Some tips and methods to help the 12 grade students at nhu xuan high school deal with the reading comprehension questions in the GCSE test effectively

THANH HOA DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION AND TRAINING

NHU XUAN HIGH SCHOOL

EXPERIENCE INITIATIVE

“ SOME TIPS AND METHODS TO HELP THE 12
GRADE STUDENTS AT NHU XUAN HIGH SCHOOL
DEAL WITH THE READING COMPREHENSION
QUESTIONS IN THE GCSE TEST EFFECTIVELY ”

Author: Le Thi Chung
Position: Teacher
Research area: English


INDEX
NUMBER
IN ORDER
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12

13
14
15
16
17

TABLE OF CONTENTS
PART 1: INTRODUCTION
1.1. Reasons to choose the theme
1.2. Objective and Purposes of the research
1.3. Methods of the research
1.4. Scope of the research
PART 2: PROBLEM SOLVING
2.1. Theoretical basis of the problem
2.2. Practical basis of the problem
2.3. Solution to the problem
2.3.1. Tips to do reading comprehension tests
2.3.2. Types of reading comprehension questions in
the GCSE and how to deal with each type.
2.3.3. Practice exercises
2.3.4. Sample test for assessment of experimental
results.
2.4. The effect of experience initative
PART 3: CONCLUSIONS AND
RECOMMENDATIONS
3.1. Conclusion
3.2. Recommendations
REFERENCES

PAGE

1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
6
16
19
19
19
20

1


1. INTRODUCTION
1.1. Reasons to choose the theme
Nowadays English has become an international language since it is widely
used in many parts of the world and in many fields of our life. As a result, in
Vietnam, English has been a core subject at school and a compulsory subject in
the GCSE.
In the GCSEs, there are twelve reading comprehesion questions with two
passages. Passage 1 contains 5 questions and passage 2 contains 7 questions.
Therefore, reading comprehension question accounts for 24 percent of the total

mark of the test.However, Studying English to get ready for the GCSE ,
especially reading comprehension section is a hard problem and usually makes
students nervous and discouraged. Most students fear the reading
comprehension questions and they often lose the most points. They are
overwhelmed with vocabulary they do not know the meaning.
I notice that the majority of students always find it hard to do this type of
tests. At first sight, they do not figure out the content of the passage, but they are
not patient enough to read the passage to the end under the pressure of time
during the test. Also, this part accounts for a small percentage in the whole test.
As a result, students usually put this part aside and return to it at the end of the
test time. At that time, students will make ticks on this part without intention.
From the fact above, my concern is how to help students overcome the
fears of comprehensive questions and conquer the questions in reading
comprehension section to get better result in the GCSE.
Owing to these necessities, I have made up my mind to choose “Some
tips and methods to help the 12 grade students at Nhu Xuan High School
deal with the reading comprehension questions in the GCSE test effectively
” as my topic of the study.
1.2. Objective and Purposes of the research
The objective of the study is to help my students do reading comprehension
questions in the GCSE effectively.
The main purposes of the research are:
- To help the 12th grade students at Nhu Xuan High School recognise types
of reading comprehesion questions in the GCSE.
- To provide students some ways to confidently and effectively deal with
common types of comprehensive reading questions in the national exam.
- To improve students’ reading skills by analysing the tests in the previous
GCSEs.
- To help students be more confident when taking the coming national
exam to get full mark on the reading comprehension section of the test.

1.3. Method of the research.
I have used a variety of research methods in the process of doing my
study:
2


- Teaching English reading lessons at some 12 classes at Nhu Xuan High
school to find out the reasons why students do not do the reading comprehension
questions effectively.
- Giving students some reading practice tests, observing them do the tests,
measuring the time they spend doing reading comprehenson section.
- Asking students some questions related to reading comprehension test to
discover which types of reading comprehension questions they are afraid of ,
which one they are good or bad at.
- Providing students with a number of tests for practice and assessment.
- Jotting down the students’ results, the questions many students make
mistakes.
- Analysing the students’s work and comparing with the previous result to
find out what are students’s strength and weakness.
1.4. Scope of the research.
The study was carried on students at three classes 12A3, 12A4 and 12A5
at Nhu Xuan high school.
2. PROBLEM SOLVING
2.1. Theoretic basis of the problem
Reading comprehension is not learned in a short time, it is a process that
is learned over time. In other words, reading comprehension requires
practice.Without reading comprehesion skills, they are unable to fully
understand the content, predict what happen next. In reading comprehension
test, not only reading skills but also vocabulary is tested. Therefore, students
need strategies, some tips to conquer reading comprehension questions.

