5 de thi thu DH Ngoai thuong

<span class='text_page_counter'>(1)</span>2. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(2)</span> Các em học sinh thân mến! Kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017 đang đến gần, chắc chắn rằng lúc này các em đang nỗ lực hết mình để ôn luyện nước rút cho kỳ thi. Và, các em cũng đang tìm tài liệu, đề thi phục vụ cho việc ôn luyện của mình. Trong thời gian vừa qua, thầy có sưu tầm một số đề thi thử của trường ĐH ngoại thương, thầy đã chỉnh sửa lại đôi chút về mặt kỹ thuật như: font chữ, format để học sinh có cảm nhận như đề thi của Bộ GD-ĐT, thầy chia sẽ để các em ôn tập. Tính đến nay, trường ĐH ngoại thương – viện kinh tế & thương mại quốc tế đã tổ chức 5 lần thi thử khác nhau. Qua việc giảng dạy lớp luyện thi THPT quốc gia, thầy có nhận xét như sau: Đa số các đề thi, tuy chưa bám sát lắm theo cấu trúc đề minh họa của Bộ GD-ĐT nhưng nhìn chung đáp ứng được nhu cầu ôn luyện cho các em. Trong đó, thầy lưu ý các em ở đề số 04 bài đọc hiểu từ câu 36 đến câu 42 có thể gây nhiều khó khăn cho các em vì mức độ đề khá khó và chưa phù hợp. Chúc các em ôn thi tốt và đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi sắp tới. Thầy: Nguyễn Viết Tý Giáo viên trường THPT Bùi Dục Tài – Quảng Trị. 3. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(3)</span> TRƯỜNG ĐH NGOẠI THƯƠNG VIỆN KINH TẾ & THƯƠNG MẠI QUỐC TẾ. KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THI LẦN 1 (05/3/2017) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề. Họ và tên:………………………………………………………. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: Question 2:. A. empty A. scholar. B. deny B. character. C. sleepy C. charity. D. hurry D. chemist. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. history Question 4: A. career. B. musician B. agree. C. computer C. coffee. D. conclusion D. fourteen. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.. Question 5: Some underground water is enough safe to drink, but all surface water must be treated. A B C D Question 6: Stars in our universe vary in temperature, color, bright, size, and mass. A B C D Question 7: Neither Russia nor the United States have been able to discover a mutually A B C satisfactory plan for gradual disarmament. D. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 8: Parsley is cultivated throughout much of the world. A. seen B. cooked C. grown D. bought Question 9: While some bacteria are beneficial, others are harmful in that they cause disease. A. detrimental B. curative C. demanding D. dominant. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.. Question 10: He was killed in a tragic accident at the age of 24. A. boring B. comic C. unhappy Question 11: He decided to make Hanoi his permanent home. A. intermittent B. solitary C. frivolous. D. mysterious D. temporary. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: The planet Mercury __________round the Sun every eighty-eight days. A. has travelled B. is travelling C. travelled D. travels Question 13: There is _______horror movie on ____________ TV tonight. A. a/the B. the/ C. a/ D. / Question 14: _____you start, ______ you will finish. A. The soon/the more quickly C. The sooner/the quickly B. The sooner/the quicker D. The sooner/the more quickly Question 15: We arrived ____ Ho Chi Minh City _____9 p.m. ___ a hot summer day. A. in/at/on B. at/in/in C. to/at/in D. on/of/on Question 16: There is too ________ bad news on TV tonight. A. many B. much C. a few D. a little Question 17: You should seriously consider_______ a dancer. You are such a great performer. A. becoming B. to become C. become D. will become Question 18: The doctor recommended that the patient ________ as soon as possible. A. is operated B. operated C. would be operated D. be operated 4. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(4)</span> Question 19: Not until now_______ popularly recognized that man is destroying the environment. A. has it become B. does it become C. it has become D. it becomes Question 20: If I were you, I would take more _______in my work. A. confidence B. pride C. dedication D. solution Question 21: Her mother told her not to be too _____ and advised her to try to do things herself. A. independent B. dependence C. depending D. dependent Question 22: Jack has two elder brothers, __________are famous actors. A. both of which B. both of who C. both of whom D. both of them Question 23: Susan was alone in the house when the fire ________ . A. broke out B. broke down C. broke up D. broke away.. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.. Question 24: Lisa and Rachel are talking on the phone. - Lisa: “Would you like to go to the cinema with me tonight?” - Rachel: “ ___________ .” A. Yes, I’d love to B. Yes, please C. No, thanks Question 25: Henry is talking to his mother. - Henry: “I’ve passed my driving test.” - His mother: “________________. A. All right. B. That’s too bad C. That’s a good idea D. Congratulations. D. Sorry. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.. Question 26: He must have cancelled his e-mail account, as I can’t get hold of him. A. I must have got his e-mail address wrong, because he’s not giving me any reply. B. If no one is able to get in contact with him, he ought to get an e-mail account for himself. C. Since I’m unable to get in contact with him, it seems certain that he’s closed his e-mail account. D. He may have closed his e-mail account, but I won’t know for sure until I get in touch with him. Question 27: Only customers with coupons may use the service. A. The service is available for coupons only. B. The service is restricted to customers in possession of coupons. C. Only rich customers can use the service with coupons. D. Only customers with coupons are service here. Question 28: “You must do what you are told,” said the woman. A. The woman said that I had to do what I was told. B. The woman said that I must do what I was told. C. The woman said I should have done what I was told. D. The woman said I should do what I was told.. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.. Question 29: The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks. A. You’d better change all the locks or the burglar will come back. B. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar comes back. C. If you don’t change all the locks, the burglar could come back. D. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks. Question 30: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot. A. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot. B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot. C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot. D. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. ON YOUR BIKE! 5. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(5)</span> If you are getting (31)________up wasting time looking for parking spaces, my advice to you is to consider the bicycle as an alternate means of transport. Cycling is probably the cheapest and healthiest way of getting (32)________ in our congested city centers. Although it is convenient and environmentally desirable, it can be unattractive choice on a cold windy morning. It is much easier to get onto a nice warm bus or jump into your car, but the sight of cyclists as they weave their way in and out of the traffic may fill you with (33)_______ as you sit waiting in yet another traffic jam. In spite of the fact that worsening pollution is getting many people (34)________, causing more and more health problems, and while it is fashionable to express one’s approval of the environmentally safe bicycle, it is hard to deny the danger cyclists face in sharing the road with cars. Although cycling is not as risky as it looks at first (35)__________, there are more and more accidents involving cyclists. Question 31: A. fed B. tired C. irritated D. angry Question 32: A. over B. through C. about D. on Question 33: A. approval B. envy C. angry D. criticism Question 34: A. round B. over C. down D. together Question 35: A. look B. point C. view D. sight. