Đề Thi Thử Đại Học Khối D Anh 2013 - Phần 2 - Đề 2 potx

TRƯỜNG THPT
PHAN ĐÌNH PHÙNG HÀ NỘI
_________

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC
Môn : TIẾNG ANH; Khối: D
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. Không kể thời gian phát đề


Họ và tên thí sinh: ………………………………………….
Số báo danh: ………………………………………………
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU; TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 1 to 10

A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A
person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or
unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms
that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance.
When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At
interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie
them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy,
lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible
by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its
own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in
the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create

empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional
health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive,
outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade
or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker
perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter
the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the
voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and
lethargic qualities of the depressed.

Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The function of the voice in performance
C. The connection between voice and personality
B. Communication styles
D. The production of speech

Question 2. What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and
feelings over and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
Question 3. The word "Here" in line 9 refers to……………
A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
Question 4. The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to………
A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained
Question 5. Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15?
A. As examples of public performance
B. As examples of basic styles of communication
C. To contrast them to singing

Mã đề thi: 423



D. To introduce the idea of self-image
Question 6. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's………
A. general physical health B. personality C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
Question 7. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide…………
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
Question 8. The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to……………
A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
Question 9. The word "evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to……………
A. questioned B. repeated C. indicated D. exaggerated
Question 10. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy B. Depression C. Boredom D. Anger

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions

Question 11: Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter.
A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer.
B. More people have summer colds than winter colds.
C. People get colder in the summer than in the winter.
D. The winter is much colder than the summer.
Question 12: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.
B. If her were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
Question 13: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time.

A. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early.
B. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure.
C. The meeting lasted much longer than usual.
D. There was not enough time to hold the meeting.
Question 14: The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and drinks they wanted.
A. The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drinks.
B. The hostess tried hard to please her guests.
C. The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess.
D. Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks.

Question 15: Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.
A. More men than women have insurance.
B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.
C. Women are twice as likely as men to have sold insurance.
D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best completes each
unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one

Question 16: There is a huge amount of ………associated with children’s TV shows nowadays.
A. produce B. manufacturing C. merchandising D. sales
Question 17: The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes………… the
housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left
Question 18: On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. Upon reflection
C. For this time only
B. After discussing with my wife
D. For the second time
Question 19: I have English classes …………day - on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays.

A. all other B. each other C. every other D. this and the other
Question 20: ……… be needed, the water basin would need to be dammed.
A. Hydroelectric power should
C. Hydroelectric power
B. when hydroelectric power
D. Should hydroelectric power
Question 21: It is very difficult to…………the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language.
A. convert B. convey C. exchange D. transfer
Question 22: It’s essential that every student …………the exam before attending the course.
A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed
Question 23: All………….is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
Question 24: I decided to go to the library as soon as I…………….
A. finish what I did
C. finished what I did
B. would finish what I did
D. finished what I was doing
Question 25: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to……….what she missed while she was away.
A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with
Question 26: ……………… in the street yesterday was very friendly.
A. The mounted police, who I saw
C. Who is the mounted police I saw
B. The mounted police I saw whom
D. The mounted police whom I saw
Question 27: …………so aggressive, we’d get on much better.
A. She was not B. Had she not C. Weren’t she D. If she weren’t
Question 28: “ Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”,

the teacher said.
A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible
Question 29: Please cut my hair …………….the style in this magazine.
A. the same length as B. the same length like

C. the same long like D. the same long as
Question 30: Issues from price, place, promotion, and product are………….of marketing strategies
planning, despite growing calls to expand the range of issues in today’s more complex world.
A. these that are among the most conventional concerns
B. among the most conventional concerns
C. they are among the most conventional concerns
D. those are among the most conventional concerns
Question 31: ………….in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing.
A. Frost is produced
C. What produces frost
B. Frost produces
D. What is frost produced
Question 32: Half of the children were away from school last week because of………… of influenza.
A. a break- out B. a breakthrough C. an outburst D. an outbreak
Question 33: She was ………………she could not say anything.
A. so surprised at the news that
C. so surprised of the news that
B. such surprised at the news that
D. so that surprised for the news
Question 34: Jane: Thank you for a lovely evening.
Barbara: ………………………………
A. You are welcome B. Have a good day C. Thanks D. Cheer!
Question 35: He said that the plane had already left and that I…………………an hour earlier.
A. must have arrived
C. should have arrived

B. had to arrive
D. was supposed to arrive
Question 36: So little………….about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me.
A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know
Question 37: A: …………………………………….
B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
C. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!



Question 38: A washing machine of this type will certainly………….normal domestic use.
A. stand up for B. come up with C. get on to D. take down with
Question 39: Ancient Egyptians mummified their dead through the use of chemicals, ………….ancient
Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. because B. whereas C. even though D. whether or not
Question 40: I studied English for four years in high school. ……………had trouble talking with people
when I was traveling in the US.
A. Therefore, I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I
Question 41: Carbon dioxide may be absorbed by trees or water bodies, or it may stay in the atmosphere
when…………. , while it is only in the atmosphere that chlorofluorocarbons find their home.
A. by releasing emissions from cars
C. cars that release emissions
B. released from car emissions
D. emissions are released by cars
Question 42: There seems to be a large ………. between the number of people employed in service
industries, and those employed in the primary sectors.
A. discriminate B. discretion C. discrepancy D. distinguish

Question 43: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as
different as ………
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. here and there
Question 44: A: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
B: …………………but I think it’s quite easy.
A. I couldn’t agree more.
C. You’re right.
B. I understand what you’re saying.
D. I don’t see in that way.
Question 45: It’s a formal occasion so we’ll have to…….….to the nines- no jeans and pullovers this time!
A. hitch up B. put on C. wear in D. get dressed up

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase for each of the blanks from 46 - 55

COULD COMPUTER GAMES BE GOOD FOR YOU AFTER ALL
In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to the
cinema or renting videos. But is this…… 46……a bad thing? For years, newspaper reports have been
………47… that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, bad-
tempered, even violent as a…… 48…… But new research, ………49……out in both Europe and the USA,
suggests that the opposite may be true.
Indeed, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve certain skills.
Researchers claim that this is because the games………50……the brain work harder in certain ways,
like…… 51……sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact that people play
the games repeatedly…… 52…… that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to
become highly developed.
Social skills may benefit, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first- person shooter
games……53…… “Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and co-
operation, and that this…… 54……them to make good friendships and become strong members of their
communities. So rather than…… 55…….up computer games, perhaps young people need to spend more

time on them?
Question 46.
Question 47.
Question 48.
Question 49.
Question 50.
Question 51.
Question 52.
Question 53.
Question 54.
Question 55.
A. necessarily
A. speaking
A. product
A. worked
A. make
A. realizing
A. means
A. in order to
A. supports
A. giving
B. certainly
B. informing
B. result
B. thought
B. force
B. noticing
B. asks
B. such as
B. helps