2.2. Practical basis of the problem
Nhu Xuan high school is one of the mountainous schools in Thanh Hoa
province. Students have not had much good chance of studying and using
English until recently.
There is a fact that the result of English in national examination of
students at Nhu Xuan high school has not been good. I notice that the majority
of students from my school refused to read the passages or only read them
without intention, then choose the answers randomly. As a result, students did
not make efforts into the reading comprehension section. Meanwhile this section
accounts for approximately one fourths of the score in the whole test.
Working as a teacher for a long time, I myself understand the nature of the
problem and usually find it necessary to find out the ways to improve the
situation. I try my best to do this research with a view to getting my students to
benefit from it by giving students detailed tips and strategies for doing reading
comprehension questions and sample passages to practice.
2.3. Solutions to the problem
2.3.1 Tips to do reading comprehension tests
Each reading passage is often followed by 5-7 questions of reading
3


comprehension and vocabulary.Some students, especially average students, note
that they are unable to finish all the questions in this section. Others cannot
understand what the passage is about, so they do without intention and don’t
know surely if their answer is true. Therefore, they need to make the most
efficient use of their time in this section to get the highest score. The following
tips are the best ways of attacking a reading passage to get the most questions
correct in a limited amount of time.
Do not spend too much time reading the passage. Remember that it is not
expected of every student to undersatnd all the words, all the sentences and all

the lines of the passage.
Do not worry if a reading passage is on the topic we are unfamiliar. Keep
in mind that all of the information that we need to answer the questions is
included in the passage.
Be familiar with questions: there are some common types of questions in
the GCSE. Students will save time and get over them efectively if they get to
know of types of questions and methods to deal with each type.
Skim the reading passage to determine the main idea and the overall
organizations of ideas in the passage. You do not need to understand every detail
in each passage to answer the questions correctly. It is therefore a waste of time
to read the passage with the intent of understanding every single detail before
you try to answer the questions.
Look ahead at the questions to determine what types of questions you
must answer. Each type of question is answered in a different way.
Read the part of the passage that contains the answers carefully. The
answer will probably be in the same sentence (or one sentence before or after)
the key word or idea.
2.3.2. Types of reading comprehension questions in the GCSE and
how to deal with each type of question.
The reading comprehension questions in GCSEs are designed to measure
how well students comprehend what they read. Students have only about fifteen
minutes to read two passages and answer 12 questions. Each passage has three
or four types of questions. According to the sample test of the ministry of
education and training in the year 2021, there are mainly five or six diferent
comprehension questions that are tested in GCSEs:
- Main idea question (tiltle question is mainly tested in the 2020 GCSE)
- Vocabulary question.
- Reference question.
- Factual question.
- Negative factual question

- Inference question.
2.3.2.1. Main idea question
In the 2021 GCSE, students will be asked identify the title for the reading
passage. This question is all really asking what primary point that the author is
4


trying to get across in the passage, and it is not difficult to find the main idea by
studying the topic sentence, which is most probably found at the beginning of a
paragraph.
The following chart outlines the key information that students should
remember about main idea questions:
MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS
What is the topic of the passage?
HOW TO
What is the subject of the passage?
IDENTIFY THE
What is the main idea of the passage?
QUESTIONS
Which of the following would be the best title?
WHERE TO
The answer to this type of question can generally be
FIND THE
determined by looking at the first sentence of each
ANSWER
paragraph.
1.Read the first line of each paragraph.
2.Look for a common theme or idea in the first lines.
HOW TO
3.Pass your eyes quickly over the rest of the passage to

ANSWER THE
check that you really have found the topic sentence(s).
QUESTION
4.Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the
best answer from the remaining choices.
Example 1: In the GCSE examination 2017, the reading comprehension
is that:
Oxford University has released a sample of interview questions including what a rock looks like and how you listen to music - to help students
who want to study at the top institution. Among the list of questions are: “What
can historians not find out about the past?”, “Is religion of value whether or not
there is a God?” and “How can we estimate the mass of the atmosphere?”.
Prospective earth sciences students could be asked what a rock handed to them
looks like, meanwhile chemistry candidates are asked to calculate how many
different molecules can be made from six carbon atoms and 12 hydrogen atoms.
In efforts to make the interview process more transparent, the prestigious
university has released advice on how to answer the example questions just days
after the deadline for applications closed. Dr Samina Khan, director of
admissions and outreach, said: “Interviews will be an entirely new experience
for most students, and we know many prospective applicants are already worried
about being in an unfamiliar place and being questioned by people they have not
met.”
She added: “We want to underscore that every question asked by our
tutors has a purpose, and that purpose is to assess how students think about their
subject and respond to new information or unfamiliar ideas. No matter what
kind of educational background or opportunities you have had, the interview
should be an opportunity to present your interest and ability in your chosen
subject, since they are not just about recitingwhat you already know.”
Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the
5

