voucher worth $50 to spend in any (10)____ our hotels


VI. In most lines of the following text, there is one word which is either grammatically
incorrect or does not fit in with the sense of the text. Find this wrong word and then write
in the space given. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick (P). Two


examples are given (0) and (00) (2 points)


Midsummer, the celebration of the turning of the sun, has been being the highlight
of the northern summer for centuries- an event full of symbolism, customs, magic
and superstitions. In Finland, Midsummer night is so short


as that evening duck flows into morning dawn almost unnoticed. Even in
southern Finland, midnight is the best described as strong twilight.


Midsummer night was, most of all, the cerebration of greenery and fruit. Nature is
in a full bloom then and the day is never-ending. It was


customary throughout Finland to bring branches and greenery to indoors on
Midsummer Eve. Houses were so thoroughly cleaned and decorated with
birch branches and flower garlands. This ‘indoor forest’ was complete when


leaves on the scrubbed floor gave out a fresh forest aroma. Midsummer is


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still the Finns’ most important summer cerebration. They gather together around
the bonfire to make dance, play and be with family and friends


themselves. In some areas Midsummer poles decorated with flowers garlands and
leaves are erected for the festivities. Although some of the old ceremonies are
now performed only for fun, Midsummer night, as bathed in the strange white light
of the North, is still mysterious.


7………
8………
9………
10………
PART C: READING (6 points)


VII. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with ONE suitable word (2 points)
RULES, LAWS AND NORMS


Any discussion of criminal behaviour requires understanding of the difference in meaning of
rules, laws, and norms. Rules may be (1)_____, or formal and written. The rules of dress or
how we eat are unwritten guides. (2) ______contrast, the rules of a factory, for example safety
regulations, are usually written down and serve (3)____strict regulators of behaviour.


Laws are perhaps, the best example of written, formal rules and are decided upon by powerful
and influential groups in society. In order to ensure that everyone adheres (4)_____ the laws,
there are specific penalties, including fines or imprisonment, for those (5)_____ guilty of
breaking them .Unlike other rules, (6)_____ as rules of dress or of grammar, laws can always
be enforced by agencies like the police and the courts.



A norm is very much a general term; it is an expected (7)____ of behaviour shared by member
of a social group. Norms can be thought of as unwritten rules. Example of these are that
parents should play with their children, or that you should (8)_____ in the appropriate way to a
“good morning” greeting. Norms are part of the culture of a (9)_____ and are (10)_____ on
from one generation to the next over time.


VIII.Read and choose the best answer for each question (2 points)


Sigmund Fred was not a literary theorist. However, he did contribute to critical theory through
both his theories and his use of art to show that the application of psychology can extend to the
highest forms of cultures. Freud was always interested in literature, and he drew some of the
best illustrations of his theories from classic poems and plays.


Freud saw the unconscious as the impetus of both natural and psychic activity. Therefore, the
same principles operated in both, and that the same mechanisms – such as displacement and
symbolization – applied. While Freud was not the first to note the importance of the


unconscious mind, he was the first to attempt to coherent theory of its operation and function.
He argued that the unconscious operates according to universal law and is crucial to all aspects
of mental life that involve fantasy, or diversion from reality. From this point of view, it is natural
to apply Freudian principles to imaginative literature. Writers transform individual, unconscious
fantasy into universal art – a kind of formal fantasy halfway between a reality that denies
wishes and a world of imagination in which every wish is granted.


In focusing on the unconscious origins for literature, Freud was in a sense reviving the


traditional idea of divine inspiration. (1) Philosophers and art theorists have often turned to such
a theory of the imagination to explain multiple meanings, repetition, and any apparent


disorder in art. Similarly, psychoanalysis uses the theory of the unconscious to explain


examples of “disorder” in consciousness, such as dreams.


(2) This analogy allowed Freud to suggest that fantasies called art could be interpreted in the
same way as dreams. Writers, as Freud noted, have always seen great significance in dreams.
In his view, portrayals of dreams in works of literature supported his own theories


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displacement and symbolization obviously resemble the literary devices of metaphor and
symbolism. (3)


Critics of Freud have objected that the non-logical processes of the unconscious do not
resemble the conscious effort that results in work of literature. Freud would reply that while
conscious thought is necessary to produce works of art, the creative source of art remain in the
conscious. In this view, conscious activity merely obscures what is truly important in art. What
interested Freud were the deep unconscious structure literature shares with myth and religion,
as well as with dreams. The apparent individuality of literature was not as significant as its
ultimate universality. (4)


1. Which of the following best states the main idea of the reading?


A. The best way to understand the creation of literature is through Freud’s theory of
psychoanalysis.


B. Freud argued convincingly that both psychic phenomena and literature may be
interpreted with reference to the unconscious.