B. ending
C. fully
C. telling
C. reason
C. turned
C. push
C. imagining
C. brings
C. due to
C. shows
C. taking
D. nearly
D. saying
D. conclusion
D. carried
D. keep
D. solving
D. causes
D. as well as
D. serves
D. stopping




Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest ones
Question 56:
A. merchant B. term C. commercial D. sergeant
Question 57: A. colonel B. journal C. touring D. adjourn

Question 58:
A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious
Question 59:
A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
Question 60:
A. Valentine B. imagine C. discipline D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction

Question 61: In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for
A B
what he won a Newberry Caldecott award.
C D
Question 62: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting
A B C
to pass the exam.
D
Question 63: All of the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly among the friendly to human.
A B C D
Question 64: Chicago's Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the
A B C
ground to the top of it antenna.
D
Question 65: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and
A B
the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment.
C D
Question 66: Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is

A B C

wood pulp, which is used in paper-making.
D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 67- 75

Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects—an estimated 90 percent of the world's
species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining
patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the
general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and
conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is
the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he
mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the
British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of
tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and
tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and
plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions,
rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the
Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for
vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still



in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are
made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the
evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples

because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by
imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 67: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they………
A. are simple in structure
C. are viewed positively by people
B. have been given scientific names
D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 68: The word "consequence" in line 2 is closest in meaning to…………….
A. result B. explanation C. analysis D. requirement
Question 69: The word "striking" in line 7 is closest in meaning to………………
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 70: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics
C. Their names
B. Their adaptation to different habitats
D. Their variety
Question 71: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity
EXCEPT…………….
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 72: The word “exceed” in line 10 is closest in meaning to……………….
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
Question 73: The word "generated" in line 24 is closest in meaning to……….
A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated

Question 74: The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 16-17 as an example of a location where……
A. butterfly behavior varies with climate

B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
C. butterflies are affected by human populations
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 75: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that expresses the best
meaning formed by the given words

Question 76:. No/ doubt/ Alison/ promote
A. It’s no doubt Alison will be promoting.
B. There’s no doubt that Alison will be promoted.
C. There’s no doubt Alison will promote.
D. It’s no doubt that Alison is promoted.
Question 77: when/ you/ make/ mind/ university/ attend?
A. When are you going to make up your mind about which university to attend?
B. When will you make up your mind which university to attend?
C. When are you going to make your mind about which university to attend?
D. When are you making up your mind about university to attend?
Question 78: despite / short day/ we/ complain/ much/ do
A. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain about having too much to do.



B. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain having too much to do.
C. Despite a short day, we tend to complain about too much to do.
D. Despite such short day, we tend to complain about having too much do.

Question 79: your organization/ possible/ conference/ place
A. Your organization made it possible to take place this conference.
B. Your organization made possible for this conference to take place.
C. Your organization made it possible this conference to take place.
D. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.
Question 80: I/ not see/ point/ rule/ we/ not/ cycle/ school
A. I can’t see the point of this rule which we don’t cycle to school.
B. I can’t see the point of this rule which says we can’t cycle to school.
C. I don’t see the point of this rule which we are not allowed to cycle to school.
D. I can’t see the point of rule which says we can’t cycle to school.

THE END




ANSWER KEY CODE 423

1. C 21. B 41. B 61. C
2. B 22. A 42. C 62. A
3. A 23. D 43. B 63. A
4. D 24. D 44. B 64. D
5. B 25. A 45. D 65. C
6. B 26. D 46. A 66. A
7. B 27. D 47. D 67. C
8. C 28. B 48. B 68. A
9. C 29. A 49. D 69. C
10. D 30. B 50. A 70. D
11. A 31. C 51. B 71. C
12. C 32. D 52. A 72. C

13. D 33. A 53. B 73. B
14. B 34. A 54. B 74. B
15. B 35. C 55. A 75. B
16. C 36. D 56. D 76. B
17. C 37. D 57. C 77. A
18. A 38. A 58. A 78. A
19. C 39. B 59. B 79. D
20. D 40. D 60. A 80. B















TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC LẦN 1 NĂM 2013
(Đề thi gồm 07 trang, 80 câu trắc nghiệm) Môn: Tiếng Anh - Thời gian: 90 phút

Blacken the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 1: Have you seen today’s paper? It … they’ve caught those million – pound bank
robbers.

A. writes B. says C. tells D. talks about
Question 2. Could you move your car? You ‘re… the way of the entrance!
A. on B. in C. at D. to
Question 3: Don’t … to any conclusion before you know the full facts.
A. rush B. dive C. leap D. fly
Question 4:Three of the words below go together with “HEAD” to make new words. Which
word does NOT?
A. ache B. man C. master D. line
Question 5: What does the following mobile text (cell phone SMS) abbreviation mean: LOL ?
A. I am crying B. Laughing out loud C. I’m going to be late D. I love you lots
Question 6: “That was fantastic! Could I have a second … please? ”
A. helping B. course C. plate D. service
Question 7: By then I … my driving test. I hope.
A. pass B. will be passed C. will have passed D. have passed
Question 8: … … is one of the many factors involved in changing farming methods.
A. Each climate B. A climate C. Climates D. The climate
Question 9: Not only … more brittle than hard maples, but they are also less able to withstand
high winds.
A. soft maples are B. they are soft maples C. are soft maples D. soft maples
Question 10: “Did you know Jim’s getting married next week?” – “ … Who to? ”
A. Really? B. Is he? C. Never D. All are correct
Question 11: - How do you say the following time? 2:57
A. It’s nearly 3 o’clock B. It’s just before 3 o’clock
C. It’s just coming up to 3 o’clock D. All are correct
Question 12: Which option is NOT correct? “………, I can’t hear myself think.”
A. Turn it down B. Turn the music down C. Turn down the music D. Turn down it
Question 13: Which of the following ways of saying 6x3 is NOT correct?
A. Six times three B. Six multiplied by three C. Six add three D. Six by three
Question 14: “When can you get it all done? ” - “………….”
A. “How does next Monday sound? B. Two hours ago

C. I used to do it on Monday D. How much time do I need?
Question 15: Which of the following is the function of this sentence: “I’d love to come, but
I’m already going out that evening.”
A. Offering to do something B. Apologizing C. Declining an invitation D. Giving
advice
Question 16: “Jane didn’t look well today, did she? “ -“… ”
A. I am afraid not B. No, she seemed ill C. Yes, she seemed sick D. A and B
Question 17: After so many years, it is great to see him……….his ambitions.
A. get B. realize C. possess D. deserve
Question 18: Yes, we went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.
A. every single day B. every other day
C. every second day D. every two days


Question 19: “ I am very much obliged to you for helping my family.” - “…………….”
A. My pleasure. B. That’s all right C. You’re welcome D. A & C are correct
Question 20: Yes, I agree, but at the same time it’s not the end of the world.
A. worth worrying about B. worth talking about
C. worth looking at D. worth speaking about.
Question 21: Which of these is the opposite of straight?
A. beautiful B. crooked C. definite D. self - conscious
Question 22: - “…….” - “It’s not likely.”
A. How important is it to attend university?
B. Is it possible to get a good job without attending university?
C. Would you be interested in attending university in a foreign country?
D. Is it very important to attend a university in a foreign country?
Question 23: You …………us about the changes in the plans. We need time to prepare for
everything.
A. should have told B. must have told C. can’t have told D. might tell
Question 24: Occasionally dolphins……….to the surface of the water to take in the oxygen.

