Tong hop cac chuong

Chương 1: The Nature of Negotiation
1. Negotiation is
A. a contest of wills between opposing parties
B. an interpersonal decision-making process necessary whenever we cannot achieve
our objectives single-handedly
C. any buyer-seller transaction in which a good or service is exchanged
D. the process of compromise so as to avoid conflict and reach agreement
2. Along with the dynamic nature of business, interdependence, globalization, and
information technology, what is the fifth key reason for the importance of negotiation
skills?
A. profit, meaning that people seek to maximize their earnings
B. antagonism, meaning that people are increasingly irritated by others
C. economic forces, meaning that people need to know how to operate in uncertain
environments
D. alternatives, meaning that people are not very creative unless they have to be to find
a way out
3. The interdependence within organizations implies that people need to know how to
A. integrate their interests and work together
B. have similar incentive structures
C. be experts in competitive environments
D. develop different norms of communication
4. Most negotiators
A. continually improve their performance
B. realize that they are in perfect agreement
C. leave money on the table
D. reach "win-win" outcomes
5. Lose-lose" negotiation occurs when negotiators
A. make too-large concessions
B. fail to recognize and exploit opportunities for mutual gain
C. reject terms offered by the counterparty
D. feel obligated to reach agreement

6. When a negotiator rejects a proposal that is demonstrably better than any other option
available this is called
A. the agreement bias
B. the winner's curse
C. walking away from the table or hubris
D. settling for too little
7. According to Nobel Laureate Herb Simon, satisficing is
A. helping other people


B. the synonym of optimizing
C. settling for less than could have
D. setting high aspirations
8. All of the following are myths that negotiators often hold, EXCEPT:
A. whatever is good for one party must be bad for the counterparty
B. negotiator needs to be either tough or soft
C. good negotiators are born
D. good negotiators do not rely on intuition
9. Negotiation is a mixed-motive enterprise, such that parties
A. manage both economic and psychological dimensions
B. have incentives to cooperate as well as compete
C. use both deliberate thought and intuition
D. balance rewards and costs
10. Being a successful negotiator depends on
A. "outsmarting" the counterparty
B. the counterparty's lack of preparedness
C. experiential learning, feedback, and learning new skills
D. always letting the other party tip their hand first
11. As compared to unannounced negotiation, formal negotiation:
A. is simpler

B. is more time consuming
C. requires less preparation
D. is more difficult
12. Informal negotiation involves:
A. three people
B. any number of people
C. four people
D. two people
13. Persuasion is an essential element of effective negotiation because it helps in:
A. resolving disputes among people
B. effecting agreements and solutions in the interest of all
C. achieving one’s own interests
D. settling issues between two parties
14. The final aim of negotiation is to:
A. end a dispute
B. implement an agreement between two parties
C. reach an agreement
D. win at all cost


15. A negotiation is discussed in a tone that focuses attention on the need to reach a
satisfactory solution by:
A. joint problem-solving
B. force
C. making proposals
D. setting conditions
16. Negotiation strategy is partly concerned with:
A. searching for a common goal
B. avoiding failure
C. ending the discussion

D. prolonging the length of the negotiation
17. Negotiation implies that both parties accept that the agreement between them is:
A. conditional
B. final and binding
C. necessary
D. subject to further dispute
18. One’s negotiation objective should be:
A. personal
B. realistic
C. social
D. ideal
19. In order to persuade others, facts should be discussed from the point of view of a:
A. first party
B. second party
C. third party
D. fourth party
20. In negotiations, the interpretation of a cue requires skill because it may be:
A. verbal
B. intentional
C. behavioural
D. ambiguous


Chương 2: Strategy and Tactics of
Distributive Bargaining
1. Distributive bargaining strategies
A. are the most efficient negotiating strategies to use.
B. are used in all interdependent relationships.
C. are useful in maintaining long term relationships.
D. can cause negotiators to ignore what the parties have in common.

E. None of the above describes distributive bargaining strategies.
2. The target point is the
A. point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations.
B. negotiator's bottom line.
C. first offer a negotiator quotes to his opponent.
D. initial price set by the seller.
E. None of the above describes the target point.
3. Starting points
A. are usually contained in the opening statements each negotiator makes.
B. are usually learned or inferred as negotiations get under way.
C. are not known to the other party.
D. are given up as concessions are made.
E. None of the above describes starting points.
4. The objective of both parties in distributive bargaining is to obtain as much of which
of the following as possible?
A. bargaining range
B. resistance point
C. target point
D. bargaining mix
E. None of the above.
5. The resistance point is established by the expected from a particular outcome, which is
in turn the product of the and of an outcome.
A. cost, value, worth
B. value, worth, cost
C. value, cost and timeliness
D. cost, importance, value
E. None of the above.
6. The more you can convince the other party that your costs of delay or aborting
negotiations are......., the more modest will be the other's resistance point.
A. high

B. modest


C. extreme
D. Low
E. None of the above.
7. The more you can convince the other that you value a particular outcome outside the
other's bargaining range, the more pressure you put on the other party to set by one of
the following resistance points.
A. high
B. low
C. modest
D. extreme
E. None of the above.
8. A large majority of agreements in distributive bargaining are reached when the
deadline is
A. near.
B. flexible.
C. past.
D. undefined.
E. None of the above.
9. Disruptive action tactics can cause
A. embarrassment.
B. increased costs.
C. anger.
D. escalation of conflict.
E. Disruptive action tactics can cause all of the above.
10. The opening stance is
A. another name for the first round of concessions.
B. the first price that a buyer quotes to a seller.