C. Creating works of literature is very similar to dreaming.


D. Freud’s theories explain why both dreams and literature contain various form of disorder.
2. According to the passage, which of the following is true of Freud



A. He was a literary theorist.


B. He has had an influence on literary theory.


C. He wrote several plays and poems that illustrate his theories
D. He was the first to discover the unconscious.


3. The word impetus could be best replace by


A. Source B. opposite C. form D. reason
4. The word both refers to


A. displacement and symbolization


B. repression and the economy of psychic expenditure
C. cultural and psychic phenomena


D. principles and mechanisms


5. The author uses the phrases formal fantasy in order to
A. describe the nature of literature.


B. describe the nature of the unconscious
C. give an example of diversion from reality
D. give an example of a Freud principle


6. Which is the best place for the following sentence?


“And like dreams, literary works can have more than one interpretation”
A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4)


7. According to the passage, displacement in dreams is similar to


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8. What is possible objection to the passage’s main idea does the author discuss in the last
paragraph?


A. Freud emphasized the unconscious, but writing results from conscious thought
B. Freud claimed that art is created logically, but it really has unconscious origins
C. Writers have never placed much significance on dreams


D. Freud argued that literature is individual, but it is actually universal
9. The word their refer to


A. writers B. works C. theories D. dreams
10.Why does the author mention multiple meaning and repetition?


A. To emphasize the non-rational nature of art
B. To give examples of disorder in art


C. To show the similarity between art and dreams
D. To give examples of divine inspiration


IX. Choose the best option to complete the reading text (2 points)


When I first arrived to take up my new job, I stayed in a hotel, but I soon started looking for
some permanent (1) ... The first flat I (2) ...over was in a basement and was
obviously extremely damp in winter. Quite apart from the fact that the only (3) ... was of
brick wall. Then I had a look at a small flat in a modern (4) ... It had a (5)


...space and a garden, but the (6) ... was far too high for me. I did not want to
end up in a tiny place, so I answered an ad for house-sharing. The house was in a quiet (7)


..., and as soon as I saw it I fell in love with it. There was a high overgrown hedge around
the front garden, and place to park car in the drive. The room to (8) ...looked out (9)
...the back garden, and had a big bay window. Although it meant (10) ... the
kitchen and living room, I did have my own bathroom, really just a shower and washbasin
crammed into what must have once been a cupboard.


1. A. home B. accommodation C. house D. landlady
2. A. passed B. viewed C. came D. looked
3. A. view B. entrance C. distance D. bathroom
4. A. tower B. department C. block D. square
5. A. living B. breathing C. working D. parking
6. A. lift B. roof C. area D. rent
7. A. surrounding B. neighborhood C. context D. premises
8. A. let B. myself C. pay D. lend
9. A. in B. over C. at D. for
10. A. without B. in C. sharing D. having


PART D: WRITING (4 points)


X. Rewrite the following sentence in such a way that they mean almost the same as the
ones printed before them. (1 point)


1. I don’t suppose you have change for a pound, do you?


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2. She insisted on a full apology.


Nothing but………
3. House prices have risen dramatically this year.


There has ...



4. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved.
There was no question………..


5. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that Karen had changed her job.


It came ...


XI. For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in
meaning to the origin sentence, but using the given word (1 point)


1. She does not want to be involved in the scandal caused by her husband’s


remarks. (DIST
ANCE)


She ………
2. It wasn’t my intention to upset you. (MEAN)
I ………...


3. We won’t get to the airport in less than 30 minutes. (LEAST)
It will ...
4. I tried the talk to Jack about the problem but he was too busy. (WORD)
I tried to ...


5. We cannot make any comparison with her sacrifice. (COMPARED)
Nothing……….…


XII. Writing an essay (2 points)



It is said that increasing in the price of petrol is best way to solve growing traffic and
pollution problems.


What is your opinion? Write an essay discussing the matter.
You should write at least 200 words


-- The end--
PART A: PHONETICS


I. Identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of other words in the group (1
point)- (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 point)


1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B
PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR


II. Choose the correct answer to each question (2 points))- (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C


6. D 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B
III. Put the correct form of the verbs (1 point)(0,1 x 10 = 1.0 point)


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5. Had it not been 6. would not have been 7. closed
8. had been teaching 9. decided 10. is


IV. Put the correct form of the words in brackets (2 points ) ( 0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)
1. abnomalities 2. mistaken 3. imprisonment 4. disqualified
5. widespread 6. outspoken 7. well-being 8. reference
9. refusal 10. thoughtful.