A. need to raise B. need to rise C. raise D. are swimming
Question 25: “Would you mind turning your stereo down?”- “……………………….”
A. I’m really sorry! I’m not paying attention. B. Oh, I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that
C. No, I don’t D, yes, I do
Question 26: His father prefers…………………………………….
A. that he attends a different university. B. that he attend a different university
C. he attends a different university D. he attend a different university
Question 27: Not until…………… himself seriously ill
A. he had completed the task did he find B. had he completed the task did he find
C. had he completed the task he found D. did he completed the task he had
found
Question 28: Before eating,………….thoroughly with soap and clean water.
A. your hands should be washed B. you should wash your hands
C. you need washing your hands D. your hands need washed
Question 29: I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself.
A. be quiet B. be private C. be lonely D. be special
Question 30: Unfortunately, they………us in the auction to the tune of 500 pounds.
A. outbid B. outweighed C. overdid D. underwrote
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word for each of the blanks from 31-40
The role of translation enabling literature to pass beyond its natural frontiers is receiving
growing recognition. In view of the general increase in this 31 _____ , it is not surprising that many
people with literary interests and a knowledge of languages should think of adopting translating as a
full- or part-time 32 _____. Some advice may usefully be given to such would -be translators.
The first difficulty the beginner will 33 _____ is the unwillingness of publishers to entrust a
translator to anyone who has not already 34 _____ a reputation for sound work. The least
publishers will 35_____ before commissioning a translator is a faily lengthy 36 _____ of the
applicant’s work, even if unpublished. Perhaps the best way the would-be translator can begin is to
select some book of the type which he or she feels competent and eager to translate, translate a 37
_____ section of the book and then submit the book and the translation to a suitable publisher. If he

or she is extremely lucky, this may result in a commission to translate the book. More probably,
however, publishers will 38 _____ the book as such but if they are favorably 39 _____ by the
translation, they may very possibly commission some other books of a 40 _____ nature which they


already have in mind.
Question 31: A. field B. category C. group D. class
Question 32: A. work B. employment C. occupation D. line
Question 33: A.encounter B. involve C. reveal D. introduce
Question 34: A. formed B. set C. founded D. established
Question 35: A. instruct B. oblige C. demand D. direct
Question 36: A. instance B. case C. specimen D. model
Question 37: A. substantial B. main C. grand D. plentiful
Question 38: A. exclude B. reject C. object D. disapprove
Question 39: A. impressed B. convinced C. affected D. taken
Question 40: A. common B. same C. similar D. joint
Blacken the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that need
correction in each of the following sentences.
Question 41: Pollution makes streams, lakes and coastal water (A) unpleasant (B) to look at, to
smell, and to swim in. Fish and shellfish harvested from (C) polluted waters may be unsafe to eat
(D).
Question 42: A finishing (A) motion picture (B) is the work (C) of the collaboration of many
individuals (D).
Question 43: Educational films are made for (A) schools, training films for industry; documentary
films present (B) fact events (C) or circumstances of social, political, or historical nature (D).
Question 44:The train to Ho Chi Minh city left at precisely (A) 7 o’ clock as usually,(B) but the
train to Ha Noi capital left at half past six o’clock, which (C) was exactly (D) 20 minutes late.
Question 45: Whether (A) life in the countryside is better than that (B) in the city depend on (C)
each individual’s point of view (D).
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the

rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
Question 46: A. appendix B. excitement C. nocturnal D. excavate
Question 47: A. applicant B. preference C. courteous D. appointment
Question 48: A. extravagant B. fundamental C. distinctively D. dilapidate
Question 49: A. primitive B. material C. adjustment D. precaution
Question 50: A. interviewer B. concentrate C.comfortable D.technology

Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer for each of the questions.
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in
business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of
women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than
$40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As
Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was
the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the
woman entrepreneur". What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more
women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles.
Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant,
had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they could become
chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go out on their
own".


In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing,
for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year
computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife
with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was
software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a
bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded
with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to

develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has
200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still
face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance
world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are
still quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in
the years ahead.
Question 51:What is the main idea of this passage?
A.Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more
attractive to the business world.
B.The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
C. Women are better at small business than men are.
D. Women today are opening more business of their own.
Question 52:The word “excluded “ in line 8 is closest meaning to
A. not permitted in
B. often invited to
C. decorators of
D. charged admission to
Question 53: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the
business world EXCEPT
A.Women were required to stay at home with their families.
B. Women lacked ability to work in business.
C.Women faced discrimination in business.
D.Women were not trained in business.
Question 54: in line 10, “that” refers to
A. a woman becomes chairman of the board.
B. Women working hard
C. Women achieving advanced degrees
D. Women believing that business is a place for them.
Question 55:According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s

A. Were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management.
B.Were still more interested in education than business opportunities
C.had fewer obstacles in business than they do today.
D. were unable to work hard enough to success in business.
Question 56: The author mentions the “ shoesbox under the bed” in the third paragraph in order to
A. Show the frugality of women in business
B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig
C. Point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business
were limited
D. suggest that the company needed to expand
Question 57: The expression “ keep tabs on “ in line 16 is closest meaning to
A. recognize the appearance of B. keep records of
C. provide transportation for D. pay the salaries of


