20 bài tập đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh có đáp án chi tiết ôn thi THPT Quốc Gia (dạng bài đọc hiểu 7 câu hỏi) Tập 1

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
Dành cho giáo viên và học sinh ôn luyện thi THPT Quốc Gia từ năm 2020

BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU
(Dạng bài đọc hiểu 7 câu hỏi)

NHÀ XUẤT BẢN GIÁO DỤC VIỆT NAM

Lời nói đầu


Sách Bài tập đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh 12 (dạng bài đọc hiểu 7 câu hỏi) dành cho giáo viên và
học sinh ôn luyện thi THPT Quốc Gia từ năm 2020.
Theo Phương án của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo, từ năm 2017 kì thi Trung học phổ thơng
quốc gia gồm 5 bài thi: Toán, Ngữ văn, Ngoại ngữ, Khoa học Tự nhiên (tổ hợp các mơn Vật lí,
Hóa học, Sinh học) và Khoa học Xã hội (tổ hợp các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục cơng dân).
Các bài thi Toán, Ngoại ngữ, Khoa học Tự nhiên và Khoa học Xã hội thi theo hình thức trắc
nghệm khách quan; bài thi Ngữ văn theo hình thức tự luận. Đây là sự điều chỉnh lớn về hình
thức thi so với kì thi Trung học phổ thông quốc gia những năm trước đây và liên quan tới việc
on luyện của học sinh chuẩn bị cho kì thi này.
Để các em học sinh có tài liệu ơn luyện nhằm đạt kết quả tốt trong kì thi Trung học phổ
thơng quốc gia, chúng tơi tổ chức biên soạn cuốn sách Bài tập đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh 12 (dạng bài
đọc hiểu 7 câu hỏi). Tác giả bộ sách là các thầy cô giáo, các chuyên gia môn học giàu kinh
nghiệm trong việc ôn luyện và giảng dạy cho học sinh dự thi Trung học phổ thơng quốc gia,
giúp các em có kiến thức tốt nhất để chinh phục kì thi quan trọng này.
Cuốn Bài tập đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh 12 (dạng bài đọc hiểu 7 câu hỏi) có cấu trúc như sau:

Phần một: Phương pháp làm bài thi
Phần hai: Các đề ôn luyện
Phần này gồm các đề được biên soạn theo đúng cấu trúc, mức độ của đề minh họa
do Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo ban hành. Theo đó, mỗi đề gồm 7 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm được phân

hóa theo 4 mức độ: nhận biết, thông hiểu, vận dụng và vận dụng cao; nội dung nằm trong
chương trình lớp 12.

Phần ba: Đáp án
Phần này gồm bảng đáp án của tất cả các câu hỏi.
Đây là bô sách tham khảo rất cần thiết và bổ ích đối với học sinh, đáp ứng kịp thời nhu
cầu của các em trong việc ôn luyện chuẩn bị cho kì thi Trung học phổ thơng quốc gia năm
2020. Qúy thầy cơ giáo có thể tham khảo tài liệu này để hướng dẫn học sinh trong q trình ơn
luyện.
Tuy đã cố gắng, nhưng cuốn sách không tránh khỏi những thiếu sót, chúng tơi rất mong
nhận được ý kiến đóng góp của các thầy giáo, cô giáo và các em học sinh.
CÁC TÁC GIẢ


I. THI TRẮC NGHIỆM
Trắc nghiệm là phương pháp thi mà trong đó đề thi thường gồm nhiều câu hỏi, mỗi câu kiểm
tra một vấn đề sao cho thí sinh chỉ phải lựa chọn đáp án đúng đối với từng câu hỏi. Có nhiều kiểu
câu trắc nghiệm khác nhau nhưng người ta thường dùng câu trắc nghiệm nhiều lựa chọn để làm đề
thi cho các kì thi địi hỏi tính khách quan cơng bằng cao, có đơng thí sinh dự thi, cần chấm bằng
máy với tốc độ cao.
Câu trắc nghiệm nhiều lựa chọn (multiple choice questions) có hai phần: phần đầu (được
gọi là phần dẫn - stem) nêu ra vấn đề, cung cấp thông tin cần thiết hoặc nêu một câu hỏi; phần sau
là các phương án để chọn (options - được đánh dấu bằng các chữ cái A, B, C, D). Các kì thi hiện
nay sử dụng một loại cấu trắc nghiệm chỉ có duy nhất một phương án đúng (key) trong số 4 phương
án đã cho; các phương án khác được đưa vào có tác dụng “gây nhiễu” đối với thí sinh ( distracters).
Nếu nắm vững kiến thức về vấn đề đã nêu, thí sinh sẽ nhận biết được trong các phương án để chọn
đâu là phương án đúng.
II. ĐỀ THI VÀ BÀI THI TRẮC NGHIỆM MÔN TIẾNG ANH
1. Đề thi trắc nghiệm được Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo sử dụng cho mơn Tiếng Anh trong kì thi
THPT quốc gia năm 2020.