V. Fill in the gaps in the letter with a suitable preposition (2 points) (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)


1. of 2. in 3. for 4. about 5. for


6. after 7. of 8. on 9. of 10. of


VI. Find this wrong word and then write in the space given. Some lines are correct. Indicate
these lines with a tick (P). Two examples are given (0) and (00). (2 points) (0,2 x 10 = 2.0
points)


1. (P) 2. as 3. the 4. a 5. to
6. so 7. (P) 8. make 9. themselves 10. as


PART C: READING


VII. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with ONE suitable word ( 2 points)
(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)


1. unwritten 2. In 3. as 4. to 5. found
6. such 7. mode 8. respond 9. society 10. passed/handed
VIII. Read and choose the best answer for each question (2 points)(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D


6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. D


IX Choose the best option to complete the reading text ( 2 points)(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. D


6. D 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C
PART D: WRITING


X. Rewrite the following sentence in such a way that they mean almost the same as the ones


printed before them. (1 point)(0,2 x 5 = 1.0 point)


1. Do you happen to have change for a pound?


2. Nothing but a full apology would satisfy her/was accepted


3. There has been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.


4. There was no question of drugs being involved whatever the methods used to obtain the
result.


5. It came as no surprise to me to hear that Karen had changed her job.


XI. For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning
to the origin sentence, but using the given word (1 point)(0,2 x 5 = 1.0 point)


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2. I did not mean to upset you


3. It will take us at least 30 minutes to get to the airport.


4. I tried to have a word with Jack about the problem but he was too busy.
5. Nothing can be compared with her sacrifice.


XII. Writing an essay ( 2 points)
1. Content: (1,0 point)


a. Providing main ideas and details as required


b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Organization & Presentation: (0,25 point)



a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The essay is well-structured


3. Language: (0,5 point)


a. Demonstration of a variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures
b. Good use of grammatical structures


4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: (0,25 point)
a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes


b. Intelligible handwriting


---Hết---

4. Đề số 4



SECTION I: LISTENING (3 POINTS) (You will hear 2 times for each part)


Part 1: a. Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (0.2/each)


BONNINGTON HOTEL REGISTRATION FORM
+ Date: 17th<sub> June </sub>


+ Type of room: (1) ______________ + Number of nights: (2) ______________
+ Special requests: Room overlooking the (3) ______________


+ Guest details:



- Name: Mrs. G. (4) ______________.
- Home address: (5) ______________ Drive.
- Zip code (6) ______________.
+ Payment Method: (7) ______________.


Part 1: b. Choose the correct answer A, B or C (0.2/each).


8. Guests who want to eat breakfast in the Washington Room have to _______ .


A. complete a request form B. present their registration card C. place an order in the
evening


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B. There are PCs in the hotel bedrooms
C. Guests can rent a phone cable


10. What is the quickest way of getting information about the local theater?
A. ask the porter B. look on teletext C. go to the theater


Part 2: Listen to the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each question.
(0.2/each):


11. What do mountain gorillas mainly eat?
A. Insects


B. Worms
C. Plants


D. All are correct


12. By whom is a typical group led?



A. A female gorilla
B. The biggest adult female gorilla


C. The biggest and strongest adult male gorilla
D. A grown-up gorilla


13. Where do gorillas sleep?
A. In trees


B. In grasses
C. In nests
D. On the ground


14. Why are gorillas endangered and threatened?


A. Due to civil wars in the small part of Asia, hunting and deforestation
B. Due to hunting and cutting down trees in the forests


C. Due to hunting, deforestation and civil wars in the small part of Africa
D. All are correct


15. Which of the following statements is NOT true?


A. Mountain gorillas live in Africa C. Life for mountain gorillas is not always
peaceful


B. Mountain gorillas are dangerous D. Mountain gorillas live in groups
SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5.0 POINTS – 0.17/each)



Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) that best completes each unfinished sentence.
16. - “If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” - “________”


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C. All right. You will be OK. D. I’m afraid you will have to do
it.


17.. Half of the children were away from school last week because of ________ of influenza.
A. a break-out B. a breakthrough C. an outburst D. an outbreak


18.. The Red Cross is _______ to giving medical aid and other help to victims of disasters.
A. aimed B. promoted C. dedicated D. designed


19. The school principal ______ that all students hand in their cell phones to teachers during
school years.


A. strongly advised B. urgently asked C. firmly told D. firmly insisted
20. “Shall we wait a little longer?” –“________.”