Question 58: The word “hurdles” in line 21 can be best replaced by
A. fences B .obstacles C. questions D. small groups
Question 59: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by
women are small because
A. Women prefer a small intimate setting.
B. Women can’t deal with money.
C. Women are not able to borrow money easily.
D. many women fail at large businesses.
Question 60:The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is
A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative
Blacken the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 61: The staff couldn’t have worked any harder, but they could not even finish half of
the order all the week.
A. Had the staff worked a little harder, they might have finished all the order by the end of the

week.
B. Throughout the week, the staff could only complete half of the order, which how they did not
work as hard as they should have.
C. The staff, who only completed half of the order all week, could not have worked as hard as
they claimed they did.
D. Throughout the week, less than half of the order could be produced, although the staff
worked as hard as they could.
Question 62: You needn’t have taken so many warm clothes there.
A. It’s not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there.
B. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don’t need
C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there
D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary
Question 63: In Thailand, the further you go towards the border with Laos, the higher the risk
of malaria.
A. There is a great risk to you a catching malaria around the far – off Thai border with Laos
B. The border with Laos has a higher risk to you of malaria than anywhere else in Thailand
C. Although there is malaria all over Thailand, the risk of catching it gets higher in Laos
D. The danger of getting malaria in Thailand increases the closer you get to its border with Laos
Question 64: My sister would love to be involved in the organization of the event, so would I.
A. My sister is so much like me, since she too takes part in organizing events voluntarily
B. My sister was so keen to take part in the organization of the event, that I encouraged her
C. Both my sister and I would be very happy to take part in organizing the event.
D. I would like my sister to volunteer to take part in organizing the event
Question 65: Some doubt remains as to the route Alvar Nunez Cahaza de Vaca took to Mexico.
A. Al var Nunez Cahaza de Vaca remained uncertain as to which route he should take to get to
Mexico.
B. Some people doubt that Alvar Nunez Cahaza de Vaca went to Mexico by road.
C. It is still not certain how Alvar Nunez Cahaza de Vaca discovered Mexico
D. Which way Alvar Nuner Cahaza de Vaca took to Mexico is still not entirely clear.
Blacken the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best

combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.


Question 66: I think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now.
A. I should not have cooked so much food.
B. I regrets cooking too much food now.
C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now.
D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.
Question 67: You need not have washed the sheets. The hotel staff does the cleaning.
A. It is good that you washed the sheets.
B. It was not necessary to wash the sheets, even though you did.
C. It was necessary to wash the sheets, but you did not do it.
D. It was necessary to wash the sheets, and you did not do it.
Question 68: What has happened? You look as if you have been in the wars.
A. You look like an old soldier.
B. You are wearing many medals.
C. You look as though something unpleasant has happened to you.
D. You look as though you have been fighting
Question 69: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
B .The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.
C. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
Question 70: “ Cigarette?”, he asked. “ No, thanks.” I said
A. He asked for a cigarette ,and I immediately refused.
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer for each of the questions.

Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the main
source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods. Carbohydrates
range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugars such as amylose and amylopectin.
Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one-fourth to one-fifth of a person's
diet. This translates to about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day.
A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person's health. When the
body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates it must then use its protein supplies for energy, a
process called gluconeogenesis. This, however, results in a lack of necessary protein, and further
health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a build-up of ketones
in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath.
Question 71: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Carbohydrates are needed for good health.
B. Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins.
C .Carbohydrates can lead to ketosis.
D .Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet.
Question 72: The word "function" as used in line 2 refers to which of the following?
A. neglect B. serve C. dissolve D. profess
Question 73: The word "range" as used in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. probe B. proceed C. hail D. extend


Question 74: According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest?
A. Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis.
B. Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose.
C. Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person's daily diet.
D. Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities.
Question 75: Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do?
A. prevent ketosis B. cause gluconeogenesis
C. provide energy for the body D. flavor and sweeten food
Question 76: Which of the following words could best replace "deficient" as used in line 6 ?

A. outstanding B. abundant C. insufficient D. unequal
Question 77: What does the word "this" refer to in line 8 ?
A. using protein supplies for energy B. converting carbohydrates to energy
C. having a deficiency in carbohydrates D. having an insufficient amount of protein
Question 78: According to the passage, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates?
.A. a protein supply B. a necessity C. a range of sugars D. an energy source
Question 79: Which of the following best describes the author's tone?
A. sensitive B. emotional C. informative D. regretful
Question 80: Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. Cause and result B. Comparison and contrast
C. Specific to general D. Definition and example



THE END

PRACTICE TEST FOR THE UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.
1. Despite playing under strength, the village team _____ beat the rivals.
a. could b. were able to c. couldn’t d. weren’t able to
2. I suggest Andrea ______ in touch with the organisers.
a. should get b. to get c. getting d. gets
3. The traffic lights _____ green and I pulled away.
a. became b. turned c. got d. went
4. ______ during the storm.
a. They were collapsed b. The fence was collapsed
c. They collapsed the fence d. The fence collapsed
5. The suspect confessed _______.
a. his crime b. the police his crime c. his crime to the police d. his crime the police
6. ______ thinks that Judith should be given the job.
a. Neither of us b. The majority of my colleagues

c. Practically everyone d. A number of people
7. We had ______ holiday in Spain.
a. a two week’s b. two weeks c. two-week d. a two-week
8. The company owns _____ in the city centre.
a. a cars park b. several car parks c. a car park d. several cars parks
9. The government has introduced _______.
a. a children’s clothes tax b. a tax on children clothes
c. a children clothes tax d. a tax on children’s clothes
10. I’ll be with you in _______.
a. one quarter of an hour b. a quarter of an hour c. a quarter of one hour d. a quarter of
hour
11. _____ my friends knew I was getting married.
a. Not much of b. not many of c. Not much d. Not many
12. ____ the children _____ awake.
a. None of…was b. Not any of…were c. No …. was d. None of…were
13. The party was excellent, and I’d like to thank all the ______.
a. concerned people b. responsible people c. people that concerned d . people concerned
14. I asked Francis to clean the car, and he did ______.
a. a well job b. the job good c. a good job d. a job well
15. ______, they slept soundly.
a. Hot though was the night air b. Hot though the night air was
c. Hot the night air as was d. Hot although the night air was
16. John was the first person I saw _____ hospital.
a. by leaving b. on leaving c. in leaving d. on to leave
17. He suddenly saw Sue ____ the room. He pushed his way ____ the crowd of people to get to her.
a. across…through b. over…through c. across…across d. over…along
18. She tried to _______.
a. talk me the plan out of b. talk out of me the plan
c. talk me out of the plan d. talk out me of the plan.
19. _____ that Marie was able to retire at the age of 50.

a. So successful her business was, b. So successful was her business,
c. Her business was successful d. So was her successful business,
20. I’m _____ a complete loss to understand why you reacted so violently.
a. at b. in c. on d. by
21. From an early age, Wolfgang had a(n) ____ for music.
a. interest b. passion c. involvement d. tendency
22. Financial help from his parents ______ James to complete his studies.
a. granted b. provided c. eased d. enabled
23. I don’t take ____ to being disobeyed. That’s a warning!


a. well b. kindly c. gently d. nicely
24. I like that photo very much. Could you make an _____ for me?
a. increase b. enlargement c. extension d. expansion
25. I’m becoming increasingly _____ . Last week, I locked myself out of the house twice.
a. oblivious b. mindless c. absent d. forgetful

II. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
26. a. south b. southern c. scout d. drought
27. a. dome b. comb c. home d. tomb
III. Pick out the word whose stressed syllable is different from that of the others.
28. a. literature b. preventive c. measurement d. temperature
29. a. example b. continue c. sensible d. contestant
30. a. constant b. magnetic c. sensitive d. atmosphere

IV. Choose the best answer.
31. Would you like some more tea? - _______________________
a. No, thank. b. Yes , thanks. c. Yes, please. d. No, please.
32.Will it rain on the day of our departure? - _____________________
a. I hope not. b. I don’t hope so c. I hope not so. d. I hope it wouldn’t.