C. the attitude to adopt during the negotiation.
D. a package of concessions.
11. The bargaining range is defined by
A. the opening stance and the initial concession.
B. the initial round of concessions.
C. the bargaining mix and the opening stance.
D. the opening offer and the counteroffer.
E. The bargaining range is defined by all of the above.
12. What action can be taken after the first round of offers?
A. hold firm
B. insist on the original position


C. make some concessions
D. make no concessions
E. All of the above.
13. Good distributive bargainers will
A. begin negotiations with the other party with an opening offer close to their own
resistance point.
B. ensure that there is enough room in the bargaining range to make some
concessions.
C. accept an offer that is presented as a fait accompli.
D. immediately identify the other party's target point.
14. Parties feel better about a settlement when negotiations involve a(n)
A. immediate settlement.
B. single round of concessions.
C. progression of concessions.
D. fait accompli.
15. What statement about concessions is false?
A. Concessions are central to negotiations.

B. Concessions is another word for adjustments in position.
C. Concession making exposes the concession maker to some risk.
D. Reciprocating concessions is a haphazard process.
16. Concession making
A. indicates an acknowledgment of the other party.
B. shows a movement toward the other's position.
C. implies a recognition of the legitimacy of the other party's position.
D. recognizes the other party's position.
E. All of the above are characteristics of concession making.
17. When successive concessions get smaller, the most obvious message is that
A. the negotiator is reaching the fatigue point.
B. the resistance point is being reached.
C. the concession maker's position is weakening.
D. the negotiator has passed the resistance point.
E. None of the above.
18. Skilled negotiators may
A. suggest different forms of a potential settlement that are worth about the same to
them.
B. recognize that not all issues are worth the same amount to both parties.
C. frequently save a final small concession for near the end of the negotiation to
"sweeten" the deal.


D. make the last concession substantial to indicate that "this is the last offer".
E. Skilled negotiators may take all of the above actions.
19. A commitment
A. should not be interpreted as a threat.
B. postpones the threat of future action.
C. is designed to increase both parties' choices to a portfolio of options.
D. removes ambiguity about the actor's intended course of action.

20. A commitment statement should have a
A. low degree of finality.
B. high degree of specificity.
C. an indefinite statement of consequences.
D. a high degree of emotionality.
E. None of the above should be included in a commitment statement.
21. Negotiators who make threats
A. are perceived as more powerful than negotiators who do not use threats.
B. receive higher outcomes than negotiators who do not use threats.
C. are perceived as more cooperative in distributive negotiations.
D. should use detailed, complex statements of demands, conditions and consequences.
22. To prevent the other party from establishing a committed position, a negotiator could
A. give them the opportunity to evaluate the matter fully.
B. acknowledge the other's commitment.
C. reiterate the commitment.
D. make a joke about the commitment.
E. None of the above should be used to prevent the other party from establishing a
committed position.
23. Hardball tactics are designed to
A. be used primarily against powerful negotiators.
B. clarify the user's adherence to a distributive bargaining approach.
C. pressure targeted parties to do things they would not otherwise do.
D. eliminate risk for the person using the tactic.
24. Aggressive behavior tactics include
A. the relentless push for further concessions.
B. asking for the best offer early in negotiations.
C. asking the other party to explain and justify their proposals item by item.
D. forcing the other side to make many concessions to reach an agreement.
E. Aggressive behavior tactics include all of the above.
25. The negotiator's basic strategy is to

A. get information about the opposition and its positions.


B. reach the final settlement as close to the other's resistance point as possible.
C. convince members of the other party to change their minds about their ability to
achieve their own goals.
D. promote his or her own objectives as desirable, necessary, and inevitable.