A. No, we don’t B. No, I’d rather not C. No, it’s still early D. Yes, it’s very late
now


21. Hello. Is that 4578? Please put me ________ to the manager.


A. across B. up C. over D. through
22. I’m looking for a ________ for my father’s birthday.


A. cheap white Japanese clock radio
B. white cheap Japanese clock radio


C. Japanese cheap white clock radio


D. Japanese white cheap clock radio


23. The facilities of the older hospital are as good _______.
A. as or better than that of the new hospital


B. as or better that the new hospital


C. as or better than those of the new hospital
D. as or better than the new hospital


24. Not having written about the required topic, ________ a low mark.
A. my presentation was given B. the teacher gave
C. the teacher gave me D. I was given


25. Jane is a sympathetic listener. She lent me a(n)_______ when I lost my job.
A. mind B. ear C. mouth D. eye
26. I was just about ________the office when the telephone rang.


A. leave B. leaving C. to leave D. to have left
27. A: “Do you know how old I am?” - B: “_______ .”


A. Happy birthday B. I couldn’t help it C. Don’t mention it D. I haven’t a clue
28.. _______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer toB. What we refer to C. To which we referD. What do we refer to
29. By the end of this month I _______ at this school for two years.


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C. will have been studying D. will be studying
30. She got up early; otherwise she ________ her bus.


A. would have missed B. would miss C. missed D. had missed


31. Please cut my hair _______ the style in this magazine.


A. the same length as B. the same long as
C. the same length like D. the same long like
32. The contractor’s recommendation is that the old building ________.


A. is needed repairing B. need repairing C. needs to be repaired D. need to repair
33. The restaurant is very popular with film stars, artists, and the ________.


A. same B. equal C. such D. like
34. People of all countries are expected to ________the principles of the United Nations.
A. uphold B. inspect C. exaggerate D.


integrate


35. ________ broken several world records in swimming.


A. She is said that she has B. People say she had
C. She is said to have D. It is said to have
36. Some very important issue was taking ________all his attention.


A. up B. off C. out D. in
37. “Why don’t you sit down and ________?”


A. make yourself at peace B. make it your own home
C. make yourself at home D. make yourself at rest
38. They were ________ to sell their house in order to pay their debts.


A. imposed B. necessary C. indispensable D. obliged
39. “Please, will you just tidy your room, and stop ________ excuses!”



A. making B. doing C. having D. taking
40. The business ________ after new incentives were introduced.


A. thrilled B. urged C. boomed D. persisted
41. “You can go to the party tonight________ you are sober when you come home.”
A. as soon as B. as long as C. as well as D. as far as
42. To do ________ professionally requires a lot of skills.


A. photographer B. photographic C. photography D. photograph
43. He wondered ________his sister looked like, because they hadn’t seen each other for a
long time.


A. why B. which C. how D. what
44. In her time, Isadora Duncan was _______ today a liberated woman.


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C. what we would call D. she would call her
45. ________ will China be the first to use nuclear weapons.


A. At one time B. At a time C. At any time D. At no time
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points – 0.3/each)


Part 1. Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question. (3.0
points)


1


5


10



15


20


A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.


The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use
of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication
through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a
tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent
within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven
and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a
group, a person’s tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At


interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words
chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously
reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety,


enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernable by the acute listener. Public
performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own


techniques for obtaining effects by voice and/or gesture. The motivation derived from the
text, and in the case of signing, the music, in combination with the performer’s skills,
personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or
pedagogic communication.


Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person’s self-image, perception of others,
and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident,
pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits.


Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy
person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener’s
receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the
tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health
is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and
harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.


46. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The function of the voice in performance
B. Communication styles


C. The connection between voice and personality
D. The production of speech


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A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.


B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.


D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
48. The word “Here” in line 9 refers to _______.


A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
49. The word “derived” in line 13 is closest in meaning to _______.


A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D.
obtained


50. Why does the author mention “artistic, political, or pedagogic communication” in line 15?


A. As examples of public performance B. As examples of basic styles of


communication


C. To contrast them to singing D. To introduce the idea of self-image
51. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person’s
_______.


A. general physical health B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality


52. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide _______.
A. hostility B. shyness
C. friendliness D. strength


53. The word “drastically” in line 21 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. frequently B. exactly
C. severely D. easily
54. The word “evidenced” in line 22 is closest meaning to _______.


A. questioned B. repeated
C. indicated D. exaggerated


55. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy B. Depression
C. Boredom D. Anger


Part 2: Read the text below and then: (3.0 points)


a. Choose from the list A-I the sentence which best summarizes each part (56-63) of the article.