33. -Remember to return the newspaper to my father. - _______________________
a. I will b. Why not c. I won’t d. Of course.
34.Will you have time to help us? - ______________________ I’m very busy at the moment.
a. I’m afraid not b. I think so. c. I don’t expect so. d. I hope not.
35. “I’d like the blue jacket, pleases! Can I try it on?” – Yes, _______________ “
a. you would b. you must c. certainly d. you do

V. Read the passage and the questions or unfinished sentences, then choose the best answer for each.
A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon moves in front of the Sun and hides at least some part of the Sun
from the earth. In a partial eclipse, the Moon covers part of the Sun; in an annual eclipse, the Moon covers
the center of the Sun, leaving a bright ring of light around the Moon; in a total eclipse, the Sun is
completely covered by the Moon.
It seems rather improbable that a celestial body size of the Moon could completely block out the
tremendously immense Sun, as happens during a total eclipse, but this is exactly what happens. Although
the Moon is considerably smaller in size than the Sun, the Moon is able to cover the Sun because of their
relative distances from Earth. A total eclipse can last up to 7 minutes, during which time the Moon’s shadow
moves across Earth at a rate of about 6 kilometers per second.

36. This passage mainly _________.
a. describes how long an eclipse will last. B. gives facts about the Moon.
c. explains how the Sun is able to obscure the Moon. D. informs the reader about solar eclipses.
37. In which type of eclipse is the Sun obscured in its entirety?
a. A partial eclipse b. An annual eclipse c. A total eclipse d. A celestial eclipse
38. The word ring in line 3 could be best replaced by ______.
a. piece of gold b. circle c. jewel d. bell
39. A celestial body in line 5 is most probably one that is found ______.
a. somewhere in the sky b. within the Moon’s shadow
c. on the surface of the Sun d. inside Earth’s atmosphere
40. What is the meaning of block out in line 5?
a. Square b. Cover c. Evaporate d. Shrink

41. According to the passage, how can the Moon hide the Sun during a total eclipse?
a. The fact that the Moon is closer to Earth than the Sun makes up for the Moon’s smaller size.
b. The Moon can only obscure the Sun because of the Moon’s great distance from the Earth.
c. Because the Sun is relatively close to Earth, the Sun can be eclipsed by the Moon.
d. The moon hides the Sun because of the Moon’s considerable size.


42. The word relative in line 8 could best be replaced by ________.
a. familial b. infinite c. comparative d. paternal
43. The passage states that which of the following happens during an eclipse?
a. The Moon hides from the Sun. b. The Moon is obscured by the Sun.
c. The Moon begins moving at a speed of 6 kilometers per second. d.The Moon’s shadow crosses Earth
44. The word rate in line 9 is closest in meaning to ______.
a. form b. speed c. distance d. rotation
45. Where is the passage does the author mention the rate of a total eclipse?
a. Lines 1- 2 b. Lines 2- 4 c. Lines 5-6 d. Lines 8-9

VI. Read the text below and choose the word that best fits the space.
EXAM ADVICE
In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work with a partner. You have to do a (46) ____ task which
usually ( 47)_____ about 3 minutes. One possible task is “ problem (48) ____”, which means you have to
look at some (49) ____ information and then (50) ____ the problem with your partner. You maybe show
photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or computer graphics and it is (51)_____ that you
study them carefully. If necessary, check you know exactly what to do by (52)_____ asking the examiner to
(53)____ the instructions or make them clearer.
While you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very (54)_____ and you should ask your
partner questions and make (55)_____ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you have any real
difficulties the examiner may decide to step in and ( 56) _____ . Normally, however, you will find plenty to
say, which helps the (57)_____ to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on your success in doing the task
by (58) _____ with your partner, which includes taking (59)_____ in giving opinions and replying

appropriately, although in the end it may be possible to “ agree to (60) _____”.
46. a. single b. lonely c. unique d. once
47. a. exists b. lasts c. stays d. maintains
48. a. solving b. working c. making d. finding
49. a. optical b. obvious c. noticeable d. visual
50. a. argue b. discuss c. talk d. have
51. a. essential b. needed c. helpful d. successful
52. a. formally b. officially c. politely d. sincerely
53. a. insist b. copy c. tell d. repeat
54. a. little b. much c. few d. many
55. a. ideas b. statements c. speeches d. suggestions
56. a. complain b. help c. suggest d. fail
57. a. judge b. referee c. assessor d. observer
58. a. competing b. struggling c. opposing d. co-operating
59. a. changes b. sides c. turns d. sentences
60. a. contrast b. disagree c. argue d. object

VII. Find the underlined part that needs correcting.
61. The first (A) national park in world (B), Yellowstone National Park, was (C)established in (D)1872.
62. Animation is a technique (A) for creativity (B) the illusion of life(C) in inanimate things.(D)
63. Scientists at universities (A) are often more involved (B) in theoretical research than(C) in
practically(D) research .
64. Benjamin Franklin’s ability (A) to learn from observation and experience contributed greatly(B) to
him(C) success in(D) public life.
65. The surface of the(A) tongue covered(B) with tiny(C) taste buds(D).

VIII. Read the following passage then choose the best answer to the questions below.
Most people think of deserts as dry, flat areas with little vegetation and little or no rainfall, but this is
hardly true. Many deserts have varied geographical formations ranging from soft, rolling hills to stark,
jagged cliffs, and most deserts have a permanent source of water. Although deserts do not receive a high

amount of rainfall – to be classified as a desert, an area must get less than twenty-five centimeters of rainfall


per year – there are many plants that thrive on only small amounts of water, and deserts are often full of
such plant life.
Desert plants have a variety of mechanisms for obtaining the water needed for survival. Some plants,
such as cactus, are able to store large amounts of water to last until the next rainfall. Other plants, such as
the mesquite, have extraordinarily deep root systems that allow them to obtain water from far below the
desert’s arid surface.
66. What is the main topic of the passage?
a. Deserts are dry, flat areas with few plants.
b. There is little rainfall in the desert.
c. Many kinds of vegetation can survive with little water.
d. Deserts are not really flat areas with little plant life.
67. The passage implies that ____________.
a. the typical conception of a desert is incorrect.
b. all deserts are dry, flat areas.
c. most people are well informed about deserts.
d. the lack of rainfall in deserts causes the lack of vegetation.
68. The passage describes the geography of deserts as ________.
a. flat b. sandy c. varied d. void of vegetation.
69. The word source in line 3 means ________.
a. supply b. storage space c. need d. lack
70. According to the passage, what causes an area to be classified as a desert?
a. The type of plants b. The geographical formations
c. The amount of precipitation d. The source of water