2. Có 50 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm trong đề thi tiếng Anh cho thời gian 60 phút. Các câu trắc
nghiệm trong đề thi đều có 4 lựa chọn A, B, C, D.
3. Thí sinh làm bài trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm được in sẵn theo quy định của Bộ Giáo dục
và Đào tạo, để chấm bằng hệ thống tự động.
III. NHƯNG ĐIỀU THÍ SINH CẦN LƯU Ý KHI LÀM BÀI THI TRẮC NGHIỆM
1. Đối với thi trắc nghiệm, đề thi gồm nhiều câu hỏi, rải khắp chương trình, khơng có trọng
tâm cho mỗi phần, do đó các em học sinh cần phải học toàn bộ nội dung mơn học, tránh đốn “tủ”,
học “tủ”.
2. Gần sát ngày thi, các em nên rà sốt lại chương trình mơn học đã ôn tập, xem kĩ hơn đối
với những nội dung khó; nhớ lại những chi tiết cốt lõi.
3. Đừng bao giờ nghĩ đến việc mang “tài liệu trợ giúp” vào phịng thi hoặc trơng chờ sự giúp
đỡ của thí sinh khác trong phịng thi, vì các thí sinh có đề thi với hình thức hồn tồn khác nhau.
4. Trước giờ thi, nên “ơn” lại tồn bộ quy trình thi trắc nghiệm để có thể làm bài thi chính xác
và nhanh nhất. Thời gian là một thử thách khi làm bài trắc nghiệm, vì thế thí sinh phải hết sức khẩn
trương, tiết kiệm thời gian; phải vận dụng kiến thức, kĩ năng để nhanh chóng quyết định chọn
phương án trả lời đúng.
5. Theo đúng hướng dẫn của giám thị, thực hiện tốt và tạo tâm trạng thoải mái trong phần khai
báo trên phiếu TLTN. Bằng cách đó, thí sinh có thể củng cố sự tự tin khi làm bài trắc nghiệm.
6. Nên bắt đầu làm bài từ câu trắc nghiệm số 1; lần lượt “lướt qua” khá nhanh, quyết định làm
những câu cảm thấy dễ và chắc chắn, đồng thời đánh dấu trong đề thi nhưng câu chưa làm được; lần
lượt thực hiện đến câu trắc nghiệm cuối cùng trong đề. Sau đó quay trở lại “giải quyết” những câu
đã tạm thời bỏ qua. Lưu ý, trong khi thực hiện vòng hai cũng cần hết sức khẩn trương, nên làm
những câu tương đối dễ hơn, một lần nữa bỏ lại những câu quá khó để giải quyết trong lượt thứ ba,
nếu còn thời gian.


7. Khi làm một câu trắc nghiệm, phải đánh giá để loại bỏ ngay những phương án sai và tập
trung cân nhắc trong các phương án còn lại phương án nào là đúng.
8. Cố gắng trả lời tất cả các câu trắc nghiệm của đề thi để có cơ hội giành điểm cao nhất;
không nên để trống mà không trả lời một câu hỏi nào.

Các em hãy tham khảo diễn giải các đề mẫu dưới đây để có hướng ơn tập chuẩn bị tốt nhất
cho kì thi tới.

Cambridge University


1

Unit 2: PERSONAL EXPERIENCES

(E11)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 1
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

As kids, my friends and I spent a lot of time out in the woods. “The woods” was our part-time
address, destination, purpose, and excuse. If I went to a friends house and found him not at home,
his mother might say, “Oh, he’s out in the woods, ” with a tone of airy acceptance. It is similar to
the tone people sometimes use nowadays to tell me that someone I’m looking for is on the golf
course or at the gym, or even “away from his desk.” For us ten-year-olds, “being out in the woods”
was just an excuse to do whatever we feel like for a while.
We sometimes told ourselves that what we were doing in the woods was exploring. Exploring
was a more popular idea back then than it is today. History seemed to be mostly about explorers.
Our explorations, though, seemed to have less system than the historic kind: something usually
came up along the way. Say we stayed in the woods, throwing rocks, shooting frogs, picking
blackberries, digging in what we were briefly persuaded was an Indian burial mound.
Often we got “lost” and had to climb a tree to find out where we were. If you read a story in
which someone does that successfully, be skeptical: the topmost branches are usually too skinny to
hold weight, and we could never climb high enough to see anything except other trees. There were
four or five trees that we visited regularly - tall beeches, easy to climb and comfortable to sit in.

It was in a tree, too, that our days of fooling around in the woods came to an end. By then
some of us had reached seventh grade and had begun the rough ride of adolescence. In March, the
month when we usually took to the woods again after winter, two friends and I set out to go
exploring. We climbed a tree, and all of a sudden it occurred to all three of us at the same time that
we really were rather big to be up in a tree. Soon there would be the spring dances on Friday
evenings in the high school cafeteria.
(Source: />Question 1. The author and his friends were often out in the woods to _______.
A. spend their free time
C. avoid doing their schoolwork

B. play golf and other sports
D. keep away from their parents

Question 2. According to the passage, what does the author think about what he and his friend were
doing in the woods?
A. It was dangerous.
C. It was exploring.
Question 3. What can we infer from paragraph 2?

B. It was popular.
D. It was interesting.


A. The activities in the woods were well planned.
B. Human history is not the result of exploration.
C. Exploration should be a systematic activity.
D. The author explored in the woods aimlessly.
Question 4. The word “skeptical” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. calm

B. doubtful

C. serious

D. optimistic

Question 5. The phrase “came to an end” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.
A. went

B. stopped

C. continued

D. finished

Question 6. According to the passage, all of the following are what the author and his friend did in
the woods EXCEPT ______.
A. throwing stones.
C. picking blackberries.

B. shooting frogs.
D. plant trees.

Question 7. How does the author feel about his childhood?
A. Happy but short.
C. Boring and meaningless.

2

B. Lonely but memorable.

D. Long and unforgettable.

Unit 14: RECREATION (E11)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 2
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Teenagers who spend hours in front of the television may have a poorer diet, a new study
shows. It is not clear, researchers say, whether television itself is the reason, but it is possible that
things like snacking in front of the TV or seeing ads for junk food influence young people’s diets.
The study included nearly 1,400 high school students. It showed that those who watched TV
for five hours or more every day had less healthy diets than other students five years later. As a
group, they ate fewer fruits and vegetables, but ate more fast food, snack products and fried foods.
“We’re not able to tell why,” lead researcher Dr. Daheia J. Barr-Anderson said. “But we have
some speculations.” People who spend a lot of time in front of the TV, especially teenagers, may
have more snack. It may influence their long-term diet quality. It’s also possible that TV ads for fast
food, sweets and snacks make teenagers eat more of those foods. TV time might also replace
exercise time for some kids.
The researchers found a clear relationship between TV time during high school and diet
quality of the young. The heaviest TV viewers ate the most junk food five years later, and those
who’d watched fewer than two hours every day had the most fruits and vegetables.


According to Barr-Anderson, the findings support experts’ advice that children should watch
no more than two hours of television every day. “Parents should cut the TV time.” Barr-Anderson
said. She advised that parents set a good example by eating right, being physically active and
controlling their own TV time.
Question 1. What is the passage mainly about?
A. A new study showing the bad habits of today’s youth.
B. The problem of the children’s eating habits.