There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.


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E. Added ingredients may improve convenience products.
F. There is now a greater choice of convenience food.


G. Some convenience products need careful storage and cooking.
H. Convenience food has some advantages.


I. Convenience products are claimed to be healthy, but in reality that is not true.
CONVENIENCE FOOD


56. _________________


Technological advances have dramatically increased the quality and range of convenience
meals that are now available. Vacuum-packed or frozen pre-cooked meals ready for the


microwave, packets of soup, cake and sauce mixes, instant mashed potato and frozen peas are
just a few of the time-saving foods that many people now rely on.


57. _________________


Although pre-prepared meals save time, they may not always be as nutritious as those
prepared in your own kitchen. This is because each time they are heated they lose some of
their vitamins, and many ‘heat-and-eat’ meals have already been cooked before they are
reheated. Convenience food also tends to contain more sugar, salt and fat than most other
food.


58. _________________


However, there are a lot of so-called ‘healthy’ meals, usually identified by ‘healthy eating’


symbols or the manufacturer’s own brand name for their low-calorie products. Some labels
mention ‘reduced’ or ‘controlled’ sodium, but these may still contain considerable amounts of
salt.


59. _________________


A meal in a packet is a useful standby, especially in families who like to eat different things at
different times, and for people who work late. It is often cheaper than a takeaway and a
convenient alternative to cooking from scratch. And it saves on washing up.


60. _________________


The ‘healthy’ versions of most pre-prepared dishes are more expensive than their standard
equivalents, but may be a better choice if they are lower in fat. Levels of other ingredients in the
standard and ‘healthy’ varieties are usually similar.


61. _________________


Although some ready-made foods are sold as ‘complete’ meals, they are rarely a good source
of vegetables or starchy foods. It is a good idea, therefore, to add extra vegetables or a salad
along with a starchy food, such as brown rice or a whole meal roll.


62. _________________


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keeping it in a refrigerator or freezer, following microwave guidelines and making sure food is
really hot before eating.


63. _________________


Although many people view additives with suspicion, they have their advantages. Their



presence is often vital if food is not to spoil, and many result in better taste, texture or color. All
additives are the subject of strict safety checks and allergic reactions are very rare.


b. Choose the option A, B, C, or D which you think fits best.


64. What does It in line 13 refer to?


A. a cake B. a family C. a packet D. a
meal


65. Which of the following is not true about a pre-cooked food?


A. It saves time B. It has some advantages


C. It needs adding some more salt D. It should be kept in a refrigerator or freezer
SECTION IV: WRITING (6.0 POINTS)


Part


1: Rewrite each of the sentences using the given word so that the new one has a


similar meaning as the given one. You must not change the given word. (1.5 points –
0.3/each).


66. You should wash your shirt right now before that stain dries. (NEEDS)


...
...



67. Do you have to wear Ao dai at school? (COMPULSORY)


...
...


68. It doesn’t matter whether you do it or not. (DIFFERENCE)


...
...


69. Phuong works more efficiently if she’s pressed for time.


The less time...
70. You may be smart, but you must be educated to become an overall successful person.
Smart ………
Part 2: Graph Description (2.0 points)


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You should write at least 120 words to describe the information given in the chart. You may
make comparisons where relevant (and do not include your personal information).


Note:


* National Examinations for GCSE (General Certificate of Secondary Education) = Kỳ thi tốt
nghiệp Trung học phổ thôngQuốc gia.


* All the data shown in this chart are created to use for writing task. They are not real data.
Part 3: Essay Writing (2.5 points)


Some people like reading books for knowledge and pleasure; others prefer getting
information and entertainment on the internet. What is your opinion?



Write an essay and give reasons and examples to support your viewpoint; do not include your
personal information.


You should write at least 200 words.

5. Đề số 5



PART I: PHONETICS. (1,0 POINT)


Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same
group. Write your answer in the numbered box.


1. A. hospital B. mischievous C. supportive D. special
2. A. family B. whenever C. obedient D. solution


3. A. biologist B. generally C. responsible D. security
4. A. confident B. important C. together D. exciting


5. A. possible B. university C. secondary D. suitable
6. A. medieval B. humanity C. psychology D. familiar


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10. A. simplify B. national C. illiteracy D. secretary
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (7,5 POINTS)


I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1,0
point)


1. The criminal was sentenced to death because of …….of his crime.


A. the severity B. the complexity C. a punishment D. the importance


2. “Would you like me to get a taxi?” - “…….”


A. That would be delightful. Thanks B. Well, let’s see.
C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother D. Yes, I see.


