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English gifted student test

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A. MULTIPLE CHOICE
I. PHONOLOGY (10p)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other
three
1. A. crooked

B. hatred

C. dogged

D. moped

2. A. crises

B. oases

C. Species

D. houses

3. A. simile

B. jibe

C. catastrophe

4. A. bikini

B. relief

C. mischief



D. belief

5. A. endure

B. soldier

C. procedure

D. grandeur

D. apostrophe

Your answers
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three
6. A. peninsula

B. penicillin

C. impetigo


D. mausoleum

7. A. hypermarket

B. arithmetic

C. curriculum

D. pneumonia

8. A. advertise

B. expertise

C. compliment

D. infamous

9. A. caricaturist

B. aristocratic

C. tuberculosis

D. parliamentarian

10. A. archipelago

B. trigonometry


C. explanatory

D. anonymity

Your answers
6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

II. VOCABULARY, PREPOSITION & STRUCTURES (30p)
Make the best choice.
1. After the flash flood, all the drains were overflowing _____ storm water.
A. from

B. with

C. by

D. for

2. What _____ the smoke and the noise, the party made me feel quite ill



A. about

B. for

C. with

D. through

3. The rules are clearly stated and admit _____ no confusion
A. to

B. for

C. of

D. from

4. Although I’d never made a sandwich before, my first attempt turned _____ quite
well.
A. over

B. up

C. out

D. into

5. The _____ of the family following the divorce was a great shock to the children.
A. break-down


B. break-in

C. break-up

D. break-out

6. The criminal knows the _____ of successful robberies.
A. trash and treasure

B. part and parcel

C. ins and outs

D. close all

7. All our efforts to persuade her to come and stay with us were of no _____
A. influence

B. effect

C. result

D. avail

8. Since the car broke down on a lonely country road, we had to try to _____ a lift
to the nearest telephone
A. flag

B. signal


C. thumb

D. wave

9. If you want a job in Italy, you’re likely to have more success if you’re on the
_____ rather than writing letters from abroad.
A. site

B. spot

C. dot

D. country

10. It’s not easy to _____ your own life if you live with an inquisitive family in a
small village.
A. lead

B. rid

C. let

D. lid

11. The victims of the accident are being _____ in local hospitals.
A. treated

B. cured

C. healed


D. operated

12. Few inventors have _____ as many useful inventions as Thomas Alva Edison.
A. their credit

B. had their credit C. to their credit

D. to have their credit

13. I don’t have a whisky, thank you. It’s not that I don’t think, _____ that I don’t
drink and drive.


A. otherwise

B. but rather

C. except

D. so

14. _____ as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in
which it was created.
A. Ranking

B. To be ranked

C. Being ranked


D. Ranked

15. Biochemists have solved many of the mysteries about photosynthesis, the
process _____ plants make food
A. by which

B. through which C. which

D. whose

16. She’d prefer to pursue her studies _____ to look for a job.
A. rather than starting

B. to starting

C. rather than start D. than to start

17. He phoned to tell me that he couldn’t come tomorrow because he _____ to the
dentist
A. had gone

B. went

C. was going

D. would go

C. shall

D. will


18. I’ll go on a diet if you _____
A. would

B. should

19. Until the storm dies down _____ we can do is hope
A. everything

B. only

C. all

D. nothing

20. They now cost twice _____ they did a few years ago
A. that

B. which

C. what

D. while

21. Great Britain, which is now an island, _____ part of the European mainland
A. was once

B. is a

C. has been


D. used to

22. Elizabeth Barrett Browning, ______ remembered for her love poems,
published her first work at the age of twelve
A. is

B. who

C. who is

D. being

23. _____ of the tires on the motorcycle looks any better than the other
A. No

B. None

C. Nothing

D. Neither

24. Although he claims to be bilingual , his Spanish is ______, than mine


A. much better
if not worse

B. not better, if not worst


C. not better

D. no better,

25. ______ man has been destroyed by drink
A. Many a

B. A great many

C. Very many

D. The many

26. He says he’s _____ busy to come out with us
A. too much

B. much too

C. so much

D. much so

27. His mother is from Moscow, so he’s _____ Russian
A. slightly

B. somewhat

C. part

D. a bit


28. I am not _____ ambitious _____ interested in pursuing a career.
A. so/ as to be

B. too/ to be

C. so/ to be

D. as/ as to be

29. Despite his lack of experience, he ______ get the job done without delay.
A. can

B. could

C. may

D. was able to

30. He _____ vey clumsy because this is the fifth time he has fallen down the stairs
A. must be
been

B. must have been

C. could be

D. could have

Your answers

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.