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.. Despite the fact that too much fat can be harmful, a moderate fat intake is actually essential to the maintenance of good health. Some of the symptoms of fat deficiency include flaking skin, emaciation, reduced functioning of the immune system, and fertility problems. Recent studies have linked fat-free diets to increased stress and aggression, and note that those who try to eliminate fat completely from their food intake may be at risk for developing eating disorders: a small amount of fat in a meal will produce a feeling of satiety which lasts much longer than the sensation of fullness produced by protein or carbohydrates. At least two teaspoons of fat per day is needed in order for the digestive system to absorb vitamins A, D, E and K, which are fat soluble. These vitamins are essential for healthy hair, skin, teeth, and eyes. Without the ability to absorb these vitamins, children run the risk of developmental and neurological disorders. Adults need these vitamins to manufacture fertility hormones. Some types of fat actually help to reduce harmful cholesterol levels. Polyunsaturated fats such as corn, soybean, and sesame oil, and monounsaturated fats like chicken fat and olive oil, seem to lower blood cholesterol, while saturated fats – those found in red meat, dairy products, and tropical oils – seem to raise the level of the kind of cholesterol that accumulates as plaques on arterial walls. Paying attention to the type of fat consumed is just as important as reducing total fat intake. Question 36: What did the paragraph preceding this passage most likely discuss? A. general health guidelines B. methods of reducing one's percentage of dietary fat C. moderate fat intake D. health problems linked to fat consumption Question 37: What is the author's main purpose in the passage? A. To discuss some positive aspects of dietary fat. B. To compare three kinds of cholesterol. C. To prove that a low fat diet is inherently harmful. D. To analyze recent studies linking fat intake to disease. Question 38: All of the following are mentioned as signs of fat deficiency EXCEPT __________. A. flaky skin B. fertility problems C. a feeling of satiety D. reduced immunity Question 39: According to this passage, the most harmful type of fat would be found in ________ . A. fish and vegetables B. chicken fried in soybean oil C. corn oil and olive oil D. steak and cheese Question 40: The word “note” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________. A. suggest B. hope C. notice D. prove Question 41: The word “those” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________ . A. studies B. diets C. people D. scientists Question 42: The word “accumulates” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________ . A. builds up B. serves C. creates D. takes over Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Seeing adults – and children – who simply refuse to be unglued from their cellphones, no matter where they happen to be, is very common. Cellphone users often seem to forget that others share the same planet, and the talkers can be completely insensitive to those around them – to the noticeable annoyance of non-cellphone users. Cellphones have saved lives, increased business opportunities, and kept friendships going, but they 6. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(6)</span> have also been known to destroy the magic of the movies, make everyone at a restaurant turn around and stare, and bring many a meeting to an abrupt halt. People have even been known to carry their mobile phones to funerals! Your cellphone is undoubtedly very important to you because it keeps you in touch with the hundreds of urgent things you have to do every day. If you are a frequent cellphone user, you will insist that these gadgets are, after all, supposed to be anywhere – anytime phones. Isn’t that why we call them mobile? It is true that cellphones would not be of much use if you could not use them anywhere and anytime. And that is exactly why most cellphones come with a host of features you can use to ensure that disturbance to others is kept to a minimum. Even the most basic cellphones have a range of ring settings, with some sufficiently soft-toned not to annoy those around you. Some phones vibrate or flash a light to alert you, and some let out quiet little beeps. The voice mail option allows you to switch off and still no miss any calls or messages at all. So enjoy the benefits that cellphones bring, and at the same time, show consideration for others. Question 43: The author seems to think that taking cellphones to funeral _________ . A. is fine because funeral is private B. helps people to keep in touch C. is sometimes essential D. shows a lack of respect Question 44: The author mention movies and restaurants in paragraph 2 as examples of places where __________. A. everyone uses cellphones. B. cellphones can be annoying. C. people have time to talk on cellphones D. cellphones are not permitted Question 45: According to this passage, people who do not use cellphones _______. A. do not permit their children to use cellphones either B. are sensitive to the needs of others C. are not disturbed by others’ use of them D. may be irritated by the noise created by cellphone users Question 46: Which feature allows cellphone users to be considerate of other people’s needs? A. Soft ringing or a flashing light indicates incoming calls. B. Calls can be received at any time. C. The phone can be taken anywhere. D. You can leave messages on other people’s cellphones. Question 47: The author thinks cellphones should be __________. A. used freely by children and adults B. used as little as possible C. available for use at all times, with certain restrictions D. available for use at all times Question 48: According to the passage, what is the main advantage of cellphones? A. They have different ring settings. B. You can leave messages on them. C. They are widely used in business. D. They can be used in many different places and at any time. Question 49: Cellphones are beneficial because ____________. A. they can be used while eating out B. they can be used during meetings C. people bring them everywhere. D. they enable people to manage their busy schedules. Question 50: What is the main point of this passage? A. Cellphones are an essential part of modern life. B. Cellphones can be adjusted to minimize disturbance to other people. C. Cellphones have great advantages, but users should be considerate. D. People should not use cellphones unless it is necessary. ---HẾT---. 7. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(7)</span> TRƯỜNG ĐH NGOẠI THƯƠNG VIỆN KINH TẾ & THƯƠNG MẠI QUỐC TẾ. KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THI LẦN 2 (05/3/2017) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề. Họ và tên:………………………………………………………. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.. Question 1: A. insects Question 2: A. village. B. fields B. luggage. C. frogs C. page. D. villagers D. damage. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. surgeon Question 4: A. apology. B. surprise B. geography. C. surplus C. experience. D. surface D. preparation. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: Jack works as a lawyer and he earns twice as much than his brother. A B C D Question 6: The change from day to night results in the rotation of the Earth. A B C D. Question 7: Because the student spent too many time surfing the Internet, he didn't study well. A B C D. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.. Question 8: Don't try to phone me! By the time you read this letter, ____________. A. I have left B. I will have left C. I will leave D. I'm leaving Question 9: Nobody says a word about the accident, ____________? A. does he B. doesn't he C. do they D. don't they Question 10: Stress, ____________is a psychological problem, may lead to physical illness. A. which B. what C. that D. whose Question 11: She gave me a ____________ box. A. jewelry metal small square B. jewelry small metal square C. small square jewelry metal D. small square metal jewelry Question 12: _____ his good work and manners, he didn't get a promotion. A. Because of B. In spite of C. Even though D. As a result of Question 13: You ____ your room carelessly because it is still very untidy. A. shouldn't clean B. could clean C. must have cleaned D. can't have cleaned Question 14: She lost her job because she was _____ . She made far too many mistakes. A. rash B. incautious C. inefficient D. impulsive Question 15: My father put _____ the money to buy a new house. A. in B. up C. on D. out Question 16: I like his essay because it's very_____________. A. imagination B. imaginable C. imaginative D. imaginary Question 17: We sailed slowly down____________ Red river. A. a B. an C. the D. 0 Question 18: Only when you become a parent_____ what true responsibility is. A. you will understand B. will you understand C. you understand D. don't you understand Question 19: Prices are rising quickly everywhere. The ___________ seem to go up every day. A. standard of living B. quality of life C. annual income D. cost of living. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.. Trang 1/4. 8. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty. Giáo viên: Nguyễn Viết Tý.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(8)</span> Question 20: Julie and Nina are playing in the garden. Julie: "Look at this beautiful butterfly!" Nina: "_________________” A. Where? I don't see it. B. Yes, please. Question 21: Sarah's giving John a gift on his birthday. John: "Thank you very much for the lovely gift." Sarah:”_________________" A. You're welcome. B. Congratulations.. C. Don't worry.. D. No, it's your turn.. C. I'm not interested. D. No, I don't think so. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.. Question 22: The student was unable to provide an acceptable explanation. A. simple B. alternative C. additional D. satisfactory Question 23: In Roman times, a sophisticated technology brought running water into private homes and public bathhouses. A. experienced B. complicated C. worldly D. naive. Mark the letter A, 8, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Our traditions are very ancient and our people are very proud of them A. old B. young C. modern D. real Question 25: The milk is delivered at 6 A.M so we always have fresh milk for breakfast. A. sour B. old C. dirty D. new. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.. Question 26: Friendly though he may seem, he's not to be trusted. A. However he seems friendly, he's not to be trusted. B. However friendly he seems, he's not to be trusted. C. He is too friendly to be trusted. D. He may have friends, but he is not to be trusted. Question 27: "Leave my house or I'll call the police!" shouted the lady to the man. A. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house. B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn't leave her house. C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house. D. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn't leave her house. Question 28: Their chances of success are very small. A. It's not very likely that they will succeed. B. There is possibility that they will achieve success. C. They will certainly be very successful. D. They have no chances, so they are not successful.. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: In Paris, Hemingway met many of his old friends. They encouraged him in his writing career. A. In Paris, Hemingway encouraged many of his old friends who met him in his writing career. B. In Paris, Hemingway encouraged his writing career to meet many of his old friends. C. In Paris, Hemingway met his writing career which many of his old friends encouraged. D. In Paris, Hemingway was encouraged by many of his old friends in his writing career. Question 30: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday. A. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend. B. Jim, who car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend. C. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday. D. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.. Children (31)________ appear intelligent and have normal sight and hearing may nevertheless have learning disability such as dyslexia, difficulty in reading; dysgraphia, difficulty in writing; dyscalculia, difficulty with numbers; and auditory-memory problem that (32)________the child from remembering what has just been said. Considered an "invisible" (33)___________, such learning disabilities can be detected by alert parents before the children go to school. (34)___________ the child at about thirty months is not. Trang 2/4. 9. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty. Giáo viên: Nguyễn Viết Tý.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(9)</span> developing normal language skills, something is amiss. A child who cannot do puzzles or put pegs in holes lacks perceptual-motor skills. Kindergarteners should (35)____________the ABCs. First-graders may commonly reverse their letters, writing a d or a b, but if they are still doing this at the start of second grade, they should be tested for learning disabilities. Proper and early treatment is essential. Question 31: A. whom B. who C. whose D. they Question 32: A. avoid B. help C. encourage D. prevent Question 33: A. barrier B. retard C. disabled D. handicap Question 34: A. If B. When C. Although D. Because Question 35: A. read B. remember C. recognize D. pronounce. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. The technology of the North American colonies did not differ strikingly from that of Europe, but in one respect, the colonists enjoyed a great advantage. Especially by comparison with Britain, Americans had a wonderfully plentiful supply of wood. The first colonists did not, as many people imagine, find an entire continent covered by a climax forest. Even along the Atlantic seaboard, the forest was broken at many points. Nevertheless, all sorts of fine trees abounded, and through the early colonial period, those who pushed westward encountered new forests. By the end of the colonial era, the price of wood had risen slightly in eastern cities, but wood was still extremely abundant. The availability of wood brought advantages that have seldom been appreciated. Wood was a foundation of the economy. Houses and all manner of buildings were made of wood to a degree unknown in Britain. Secondly, wood was used as fuel for heating and cooking. Thirdly, it was used as the source of important industrial compounds, such as potash, an industrial alkali; charcoal, a component of gunpowder; and tannic acid, used for tanning leather. The supply of wood conferred advantages but had some negative aspects as well. Iron at that time was produced by heating iron ore with charcoal. Because Britain was so stripped of trees, she was unable to exploit her rich iron mines. But the American colonies had both iron ore and wood; iron production was encouraged and became successful. However, when Britain developed coke smelting, the Colonies did not follow suit because they had plenty of wood and besides, charcoal iron was stronger than coke iron. Coke smelting led to technologic innovations and was linked to the emergence of the Industrial Revolution. In the early nineteenth century, the former colonies lagged behind Britain in industrial development because their supply of wood led them to cling to charcoal iron. Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The advantages of using wood in the colonies. B. The effects of an abundance of wood on the colonies. C. The roots of the Industrial Revolution. D. The difference between charcoal iron and coke iron. Question 37: The word "strikingly" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to_____________. A. realistically B. dramatically C. completely D. immediately Question 38: Which of the following is a common assumption about the forests of North America during the colonial period? A. They contained only a few types of trees. B. They existed only along the Atlantic seaboard. C. They had little or no economic value. D. They covered the entire continent. Question 39: According to the passage, by the end of the colonial period, the price of wood in eastern cities ____________. A. rose quickly because wood was becoming so scarce B. was much higher than it was in Britain was slightly higher than in previous years D. decreased rapidly because of lower demand for wood Question 40: According to the passage, why was the use of coke smelting advantageous? A. It led to advances in technology. B. It was less expensive than wood smelting. C. It produced a stronger type of iron than wood smelting. D. It stimulated the demand for wood. Question 41: Why does the author mention "gunpowder" in paragraph 3? A. To illustrate the negative aspects of some industrial processes B. To give an example of a product made with wood compounds C. To remind readers that the colonial era ended in warfare. D. To suggest that wood was not the only important product of the colonies. Question 42: The phrase "follow suit" in paragraph 4 means . A. do the same thing B. make an attempt C. have the opportunity D. take a risk. Trang 3/4. 10. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty. Giáo viên: Nguyễn Viết Tý.