C. How to limit the children’s screen time.
D. The relationship between TV time and diet quality.
Question 2. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. whether television itself is the reason.
B. what a new study shows.
C. the reason why researchers say.
D. the reason why young people like watching TV.
Question 3. According to the passage, a new study shows that teenagers who spend hours in front
of the television may _______.
A. go to school late.
C. be near-sighted.

B. have a poorer diet.
D. lose weight without trying.

Question 4. According to the passage, the “junk food” is the name of ________.
A. food that is rich in vitamins and minerals.
B. food that is unhealthy but is quick and easy to eat.
C. food that is the most suitable to be sold in school canteens.
D. food that is advertised on TV.
Question 5. It can be inferred from the passage that some children may spend much time watching
TV instead of _____.
A. eating fruits and vegetables.
C. taking a nap.

B. having more snack.
D. doing some exercise.

Question 6. According to Barr-Anderson, what should parents do to set a good example for their
children?

A. They should eat right, be physically active and control their own TV time.
B. They should watch no more than two hours of television every day.
C. They should watch more traditional TV and less TV ads.
D. They should stop buying fast food, snack products and fried foods.
Question 7. The word “influence” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. protect

3
(E10)

B. maintain

C. impact

D. destroy

Unit 4: SPECIAL EDUCATION


READING COMPREHENSION TEST 3
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Each weekday, come rain or shine, a group of children, aged 3 to 6, walk into a forest outside
Frankfurt to sing songs, build fires and roll in the mud.
The birthplace of kindergarten is returning to its roots. While schools and parents elsewhere
are pushing young children to read, write and surf the Internet earlier in order to prepare for an
increasingly cutthroat global economy, some little Germans are taking a less traveled path-deep into
the woods.
Germany has about 700 Wald kindergartens, or forest kindergartens, in which children spend
their days outdoors all year round. Blackboards replaced by the Black Forest. Erasers give way to

pine cones. Hall passes aren’t required, but bug repellent is a good idea.
The schools are a throwback to Friedrich Froebel, the German educator who opened the
world’s first kindergarten, or children’s garden, more than 150 years ago. Mr. Froebel advised that
young children should play in nature, free from too many numbers and letters.
Only a small number of German children attend Wald kindergarten, but their numbers have
been rising since local parent groups began setting up these programs in the mid1990s, following
the lead of a Danish community. Similar schools exist in smaller numbers in Scandinavia,
Switzerland and Austria. The concept is arousing interest far afield-even in the U. S., whose first
Wald kindergarten opened in Portland, Ore., last fall.
Academic studies of such schools are in their infancy. Some European researchers believe
Wald kindergarten kids exercise their imaginations more than their brickandmortar peers do and
are better at concentrating and communicating. Despite dangers, from insects particularly, the
children appear to get sick less often in these freshair settings. Studies also suggest their writing
skills are less developed, though, and that they are less skills than other children at distinguishing
colors, forms and sizes.
(Source: />Question 1. The passage mainly talks about ________.
A. forest kindergartens
C. the birthplace of kindergarten

B. a great German educator
D. education in Germany

Question 2. The phrase “come rain or shine” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. getting dry or wet
C. whatever happens

B. being strong or ill
D. not to mention rain or shine

Question 3. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?

A. The kids in the Wald kindergarten spend their days outdoors once a week.
B. There are more than 700 Wald kindergartens in Europe.
C. Friedrich Frobel opened the world’s first forest kindergarten.
D. Nearly all the German children attend Wald kindergarten.
Question 4. The word “a throwback” in paragraph 1 means ______.
A. a thing that is similar to something that existed in the past.
B. a thing that was once owned by someone else.
C. a thing that was created by someone in the past.


D. a thing that is managed under the supervision of somebody.
Question 5. What might NOT be found in the “forest kindergartens”?
A. Black Forest.
C. Bug repellent.

B. Pine cones.
D. Many numbers and letters.

Question 6. From the last paragraph, we can learn that “brickandmortar peers” refers to
________.
A. kids who stay at home.
C. kids who like brick and mortar.

B. kids who study in the classroom.
D. kids who suffer from illness.

Question 7. Kids in the Wald kindergarten may ________.
①
②
③

④

be more imaginative
be good at exchanging ideas with other kids
face more dangers in the forest
be skillful at writing

Choose the best answer for this question:
A. ①③④
C. ①②③

4

B. ②③④
D. ①②④

Unit 1: HOME LIFE (E12)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 4
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Between school, homework, sports, your afterschool job, and hanging out with friends, it may
feel like there’s no time for healthy eating. And when you do stop to eat, it’s probably tempting to
go the quick and easy route by grabbing a burger and fries, potato chips, or candy.
Even if you take time to eat three meals a day, you may still feel hungry at times. This is
natural - during teens, a person’s body demands more nutrients to grow. What’s the answer? Healthy
snacks. Snacking on nutritious food can keep your energy level high and your mind alert without
taking up a lot of your time. Snacks are a great way to satisfy that hunger and get all the vitamins
and nutrients your body needs.
But you need to pay attention to what you eat. Filling your face with a large order of fries

after class may give you a temporary help, but a snack high in fat and calories will only slow you
down in the long run.
To keep energy levels going - and avoid weight gain - keep clear of foods with lots of simple
carbohydrates (sugars) like candy bars or soda. Look for foods that contain complex carbohydrates


like wholegrain breads and cereals and combine them with proteinrich snacks such as peanut butter
or lowfat yogurt or cheese.
Choosing healthy snacks means shopping smart. Be careful of the health claims on food
packages:
• Just because something is “all natural” or “pure” doesn’t necessarily mean that it’s
nutritious. For example, “all natural” juice drinks or sodas can be filled with sugar (which is, after
all, a natural ingredient) but all that sugar means they’ll be high in calories and give you little
nutrition.
• A granola bar is a good example of a snack that people think is healthy. Although granola
bars can be a good source of certain vitamins and nutrients, many also contain a great deal of fat,
including a particularly harmful type of fat called trans fat. Check the Nutrition Facts label on the
package to be sure.
(Source: />Question 1. According to the passage, why do we eat fast food such as a burger and fries, potato
chips, or candy?
A. Because we are busy with learning, outdoor activities and chatting with our friends.
B. Because we need more time for other things than eating.
C. Because fast food can keep our energy level high without taking up lots of our time.
D. Because fast food can provide us with the same energy as other foods.
Question 2. Teens need snacks to ________.
A. keep a good figure
C. help grow