XI. Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the one in italics.
71. You’re not to blame for what happened.
a. You’re not accused of what happened. b. What happened is not your fault.

c. You’re responsible for what happened. d. We blame you for what happened.
72. He can hardly see at all without glasses.
a. He can see without glasses. b. He can see even if he doesn’t wear glasses.
c. He can’t see everything without glasses. d. He is practically blind without glasses.
73. The concert wasn’t as good as we had expected.
a. The concert wasn’t so good as we had seen. B. We expected the concert to be worse.
c. We thought the concert would be much better. D. The concert was thought to be as good.
74. Please don’t ask her to the party.
a. I’d rather you didn’t invite her to the party. B. I’d rather not ask her to the party.
c. Please don’t ask her about the party. D. You ask her to the party, don’t you?
75. She broke down the moment she heard the news.
a. She was broken for a moment when she heard the news. B. She broke her leg when hearing the news.
c. On hearing the news, she broke down. D. When she heard the news, she was sick.
76. Strong as he is, he still can’t lift that box.
a. The box was too heavy for him to lift.
b. He’s very strong, but he still can’t lift that box.
c. He still can’t lift that box because he’s not as strong.
d. However he is strong, he still can’t lift that box.
77. I wish we had gone somewhere else for the holiday.
a. If only we went somewhere else for the holiday.
b. It’s a pity we didn’t go there for the holiday.
c. If we had gone for the holiday, I would have gone somewhere else.
d. I regret not having gone somewhere else for the holiday.
78. You should have had your eyes tested a long time ago.
a. You haven’t had your eyes tested though it’s necessary.
b. Your eyes should be tested a long time ago.
c. You had your eyes tested a long time ago.


d. It’s a long time ago since you had your eyes tested.

79. A child is influenced as much by his schooling as by his parents.
a. Schooling doesn’t influence a child as much as his parents do.
b. A child’s parents have greater influence on him than his schooling.
c. A child can influence his parents as much as his schooling.
d. A child’s schooling influences him as much as his parents do.
80. Rarely has a 15-year-old earned so much money.
a. 15-year-old rarely earns money.
b. A 15-year-old rarely earns lots of money.
c. A 15-year-old has seldom earned that much money.
d. A 15-year-old has never earned that much money.









KEY TO PRACTICE TEST 18
1B 2A 3B(D)

4B 5A(C)

6A(C)

7D 8B(C)

D 10B

11B 12A(D)

13D

14C

15B

16B

17A

18C

19B 20A

21B 22D 23B 24B 25D

26B

27C

28B 29C

30B

31C

32A

33D

34A

35C 36D

37C 38B 39A 40B 41A

42C

43D

44B 45D

46A

47B

48A

49D

50B

51A 52C

53D 54A 55D 56B 57C

58D

59C

60B 61B

62B

63D

64C

65B 66D

67A 68C

69A 70C 71B 72D 73C

74A

75B

76B 77D

78A

79D

80C

Trường THPT Lý Thái Tổ

Đề thi thử đại học năm học 2012- 2013
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
(Đề thi gồm 5 trang)

Họ tên thí sinh: …………………………………………… Lớp: ………… Số báo danh: ………

QUESTIONS 1 – 10: Read the following passage carefully and complete the sentences that follow A, B, C or D as
the correct answers.
Colors and emotions
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to me as
emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is something that
you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either reflects your current state
of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course they also affect
anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all day! I even choose items
around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the color or emotion I need for the day.
So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are meant to move and
flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion. Also, flowing energy is
exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be healthy is to be open to your real feelings.

Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
B. Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life.
C. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
D. Colors can help you become more influenced.
2. Who is more influenced by the color you wear?
A. You are more influenced. B. The people around you are more influenced.
C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B.
3. Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. your need for thrills B. your friend’s feelings C. your appetite D. your mood
4. According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. wearing the color black B. being open to your emotions
C. ignoring your emotions D. exposing yourself to bright color
5. According to this passage, what do color, sound and emotions all have in common?
A. They are all related to health B. They are all forms of motions
C. They all affect the cells of the body D. none of the above
6. The term intimately in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. clearly B. obviously C. closely D. simply
7. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. Because they both affect how we feel.
B. To prove the relationship between emotions and color.
C. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
D. Because vibrations make you healthy.
8. The term they in paragraph 3 refers to ____.
A. people B. colors C. emotions D. none of the above
9. The phrase saturated with in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. covered with B. bored with C. in need of D. lacking in

10. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To give an objective account of how color affect emotions.
B. To prove the relationship between color and emotion.
C. To persuade the reader that colors influence emotions and give a person more energy.
D. To show that colors are important for a healthy life
QUESTIONS 11 - 35: Choose A, B, C or D as your best choice to complete each sentence.


11. Although still underwater, Loihi Seamount, the newest Hawaiian island, ____ closer to the surface by frequent
volcanic eruptions that add layers of lava to the island.
A. brought B. to be brought C. being brought D. is being brought
12. Hiram Revels, the first black member of the United States Senate, served as senator for Mississippi, an office
____ he was elected in 1870.
A. which B. in which C. and which D. being which
13. ___ the Internet’s speed and efficiency in sending mail electronically rather than by transporting it has become
more popular among young people than traditional mail.
A. Since B. As a consequence C. However D. Because of
14. Some machines produced large numbers of interchangeable parts that ____ efficiently with the "interchangeable
parts system" of the great inventor Eli Whitney.
A. could be used B. used C. used to D. could have used
15. In 1948, the United States Secretary of States Dean Acheson ____ the Marshall Plan to aid the economic recovery
of Europe after the Second World War.
A. begin to carry out B. began carrying out C. beginning and carrying out D. to have begun carrying
out
16. The world's deepest cave, Pierre St. Martin in the Pyrenees mountains, is almost three times as deep ____ .
A. as the Empire State Building is B. that the Empire State Building is higher
C. is higher than the Empire State Building D. and the Empire State Building's height
17. The purpose of phonetics is ____ an inventory and a description of the sounds found in speech.
A. provide B. provided C. to provide D. being provided
18. Color and light, taken together, ____ the aesthetic impact of the interior of a building.