article?
A. Oxford University: Lowering Standards in Times of Change!
B. The History of Oxford’s Interviewing Schemes
C. Oxford University Interview Questions: Would You Pass the Test?
D. The Oxford’s Guide to Success in Job Interviews.
In the above given passage, there are five paragraphs. Students should be
sure to read the first sentence of each paragraph to determine the subject, title, or
main idea. The first paragraph mentions types of interview questions that Oxford
university has released. The next paragraphs of the passage mention advice on
how to answer sample interview questions”. So the best title for the article is
Oxford “University Interview Questions: Would You Pass the Test?”. Therefore,
the best choice is answer C.
2.3.2.2. VOCABULARY QUESTIONS.
In the test students will be asked to determine the meanings of the
difficult words, a word that you are not expected to know. In this case, the
passage will give you a clear indication of what the word means.
The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember
about vocabulary questions containing difficult words:
VOCABULARY QUESTIONS CONTAINING DIFFICULT WORDS
HOW TO
- “What is the word/ phrase “...”closest meaning to?
IDENTIFY THE
- The word/ phrase “...” closest meaning to ?
QUESTION
- The word/ phrase “...” most likely means?
WHERE TO
The question usually tells you in which line of the
FIND THE
passage the word can be found.

ANSWER
1. Find the word in the passage.
HOW TO
2. Read the sentence that contains the word carefully.
ANSWER THE
3. Look for context clues to help you understand the
QUESTION
meaning.
4. Choose the answer that the context indicates.
EXAMPLE : A passage in the GCSE exam in the year 2018, code 403
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building.
It is possible to cut electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and
installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the amount of fuel needed for
heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the building
stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will
include houses for 400 families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and
recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities
will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas
in new neighborhoods across China.
(Adapted from by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries) "Advanced
Reading Power"
6


Question 38: The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means.......
A. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
B. devices that monitor changes in temperature
C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
D. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption

Question 40: The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means.......
A. being notified B. being certified C. being inspected D. being launched
To answer question 38, students should look at the sentence that contains
the word insulation .It is a substance that buiders use to make the house warmer
in winter and cooler in summer. As a result, we can infer, the correct answer is
D.
To answer question 40, students should look at the sentence that contains
the phrase “under way” : A larger project is under way in China.Therefore this
phrase is a verb with passive meaning.we can see that this verb relates to project
and base on the meaning of this sentence and the sentence before it to ifentify
the correct answer is D.
2.3.2.3 Reference question
In the Reading comprehension of the test, students will sometimes be
asked to determine which noun a pronoun refers to. The following chart outlines
the key information that students should remember about pronoun referents:
PRONOUN REFERENTS
HOW TO IDENTIFY The pronoun “…” in line X refers to which of the
THE QUESTION
following?
The line where the pronoun is located is generally
WHERE TO FIND
given in the question. The noun that the pronoun
THE ANSWER
refers to is generally found before the pronoun.
1. Find the pronoun in the passage. (The line where
the pronoun can be found is generally stated in the
question.)
HOW TO ANSWER
2. Look for nouns that come before the pronoun.
THE QUESTION

3. Read the part of the passage before the pronoun
carefully.
4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and
choose the best answer from the remaining choices
EXAMPLE : In the GCSE 2018, Code 401
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an
opportunity to demonstrate your skills and personality. If it is written with flair
and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is likely to be very
effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is
your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your
background relates to the specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest
and most relevant characteristics.
Question 38: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to.......
7