3. If it…….their encouragement, he could have given it up.


A. hadn’t been B. had been C. hadn’t been for D. had been for
4. By the end of this month I…….for this company for two years.


A. have been working B. will have been working
C. will be working D. will work


5. Laura is very thin,…….her young sister, who is quite heavy.


A. dissimilar to B. unlikely C. unlike D. dislike
6. Please…….and see us some time. You’re always welcome.


A. come to B. come about C. come around D. come away
7. They're having a party in…….of his 84th<sub> birthday. </sub>


A. ceremony B. honor C. memory D. celebration
8. The proposal has not met with…….agreement.


A. voluntary B. universal C. informal D. effective
9. A child's vocabulary…….through reading.


A. expands B. expends C. expels D. exposes
10. We…….friends even after we grew up and left home.



A. became B. made C. struck up D. remained


II. Supply the correct form(s) of the verb in brackets to complete each sentence. Write
your answer in the numbered box. (0,5 point)


1. He was the only student …….(award) the special prize in reciting poetry competition.
2. …….(convince) that they were trying to poison him, he refused to eat anything.
3. You look hot. What …….you ……. (do)?


4. I regret …….(invite) him to my party yesterday.
5. Had you studied harder, you …….(get) a prize.


III. Supply the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. Write your
answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)


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3. His …….arrival surprised all his friends and family. (expect)
4. I have known…….for all my life. (hard)


5. It was a…….thing to say. (hurt)


6. Don’t try to do things too quickly. Set yourself a…….target. (really)
7. In…….with the rules of the competition, the team was disqualified. (accord)


8. Snow in August! How…….! (ordinary)


9. The film is entertaining but full of historical ……. (accurate)
10. Since I am an …….driver, I think you should drive. (experience)
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the
numbered box. (2,0 points)



Example: The oil price is believing to be rising again.
A B C D


Your answer: B  is believed


1. Caroline refused to take the job given her because the salary was not good.
A B C D


2. I finished college last year, and I am working here for only eight months now.
A B C D


3. Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
A B C D


4. While the Browns were away on holiday, their house was broken in.
A B C D


5. Why don’t you congratulate our son about passing his final exam?
A B C D


6. Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and he is now looking after a new
one.


A B C D
7. Now I’ve become old, I can’t read as quickly as I used to.


A B C D


8. Although research has been ongoing since 1930, the existence of ESP - perception and
without the



A B
use of the sight, hear, taste, touch or smell - is still disputed.
C D


9. As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures produced in the United States comes
from


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marketing the films abroad.
D


10. Sleep is controlled by the brain and associated by characteristic breathing rhythms
A B C D


V. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. Write
your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)


lay off make up get on care for go
out


fall through come down put off draw up bring
up


1. The teacher…….well with everyone in the school.


2. She…….with a bad cold just before Christmas and she could not come to the party.
3. After his mother died, he…….by his grandmother.


4. Once the fire ……., we had to sit in the cold.



5. The neighbor always …….stories about others. Don’t trust him.
6. I’ve just spent 2 weeks …….an old aunt of mine who’s been ill.
7. The two sides were close to an agreement, but it…….


8. The meeting had to be ……. until a later day.


9. The company has…….two hundred workers because of a lack of new orders.
10. Our lawyers will…….a new contract.


PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)


I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)


The accumulation of book (1) ……. is one part of school education but this kind of learning
can be and often is carried to (2) ……. in many countries so that no time for other interests is (3)
……. to young people. Not only must they attend school (4) ……. five-hour periods on six days
of the week, studying possibly as many as thirteen different subjects, but in addition they may
even go to afternoon institutes for (5) ……. instruction. They have almost no chance of taking (6)
……. any of their own hobbies or becoming familiar with the plants and (7) ……. life of the
countryside except during their summer holidays. Early youth should be a time of exploration and
adventure, of reading books for (8) ……. as well as study, of freedom to enjoy life before the
responsibilities of working for a living and (9) ……. a family (10) ……. an end to study, to freedom
and only too often to carefree enjoyment.


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8. A. pleasure B. amusement C. joy D. entertainment
9. A. creating B. bringing C. building D. raising


10. A. hold B. put C. indicate D. mark



II. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0
points)


The principles of use and disuse states that those parts of organism’s bodies that are used
grow larger. Those parts are not tending to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you
exercise particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used diminish. By examining a
man’s body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he does not. We may even be able to
guess his profession or recreation. Enthusiasts of body building cult make use of the principles
of use and disuse to build their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural
shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of
the body that respond to use in this way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your
soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands alone. The farmer’s
hands are horny hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller’s hands are often soft. The
principles of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their
world, progressively better during their lifetime as the result of living in that world. Humans,
through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to
survive in particular local conditions. Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers
with very fair skins are susceptible to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to
vitamin D deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the
influence of sunlight makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of
further sunlight. If a suntanned person moves to a less sunlight climate, the melanin disappears,
and the body benefits from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the
principles of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is used, and fades to white when it is not.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. How the principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The way people change themselves to conform to fashion.