A. very powerfully influence B. very influence powerfully


C. powerfully very influence D. influence powerfully very
19. Do you have the time please?
A. I am very sorry. I am already late. B. I am busy right now. I am afraid.
C. I am sorry I don’t have a watch here. D. Yes I have some time for you.
20. Although thunder and lightning are produced at the same time, light waves travel faster ____ so we see the
lightning before we hear the thunder.
A. than sound waves B. than sound waves do C. do sound waves D. sound waves.
21. The United States Congress appropriates some four million dollars ____ the upkeep of the White House grounds.
A. year for a B. for a year C. a year for D. a for year
22. On no account ____ in the office be used for personal materials.
A. the photocopy machines B. the photocopy machines should
C. should the photocopy machines D. does the photocopy machines
23. A few animals sometimes fool their enemies ____ to be dead.
A. have been appearing B. to appear C. by appearing D. to be appearing
24. Jackie Joyner-Kersce, ____ the world record in the heptathlon in the 1988 Olympics, also won the long jump in
that year.
A. whose setting B. which she set C. whoever set D. who set
25. World trade patterns are indicative of the important economic issues ____ confront the world today.
A. what B. that C. who D. they
26. How much longer will you be on the phone?
A. It costs me a lot talking on the phone like this. B. I will be off in a minute.
C. Yes, it is expensive to make long distance calls. D. The phone is out of order. It may cost lots to have it
fixed.
27. Experiments related to the sense of smell are more easily ____ than those related to perception of color.
A. setting them up B. to set up C. set up D. sets up those
28. Medical research at the cellular level, ____ research on the immune system, has been made possible through
twentieth-century advances in techniques of genetic research.

A. which B. Whereas C. such as D. is also
29. Architects involved in big projects must study ____ about the outside world before conceiving of an idea.
A. clients think B. whether clients thoughts C. how their clients think D. thoughts that clients
30. The Olympic marathon distance ____ in the ancient times to honor a messenger who ran from Marathon to Athens
to deliver vital news and then died.
A. established B. was established C. establishing D. which established
31. Not only ____ much bigger than any other planets, but unlike the planets, it consists completely of gaseous
material.
A. the Sun is B. the Sun, which is C. is the Sun D. that the Sun


32. Jupiter, the closest of the giant planets to Earth, has ____ solid surface and is surrounded by zones of intense
radiation.
A. not B. nor C. no D. neither
33. No sugar for me, thanks. I am on diet.
A. Perhaps you would like some milk instead? B. Perhaps you should try to lose weight.
C. Don’t mention it. D. Would you like some more?
34. The letter of Abigail Adams to her husband and future President, John, ____ during the American Revolution,
conveyed a vivid picture of the times.
A. were being written B. written C. which written D. written when
35. Laser eye surgeries, once considered risky and dangerous, ____ that 90 percent of recipients can see very well
after the operation.
A. which are now so successful B. is now so successful
C. they are now so successful D. are now so successful
QUESTIONS 36 – 41: Choose one option A, B, C or D corresponding to the sentence which has the same meaning
as the original one.
36. The robber made the bank clerk to hand over the money.
A. The bank clerk was pleased to hand over the money to the robber.
B. The bank clerk was made to hand over the money to the robber.
C. The bank clerk was ready to hand over the money to the. robber.

D. The bank clerk was pleased to give money over his hand to the robber.
37. I don't suppose you have change for pound, do you?


A. Do you change a pound? B. Are you supposed to change a pound?
C. Do you happen to have change for a pound? D. Have you changed a pound?
38. "I don't think John will come", said Bill.
A. Bill doubted whether John would come. B. Bill said he doesn't think John will come.
C. Bill said he don't think John would come. D. Bill said he didn't think John will come.
39. Maria says she'd like to have been put in a higher class.
A. Maria wishes she will be put in a higher class. B. Maria wishes she is put in a higher class.
C. Maria wishes she were put in a higher class. D. Maria wishes that she had been put in a higher class.
40. My sister didn't leave the car key, so I couldn't pick her up at the airport.
A. If my sister left the car key, I would pick her up at the airport.
B. If my sister had left the car key, I would have picked her up at the airport.
C. If my sister have left the car key, I would have picked her up at the airport.
D. If my sister had left the car key, I could pick her up at the airport.
41. "I'm sorry, I was rude to you yesterday." I said to Tom.
A. I apologized of being rude to you yesterday. B. I apologized to Tom as I was rude to you the day before.
C. I apologized for my rude to you yesterday. D. I apologized to Tom for having been rude to him the day
before.
QUESTIONS 42 - 51: Read the following passage carefully and then choose best option A, B, C or C to fit each space.
Man cannot go on increasing numbers at the present rate. In the next 30 years, man will face a period of crisis. (42)
___ experts believe that there will be a widespread food (43) ___ . Other experts think this is too pessimistic, and that
man can prevent things from getting worse than they are now. But (44) ___ that two-thirds of the people in the world
are undernourished or starving now.
One thing that man can do is to limit (45) ___ of babies born. The need (46) ___ this is obvious, but it is not easy
to achieve. People have to be persuaded to limit their families. In the country of the population (47) ___, many people
like big families. The parents think that brings a bigger income for the family and ensures there will be someone in
the family who will look after them in old age.

Several governments have (48) ___ birth control policies in recent years. (49) ___ them are Japan, China, India
and Egypt. In some (50) ___ the results have not been succeeded. Japan has been an exception. The Japanese adopted
a birth control policy in 1948. People (51) ___ to limit their families. The birth rate fell from 34.3 per thousand per
year to about 17.0 per thousand per year at present.
42. A. Any B. Some C. More D. All
43. A. need B. want C. absence D. shortage
44. A. remember B. to remember C. remembered D. remembering
45. A. a number B. the number C. an amount D. the amount
46. A. for B. in C. of D. about
47. A. bursting B. raising C. explosion D. extension
48. A. adjusted B. created C. adopted D. presented
49. A. Of B. Among C. Between D. Out of

50. A. cases B. exceptions C. examples D. events
51. A. encourage B. encouraged C. are encouraged D. were encouraged
QUESTIONS 52 – 61: Read the passage then circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following
questions or statements.
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals and tribal
drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by humans on foot or on
horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of information between two places. The
telegram and telephone set the stage for more modern means of communication. With the invention of the cellular
phone, communication itself has become mobile.
For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in touch with family and
friends, take pictures, play games, or send text message. The definition of a cell phone is more specific: it is a hand-
held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small special areas called cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplex communication devices: They make it possible for two
people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular phones because they can be
used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a half-duplex communication device because
only one
person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a full- duplex device because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A

walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has more than a thousand channels. A walkie-talkie can transmit and
receive signals across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles.
In 1973, an electronic company called Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless communication. Motorola


and Bell Laboratories ( now AT & T) were in a race to invent the first portable communication device. Martin Cooper
won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On April 3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone call to his
opponent at AT & T while walking down the streets of New York city. People on the sidewalks gazed at cooper in
amazement. Cooper's phone was called A Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping 2.5 pounds (as compared to
today's cell phones that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces)
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone available to the
general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phone for commercial use. The early cell phone and
its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $ 3, 500. In 1977, AT & T constructed a cell phone
system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2, 000 customers. In 1981, a second cellular phone system was started in
the Washington, D.C and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for cell phones to become available for general
public use. Today, there are more than sixty million cell phone customers with cell phones producing over thirty
billion dollars per year.
52. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The increasing number of people using cell phone. B. The difference between cell phones and
telephones.
C. The history of a cell phone D. How Cooper competed with AT& T.
53. What definition is true of a cell phone?
A. The first product of two famous corporation. B. A hand-held wireless communication device.
C. Something we use just for playing games. D. A version of walkie-talkie.
54. What is wrong about a walkie-talkie?
A. It has one channel. B. It was first designed in 1973.
C. It can be used within a distance of a mile. D. Only one person can talk at a time.
55. The word" duplex" is closest meaning to
A. having two parts B. quick C. modern D. having defects
56. To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?