A. the letter of application B. an opportunity C. your work
D. the résumé
To answer this question, students should look before the pronoun it for
singular nouns that pronoun could refer to.the résumé, the letter of application,
an opportunit, your work come before the pronoun, so they are possible
answers. We should try the three possible answers in the sentence in place of the
pronoun. Carefully read the sentence before and the sentence contains this
pronoun, we can identify that “it” refers to the letter of application. So A is the
correct answer.
2.3.2.4. Factual question
A stated detail question asks about one piece of information in the passage
rather than the passage as a whole. The answers to these questions are generally
given in order in the passage, and the correct answer is often a restatement of
what is given in the passage. This means that the correct answer often expresses

the same idea as what is written in the passage, but the words are not exactly the
same.
The following chart outlines the key information that students should
remember about stated detail questions:
STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS
- According to the passage, …
HOW TO
- It is stated in the passage …
IDENTIFY THE
- The passage indicates that …
QUESTION
- Which of the following is TRUE …according to the
passage?
WHERE TO
The answers to these questions are found in order in the
FIND THE
passage
ANSWER
1. Choose a key word in the question.
2. Skim in the appropriate part of the passage for the key
word or idea.
HOW TO
3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea
ANSWER THE
carefully.
QUESTION
4. Look for the answer that restates an idea in the
passage.
5. Eliminate the definitely wrong answers and choose the
best answer from the remaining choices.

EXAMPLE:
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and
Spain, tradition says a mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money.
However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for taking teeth away. Dogs are
highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian angels of the
people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby
tooth is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their

8


child's lost tooth in a piece of meat and feed it to a dog.( extracted from the
GCSE exam 2017 )
Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth
thought to be taken away by a mouse?
A. In Mexico and Spain
B. In Mongolia
C. In Japan and Vietnam
D. In Korea
With this question, we need to focus on key words “where, lost tooth,
taken away a mouse”. Then we look for the information in the passage. It is in
the second sentence of the second paragraph. So the correct answer is A.
2.3.2.5. Negative factual question
Students will sometimes be asked to find an answer that is not stated or
not mentioned or not true in the passage. This type of question really means that
three of the answers are stated, mentioned, or true in the passage, while one
answer is not. The actual job is to find the three correct answers and then choose
the letter of the one remaining answer.
The following chart outlines the key information that students should
remember about negative factual questions

“UNSTATED” DETAIL QUESTIONS
Which of the following is not stated …?
HOW TO
Which of the following is not mentioned …?
IDENTIFY THE
All of the following are true except …?
QUESTION
WHERE TO
FIND THE
ANSWER

The answers to these questions are found in order in the
passage.

1. Choose a key word in the question.
2. Scan in the appropriate place in the passage for the key
word (or related idea).
3.Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea ca
HOW TO
refully.
ANSWER THE
4. Look for answers that are definitely true according to
QUESTION
the passage. Eliminate those answers.
5. Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in
the passage.
Example: In English 12, page 163 and 164, Unit 15 “Woman in Society”,
Part Reading, the last paragraph:
Today, although their status varies in different countries, women in most
parts of the world have gained significant legal rights. The most important of

these are: the rig
ht to have equal work opportunities and pay to men, the right to vote, and the
right to formal education.
Question 5: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the last
paragraph as one of women’s legal rights today?
9


A.the right to hold property
B.the right to equal pay
equal employment opportunity rights D. the right to vote
The question asks for the one answer that is not mentioned, so three of the
answers are listed in the passage and one is not. Since the right to equal pay,
equal employment opportunity rights, the right to vote, are listed in the passage,
answers B, C, and D are incorrect. However, the right to hold property is not
listed in the passage, so answer D is the best answer to this question.
2.3.2.6. Inference question
You will sometimes be asked to answer a question by drawing a
conclusion from a specific detail are details in the passage. Questions of this
type contain the words implied, inferred, likely, or probably to let you know that
the answer to the question is not directly stated.
The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember
about implied detail questions:
IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTION
It is implied in the passage that …
HOW TO
It can be inferred from the passage that …
IDENTIFY THE
It is most likely that …
QUESTION

What probably happened …?
WHERE TO
The answers to these questions are found in order in the
FIND THE
passage.
ANSWER
1. Choose a key word in the passage.
HOW TO
2. Scan the passage for the key word (or a related idea).
ANSWER THE
3. Carefully read the sentence that contains the key word.
QUESTION
4. Look for a answer that could be true, according to that
sentence.
EXAMPLE : A passage in the GCSE examination in the year 2018, code
404
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see
professional players cheating, having tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In
addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of
sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger
of all this is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that counts and
you should win at all costs. Good behaviour and fair play aren't the message that
comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behaviour are reasonable
ways of getting what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact
that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it
seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad
behaviour.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all
negative and parents should make sure they accentuate the positives too. They
should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players have,