2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.

3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.

4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.

5.
10.

15.
20.
25.
30

III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (20p)
1. It is an ambitious experiment to discover if humans, by living in a “mini-Earth”
under controlled strictly conditions, can discover ways in which mankind can live
in harmony with the ecology of the real Earth
A. if humans

B. controlled strictly

C. in which

D. in harmony with


2. Trailed two-nil from the first leg, Herefold levelled the scores and then beat
Torquay with four goals from the penalty spot at the end of extra time
A. Trailed

B. levelled

C. then beat

D. at the end

3. The Act making it possible for the properties to be transferred from the local
authorities to housing associations, tenant co-operative, or private landlords

A. making

B. to be transferred

C. to

D. or private landlords

4. He wore a pained expression as his parents embarrass him in front of his friends
A. a pained

B. as

C. embarrass

D. in front of

5. For the past decades, the Lakers dominated the sport of professional basketball,
and their reign shows no signs of ending
A. dominated

B. their

C. shows

D. ending

6. Bubba accepted responsibility for the broken window, admitting that in a fit of
anger he had taken a baseball and threw it with all of his might towards the house
A. accepted


B. had taken

C. threw

D. towards

7. Many of the poems written by Sor Juana Ines de la Cruz, a leading poet of Latin
America in the 1600s, defends women’s abilities and their right to pursue an
education
A. leading

B. defends

C. their

D. pursue

8. There are, according to literary critics, some controversy over the authorship of
several of the sonnets usually credited to Shakespeare
A. are

B. over

C. several of

D. credited to

9. Since Josh and his sister both dream of becoming an astronaut when they
graduate, both are majoring in astrophysics in college

A. of becoming

B. an astronaut

C. they

D. are majoring

10. The unrest of the last few weeks has made it clear that in the upcoming election
the people will not be choosing merely between two candidates, they will be
choosing between anarchy or civilization
A. has made
Your answers

B. will not be choosing C. merely

D. or


1.
6.

2.
7.

3.
8.

4.
9.


5.
10.

IV. READING COMPREHENSION (20p)
At a friend’s house, you see this article in a lifestyle magazine. It catches your
interest, so you read it. Read the article carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
While initially a type of protective eyewear, sunglasses are today commonly
viewed as an essential fashion accessory. However, as sunglasses have become
such a ubiquitous statement of style, it is easy to forget their primary function.
Protection for the eyes against the glare of the sun has been practiced for centuries.
The Roman Emperor Nero would watch gladiator competitions in the midday sun
through polished green emeralds that he held up to his eyes. The Inuit, a remote
tribal people living in the snow-covered Arctic, wore flat walrus ivory eyeglasses
with narrow slits in them in order to block the glare from the snow and ice during
sunny conditions. And in 12th century China, lenses made out of flat panes of
smoky quartz not only reduced glare from the sun, but also hid the wearer’s facial
expressions, making them ideal for judges when questioning witnesses. In the 18th
century, James Ayscough, an English optician, began experimenting with blue and
green corrective lenses in spectacles as he thought that they could correct specific
vision problems. His theories were incorrect, but his experiments with colored
lenses did come in useful as doctors began prescribing them to medical patients
who suffered from hypersensitivity to light.
Sunglasses evolved into what they are today when Sam Foster introduced them to
no approximately 20 million pairs had been sold in the USA, despite the fact that
only about 25% of American wearers needed sun protection. Around this time, two
major developments in sunglass manufacture occurred. The first was the
application of a thin film of transparent Polaroid sheeting to the lenses used in
sunglasses, which drastically reduced the amount of bright light reaching the eye.