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(10)</span> Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. There are desert plants which survive the dry season in the form of inactive seeds. There are also desert insects which survive as inactive larvae. In addition, difficult as it is to believe, there are desert fish which can survive through years of drought in the form of inactive eggs. These are the shrimps that live in the Mojave Desert, an intensely dry region in the south-west of the United States where shade temperatures of over 50C are often recorded. The eggs of the Mojave shrimps are the size and have the appearance of grains of sand. When sufficient spring rain falls to form a lake, once every two to five years, these eggs hatch. Then the water is soon filled with millions of tiny shrimps about a millimetre long which feed on tiny plant and animal organisms which also grow in the temporary desert lake. Within a week, the shrimps grow from their original 1 millimeter to a length of about 1.5 centimetres. Throughout the time that the shrimps are rapidly maturing, the water in the lake equally rapidly evaporates. Therefore, for the shrimps it is a race against time. By the twelfth day, however, when they are about 3 centimetre long, hundreds of tiny eggs form on the underbodies of the females. Usually by this time, all that remains of the lake is a large, muddy patch of wet soil. On the thirteenth day and the next, during the final hours of their brief lives, the shrimps lay their eggs in the mud. Then, having ensured that their species will survive, the shrimps die as the last of the water evaporates. If sufficient rain falls the next year to form another lake, the eggs hatch, and once again the shrimps pass rapidly through their cycle of growth, adulthood, egg-laying, and death. Some years there is insufficient rain to form a lake: in this case, the eggs will remain dormant for another year, or even longer if necessary. Very, very occasionally, perhaps twice in a hundred years, sufficient rain falls to form a deep lake that lasts a month or more. In this case, the species passes through two cycles of growth, egg-laying, and death. Thus, on such occasions, the species multiplies considerably, which further ensures its survival. Question 43: Which is the best title for this passage? A. Life in the Mojave Desert B. Life Cycle of the Mojave Shrimps C. The Survival of Desert Insects D. Water and Life in the Desert Question 44: The word "these" in the first paragraph refers to__________. A. plans B. eggs C. insects D. fish Question 45: According to the passage, the eggs originate___________. A. in the sand B. on the female C. in the mud D. in the lakes Question 46: By saying "for the shrimps it is a race against time" the author means____________. A. they have to swim fast to avoid danger in the rapidly evaporating lake B. they have to swim fast to catch the animal organisms on which they survive C. they have to multiply as many as possible within thirteen days D. they have to complete their life cycle within a short span of time permitted by the environment Question 47: The word "dormant" in the fourth paragraph most probably means___________. A. inactive B. strong C. dead D. empty Question 48: According to the passage, approximately how long does a shrimp live? A. about a week B. about 13 days C. about a month D. not given Question 49: What is unusual about the Mojave Shrimps? A. Their eggs can survive in an intensively dry region B. Their lives are very brief. C. They feed on plant and animal organisms. D. They lay their eggs in the mud only. Question 50: It may be inferred from the passage that _________________, A. appearance and size are most important for life to survive in the desert B. a species must be able to multiply quickly in order to survive C. for some species one life cycle in a year is enough to survive the desert drought D. some species develop a unique life pattern to survive in extremely harsh conditions __THE END__. Trang 4/4. 11. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty. Giáo viên: Nguyễn Viết Tý.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(11)</span> TRƯỜNG ĐH NGOẠI THƯƠNG VIỆN KINH TẾ & THƯƠNG MẠI QUỐC TẾ. KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THI LẦN 3 (02/4/2017) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề. Họ và tên:………………………………………………………. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. banner Question 2: A. bathing. B. change B. method. C. plane C. bathroom. D. sale D. width. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.. Question 3: A. literature Question 4: A. historical. B. acupuncture B. librarian. C. preventive C. adolescence. D. temperature D. phenomenon. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.. Question 5: She deeply resents to be told what to do by someone in a lower position than her. A B C D Question 6: Color blindness may exist at birth or may occur later in life as a result from disease or injury. A B C D Question 7: The fact that certain animal species have become, or are about to become, extinct A B today are entirely man’s responsibility. C D. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.. Question 8: By May, Sarah ____________ enough for a trip to Japan. A. saves B. will have saved C. has saved D. will be saving Question 9: This monument_______________solders who died in the war. A. celebrates B. remembers C. reminds D. commemorates Question 10: With the exception of mercury, ____________ at standard temperature. A. the metallic elements are solid B. since the metallic elements are solid C. metallic elements being solid D. which is a solid metallic element Question 11: We live in the ____________ on the corner. A. brick house old large B. large old brick house C. old brick large house D. brick large old house Question 12: Coal, oil and other similar ____________ resources may eventually be replaced by solar energy. A. nature B. nature’s C. natural D. native Question 13: You ____________ continue. You have made your point clear enough. A. needn’t B. mustn’t C. don’t have D. won’t Question 14: ____________ price is high, we cannot afford to buy a new car. A. Now that B. Although C. Whereas D. As long as Question 15: Having been delayed by heavy traffic, ____________. A. her being late was inevitable B. she was unable to arrive on time C. it was difficult for her to arrive on time D. it was impossible for her to arrive on time Question 16: ____________ it were well paid, I would accept this proposal. A. Providing B. Unless C. But for D. If only Question 17: They still haven’t make a decision ____________ to the new color scheme. A. with regard B. on reflection C. in view D. by contrast Question 18: My English is progressing in ____________. A. odds and ends B. leaps and bounds C. bounds and leaps D. ends and odds Question 19: I know we had an argument, but now I’d quite like to ____________. A. look down B. make up C. fall out D. bring up. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 12. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(12)</span> Question 20: Mr. Smith is going shopping to buy a pair of new shoes. Mr. Smith: - I’d like to try on these shoes, please. Salesgirl: - ____________ A. That’s right, sir. B. By all means, sir. C. I’d love to. D. Why not? Question 21: Mary is moving out. She is having trouble with some heavy boxes and she wants Tom to help her. Mary: ____________ Tom: - Yes, of course. A. You won’t help me this time. B. You’d better give me one hand. C. I don’t think I’ll need your help now. D. Could you give me a hand?. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The editor, preferring a more terse writing style, cut 500 words from the 2000-word article. A. elegant B. factual C. descriptive D. concise Question 23: My aunt’s new book is published next year. A. comes on B. comes in C. comes out D. comes up. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week. A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding Question 25: He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again. A. didn’t want to see B. surprised C. cared D. was happy. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement. A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement. B. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement. C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement. D. The two sides never looked like each other. Question 27: People who are unhappy sometimes try to compensate by eating too much. A. Unhappy people are usually overweight because they tend to eat too much. B. Eating too much occasionally makes people unhappy and depressed. C. For some people, eating too much is a reason to be miserable. D. When depressed, people occasionally attempt to offset their misery by overeating. Question 28: “Why don't you have your room repainted?” said Nick to Joey. A. Nick suggested having Joey's room repainted. B. Nick suggested that Joey should have his room repainted. C. Nick asked Joey why you didn't have your room repainted. D. Nick wanted to know why Joey doesn't have his room repainted. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.. Question 29: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday. A. The agreement ended six-month agreement was signed yesterday. B. The agreement signed yesterday lasted six months. C. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday. D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation. Question 30: I think I should have cooked more food. There is nothing left now. A. I should not have cooked so much food. B. I regret cooking too much food now. C. I did not cook much food and I think it is OK now. D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.. TREES FOR LIFE Trees are amongst the biggest and longest-living things on Earth, some (31) ____________ back longer than the oldest buildings. But as well as being nice to look at, trees also play an important role in improving the quality of our lives. 13. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(13)</span> On a world-wide (32) ____________, forests help to slow down the effects of global warming by using up the gas known as carbon dioxide and giving (33) ____________ the oxygen we need to breathe. At local neighborhood level, trees also bring important environmental benefits. They offer shade and shelter, which in turn reduces the amount of energy needed to heat and cool nearby buildings; at the same time, they also remove other impurities from the air we breathe. Urban trees are especially important because for many people they provide the only daily contact with the natural world. What’s more, urban trees also provide a home for birds, small animals and butterflies. (34) ____________ the trees we could lose the pleasure of seeing these creatures in our cities. Unfortunately, (35) ____________, trees in cities are now coming under threat. There is a limit to the level of pollution they can put up with and, down at the street level, their roots are being seriously disturbed by the digging needed to make way for modern telephone, television and other cables. Question 31: A. Question 32: A. Question 33: A. Question 34: A. Question 35: A.. dating range in Within therefore. B. B. B. B. B.. aging size away Beyond however. C. C. C. C. C.. growing scale up Without despite. D. D. D. D. D.. stretching area out Above whilst. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.. Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival – and the survival of our planet. Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but it will not, by itself, prevent animals from being hunted and killed. Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Endangered species B. Problems with industrialization C. The Bengal tiger D. International boycotts Question 37: The word “callousness” could be best replaced by which of the following? A. incompetence B. indirectness C. insensitivity D. independence Question 38: The passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast . A. a comparison and a contrast B. a problem and a solution C. a statement and an illustration D. specific and general information Question 39: What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to in the passage? A. Bengal tiger B. Interest in material gain C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population Question 40: The word “defray” is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. make a payment on B. raise C. lower D. make an investment toward Question 41: The author uses the phrase “stem the tide” in the second paragraph to mean . A. touch B. stop C. tax D. save Question 42: Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude? A. indifferent B. forgiving C. concerned D. surprised. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.. RACES AND THEIR GENETIC DIFFERENCES Genetics is the study of hereditary characteristics that are passed down from one generation of living organisms to another. Although farmers have used selective breeding to improve the resilience of crops and animals, it wasn't until the mid-1800s that Gregor Mendel started the science of genetics as we know it today. 14. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(14)</span> Following Mendel's methods, scientists have discovered "chromosomes" and "DNA". With the ability to study DNA, scientists were able to study the genetic differences between races. Modern genetics discovered that all humans are descendants of "Mitochondrial Eve," a woman who lived over 150,000 years ago in Africa. Since the first humans were born, over 75,000 generations have passed, and many subtle differences are now evident. Humans share at least 99% of their genetic makeup. A 1% difference may not seem like much, but when you consider that a chimpanzee shares 98% of human genes, you realize how much a 1% difference makes! Africans are more closely related to Europeans than any other two groups, despite the fact that they differ so much in appearance. The biggest genetic differences are found between Africans and the native populations of North America (22%). However, it is essential to note that the genetic differences between people of the same race are much greater than the differences between people of different races. This means that the argument which claims that genetic differences make one race superior to another is nothing but a tall story. The differences in various populations may also be the result of circumstances rather than genetic makeup. Factors such as climate, diet, health care, education, and employment as well as other socioeconomic factors are all influential. However, there are some traits which are genetic; for example, there is a much higher incidence of sickle- cell anemia among black populations than any other population group. Adult AfricanAmericans and Latinos have twice as many cases of diabetes than Caucasians. In the U.S., Latinos suffer more deaths from liver disease than other races. Europeans suffer more from heart disease and cancer. Genes not only affect our susceptibility to disease, they also affect our physical attributes. The Dinka people from the Sudan are considered to be the tallest people with men having an average height of 6ft 3in., while women hit the big time with an impressive 5ft 3 in. This contrasts sharply with the Pygmy tribes who get the short end of the stick at only about 4ft 11 in tall. Genetic differences may help us to tailor health services to people of different races or to detect life threatening diseases early. However, they are not significant enough to support the claim that one race is superior to another. In fact, our modern scientific understanding of human genetic diversity flies in the face of almost all our social stereotypes. Question 43: What is genetics? A. The study of old people B. The study of muscles in your body C. The study of inherited characteristics D. The study of human’s characteristics Question 44: Why do farmers practice selective farming? A. To make animals and crops more resilient B. They only want to grow one crop C. They want to increase the number of farmers D. To make crops tastier Question 45: What were scientists able to discover using Mendel's methods? A. Chromosomes B. DNA C. Genetic differences D. (A) and (B) are correct Question 46: What does the phrase “a tall story” mean? A. exaggeration B. unbelievable C. cynical D. untrue Question 47: Where do the greatest genetic differences occur? A. Between people of different races B. Between Europeans and African C. Between people of the same race D. Between Asians and Africans Question 48: What two factors contribute to the differences between races? A. Genetics and socioeconomic factors B. Genetics and access to health care C. Access to health care and socioeconomic factors D. Genetic makeup and circumstances Question 49: Which diseases are African-Americans more likely to get? A. Diabetes and liver disease B. Sickle-cell anemia and diabetes C. Cancer and sickle-cell anemia D. Cancer and heart disease Question 50: What is the author saying in the last paragraph? A. Races differ a lot in their genetic makeup. B. Genetic differences aren’t significant between races. C. All races are descendants of the same woman. D. Genetic makeup affects people’s physical attributes. THE END 15. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(15)</span> TRƯỜNG ĐH NGOẠI THƯƠNG VIỆN KINH TẾ & THƯƠNG MẠI QUỐC TẾ. KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THI LẦN 4 (16/4/2017) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề. Họ và tên:………………………………………………………. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. massage Question 2: A. cantaloupe. B. garage B. catastrophe. C. collage C. recipe. D. message D. apostrophe. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.. Question 3: A. assistance Question 4: A. prevent. B. consider B. depend. C. politely C. mayhem. D. compliment D. condemn. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: To eliminate any delays on handover, we would remember you to bring all the necessary documentation. A B C D Question 6: If the water level had raised a little higher, the dam would probably have broken. A B C D Question 7: The nitrogen makes up over 78 percent of the Earth’s atmosphere, the gaseous mass surrounding A B C D the planet.. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.. Question 8: When the electricity failed, he ____________ a match to find the candles. A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started Question 9: Doctors advise people who are deficient ____________ Vitamin C to eat fruits and vegetables. A. from B. of C. in D. for Question 10: Going on this diet has really ____________ me good. I’ve lost weight and I feel fantastic! A. done B. taken C. made D. had Question 11: Once again poor Colin has been ____________ for promotion. A. stood by B. passed over C. locked out D. struck off Question 12: Life expectancy in the third world is relatively short, ____________ in the western world it has increased substantially. A. whereas B. unlike C. however D. contrary Question 13: I have told her that I am not going to go ahead with my plans ____________ she may think. A. whether B. whatever C. however D. despite Question 14: The best way of writing a composition in a foreign language is to try and write ____________ thinking in your own language. A. unless B. except C. without D. apart from Question 15: It is time every student ____________ harder for the coming exam. A. works B. should work C. work D. worked Question 16: It’s no use ____________ a language if you don’t try to speak it too. D. learn C. learning B. learned A. to learn Question 17: She ____________ her neighbor’s children for the broken window. A. blamed B. complained C. accused D. denied Question 18: This ring is only made of plastic, so it’s quite ____________. A. valuable B. invaluable C. worthless D. priceless Question 19: I recommended that she ____________ reduce her expenditure. A. should B. must C. need D. would. Trang 1/4 – Đề thi thử. 16. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(16)</span> Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: "How do you spell "accustomed"?" " ____________ " A. It's a difficult word. B. It's a long word, isn't it? C. I always have a dictionary. D. I'm not sure. I'll look it up for you. Question 21: "Do you mean he was fired?" " ____________ " A. How should I know? B. Why should I care? C. He's not very mean, I think. D. That's what Miriam told me.. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions. Question 22: During the recession, many small companies were eradicated. A. taken over B. wiped out C. run on Question 23: For calculating a calendar, it is convenient to use the tropical solar year. A. practical B. critical C. necessary. D. set up D. appropriate. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions.. Question 24: The young are now far more materialistic than their precedents years ago. A. monetary B. greedy C. spiritual D. object-oriented Question 25: This shouldn’t be too taxing for you. A. comfortable B. demanding C. easy D. relaxing. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSET in meaning to each of the following questions.. Question 26: A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one. A. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect. B. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease. C. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several. D. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects. Question 27: Although he was able to do the job, he wasn’t given the position. A. He was given neither the job nor the position. B. Because he couldn’t do the job, he wasn’t given the position. C. He got the position despite being unable to do the job. D. The position wasn’t given to him in spite of his ability to do the job. Question 28: Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price increased much. A. It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase. B. It was its price which decreased the demand for tea in the 19th century. C. In the 19th century the price for tea didn’t increase despite the demand. D. The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price increased much. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.. Question 29: The driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened. A. If the driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen. B. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened. C. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened. D. If the driver in front had stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened Question 30: The students may be intelligent. They will not get used to dealing with practical situations. A. Intelligent as may be the students, they will get used to dealing with practical situations. B. The students may be too intelligent to get used to dealing with practical situations. C. The students will get used to dealing with practical situations although they are intelligent. D. Intelligent as they may be, the students will not get used to dealing with practical situations.. Trang 2/4 – Đề thi thử. 17. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(17)</span> Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that benefits each of the number blanks from 31 to 35.. When Hotmail was set up in 1996, it was not huge success that it is today. But on every e-mail sent via Hotmail, there was a tine at the bottom saying, ‘Get your private, free e-mail at hotmail.com’, providing them with a free advertisement. This simple idea soon paid (31) __________ and Hotmail went from strength to power ICQ, which stands for ‘I seek you’, an instant messaging service that (32) _____________ off in a similar way and made a (33) ___________. The popularity of ICQ spread because users recommended is to their friends so that they could have people to chat to online. The vast majority of Internet users tried it and it was eventual taken over by Netscape so as to control their competition. These are example of what is known as “viral” communication – so called because the message spreads like a virus. It used to be said that Roll Royce never needed to advertise – despite (34) ____________high cost of the luxury cars – because owners were more than happy to tell their friends and neighbors how satisfied they were. Nowadays, if you are (35) ____________ to the Internet, the word can be spread in half a second and, within a day; you might have indirectly communicated with millions of people. Question 31: A. up B. back C. off D. for Question 32: A. let B. set C. took D. gave Question 33: A. fortune B. treasure C. wealth D. prosperity Question 34: A. very B. its C. the D. a Question 35: A. associated B. joined C. downloaded D. connected. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 36 to 42.. Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very different types of flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and rays, relatives of the sharks, have become flat in what might be called the obvious way. Their bodies have grown out sideways to form great “wings”. They look as though they have been flattened but have remained symmetrical and “the right way up”. Conversely, fish such as plaice, sole, and halibut have become flat in a different way. There are bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a vertical direction; they are much “taller” than they are wide. They use their whole, vertically flattened bodies as swimming surfaces, which undulate through the water as they move. Therefore, when their ancestors migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies. However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking down into the sand and was effectively useless. In evolution this problem was solved by the lower eye “moving” around the other side. We see this process of moving around enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish. It starts life swimming near the surface, and is symmetrical and vertically flattened, but then the skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical twisted fashion, so that one eye, for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, an old Picasso - like vision. Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on the left, and others on either side. Question 36: The passage is mainly concerned with ____________. A. symmetrical fish B. bony flatfish C. evolution of flatfish D. different types of flatfish Question 37: The phrase “hugging the contours” means ____________. A. swimming to the seabed B. hiding in the sand at the bottom of the sea C. floating just below the surface D. lying still on the sea bottom Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that horizontal symmetrical fish ____________. A. have one eye each side of the head B. have one eye underneath the head C. have two eyes on top of the head D. have eyes that move around the head Question 39: According to the passage, fish such as plaice ____________. A. have difficulties in swimming B. live near the surface C. have poor eyesight D. have distorted head Question 40: The word “this” refers to ____________. A. the migration of the ancestors B. the practice of lying on one side C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards D. the difficulty of the only one eye being use Question 41: According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is ____________. D. variable C. excellent A. average B. weak Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is ____________. A. often confusing B. pretty normal C. very difficult D. full of danger. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50. Trang 3/4 – Đề thi thử. 18. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(18)</span> The Beatles became the most popular group in rock music history. This quartet of extraordinarily talented musicians generated a phenomenal number of pieces that won gold records. They inspired a frenzy that transcended countries and economic strata. While all of them sang, John Lennon and Paul McCartney wrote the majority of their songs. Originally, Lennon and five others formed a group called the Quarrymen in 1956 with Paul McCartney joining them later that year. George Harrison, John Lennon, and Paul McCartney, together with Stuart Sutcliffe, who played the bass guitar, and Pete Best on the drums, performed together in several bands for a few years, until they finally settled on the Silver Beatles in 1960. American rock musicians, such as Chuck Berry and Elvis Presley, influenced Lennon’s and McCartney’s music, whose first hits consisted of simple tunes and lyrics about young love, “Love me Do” and “Please, Please me”. The Beatles’ US tour propelled them to stardom and led to two movies “A Hard Day’s Night” and “Help” filmed in 1964 and 1965. The so- called British invasion of the United States was in full swing when they took the top five spots on the single chart, followed by the release of their first film. During the 1960s, their music matured and acquired a sense of melody. The lyrics of their songs became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their popularity continued to grow as the Beatles turned their attention to social problems and political issues in “Nowhere Man” and “Eleanor Rigby”. Loneliness and nostalgia come through in their ballads “Michelle” and “Yesterday”, which fully displayed the group’s professional development and sophistication. Lennon’s sardonic music with lyric written in the first person, and Paul McCartney’s songs that created scenarios encouraged individuals to contribute to the character of the music produced by the group. In addition to their music, the Beatles set a social trend that popularized long hair, Indian music, and mod dress. For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert took place in San Francisco in 1966. The newspaper and tabloids publicized their quarrels and lawsuits, and the much idolized group finally disbanded in 1970. However, their albums had outsold those of any other band in history. Although all of the Beatles continued to perform solo or form new rock groups alone, none could achieve the recognition and success that they had been to win together. Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The history and music of the Beatles B. The history and milestones of rock music C. The fashion and music popular in the 1960s D. The creation and history of a music group Question 44: According to the passage, which of the Beatles had the greatest of musical talent? A. John Lennon and Paul McCartney B. George Harrison and John Lennon C. Stuart Sutcliffe and Pete Best D. John Lennon, Paul McCartney and George Harrison Question 45: The author of the passage implied that the Beatles ____________. A. competed with American musicians B. wrote their music as a group C. became popular relatively quickly D. were active in social movements Question 46: According to the passage, the Beatles’ fame grew as a result of ____________. A. Chucky Berry’s involvement B. their American tour C. two movies made in the US D. their first two hits Question 47: The author of the passage implied that over time, the music and lyrics by the Beatles ____________. A. became more complex than at the beginning of their career B. declined in quality and political significance C. were dedicated to women named Eleanor and Michelle D. made them the richest musicians in the world Question 48: According to the passage, when did the Beatles experience their greatest success? A. In the late 1950s B. After their break-up in 1970 C. During the early and mid-1960s D. Throughout their lifetime Question 49: The word “scenarios” is closest in meaning to ____________. A. sceneries B. situations C. life stories D. love themes Question 50: According to the passage, how did Lennon and McCartney enhance the music of the group? A. They struggled to reach stardom in the U.S B. They composed lyrics to scornful songs and ballads C. Their music added distinctiveness to the Beatles’ repertoire D. Their loneliness and sadness made their music popular __THE END__. Trang 4/4 – Đề thi thử. 19. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(19)</span> TRƯỜNG ĐH NGOẠI THƯƠNG VIỆN KINH TẾ & THƯƠNG MẠI QUỐC TẾ. KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THI LẦN 5 (07/5/2017) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề. Họ và tên:………………………………………………………. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. Christ Question 2: A. naked. B. Christen B. sacred. C. Christian C. cowshed. D. Christmas D. hatred. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. deficiency Question 4: A. mature. B. psychology B. nature. C. ecological C. culture. D. competitor D. measure. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: In advanced stages of anorexia, the patient is unable to feed him. A B C D Question 6: In my opinion, I think the problem should be solved as soon as possible. A B C D Question 7: We were short of money, therefore we decided not to eat out that weekend. A B C D. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: Linguists have discovered that Nostratic and proto-Indo-European have many words in A. relation B. affinity C. common D. conjunction Question 9: If no one misbehaving, all pupils will be kept in after school. A. admits off B. admits in C. owns up in D. owns up to Question 10: Their flat is decorated in a combination of colors. A. tasteful B. sweet C. delicious D. tasty Question 11: I seem to be in energy this morning. A. low B. short C. lack D. bereft Question 12: I would like to thank you, my colleagues, for the welcome you have given us. A. on account of B. on behalf of C. because of D. instead of Question 13: She wondered her father looked like then, after so many years away. A. how B. whose C. what D. that Question 14: The police car drove into the car park and sharply. A. pulled in B. pulled up C. pulled aside D. pulled about Question 15: We are going to have a meeting the morning of December 21st. A. at B. in C. on D. to Question 16: A native speaker of Spanish, for example, will to learn than a native speaker of Chinese A. find Portuguese much easier B. find that Portuguese is much easy C. find Portuguese much easy D. find Portuguese is much easier Question 17: Your fare, accommodation and meals, are all in the price of this holiday. A. composed B. collected C. enclosed D. included Question 18: We will leave for the airport he is ready. A. while B. during C. until D. as soon as Question 19: Nothing is destroyed after the serious flood in this area, ? A. is it B. isn’t it C. aren’t they D. are they. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.. 20. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty. ..