10


not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can
focus on the contribution made by such players during a game, discussing how
valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out to a child
that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they win or sulk when they
lose. And parents can stress how well these people conduct themselves in their
personal lives and the good work they do for others when not playing. In other
words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models,
rather than the antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players.
(Adapted from "New English File - Advanced" by Will Maddox)
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after
winning or losing a game.
B. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople's
wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
C. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable
conducts when not playing.
D. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams'
budgets than others.
To answer this question, students should read the last paragraph of the
passge carefully, especially we should focus on the sentence : “ In other words,
parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than
the antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players”. Therefore,
the correct answer is B.
2.3.3. PRACTICE EXERCISES
PASSAGE 1:
Read the Following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are
many ways of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols,
and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic function of signal
is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, for
example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the
potential for communication is really great. Less adaptable to the codification of
words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or barber
pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to
describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with
the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some culture, applauding in a theater
provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as
waving and handshaking also convey certain cultural messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do
have a major disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without
the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of

11


communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are
based upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few.
Question 1: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Gestures
B. Signs and signals
C. Speech
D.
Communication
Question 2: What does the author say about the speech?
A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
B. It is the most advanced form of communication.

C. It is necessary for communication to occur.
D. It is the only true form of communication.
Question 3: All of the following are true, EXCEPT______.
A. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are found in every culture.
B. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are very useful.
C. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures also have some disadvantage.
D. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are only used for long distance contact.
Question 4: The phrase “impinge upon”- in paragraph 1 is closest in
meaning______.
A. prohibit
B. affect
C. vary
D. improve
Question 5: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to______.
A. way
B. environment
C. signal
D. speech
PASSAGE 2:
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
The period from the late 1930s to the middle 1940s is known as the
Golden Age of comic books. The modern comic book came about in the early
1930s in the United States as a giveaway premium to promote the sales of a
whole range of household products such as cereal and cleansers. The comic
books, which were printed in bright colors to attract the attention of potential
customers, proved so popular that some publishers decided to produce comic
books that would come out on a monthly basis and would sell for a dime each.
Though comic strips had been reproduced in publications prior to this time, the
Famous Funnies comic book, which was started in 1934, marked the first

occasion that a serialized book of comics was attempted.
Early comic books reprinted already existing comic strips and comics
based on known characters; however, publishers soon began introducing original
characters developed specially for comic books. Superman was introduced in
Action Comics in 1938, and Batman was introduced a year later. The
tremendous success of these superhero comic books led to the development of
numerous comic books on a variety of topics, though superhero comic books
predominated. Astonishingly, by 1945 approximately 160 different comic books
were being published in the United States each month, and 90 percent of U.S
children were said to read comic books on a regular basis.
(Source: Preparation Course for the Toefl Test)
12


Question 1: What best serves as the title for the reading passage passage?
A. The history of comic books
B. comic books’ publication
C. Batman
D. Superhero comics.
Question 2: The word “premium” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. introduction
B. preparation
C. publication
D. importance
Question 3: The word “potential” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. continuing
B. developing
C. able
D. possible
Question 4: The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to_____.

A. comic trips
B. the Famous Funnies
C. serialized book of comics
D. publications
Question 5: According to paragraph 2, Batman was introduced in ______.
A. 1938
B. 1939
C. 1940
D. 1940
Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. The modern comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States.
B. The comic books were printed in bright colors.
C. Superman was introduced in Action Comics in 1938.
D. The Famous Funnies comic book was the first comic strips.
Question 7: Which of the following was published after Action Comics?
A. the Famous Funnies B. Superman
C. Superhero
D. Batman
PASSAGE 3:
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to
50
Life on Earth is in the throes of a new wave of mass extinction, unlike
anything since the demise of the dinosaurs. In the last 500 years, 844 species are
known to have died out, and up to 16,000 others are now known to be
threatened. Conservationists argue that humans have an ethical obligation to
protect other species. Diversity and natural beauty are highly prized by mankind,
and that biodiversity is a vital resource: we rely on ecosystems to provide food,
oxygen and natural resources, recycle waste and fertilize soil for agriculture. The
total value of services provided to man by nature has been estimated at $33

trillion annually. Plants and animals are also an essential source of new foods
and medicines worldwide. Preserving species could help protect us from
disease.
Natural disasters and processes were behind the five major mass
extinctions in geological history, but the current “sixth extinction” is being
caused by the success of one species- humans. The six billion (and counting)
people crowding the Earth, are driving out biodiversity in a variety of ways.
Humans began to destroy ecosystems a major way about 10,000 years ago with
the development of agriculture.
But within the last 100,000 years, the hunting and burning practices of
people, along with climate change, drove many large mammals to extinction.
However, the most common reason for extinction is habitat loss. Ecosystems
13