B. gain weight
D. keep healthy

Question 3. The word “temporary” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. beneficial

B. momentary

C. contemporary

D. permanent

Question 4. According to the passage, all the following snacks are good EXCEPT ________.
A peanut butter

B. fries

C. lowfat yogurt

D. wholegrain bread

Question 5. People think that granola bar is healthy because ________.
A. it is a good source of calories
C. it contains some vitamins

B. it provides trans fat
D. it is natural

Question 6. In choosing healthy snacks, we should try to make sure that ________.
A. they are all natural or pure
C. their packages are good

B. they are high in nutrition
D. they contain harmless fat

Question 7. The phrase “in the long run” in paragraph 3 probably means _______.
A. a long time in the future
C. a large gap

B. a long-distance race
D. a weak body


5

Unit 10: NATURE IN DANGER

(E11)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 5
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Besides giving off gases and dusts into the air, humans produce waste that is poured on the
environment. Often, this waste produced by major industries and people is harmful to both nature
and human life.
One of the main causes of the large amount of dangerous waste is that people do not realize
how large a problem it is. Because it can be simply removed and sent to a landfill, the problem is
often believed to end there. In addition, industries have often shown an unwillingness to find ways
to deal with dangerous waste because of the related expenses. Many industries and governments
build simple landfills to store waste, and often just pour waste chemicals into nearby bodies of
water. Often, chemicals used for industrial production cause dangerous forms of waste. The amount
of these chemicals has increased greatly in the past, but it is often difficult and expensive to get rid

of these chemicals or to store them in a way safe to human life and the environment.
Every year, major health problems result from dangerous waste. Sadly, it is often only after
someone has died or become seriously ill that governments will take measures to reduce levels of
harmful waste. Some governments have realized how serious the dangerous waste problem is and
are now trying to settle this problem. They are also trying to limit the amount of waste industries are
allowed to produce.
Not only governments but ordinary people as well must work together to solve the problem.
They can choose not to buy those products which require the production of dangerous waste, and
produce less harmful waste themselves. Many scientists think that waste production can be cut. The
waste can be reduced by at least one third using existing technologies and methods.
Question 1. What would be the best title for the text ?
A. Measures of Reducing Dangerous Waste.
B. Danger of Harmful Waste to Mankind.
C. Dangerous Waste and Water Pollution.
D. Environmental Protection.
Question 2. According to the passage, all of the following are mentioned as human waste or
exhaust fume that pollutes the environment EXCEPT _______.
A. gases

B. dusts

C. chemicals

D. landfill

Question 3. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. dangerous waste

B. people

C. a problem

Question 4. According to the text, people ________.
A. do not produce harmful waste in their daily life.

D. a landfill


B. do not know where to place the dangerous waste.
C. are not clear about how serious the dangerous waste problem is.
D. are not sure about where harmful waste ends.
Question 5. The phrase “get rid of” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. do away with
C. get down to

B. fall back on
D. keep away from

Question 6. What troubles industries most in dealing with the dangerous waste problem?
A. How to get government support.
C. How to store harmful waste.

B. How to increase their production.
D. How to cut down the related costs.

Question 7. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The polluting industries are not allowed to sell their products.
B. Present technologies have settled the harmful waste products.
C. Everyone should obey the government rules for the problem.
D. To solve the problem requires the efforts of the whole society.

6

Unit 10: CONSERVATION (E10)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 6
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

In the past, man did not have to think about protection of the environment. There were very
few people on the earth, and natural resources seemed to be unlimited. Today things are different.
The world has become too crowded. We are using up our natural resources too quickly, and at the
same time we are polluting our environment with dangerous chemicals. If we continue to do this,
human life on the earth will not survive.
Everyone realizes today that if too many fish are taken from the sea, there will soon be none
left. Yet, with modern fishing methods, more and more fish are caught. We know that if too many
trees are cut down, forests will disappear and nothing will grow on land. Yet, we continue to use
more powerful machines to cut down more and more trees. We realize that if rivers are polluted
with waste products from factories, we will die. However, in most countries waste is still put into
rivers, but there are few laws to stop this. We also know that if the population of the countries in the
world is to rise at the present rate in a few years, there will not be enough food. What can we do to
solve these problems?
If we eat more vegetables and less meat, there will be more food available for everyone. Land
that is used to grow crops can feed five times more people than land where animals are kept. Our
natural resources will last longer if we learn to recycle them. The world population will not rise so


quickly if people use modern methods of birth control. Finally, if all of us think about the problem,
we will have a better and cleaner planet in the future.
Question 1. This passage mainly tells us about ______.
A. the problems we are facing today about environment and the ways to solve them.

B. the unlimited natural resources in the world.
C. our rivers are being polluted by waste from factories.
D. the ways early man protected the environment.
Question 2. The word “unlimited” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. infinite

B. excessive

C. abundant

D. sufficient

Question 3. From the passage we can see that the world’s natural resources ______.
A. will never be used up
C. are as plentiful as in the past

B. are being polluted
D. are being used up very quickly

Question 4. Today we have to think about the protection of our environment because _______.
A. things on our planet are getting worse and worse.
B. the limited natural resources are being used quickly.
C. the environment is continuing to be polluted by too much waste and poison.
D. worse and worse environment is endangering the lives of human beings.
Question 5. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. If we eat more vegetables, more food can be saved.
B. In the past, there was no need for people to think about environmental protection.
C. If we keep on cutting trees, forests will disappear.
D. We shouldn’t take more and more fish out of the sea, or there will soon be no fish left.
Question 6. In order to slow the increase of the world population, _______.