The second was the development of the, what were to become very popular, RayBan Aviator sunglasses by Bausch and Lomb, an American company. The end of
the thirties also witnessed the increased use of sunglasses by Hollywood idols.
Used initially to mask their features from curious passers-by, sunglasses soon
became a fashion statement that was taken up by the public at large.


There are several ways in which good sunglasses protect our eyes. Most
importantly, they provide protection from harmful UV rays. Exposure to these rays
can result in short-term damage such as Photokeratitis, more commonly known as
snow-blindness. More serious long-term results include eye-cancer and cataracts,
the latter being a clouding of the eyes that impedes vision and eventually results in
blindness. Good sunglasses also have polarized lenses that reduce the amount of
glare and light entering the eyes. However, the lenses must not leave any part of
the eye exposed; otherwise stray light can enter from the exposed areas, especially
at the top and sides of the glasses.
The choice of sunglasses depends on a variety of other factors, apart from that of
protection. Some choose sunglasses that come with glass lenses because they are
resistant to scratches and last longer, while others prefer plastic lenses because they
are very light and comfortable to wear. Some don’t care what they are made of and
go for sunglasses that are trendy and look good, while others simply wear them to
hide their expressions and emotions, or to appear mysterious and interesting.
Whatever the reason for wearing them, it is certain that sunglasses will remain a
priority item for consumers for many years to come.
1. What was the original purpose of sunglasses?
A. to express a fashion statement
C. to improve vision

B. to guard against solar rays
D. to protect against the cold and snow


2. What can we understand about the lenses worn in 12th century China?
A. They were very costly to make B. They were worn during special celebrations
C. They were made of animal material D. They had a dual purpose for some people
3. What does the word “them” in the last sentence of paragraph 2 refer to?
A. theories

B. experiments

C. colored lenses

D. doctors

4. Which of the following is closest meaning to “caught on” in paragraph 3?
A. sold out

B. increased in price

C. changed

D. became popular

5. What do the statistics for sunglasses in the mid-1930s suggest?


A. The majority of Americans felt they needed more protection from sunlight
B. About a quarter of the American continent experiences strong sunlight
C. Most sunglasses in America were not purchased for eye protection
D. Approximately 25% of the American population bought sunglasses the.
6. What did Polaroid sheeting result in?
A. the development of Ray-Ban Aviator sunglasses

B. increased protection against sunlight
C. the manufacture of darker lenses
D. reduced visibility
7. Which factor in the 1930s led to sunglasses becoming a fashion statement?
A. Their use by celebrities

B. their many sales points

C. their economical price

D. their mass production

8. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “impedes” in paragraph 4?
A. influences

B. regulates

C. hinders

D. facilitates

9. What is NOT mentioned about good sunglasses?
A. They ought to block UV rays
B. They must cover the eyes sufficiently
C. They can prevent short- and long-term eye damage
D. They should be made of glass, not plastic
10. Which of the following statements would the author agree with most?
A. A person’s lifestyle may dictate the type of sunglasses he wears
B. Mass-produced sunglasses do not offer much protection
C. The 18th century saw rapid developments in the manufacture of sunglasses

D. Sunglasses do not contribute much to a wearer’s image


Your answers
1.
6.

2.
.7.

3.
8.

4.
9.

5.
10.

V. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (20p)
Read the following passage about the dodo and mark the letter A, B, C or D on
your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blank from 1 to 10
University researchers have taken samples from a preserved dodo specimen in an
(1) _____ to uncover the extinct bird’s family tree. They worked with the British
Natural History Museum to collect and study (2) _____ material from large
number of specimens: a preserved dodo, the extinct solitaire bird, and 35 kind of
living pigeons and doves. Their analysis (3) _____ the doo and the solitaire to be
close relatives with the Nicobar pigeon, their nearest living relative.
The dodo lived on Mauritius in the Indian Ocean. It was a flightless bird, bigger
than a turkey. By 1681, all dodos had been (4) _____ by hungry sailors. The