from wetlands to prairies and rain forests to coral reefs are being cleared or
degraded for crops, cattle, roads and development. Even fragmenting habitats
with roads or dams can make them more vulnerable.
(Source: Succeed in Cambridge CAE 10 Practice Tests)
Question 1: Which of the following best serves as title for the passage?
A. Our endangered wildlife
B. Life on Earth
C. Biodiversity
D. Ecosystem
Question 2: The word “died out” in paragrpah 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. destroyed
B. used up
C. been extinct
D. polluted
Question 3: The word “Preserving” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. Destroying
B. Conserving
C. Continuing
D. Keeping
Question 4: According to the passage, the “sixth extinction” is being caused by
A. roads and dams
B. climate change C. development
D. human beings
Question 5: According to the reading passage, what is the main reason for
extinction?
A. burning
B. climate change C. habitat loss
D. hunting
Question 6: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. habitats
B. rainforests
C. roads or dams D. mammals
Question 7: The following are true EXCEPT ______.
A. Within the last 100,000 years, the hunting and burning practices of people, along
with climate change, drove many large mammals to extinction
B. In the last 500 years, 844 species are known to have died out
C. In the last 500 years, up to 16,000 species are now known to be threatened
D. Humans began to destroy ecosystems a major way about 100,000 years ago with
the development of agriculture
Question 8: Why do plants and animals play an essential part in our life?
A. Because they provide us dinosaurs.
B. Because they provide us food and medicine.
C. Because they are threatened.
D. Because they are natural beauty.
PASAGE 4:

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about
them based entirely on how they look. And of course, we too are being judged
on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it’s what’s inside that’s important but
sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative reaction,
simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.
When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think
about who you’re likely to meet, where you are going to be spending most of
your time and what tasks you are likely to perform. Clearly, on a practical level,
some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this will
14


dictate your choice to an extent. However, there’s no need to abandon your
individual taste completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else’s idea
of what looks good, you may end up feeling uncomfortable and not quite
yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you
a washed-out appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that
dressing in bright colours when you really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa
will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You know deep down
where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but
do take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn’t selfish because everyone who comes into
contact with you will benefit. You’ll look better and you’ll feel a better person
all round. And if in doubt, you only need to read Professor Albert Mehrabian’s
book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on each other
depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak,
and only seven percent on what we actually say.(Adapter from “Expert First” by

Jan Bell and Roger Gower)
Question 1. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
B. Making Judgements about People’s Appearance
C. Making Your Image Work for You
D. Creating a Professional Image
Question 2. According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from
others by_________.
A. talking about other people’s behaviours B. sending out right signals
C. wearing inappropriate clothes
D. expressing too strong emotions
Question 3. The word “outfits” in paragraph 2 mostly means_________.
A. sets of clothes
B. types of signals
C. types of gestures
D. sets of equipment
Question 4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a
factor to be considered when choosing clothes?
A. Places you spend time in
B. Other people’s views on beauty
C. Kinds of tasks you perform
D. People you meet
Question 5. The word “others” in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. neutral tones B. taste boundaries
C. colours
D. means
Question 6. The word “Reappraising” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning
to_________.
A. reapplying
B. reconsidering C. reminding

D. recalling
Question 7. According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on
each other depends mainly on_________.
A. how we speak
B. what we read
C. what we actually say
D. how we look and behave
PASSAGE 5:
15


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions that
follow.
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most
foods only in season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a
short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very
limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor
named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning.
And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of
condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became
more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to
be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and
soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of
food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for
Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban population created demand
that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad
refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great
distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern

city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and
tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the
year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables.
As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s,
and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most
of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and
remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and
1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued
to eat mainly foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not
everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage
of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more
varied fare.
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage.
B. Commercial production of ice.
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century.
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet.
Question 2: The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to ________ .
A. a particular time of year
B. a kind of weather
C. an official scheduleD. a method of flavoring
Question 3: During the 1860’s, canned food products were _________ .
A. unavailable in rural areas
B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars
D. a staple part of the American diet.
16