C. The changes that occur according to the principles of use and disuse.
D. The effects of the sun on the principles of use and disuse.



2. The word “wither way” could be best replaced by …….


A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink


3. The word “those” refers to …….


A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
4. Men who body build …….


A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
5. It can be inferred that the author views body building …….


A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic form
C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefits
6. The word “horny” could be best replaced by …….


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7. It can be inferred that the principles of use and disuse enables organisms to …….
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit


C. survive in any condition D. improve their lifetime
8. The author suggest that melanin …….


A. is necessary to produce vitamin D B. is beneficial in sunless climate
C. helps protects fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product


9. In the 2nd<sub> paragraph, the author mentioned sun tanning as an example of ……. </sub>
A. humans improving their local conditions



B. humans surviving in adverse conditions


C. humans using the principles of use and disuse
D. humans running the risk of cancer


10. The word “susceptible” could be best replaced by …….


A. condemned B. vulnerable C. allergic D. suggestible


III. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in
the numbered box. (2,0 points)


BICYCLE SAFETY


Having to obey rules and regulations when riding a bike is one of the first experiences
children have of the idea of (1) ……. the law. However, a large number of children are left to learn
the rules by trial and error, instead of being guided by experienced (2) …….. Every year, hundreds
of children visit the doctor or the hospital casualty department (3) ……. crashing on their bikes.
This could be easily prevented by (4) ……. them the basics of bicycle safety. Ideally, children
should be allowed to (5) ……. only in safe places, such as parks and cycle tracks. When this is
not possible, and they are permitted to go on the (6) ……., it is important to teach them some
basic safety principles.


First, they ought to learn and obey the rules of the road, which (7) ……. traffic signs, signals
and road markings. Second, they should (8) ……. wear a helmet. Studies have shown that
wearing bicycle helmets can (9) ……. head injuries by up to 85 percent. In many places, (10)
……. are required by law, particularly for children. Finally, children should be made to understand
the importance of riding in areas that are brightly lit and of wearing clothes that make them clearly
visible on the road.



PART IV: WRITING. (5,5 POINTS)


I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (2,0
points)


1. Remember to check for spelling mistakes before you hand in your composition.


Don't ………..
2. Jack has become confident as a result of his success.


Jack’s success


……….………...
3. Green Peace will organize a meeting at the Town Hall next Tuesday.


There ……….….
4. I can't describe people as well as you can.


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5. I didn't arrive in time too see her.


I wasn't ………..
6. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.


All dogs are ………...
7. I was surprised at how easy he was to talk to


I hadn’t expected ………..
8. Adrian was the only person who didn’t enjoy the party.


Everyone enjoyed ……….


9. They were never aware at any moment that something was wrong.


At no time ………..……....
10. Do shops usually stay open so late in this country?


Is it……….……..……….?
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given.
(1,0 point)


1. I don’t know how you can stand getting up so early to go to the pool. put
………


2. These two makes of computer are practically the same. hardly
………


3. Do you think climate affects people’s personalities?
influence


………


4. He doesn’t find it difficult to earn money. trouble
………


5. I’ve finally started sorting out my postcard collection. round
………


III. Write a report of about 150 words to describe the chart. (2,5 points)


The chart below shows the amount of time an average student spends on various
subjects in certain years from 1995 to 2007. Study the chart carefully and comment on the


proportion of time they spend on these subjects every two weeks.


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THE END OF THE TEST
ĐÁP ÁN


Total mark: 20


The mark given is based on the following scheme:


PART ANSWERS MAR


K
PART I:


PHONETICS
: (1,0 point)


Choose the
word whose
stress pattern is
different from
that of the other
words in the
same group.