A. we should encourage young people to marry later
B. we should encourage the married to use modern methods of birth control
C. we should let the people have more education
D. all of the above
Question 7. According to the passage, the most important thing we must understand is that
_______.
A. we should keep our environment from being polluted
B. we must make enough laws to protect our natural resources
C. man will destroy himself if he doesn’t solve the problems
D. we will have not enough food if the world population rises at the present rate

7
(E10)

Unit 4: SPECIAL EDUCATION


READING COMPREHENSION TEST 7
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Special education, as its name suggests, is a specialized branch of education. Special
educators teach those students who have physical, cognitive, language, learning, sensory, and/or
emotional abilities that deviate from those of the general population. Special educators provide
instruction specifically tailored to meet individualized needs, making education available to
students who otherwise would have limited access to education. In 2001, special education in the
United States was serving over five million students.
Although federally mandated special education is relatively new in the United States,
students with disabilities have been present in every era and in every society. Historical records
have consistently documented the most severe disabilities - those that transcend task and setting.
Itard’s description of the wild boy of Aveyron documents a variety of behaviors consistent with both

mental retardation and behavioral disorders. Reports about abnormal behavior in the Nineteenthcentury also describe issues about severe mental retardation or autism. Milder forms of disability
became apparent only after the advent of universal public education. When literacy became a goal
for all children, teachers began observing disabilities specific to task and setting - that is, less severe
disabilities.
After decades of research and legislation, special education now provides services to students
with varying degrees and forms of disabilities, including mental retardation, emotional disturbance,
learning disabilities, speech-language disabilities, impaired hearing and deafness, low vision and
blindness, autism, traumatic brain injury, other health impairments, and severe and multiple
disabilities.
(Source: />Question 1. Which of the following can NOT be considered as “severe disabilities”?
A. Disabilities specific to task and setting.
C. Behavioral disorders.

B. Mental retardation.
D. Autism.

Question 2. “Historical records” mentioned in the second paragraph show that ______.
A. the problem of disabled students was more severe in the past than at present.
B. students with disabilities could be found in history.
C. disabled students in history had not been given enough attention.
D. it is difficult for children to get rid of mental disabilities.
Question 3. The word “relatively” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. comparatively

B. moderately

C. exclusively

D. partially

Question 4. According to the passage, all of the following groups of children can become students
of special education EXCEPT ______.
A. children with sensory problems.
B. children with learning disabilities.
C. children who suffer from emotional disturbance.
D. children who do not obey the rules of universal public education.
Question 5. The word “apparent” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.


A. obscure

B. foreseeable

C. obvious

D. constant

Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE about special education in the United States?
A. It now only provides services to students with severe disabilities.
B. It is now serving over five million students.
C. The number of students of special education has decreased.
D. The United States has spent decades on the legislation of special education.
Question 7. The purpose of this passage is to ______.
A. provide information about special education to the reader.
B. persuade the U.S. government to spend more money on special education.
C. encourage people to join in the work of special education.
D. compare special education with universal public education.

8

Unit 10: ENDANGERED SPECIES

(E12)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 8
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Emperors are the largest of all penguins - an average bird stands some 45 inches tall. These
flightless animals live on the Antarctic ice and in the cold surrounding waters. Penguins employ
physiological adaptations and cooperative behaviors in order to deal with an incredibly harsh
environment, where wind chills can reach -60°C.
Emperor penguins spend the long winter on the open ice - and even breed during this harsh
season. Females lay a single egg and then promptly leave it behind. They undertake an extended
hunting trip that lasts some two months! Depending on the extent of the ice pack, females may need
to travel some 50 miles just to reach the open ocean, where they will feed on fish, squid, and krill.
At sea, emperor penguins can dive to 1,850 feet - deeper than any other bird - and stay under for
more than 20 minutes.
Male emperors keep the newly laid eggs warm, but they do not sit on them, as many other
birds do. Males stand and protect their eggs from the elements by balancing them on their feet and
covering them with feathered skin known as a brood pouch. During this two-month bout of
babysitting the males eat nothing and are at the mercy of the Antarctic elements.
When female penguins return to the breeding site, they bring a belly full of food that they
regurgitate for the newly hatched chicks. Meanwhile, their duty done, male emperors take to the
sea in search of food for themselves.
Mothers care for their young chicks and protect them with the warmth of their own brood
pouches. Outside of this warm cocoon, a chick could die in just a few minutes. In December,


Antarctic summer, the pack ice begins to break up and open water appears near the breeding site,
just as young emperor penguins are ready to swim and fish on their own.

(Source: />Question 1. In order to deal with the harsh environment, penguins ______.
A. migrate to find better breeding or feeding grounds.
B. try to adapt to the environment physiologically.
C. improve each individual’s ability.
D. only breed during comfortable seasons.
Question 2. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Penguins are carnivores: their diet includes krill, squid and fish.
B. Female penguins lay an egg and then quickly leave it behind.
C. Most penguins can dive to 1,850 feet and swim underwater for 20 minutes.
D. Female penguins’ hunting trip lasts some two months.
Question 3. The word “flightless” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unable to fly
C. unable to fight

B. unable to swim
D. unable to run

Question 4. Male emperors protect the newly laid eggs from the coldness by ______.
A. sitting on the eggs
B. putting the eggs under their feet
C. covering the eggs with their brood pouches
D. putting the eggs under the ice
Question 5. During the period of babysitting, male emperors ______.
A. eat a lot to keep themselves strong.
B. can definitely survive in the harsh environment.
C. protect their eggs by balancing them on their feet.
D. undertake an extend hunting trip for food.
Question 6. In the fourth paragraph, “regurgitate” probably means ______.
A. passing food to someone
B. storing food

C. bringing food back up from one’s stomach
D. searching for food
Question 7. All of the following are true about baby emperor penguins EXCEPT ______.
A. young emperor penguins have to learn to break ice up in Antarctic summer
B. a penguin chick could die soon outside of its parents’ brood pouches
C. young emperor penguins are ready to fish independently in December
D. male and female emperors take turns to care for their young chicks

9

Unit 1: HOME LIFE (E12)