solitaire, which (5) _____ a bit like a dodo, had gone the same way by 1800. By
extracting short pieces of the dodo’s DNA and (6) _____ these with the DNA of
living birds, the scientists were able to deduce when the dodo evolved away from
its (7) _____ into a separate entity.
The scientists can now (8) _____ assume that the dodo developed its distinctive
appearance and features as a (9) _____ of its geographical isolation. They are now
convinced that it separated from the solitaire about 25 million years ago, long
before Mauritius (10) _____ an island.
1. A. attempt

B. order

C. intention

D. assistance

2. A. living

B. raw

C. extinct

D. genetic

3. A. advises

B. shows

C. involves


D. recommends

4. A. disappeared

B. killed

C. vanished

D. extinct

5. A. appeared

B. looked

C. existed

D. seemed

6. A. studying

B. researching

C. comparing

D. combining

7. A. relatives

B. island


C. species

D. independence


8. A. surely

B. highly

C. hardly

D. safely

9. A. means

B. factor

C. result

D. reason

10. A. discovered

B. developed

C. became

D. transformed

B. WRITTEN TEST

I. WORD FORMS (20p)
Use the word given in capital at the end of each line to form a word that fits in
the space
DICKENS AND HIS WORLD
It was with the circulation of Pickwick Papers in 1836 that
young Dickens began to enjoy a truly (1) _____ ascent
into the favour of the British reading public. He
magnificently (2) _____ a theory that his fame would
disappear just as quickly as it had come. He remained
until his death 34 years later (3) _____ the most popular
novelist the English- speaking world had ever known.
The public displayed an insatiable appetite for his works,
and there was also a great diffusion of them through (4)
______ dramatic adaptations (nearly all completely (5)
______ the copyright laws being much weaker in those
days).
His immense popularity was based on the widespread
perception of him as a great champion of the poor and
the (6) ______ against all forms of (7) _____and abuse
of power. In his personal life, however, he was (8)
_____ of achieving the level of fulfilment he enjoyed with
the public, and all his close emotional relationships with
women (9) _____ ended in failure. Yet, he created an (10)
_____range and variety of female characters who live on
in our minds and culture unlike any others created by
Victorian novelists

1. PRECEDENT
2. PROVE
3. DENY


4. NUMBER
5. AUTHORITY

6. POSSESS
7. JUST
8. CAPACITY

9. VARY
10. ORDINARY

Your answers
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.


6.

7.

8.

9.


10.

II. OPEN CLOZE TEST (30p)
Complete the passage below by writing ONE word in each gap
A recent report by a government department suggests (1) _____ has been a
significant rise in (2) _____ number of young people without jobs. Opinions on the
reason for (3) _____ vary, according to the report, but there is general agreement
that the situation is (4) _____ worse by employers (5) _____ refuse to take on staff
with no experience. Many youngsters still find it impossible to get a job, (6) _____
after undergoing training in their chosen field, (7) _____ often results in frustration
and depression. The report also points out that older staff (8) _____ reluctant to
make room for younger people, (9) _____ they feel their security is threatened.
Although the report is critical (10) _____ many employers, it (11) _____ recognize
that some are changing and recommends that (12) ____ attempts are being made to
tackle the problem, no support should be (13) _____. The report emphasizes that
young people (14) _____ be prepared to be flexible, accepting jobs they may (15)
_____ have originally considered appropriate.
Your answers
1.
6.
11.

2.
7.
12.

3.
8.
13.


4.
9.
14.

5.
10.
15.

III. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (30p)
Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. In some
questions, you have to use the given words without changing their forms in any
way. Use between SEVEN and TEN words, including the word given in brackets
1. She had been proposed to by several nice young men (MARRY)
=> Several _______________________________ them
2. The success of the venue cannot be guaranteed (SUCCEED)
=> It ____________________________________.