1. C 0.1 p


2. A 0.1 p


3. B 0.1 p



4. A 0.1 p


5. B 0.1 p


6. A 0.1 p


7. A 0.1 p


8. A 0.1 p


9. B 0.1 p


10. C 0.1 p


PART II:

LEXICO-GRAMMAR
(7,5 points)


I. Choose the
best answer to
fill in each gap.
(1,0 point)


1. A 0.1 p


2. C 0.1 p


3. C 0.1 p



4. B 0.1 p


5. C 0.1 p


6. C 0.1 p


0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50


1995 2000 2005 2007


Natural


sciences


English



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7. D 0.1 p


8. B 0.1 p


9. A 0.1 p



10. D 0.1 p


II. Give the
correct tenses
of the verbs in
brackets. (1,0
point)


1. to be awarded 0.1 p


2. Convinced 0.1 p


3. have … been doing 0.1 p


4. inviting/having invited 0.1 p
5. would have got/would have gotten 0.1 p
III. Put the


correct form of
the words in
brackets. (2,0
points)


1. completely 0.2 p


2. noticeable 0.2 p


3. unexpected 0.2 p



4. hardship 0.2 p


5. hurtful 0.2 p


6. realistic 0.2 p


7. accordance 0.2 p


8. extraordinary 0.2 p


9. inaccuracies 0.2 p


10. inexperienced 0.2 p


IV. Find out and
correct the
mistake in each
sentence. (2,0
points)


1. B  given to 0.2 p


2. C  have been working 0.2 p


3. C  was made 0.2 p


4. D  broken into 0.2 p


5. B  our son on 0.2 p



6. D  looking for 0.2 p


7. A  Now that/Because/As/Since 0.2 p


8. D  hearing 0.2 p


9. A  As much as 0.2 p


10. C  associated with 0.2 p
V. Complete


these sentences
with proper
prepositions.
(2,0 points)


1. got on/gets on 0.2 p


2. came down 0.2 p


3. was brought up 0.2 p


4. went out/had gone out 0.2 p


5. makes up 0.2 p


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7. fell through 0.2 p


8. put off 0.2 p



9. laid off 0.2 p


10. draw up 0.2 p


PART III:
READING:
(6,0 points)


I. Read the
passage below
and decide
which answer
(A, B, C
or D) best fits
each gap. (2,0
points)


1. D 0.2 p


2. B 0.2 p


3. A 0.2 p


4. C 0.2 p


5. D 0.2 p


6. B 0.2 p


7. C 0.2 p



8. A 0.2 p


9. D 0.2 p


10. B 0.2 p


II. Read the
passage, then
choose the
correct options.
(2,0 points)


1. C 0.2 p


2. D 0.2 p


3. D 0.2 p


4. C 0.2 p


5. D 0.2 p


6. C 0.2 p


7. C 0.2 p


8. C 0.2 p


9. C 0.2 p



10. B 0.1 p


III. Read the
passage and fill
in each blank
with ONE
suitable word.
(2,0 points)


1. obeying 0.2 p


2. adults/people 0.2 p


3. after 0.2 p


4. teaching/instructing 0.2 p


5. ride 0.2 p


6. road 0.2 p


7. include 0.2 p


8. always 0.2 p


9. reduce 0.2 p


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PART IV:
WRITING:


(5,5 points)


I. Rewrite each
of the sentences
without


changing its
meaning, using
the cue given.
(2,0 points)


1. Don't forget to check for spelling mistakes


before you hand in your composition. 0.2 p
2. Jack’s success has turned him into a


confident person. 0.2 p


3. There will be a meeting organized by Green


Peace at the Town Hall next Tuesday. 0.2 p
4. You are better at describing people than I am. 0.2 p
5. I wasn't early enough to see her. 0.2 p
6. All dogs are thought to have evolved from


wolves.


0.2 p
7. I hadn’t expected him to be so easy to talk



to.


0.2 p
8. Everyone enjoyed the party apart


from/except (for)/with the exception of Adrian


0.2 p
9. At no time were they aware that something


was wrong.


0.2 p
10. Is it usual for shops to stay open so late in


this country? 0.2 p


II. Rewrite each
of the sentences
without


changing its
meanings. (1,0
point)


1. I don’t know how you can put up with getting


up so early to go to the pool. 0.2 p
2. There is / are hardly any difference(s)



between these two makes of computer. 0.2 p
3. Do you think climate has/can have an/some


influence on people’s personalities? 0.2 p
4. He never has/doesn’t have trouble earning


money. 0.2 p


5. I’ve finally got round to sorting out my


postcard collection. 0.2 p


III. Write an
essay (250 - 300
words) to


express your
opinion. (2,5
points)


1. Content:


a. Providing main ideas and details.


(summarizing the information, reporting the main
features, and make comparisons where


relevant)


b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and


effectively.


2. Organization and presentation:


a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with
coherence, cohesion, and clarity.


b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language:


1.0 p


0.5 p


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a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and
structures.


b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling:
a. Intelligible handwriting.


b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.


0.25 p


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