Question 4: The word” them” in line 12 refers to _________ .
A. refrigerator cars
B. growers
C. perishables
D. distances
Question 5: The word” fixture” in line 16 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. commonplace object
B. substance
C. luxury item
D. mechanical device
Question 6: The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of
ice _________ .
A. increased in cost
B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number
D. were on an irregular schedule
Question 7: The word “ Nevertheless” in line 19 is closest meaning to ____
A. occasionally
B. however
C. although
D. therefore
Question 8: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT
mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying
B. Chemical additives C. Canning
D. Cold storage
KEYS
Passage 1 1.D

2.B

3.D

4.B

5.D

Passage 2 1.A

2.D

3.D

4.B

5.B

6.D

7.D

Passage 3 1.A

2.C

3.B

4.D

5.C

6.D

7.D

Passage 4 1.C

2.C

3.A

4.B

5.C

6.B

7.D

Passage 5 1.D

2.A

3.B

4.C

5.A

6.C

7.B

8.B

8.B

2.3.4. Sample test for assessment of experimental results.
15 MINUTE TEST
Full name:……………………. ...............

Class 12……………..

PASSAGE 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C,
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Naming customs are different around the world. In most cultures, For
example, not everyone has the same number of names. In some countries, such
as Indonesia, many people have just one name. Your given name is the name
you receive when you are born. Your family name is the name you share with
17


other people in your family. In the United States, the family name is often called
the last name, and the given name is often called the first name. However, the
order of the two names is not the same everywhere. For example, in many Asian
countries, the family name is first and the given name is second. When two
people from different cultures meet, sometimes they use the incorrect name.
This can cause embarrassment.
Family names can show something about a family’s early history. The

origin of many English family names is a place, like London, or a job, such as
Farmer or Shoesmaker. A long time ago, these families probably worked as
farmers or shoemakers. Swedish and Danish family names often mean son
of....For example, Johnsson means son of Johan. In South Korea, there are only
about 250 family names. These names go back hundreds of years to very old
clans. About half of all Koreans have one of the three most common family
names- Kim, Park, or Lee. This can cause a problem, because Koreans believe
you should not marry a person with the same last name. This means Korean
must be careful whom they fall in love with!
There is generally no choice about a family name, but there is much more
choice about names. Parents choose their child’s name for many different
reasons. They may select a name that sounds beautiful or means something
special. These names may have meanings like peaceful or happiness. In some
cultures, there may be a connection between children’s names and when or how
they were born. For example, a Yorube child in Nigeria might have a name like
Sunday or Born on a sunny day. In some countries, parents may pay money to a
professional baby namer to help them find a good name. They want to find a
name that will be lucky for their child.
(Source: Jessica William, Making connection 1, 2nd Ed, Cambridge, 2014)
Question 1: Which best serves as the title for the reading passage?
A. Beautiful names
C. Naming for fun
B. Naming Customs
D. Naming for a reason
Question 2: What is NOT mentioned as a reason for parents to choose names
for their child?
A. a name that brings strength to their child
B. a name that means something special
C. a name that shows how a child is born
D. a name that will be lucky for their child

Question 3: It is stated in paragraph 1 that when two people from different
cultures meet,
A.They do not know how to say their names.
B.They may misuse each other’s names.
C.They very often misaddress each other.
D.They will misunderstand each other.
Question 4: The word “clans” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to
A. A large number of royal familes
C. upper class familes
18


B. Lower class familes
D. large groups of familes
Question 5: The word “ they” in paragraph 3 refers to................
A. Name
B.
meanings
C.children
D. parents
PASSAGE 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C,
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions
PANDEMIC DISEASES
Diseases are a natural part of life on earth. If there were no diseases, the
population would grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other
resources, so in a way, diseases are natural ways of keeping the Earth in balance.
But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For
example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25
million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called

pandemics.
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are
not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had
no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large
numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases
throughout history, all of them have a new thing in common.
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily.
Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill
people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The
Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About
70 -80% of all people who get the Marburg virus died from the disease.
However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people
die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not
have enough time to spread a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on
the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it
had more time to spread.
While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make
them less common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could
become pandemics. For example, in 2002, and 2003, doctors carefully watched
SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a
pandemic.
Question 1: This passage is mainly about________
A. How to prevent pandemic diseases.
B. Pandemic diseases
C. Pandemic diseases throughout history.
D. Why pandemics happen.
Question 2: Based on the information in the passage the term “pandemics” can
be explained as ______.
A. Diseases with no cure.
B. A deadly kind of flu.

C. Diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people.
D. New disease like SARS or the Marburg virus.
19


Question 3: According to the passage, what causes pandemics?
A. Changes in a disease that body cannot fight
B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of disease.
C. Population growth that the world cannot support.
D. The failure to make new medicines.
Question 4: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918
flu pandemic EXCEPT that ______
A. it involved a new kind of flu virus
B. it killed over 25 million people
C. it was the last pandemic in history
D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims
Question 5: The word “it” in the passage refers to _______
A. disease
B. flu virus
C. pandemics
D. bodies
Question 6: According to paragraph 3, why hasn’t Marburg virus become a
pandemic?
A. It is not a deadly disease.
B. It does not spread from person to person easily.
C. Doctors have prevented it from becoming a pandemic.
D. It kills people too quickly.
Question 7: The author mentions SARS in order to ________.
A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease.
B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic.

C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic .
D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon.
KEYS
Passage 1 1.B 2.A
3.B
4.D
5.C
Passage 2 1.B 2.C
3.A
4.C
5.B
6.D
7.B
2.4. EFFECTS OF THE STUDY:
Over a year of teaching according to the previously given rules, I found
that my students’ skill of doing the reading comprehension has improved
remarkably.
This study has been used in the school year 2019 – 2020 at classes 12A3,
12A4, 12A5, and the result is as follows:
Before the study:
Students’ number of doing tasks
Class
Not very well
%
Well
%
12A3
14/38
36.8
24/38

63.2
12A4
20/30
66.7
10/30
33,3
12A5
27/40
67.5
13/40
32.5
After the study:
Students’ number of doing tasks
Class
Not very well
%
Well
%
20


12A3
5/38
22.2
33/38
77.8
12A4
8/30
14
22/43

86
12A5
10/40
23.8
30/40
76.2
After the study, my students are not only confident to do the type of
Reading Comprehension test but also able to get high mark in it. They are no
longer scared of coping with the Reading Comprehension tests. Instead of that,
they are eager to do this part because it makes their scores higher.
3.CONCLUSION AND RECOMMENDATIONS
3.1. Conclusion:
This article has reviewed some strategies to teach students how to do the
Reading part in their test. It can be thought that the tips or strategies mentioned
above are not always completely effective. However, I have lately succeeded
myself in using them for teaching skills how to do the Reading part in the tests. I
found that the attitude of students towards the Reading Comprehension tests has
changed. They have eagerly tried to do their best in completing the part of
reading comprehension of their tests.
I hope that this article will prove useful to some of my readers, especially
the teachers of grade 12, who badly need to provide their students with skills of
fulfilling their coming final examinations. Besides, this kind of skill is helpful
for all students who have English tests in all examinations. Most of the students
follow the teacher’s instructions and know for sure what to do. I have found it
less time-consuming and more labor-efficient from a practical point of view.
Above all, through the Reading passages, students gain a good command of such
fields as cultures, societies, peoples, and so on, of other countries in the world.
3.2. Recommendations:
To improve the school’s education requires that the School
Administrators, organizations are constantly interested in investment of

educational facilities such as projectors, laptops, labs, and so on so that the
teachers can have opportunities to use up-to-date technologies in teaching.
Administrative officers of Education and Training at higher level should
pay more attention to daily life of teachers, encouraging them timely in their
teaching job, especially in scientific research such as teaching aids, innovative
experience and higher science study.
With my little knowledge and study in reference books, I hope to
contribute my little ideas to assist student to get high score in their important
final examination. In process of implementation, there should certainly be
errors or omissions, so I am looking forward to receiving your comments on my
topic so that I may more and more improve my teaching English.
Thank you so much !
The end
THE CONFIRMATION OF THE
HEADMASTER

Nhu Xuan, May th 2021
I assure that this is my experience
21


innovation and that no parts of the
initiative have been copied from the
others’ authors’ ones.
Written by
Do Thi Phuong

Le Thi Chung

REFERENCES

1.Vietnam National University Ho Chi Minh City, University of Science,
Toeft, Preparation Course, Reading Comprehension,
2. Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo, Tiếng Anh 12, Nhà xuất bản Giáo dục.
3.Michael A.Pyle M.A., Mary Ellen Munoz Page M.A., Jerry Bobrow,
Ph.D., Cliffs Toefl Preparation Guide, CBT Updated and Revised 2004-2005,
Nhà xuất bản trẻ.
4 Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen) "Select Readings – Intermediate
5. Thuvienhoclieu.com

22