READING COMPREHENSION TEST 9
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Plants bring life and color into the home and require little in the way of maintenance. Follow
these simple tips and your plants should thrive.
Look for the best place in the house for each plant, and don’t be afraid to try different
locations until you find the best spot. If a room seems too dark to sustain a healthy plant, don’t be
fooled. Most indoor plants originate in tropical and subtropical regions, in particular equatorial
forests, and they thrive in dim environments and filtered light. The ideal spot is in front of a large
window facing east or west, filtered if necessary through a net scrim curtain. If you have a plant that
thrives on lots of sun, place it on a windowsill facing north or north-east. Check soil moisture levels
regularly and inspect the leaves to check they are not being burned. At the slightest sign of
withering, move the plant towards the middle of the room.
Water poured directly onto the soil may flood, or not reach the pot plant’s roots. Instead, water
plants bottom up by standing them in a dish and filling the dish with water. Delicate plants such as
fuchsias thrive on this method. For this method to work, all pots should have holes in the bottom
through which the water is absorbed. If you don’t want your plant to die of heat or cold, avoid

placing it in draughty areas or near ducted heat or air-conditioning outlets. Water your plants only
when the potting mix feels dry to the touch - over watering is often the cause of indoor plant death.
Check by pushing your finger into the soil; if it comes out without any trace of soil on it, start
watering. Remember that plants may need more frequent watering in summer. Most indoor plants
benefit from an occasional misting of water. Make sure the water is at room temperature and use an
atomizer or spray bottle. Misting is particularly beneficial if you live in a centrally heated or airconditioned house as the air can become very dry.
(Source: />Question 1. If a room seems too dark to sustain a plant, people should ______.
A. look for another room for indoor plants
B. only keep plants that originate in tropical areas
C. still try to find ideal spot for indoor plants in the room
D. give up the idea of keeping indoor plants
Question 2. For plants that need lots of sun to thrive, you should place them ______.
A. on a windowsill facing north or north-east
C. behind a net scrim curtain facing west

B. in front of a large window facing east
D. in the middle of the room

Question 3. The word “thrive” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. increase

B. fade

C. flourish

D. brighten

Question 4. According to the passage, which of the following is the right way to water plants?
A. Pour water into the soil.
C. Water plants more frequently in winter.

B. Water plants bottom up.
D. Give plants regular misting of water.

Question 5. The word “delicate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. vulnerable

B. inefficient

C. soft

D. dedicated

Question 6. Which of the following can serve as the best title for this passage?


A. The Importance of Indoor Plants.
C. The Right Way of Watering Plants

B. How to Keep Indoor Plants
D. How to Select Indoor Plants

Question 7. This passage can be put into the column of “______”.
A. HEALTH

B. TRUE STORIES

10

C. COOKING

D. ADVICE

Unit 16: HISTORICAL

PLACES (E10)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 10
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Researchers at the University of Oregon have recently unearthed fossils in South Africa that
present evidence of life on land 2.2 billion years ago - four times older than traditionally thought.
The fossilized organisms, dubbed Diskagma buttonii, are no bigger than the size of a standard
match head and were found threaded together in bunches. Though researchers are still unsure as to
their biological function, the organisms most closely resemble a modern fungus called Geosiphon.
The team believes Diskagma could be the oldest known eukaryote, a cellular organism containing a
nucleus.
The results of the study, led by geologist Gregory J. Retallack, provide new insight into the
development of Earth’s atmosphere. Examining the fossils suggests that the greening of Earth,
involving the rise of oxygen and emergence of new plant and animal forms, occurred much earlier
than 500 million years ago, the previous estimate.
“There is independent evidence for cyanobacteria, but not fungi, of the same geological age,
and these new fossils set a new and earlier benchmark for the greening of the land,” Retallack says
in a statement. “This gains added significance because fossil soils hosting the fossils have long been
taken as evidence for a marked rise in the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere at about 2.4 billion
to 2.2 billion years ago, widely called the Great Oxidation Event.”
Images of Diskagma were constructed using powerful X-rays from a particle accelerator at
Lawrence Berkeley National Laboratory in California. They show hollow, urn-shaped structures
with an attached tube. Retallack tells Popular Science that the fossils’ age was determined using
radiometric dating of surrounding rocks.

“At last we have an idea of what life on land looked like in the Precambrian,” Retallack says.
“Perhaps with this search image in mind, we can find more and different kinds of fossils in ancient
soils.”
(Source: />Question 1. The fossils found in South Africa suggest that ______.
A. creatures lived on land 2.2 billion years ago.


B. creatures on land in the Precambrian were all small in size.
C. they threaded together in bunches.
D. the organisms resemble a modern fungus.
Question 2. According to the passage, a cellular organism with a nucleus is called ______.
A. fungus

B. eukaryote

C. Diskagma

D. Geosiphon

Question 3. The word “resemble” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.
A. hold up

B. take after

C. go off

D. stay on

Question 4. In paragraph 3, “new insight” refers to ______.
A. the development of Earth’s atmosphere

B. Diskagma could be the oldest known eukaryote
C. the greening of Earth occurred much earlier than 500 million years ago
D. the results of the study
Question 5. According to the passage, the age of the fossils was determined by ______.
A. radiometric dating of surrounding rocks
B. powerful X-rays from a particle accelerator
C. urn-shaped structures with an attached tube
D. other kinds of fossils in ancient soils
Question 6. The phrase “this search image in mind” in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. kinds of fossils in ancient soils.
B. independent evidence for cyanobacteria
C. a new and earlier benchmark for the greening of the land
D. life on land in the Precambrian
Question 7. Which of the following is NOT true about this research?
A. It is conducted by researchers at the University of Oregon.
B. The fossilized organisms found in this research are no bigger than a standard match head.
C. The biological function of the organisms is figured out through this research.
D. This research contributes to the study of the development of Earth’s atmosphere.

11

Unit 6: AN EXCURSION

(E10)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 11
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.


People travel for a lot of reasons: Some tourists go to see battlefields or religious shrines.