A. his assistant at Motorola B. a person on New York street.
C. the director of his company D. a member of Bell Laboratories.
57. How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today's cell phones?
A. ten times as heavy as B. as heavy as C. much lighter D. 2 pounds heavier
58. When did Motorola introduce the first cell phones for commercial use?
A. in 1981 C. in the same years when he first made a cell-phone call.
B. in 1983 D. in the same year when AT & T constructed a cell phone system.
59. When did AT & T widely start their cellular phone system?
A. in 2001 B. in 1977 C. in 1981 D. 37 years after their first design
60. What does the word" gazed" mean?
A. looked with admiration B. angrily looked C. glanced D. started conversation
61. The phrase " tried it out" refers to
A. made effort to sell the cell-phone B. reported on AT& T
C. tested the cell-phone system D. introduced the cell-phone system

QUESTIONS 62 – 68: Each of the following sentences has four underlined words or phrases marked A, B, C, and
D. Choose the word or phrase which must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
62. Dr. Marti Luther King, clergyman and civil rights leader, won the 1964 Nobel Peace Prize for his work toward
A B C
racially equality in the United States.
D
63. Douglas was driving along the dirt road when his car broke down in the middle of the road.
A B C D
64. The librarian said to her that the book she was looking for should be returned the previous day.
A B C D.
65. A lot of information on the Internet are not reliable.
A B C D
66. The midnight sun is a phenomenon in which the Sun visible remains in the sky for twenty-four hours or longer.
A B C D
67. Lawrence Robert Klein received the 1980 Nobel Prize in economics for pioneering the useful of computers to

A B C
forecast economic activities.
D
68. Jay, together with his parents, have visited California twice before.


A B C D
QUESTIONS 69 – 75: Choose one option A, B, C or D corresponding to the best sentence which is made up from
the given words.
69. anxious / find / good school / my wife / children / attend.
A. To be anxious about good school my wife's children find to attend.
B. My wife finds good school to attend for anxious children.
C. Anxious children find to attend good school of my wife.
D. My wife is anxious to find a good school for our children to attend.
70. remember / lock / door / go out.
A. You remember to lock the door before you go out. B. Remember locking the door before going out.
C. Remember to lock the door before going out. D. Remember to lock the door before you going out.
71. always / he / spend / more / he / earn / so / he / often / debt.
A. Always, he spend more than he earn so he is often debt.
B. He always spend more than he earns so he is often debt.
C. He always spends more than he earns so he is often in debt.
D. He always spends more than he earn so he is often in debt.
72. Einstein / can / not / speak / until / he / eight.
A. Einstein cannot speak until he was eight. B. Not until Einstein was eight he can speak.
C. Not until Einstein was eight can he speak. D. Einstein could not speak until he was eight.
73. like / sit / next / he / whenever / window / plane / he.
A. He likes sitting next to the window whenever he is on the plane.
B. He likes to sit next to the window whenever he is on the plane.
C. He likes sit next to the window whenever he is on the plane.
D. He likes to sit next to the window whenever he is out the plane.

74. computer / run / ten time I fast / this / old one.
A. This computer runs fast ten times than the old one. B. This computer runs ten times faster than the old one.
C. This ten times computer runs faster than the old one. D. This computer runs faster ten times than the old one.
75. book, / that / very thick, / belong / younger sister / my.
A. That book, what is very thick, belongs to my younger sister.
B. That book, that is very thick, belongs to my younger sister.
C. That book, is very thick, belongs to my younger sister.
D. That book, which is very thick, belongs to my younger sister.
QUESTIONS 76 - 80: Choose one option A, B, C or D corresponding to the word whose main stress is on the
syllable in the position which is different from that of the others.
76. A. establish B. development C. specializing D. foundation
77. A. eternal B. calendar C. dinosaur D. history
78. A. document B. develop C. opponent D. astonish
79. A. impossibly B. surprisingly C. unfortunately D. mentally
80. A. definition B. humidity C. necessity D. incredible

THE END

Đề thi thử ĐH 2013
MÔN TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút)


ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
Question 2: A. argument B. enquiry C. medicine D. justify
Question 3: A. convenience B. mechanic C. preference D. official
Question 4: A. recently B. attitude C. octopus D. proposal
Question 5: A. economy B. advisory C. peninsula D. economics

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: My friend has _________ for a bargain.
A. a sharp ear B. a strong head C. a keen eye D. a keen ear
Question 7: The Southeast Asian Games___________its origin to the Southeast Asian Peninsular
Games.
A. has B. owes C. returns D. dates back
Question 8: It is not until December 25 _________the exam results will be announced.
A. which B. what C. that D. when
Question 9: ________that he felt that he didn’t have to revise any more.
A. So confident in passing was that arrogant student

B. Such confidence in passing did that arrogant student have
C. So confident was that arrogant student of passing
D. Such was the confidence of that arrogant student on passing
Question 10: The whole building collapsed, but fortunately there were no_________
A. victims B. wounded C. hurt D. casualties
Question 11: A. “I would like to invite you to our wedding anniversary this Saturday morning.”
B. “__________”
A. Thank you for your request, but I’m sorry I can’t really come.
B. I would love to come but I have prior commitments. I’m sorry.
C. I am sorry. Can you come to my place?
D. How about going to the cinema?
Question 12: Owing to the fog, his flight from Karachi was_________
A. belated B. overdue C. unscheduled D. unpunctual
Question 13: He was given a medal in_________of his service to the country.
A. gratitude B. recognition C. knowledge D. response
Question 14: She ________till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up B. kept me up C. caught me up D. held me up
Question 15: I _________happy to see him, but I didn’t have time.
A. would have been B. will be C. would be D. will have been
Question 16: A. “Where is my bag?” B “__________”
A. Here are you B. There is it C. Here you are D. There it is
Question 17: I am reading this novel. By the time you come back from work, I_________
A. shall finish B. shall have finished C. will finish D. have finished