3. In the West, caring for the young and old was traditionally done through the
extended family (CUSTOM)
=> In the West, it was _______________________ for by the extended family.
4. It was the telephonist’s fault that they didn’t get the message (BLAME)
=> The telephonist __________________________ they didn’t
5. Proving that I had not been guilty of such an offence was my responsibility.
=> It was up ________________________________ of such an offence.
6. After leaving home she walked to a spot near the motorway. (MADE)
=> After leaving home ________________________ near the motorway.
7. I can’t believe that the rates are going to remain at the same level this year.
=> I find ___________________________________ remain at the same level this

year.
8. Englishmen do not usually run half a mile every day before breakfast. (A
HABIT)
=> Englishmen ______________________________ every day before breakfast.
9. He sounds as if he’s spent all his life abroad. (IMPRESSION)
=> He ______________________________________.
10. Mary recommended this course of action to the writer. (ADVISED)
=> Mary ____________________________________.

IV. WRITING A PARAGRAPH (20p)
In about 80 words, write a paragraph about the importance of students’ doing
homework.
The following prompts might be helpful to you:
- Reviewing knowledge
- Understanding new lessons more easily
- Avoiding wasting time going out or playing
………………………………………………………………………………………......


KEY
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE
I. PHONOLOGY (10p)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other
three
1. D

2. D

3. B


4. C

5. A

Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three
6. A

7. A

8. B

9. A

10. C

II. VOCABULARY, PREPOSITION & STRUCTURES (30p)
Make the best choice.
1. B
6. C
11. A
16. C
21. A
26. B

2. C
7. D
12. C
17. C
22. C
27. C


3. C
8. C
13. B
18. D
23. D
28. A

4. C
9. B
14. B
19. C
24. D
29. D

5. C
10. A
15. A
20. C
25. A
30. A

4. C
9. B

5. A
10. D

III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (20p)
1. B

6. C

2. A
7. B

3. A
8. A

IV. READING COMPREHENSION (20p)
At a friend’s house, you see this article in a lifestyle magazine. It catches your
interest, so you read it. Read the article carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
1. B
6. B

2. D
7. A

3. C
8. C

4. D
9. D

5. C
10. A


V. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (20p)
Read the following passage about the dodo and mark the letter A, B, C or D on

your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blank from 1 to 10
1. A
6. C

2. D
7. A

3. B
8. D

4. B
9. C

5. B
10. C

B. WRITTEN TEST
I. WORD FORMS (20p)
Use the word given in capital at the end of each line to form a word that fits in
the space
1.
2. disproved
unprecedented

3. undeniably

6.
dispossessed

8. incapable


7. injustice

4.
innumerable/
numberless
9. invariably

5.
unauthorized
10.
extraordinary

II. OPEN CLOZE TEST (30p)
Complete the passage below by writing ONE word in each gap
1. there
6. even
11. does

2. the
7. which
12. unless

3. this
8. are
13. given/
provided

4. made
9. because/ as

14. must

5. who
10. of
15. not

III. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (30p)
Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. In some
questions, you have to use the given words without changing their forms in any
way. Use between SEVEN and TEN words, including the word given in brackets
1. Several nice young man had asked her to marry them.
2. It cannot be guaranteed that the venture will succeed.
3. In the West it was the custom for the young and old to be cared for by the
extended family.


4. The telephonist was to blame for the fact that they didn’t get the message.
5. It was up to me to prove that I had not been guilty of such an offence.
6. After leaving home, she made her way to a spot near the motorway.
7. I find it hard to believe that the rates are going to remain at the same level
this year.
8. Englishmen do not make a habit of running half a mile every day before
breakfast.
9. He gives the impression of having spent all his life abroad.
10. Mary advised the writer to follow/ take this course of action.

IV. WRITING A PARAGRAPH (20p)
Key:
The impression mark given to the paragraph is based on the following scheme:
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50%

for the content, the candidate should provide all main ideas and details as
appropriate.

Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30%
for language, the candidate should use variety of vocabulary and structures
appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school
students.

Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of
20% for presentation, the candidate should write with cohesion and can use
appropriate style and linking devices appropriate to the level of English language
gifted lower-secondary school students



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