Others are looking for culture, or simply want to have their pictures taken in front of famous places.
But most European tourists are looking for a sunny beach to lie on.
Northern Europeans are willing to pay a lot of money and put up with a lot of inconveniences
for the sun because they have so little of it. Residents of cities like London, Copenhagen, and
Amsterdam spend a lot of their winter in the dark because the days are so short, and much of the
rest of the year in the rain. This is the reason why the Mediterranean has always attracted them.
Every summer, more than 25 million people travel to Mediterranean resorts and beaches for their
vacation. They all come for the same reason, sun!
The huge crowds mean lots of money for the economies of Mediterranean countries. Italy’s
30,000 hotels are booked solid every summer. And 13 million people camp out on French beaches,
parks and roadsides. Spain’s long sandy coastline attracts more people than anywhere else. 37
million tourists visit yearly, or one tourist for every person living in Spain.
But there are signs that the area is getting more tourists than it can handle. The Mediterranean
is already one of the most polluted seas on earth. And with increased tourism, it’s getting worse.
The French can’t figure out what to do with all the garbage left by campers around St. Tropez. And
in many places, swimming is dangerous because of pollution.
None of this, however, is spoiling anyone’s fun. The Mediterranean gets more popular every
year with tourists. Obviously, they don’t go there for clean water and solitude. They tolerate traffic
jams and seem to like crowded beaches. They don’t even mind the pollution. No matter how dirty
the water is, the coastline still looks beautiful. And as long as the sun shines, it’s still better than
sitting in the cold rain in Berlin, London, or Oslo.
(Adapted from “Modern Sun Worshippers”)
Question 1. The writer seems to imply that Europeans travel mostly for the reason that ______.
A. they want to see historic remains or religious spots.
B. they are interested in different cultural traditions and social customs.
C. they would like to take pictures in front of famous sites.
D. they wish to escape from the cold, dark and rainy days back at home.
Question 2. In paragraph 2, cities like London, Copenhagen, and Amsterdam are mentioned
_______.
A. to show that they are not good cities in terms of geography and climate.

B. to suggest that these cities lack places of historic interest and scenic beauty.
C. to prove that they have got more tourism than they handle.
D. to tell us how wealthy their people are.
Question 3. According to the passage, which of the following countries attracts more tourists than
the others?
A. Italy

B. Spain

C. Greece

D. France

Question 4. The phrase “booked solid” in paragraph 3 means most nearly the same as ______.
A. seeming to be hard to book
C. having no spaces inside

B. being uncomfortable to live in
D. having less people than normal

Question 5. The latter half of the last sentence in paragraph 3, “or one tourist for every person
living in Spain” means _____.
A. all the 37 million people living in Spain are tourists.
B. every Spanish is visited by a tourist every year.
C. every person living in Spain has to take care of a tourist annually.
D. every year almost as many tourists visit Spain as there are people living in that country.


Question 6. The word “tolerate” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. exclude

B. endure

C. reject

D. neglect

Question 7. According to the passage, which of the following factors might spoil the tourists’ fun at
Mediterranean resorts and beaches?
A. Polluted water

12

B. Crowded buses

C. Traffic jams

D. Rainy weather

Unit 3: WAYS OF

SOCIALISING (E12)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 12
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

All too often, there is deference between what we say and what we think we have said, and
between how we feel we have handled people and how they think they have been treated. When
such ‘gaps’ occur between the intent and the action, it is often stated that there has been ‘a breakdown in communication ’. Sometimes the break-down is allowed to become so serious that the gap
becomes a chasm, relatives in family ceasing to speak to one another, managements and trade

unions refusing to meet, government recalling ambassadors when relations between states reach a
low ebb.
In fact, sometimes when people communicate, either as individual or within groups, problems
inevitably occur; instruction maybe impossible to carry out, offence is taken at a particular remark,
a directive is ambiguously phrased or people’s attitudes are colored by jealousy, resentment or
frustration.
During the past fifty years, industrial, commercial and public service organization have grown
prodigiously to meet the needs of advanced technological societies. Sometimes as many as 10,000
people work on one site, or one company employs more than 50,000 people. Clearly, good
communications are essential to the efficient operation of any organization, and vital to the
fulfillment of all those who commit their working lives to it.
For this reason, management specialist and behavioural scientist have devoted much thought
and energy over recent years to analyzing the problems caused by bad communication practices,
and creating good communication climate and systems.
As a result of the current structure of societies and economies, most of us spend our working
lives in an organization that we become good communicators with social skills.
(Source: />Question 1. Which of the following titles best sums up the passage?
A. The need for effective communication
C. Communication in technological societies

B. Break down in communication
D. Bad communication practices


Question 2. According to the passage, which of the following are NOT likely to contribute to a
break down in communication?
A. People’s attitude and feeling.
B. Ambiguously phrased instruction.
C. Managements and trade unions.
D. Management specialists and behavioural scientists.

Question 3. The author’s use of the phrase “reach a low ebb” in paragraph 1 is primarily meant to
show that _________.
A. The relationship between the countries has shown new developments.
B. The countries push for more far-reaching progress in their relationship.
C. The countries find common ground to maintain bilateral eelationship.
D. The relationship between the countries gets even worse than usual.
Question 4. It can be inferred from the passage that a good communicator needs to ________.
A. Create favourable communication conditions.
B. Get the technological systems to work effeciently.
C. Call a spade a spade.
D. Be able to address 10,000 workers.
Question 5. The word “chasm” in paragraph 1 means ________.
A. Serious eruption

B. Disaster

C. Wide difference

D. Disagreement

Question 6. The author of this reading would probably agree that _________.
A. We don’t need to communicate well in our family because social interaction is more important.
B. People should understand their duties towards society to become a good communicator.
C. We can’t control all the issues that arise in face-to-face communication.
D. A good manager running a tight ship in a company should only take on talented employees.
Question 7. The most essential tool of communication not specifically mentioned in this passage is
_______.
A. Specificialization

13

B. Writing

C. Environment

D. Language

Unit 14: INTERNATIONAL…

(E12)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 13
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.