<span class='text_page_counter'>(20)</span> Question 20: This is my last portable CD player. I'll let you have it for fifty dollars. "__________" A. Could you give me a discount? B. Could you possibly give me fifty dollars? C. Could you give me your last CD? D. Can you tell me your favorite type of music? Question 21: "How far is the train station?" "__________" A. Approximately two miles long. B. About ten minutes away. C. Quite slow, I think. D. It's really fast, isn't it?. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions.. Question 22: Many young children are spending large amounts of time watching the TV without being aware of its detriment to their school work. A. harm B. advantage C. support D. benefit Question 23: The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies. A. unique B. novel C. exotic D. vital. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions. Question 24: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community. A. cooperate B. put together C. separate D. connect Question 25: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly. A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.. Question 26: It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting 18 years old that she is allowed to get married legally. A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old. B. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old. C. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years. D. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old. Question 27: As soon as he approached the house, the policeman stopped him. A. No sooner had he approached the house that the policeman stopped him. B. Hardly had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him. C. No sooner had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him. D. Hardly he had approached the house that the policeman stopped him. Question 28: Is anyone checking your essay about the environmental pollution? A. Are you having your essay about the environmental pollution checked? B. Are you checking your essay about the environmental pollution? C. Are you going to check your essay about the environmental pollution? D. Are you having someone to check your essay about the environmental pollution?. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: Vietnam exports a lot of rice. It is grown mainly in the south of the country. A. Vietnam exports a lot of rice which grown mainly in the south of the country. B. Vietnam exports a lot of rice, that is mainly grown in the south of the country. C. Vietnam exports a lot of rice grown mainly in the south of the country. D. Vietnam, which is grown mainly in the south of the country, exports a lot of rice. Question 30: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot. A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most. B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much. C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved. D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that benefits each of the number blanks from 31 to 35.. Ever since humans have inhabited the Earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings had been in the form of oral (31) __________. When there is a language (32)__________, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to (33) __________to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot. 21. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(21)</span> Body language transmits ideas or thoughts (34)__________certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. (35) __________verbalization is most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. Question 31: A. address Question 32: A. barrier Question 33: A. refer Question 34: A. on Question 35: A. While. B. speech B. obstacle B. rotate B. from B. As. C. utterances C. division C. resort C. of C. Because. D. claims D. separation D. revolve D. by D. However. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 36 to 42.. Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic natural material; it has been used successfully in archeology to determine the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as well as in a variety of other fields. The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that carbon is a part of all living things on Earth. Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14 has a known half-life, the amount of carbon-14 remaining in an object can be used to date that object. Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that number of years, half of the carbon-14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14. It is the ratio of carbon-14 in that substance that indicates the age of the substance. If, for example, in a particular sample the amount of carbon-14 is roughly equivalent to the amount of nitrogen-14, this indicates that around half of the carbon-14 has decayed into nitrogen-14, and the sample is approximately 5,570 years old. Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are older than 80,000 years. When objects are that old, much of the carbon-14 has already decayed into nitrogen-14, and the miniscule amount that is left doesn’t provide a reliable measurement of age. In the case of older objects, other age-dating methods are available, methods which use radioactive atoms with longer half-lives than carbon has.. Question 36: This passage is mainly about . A. the differences between carbon-14 and nitrogen-14 B. one method of dating old objects C. archeology and the study of ancient artifacts D. various uses for carbon Question 37: The word “it” refers to . A. carbon dating B. the age C. any organic natural material D. archeology Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true about carbon-14? A. It is radioactive. B. Its half-life is more than 5,000 years. C. It can decay into nitrogen-14. D. It and nitrogen always exist in equal amounts in any substance. Question 39: The word “underlying” could best be replaced by . A. below B. requiring C. being studied through D. serving as a basis for Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that if an item contains more carbon-14 than nitrogen-14, then the item is . A. too old to be age-dated with carbon-14 B. not as much as 5,570 years old C. too radioactive to be used by archeologists D. more than 5.570 years old Question 41: It is implied in the passage that . A. carbon dating could not be used on an item containing nitrogen B. fossils cannot be age-dated using carbon-14 C. carbon-14 does not have the longest known half-life D. carbon dating has no known uses outside of archeology. 22. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

<span class='text_page_counter'>(22)</span> Question 42: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses A. how carbon-14 decay into nitrogen-14 B. various other age-dating methods C. why carbon-14 has such a long half-life D. what substances are part of all living things. .. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50.. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. Question 43: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work . A. as a researcher B. at college C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind . A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies Question 45: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea around Us? A. Printed matter B. Talks with experts C. A research expedition D. Letters from scientists Question 46: Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate describing The Sea around Us? A. Highly technical B. Poetic C. Fascinating D. Well researched Question 47: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to . A. unnecessary B. irresponsible C. continuous D. limited . Question 48: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides D. an illusion of the benefits of the chemical industry Question 49: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “flawed”? A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive Question 50: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee? A. To provide an example of government propaganda B. To support Carson’s idea C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims __THE END__. 23. Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty.

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