Over the years, the United Nations has had some successes in its role of world peacemaker. It
has negotiated 172 peaceful settlements and helped to end two wars. It has also helped to show the
spread of nuclear weapons by inspecting nuclear facilities in 90 countries.
As a peacekeeper, the UN has also had a number of successes. Since 1945, UN peacekeeping
forces have been involved in 56 missions. They have supervised ceasefires and the withdrawal of
troops, and they have monitored elections. Over the years, roughly 130 nations have participated in
the peacekeeping missions. In 1988, the UN peacekeeping forces received the Nobel Peace Prize.
Unfortunately, member nations have been unwilling to give UN peacekeeping forces the
independence and financial support they need to be even more effective.
In evaluating the success of the UN, it is important to keep in mind that the organization has
many functions in addition to preventing or ending wars. The United Nations is really a “family” of
related organizations, which are working to provide a better life for people everywhere. One part of
the UN family is UNICEF, an organization that provides food, medical care, and many other
services to poor children wherever they live. Thanks to the efforts of UNICEF, the immunization
rate of children in developing countries has jumped from 5 percent in 1974 to more than 80 percent

today. Another part of the UN family is the World Health organization (WHO), which develops
medical programs for people all over the world. In 1980, WHO announce that, after 13 years of
work, it had succeeded in ridding the world of the disease smallpox.
(Source: www.englishsponsor.com/PhoneEnglish/levelTest/high_school.php)
Question 1. According to the passage, many members don’t want to provide independence and
financial support to UN peacekeeping forces because _____.
A. UN peacekeeping forces don’t solve any problems in doing what the members asks them to do.
B. UN peacekeeping forces show uncertainty about objectives which they are staying focused on.
C. UN peacekeeping forces need to produce more successful results in promoting world peace.
D. UN peacekeeping forces take part in an infamous organization.
Question 2. The word “roughly” in the paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. totally

B. equally

C. precisely

D. approximately

Question 3. The word “negotiated” in the paragraph 1 probably means ______.
A. solved

B. initiated

C. discussed

D. argued

Question 4. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the UN?
A. It has helped solve some peace problems around the world.

B. UN also works to give better life to people.
C. The peacekeeping forces have become independent.
D. It has used the help of other organizations to achieve its objectives.
Question 5. It is stated in the passage, which of the following is an example of the ability of the
specialized agencies of the United Nations to deal with global issues?
A. Increasing the percentage of children who are vaccinated.
B. Development of science and technology together with education and training.
C. Application of new advanced techniques in biology and medicine.
D. Preparing to test-fire a nuclear weapon that could obliterate an entire nation.
Question 6. What is the purpose of this passage?
A. to entertain

B. to inform

C. to persuade

D. to explain

Question 7. What is the best title for this passage?
A. Peacekeeping
C. The World Problems

B. World Organizations
D. United Nations’ Mission


14

Unit 15: WOMEN IN

SOCIETY (E12)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 14
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Since its birth in the middle of the 19th century, the women’s rights movement has taken root
and spread throughout the world. In many countries women have fought for the right to vote, the
right to work, the right to be educated to the limit of their capacities, the right to own and dispose of
property, and for equal rights within marriage. The cause has penetrated world governments via the
United Nations which in 1946 set up a special commission to study the worldwide status of women
and make recommendations to the Social and Economic Council on ways of improving it.
UNESCO too assists in the advancement of women by seeking top involve them in educational and
cultural programmes.
In addition, a multitude of women’s organizations exist in individual countries to further, at
national and international levels, the eradication of remaining areas of discrimination. Through their
affiliation with international feminist bodies, they are in touch with women’s activities and
achievements in all parts of the world.
However, with half the world’s population still illiterate - most of them women - there is great
disparity in what has been, and has still to be achieved. At one end of the scale, women’s rights
workers are still pressing for elementary education; at the other, for the removal of early ‘protective’
legislation which is now felt to be discriminatory because it denied women certain freedoms: for
example, the right to do night work if they so choose. Nevertheless, despite the fact that the
women’s movement has progressed unevenly and with varying success, women in general are
emerging from ‘chatteldom’ and are beginning to take their place beside men as free and equal
citizens.
Wherever they have been granted the opportunity, women have demonstrated their ability to
compete on equal terms with men. In time of war they have taken over from them in almost every
sphere, building a record of distinguished service which has proved for all time that the power
behind the throne is no less capable of ruling from it, and also that the hand rocking the cradle is
equally at home manufacturing it.

(Adapted from “Buss Corres’Ce & Report Writing, 4E” by Sharma & Mohan)
Question 1: According to the passage, the women’s rights movement aims at fighting for the basic
rights of women, that are all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. the right to be educated
C. the right to be involved in work

C. the right to hold property
D. the right to share housework duties


Question 2: According to paragraph 1, the author mentions that the women’s rights movement “has
taken root” and spread throughout the world to show _______.
A. The time when it starts to be established and accepted.
B. The time when it achieves the vision and mission.
C. The time when women make a lasting impression on the world.
D. The time when women have fought for their rights.
Question 3: The word “it” in the passage refers to _______.
A. the United Nations
C. advancement

B. status of women
D. a special commission

Question 4: It can be inferred from the passage that the women’s rights movement _______.
A. has achieved partial success.
B. has completely succeeded in achieving its aim.
C. has failed to achieve the goals.
D. has been interrupted by national authorities.
Question 5: The word “disparity” in the passage probably means _______.
A. inequality

B. justice

C. competition

D. denial

Question 6: Why is the progress of the feminist movement uneven and has affected its success?
A. Because this movement isn’t being sustained at the global level with the help of world
organizations.
B. Because many women around the world have not yet been able to acquire their rights.
C. Because of the long and ineffective struggle for women’s equality in different places.
D. Because a large section of women are sill illiterate and unaware of their rights.
Question 7: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The causes of discrimination
C. The women’s rights movement

15

B. How women won the right to vote
D. National organizations for women

Unit 4: SCHOOL

EDUCATION… (E12)

READING COMPREHENSION TEST 15
Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

Education is an issue which concerns many people in the UK as well as round the world. In

England, Wales and Northern Ireland pupils sit GCSE (General Certificate in Secondary Education)