Chương 3: Strategy and Tactics of Integrative Negotiation
1. Which of the following is not an element of integrative negotiations?
A. a focus on commonalties
B. an attempt to address positions
C. a required exchange of information and ideas
D. the use of objective criteria for standards of performance
2. Which of the following processes is central to achieving almost all integrative
agreements?
A. moderating the free flow of information to ensure that each party's position is
accurately stated
B. exchanging information about each party's position on key issues
C. emphasizing the commonalties between the parties
D. searching for solutions that maximize the substantive outcome for both parties
3. Which of the following is a major step in the integrative negotiation process?
A. identifying and defining the problem
B. understanding the problem and bringing interests and needs to the surface
C. generating alternative solutions to the problem
D. choosing a specific solution
E. All of the above are major steps in the integrative negotiation process.
4. In which major step of the integrative negotiation process of identifying and defining
the problem would you likely find that if the problem is complex and multifaceted the

parties may not even be able to agree on a statement of the problem?
A. define the problem in a way that is mutually acceptable to both sides.
B. state the problem with an eye toward practicality and comprehensiveness.
C. state the problem as a goal and identify the obstacles to attaining this goal.
D. depersonalizing the problem.
E. separate the problem definition from the search for solutions.
5. An interest is instrumental if
A. the parties value it because it helps them derive other outcomes in the future.
B. the parties value the interest in and of itself.
C. it relates to "tangible issues" or the focal issues under negotiation.
D. the relationship is valued for both its existence and for the pleasure that
sustaining the relationship creates.
6. Substantive interests
A. are the interests that relate to the focal issues under negotiation.
B. are related to the way we settle the dispute.


C. mean that one or both parties value their relationship with each other and do not
want to take actions that will damage the relationship.
D. regard what is fair, what is right, what is acceptable, what is ethical, or what has
been done in the past and should be done in the future.
7. Which of the following statements about interests is true?
A. There is only one type of interest in a dispute.
B. Parties are always in agreement about the type of interests at stake.
C. Interests are often based in more deeply rooted human needs or values.
D. Interests do not change during the course of an integrative negotiation.
8. Successful logrolling requires
A. that the parties establish more than one issue in conflict and then agree to trade
off among these issues so one party achieves a highly preferred outcome on the
first issue and the other person achieves a highly preferred outcome on the

second issue.
B. no additional information about the other party than his/her interests, and
assumes that simply enlarging the resources will solve the problem.
C. that one party is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and he/she then "pays off"
the other party for accommodating his/her interests.
D. a fundamental reformulation of the problem such that the parties are disclosing
sufficient information to discover their interests and needs and then inventing
options that will satisfy both parties' needs.
9. What approach can parties use to generate alternative solutions by redefining the
problem or problem set?
A. brainstorming
B. logrolling
C. surveys
D. nonspecific compensation
E. None of the above approaches can be used to redefine the problem.
10. In nonspecific compensation
A. resources are added in such a way that both sides can achieve their objectives.
B. one party achieves his/her objectives and the other's costs are minimized if
he/she agrees to go along.
C. the parties are able to invent new options that meet each sides' needs.
D. one person is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and "pay off" the other person
for accommodating his interests.


Chương 4: Negotiation: Strategy and Planning
1. What are the most critical precursors for achieving negotiation objectives?
A. Effective strategizing, planning and preparation
B. Goal setting and target planning
C. Defining frames and setting goals
D. Framing and strategizing

E. None of the above
2. Which of the following is not a reason that negotiations fail?
A. Allowing insufficient time for planning
B. Failing to set clear objectives
C. Understanding the strengths and weaknesses of their and the other party's positions
D. Depending on being quick and clever during negotiations
3. A negotiator's goals:
A. are intrinsically in conflict with his opponent's goals
B. have no boundaries or limits
C. are explicitly stated wishes
D. must be reasonably attainable
E. all of the above
4. The less concrete and measurable goals are:
A. the harder it is to communicate to the other party what we want
B. the easier it is to understand what your opponent wants
C. the easier it is to determine whether a particular outcome satisfies our goals
D. the harder it is to restate what the initial goal was
E. all of the above
5. Which is not a difference between strategy and tactics?
A. Scale
B. Goals
C. Perspective
D. Immediacy
6. A strong interest in achieving only substantive outcomes tends to support which of the
following strategies?
A. collaborative
B. accommodating
C. competitive
D. avoidance
E. none of the above

7. A strong interest in achieving only the relationship outcomes suggests one, if any, of
the following strategies. Which one?
A. competitive
B. accommodation
C. collaborative
D. avoidance
E. none of the above
8. Avoidance could best be used when:
A. negotiation is necessary to meet your needs
B. the time and effort to negotiate are negligible
C. the available alternatives are very strong
D. the only available negotiator is a senior manager.
E. all of the above
9. Which one of the following is as much a win-lose strategy as competition, although it
has a decidedly different image?
A. collaboration
B. avoidance
C. engagement
D. accommodation
10. Characteristics of collaborative strategies include:
A. long-term focus
B. trust and openness
C. efforts to find mutually satisfying solutions
D. pursuit of goals held jointly with others
E. all of the above
11. In an accommodative negotiation, the relationships have:
A. a short-term focus
B. a long-term focus

C. may be either short term or long term
D. none of the above
12. Accommodative strategies emphasize:
A. Subordinating one's own goals in favor of those of others.
B. Secrecy and defensiveness
C. Abandonment of bad images and consideration of ideas based on merit
D. A key attitude of "I win; you lose"
E. All of the above
13. Getting to know the other party and understanding similarities and differences
represents what key step in the negotiation process:


A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Preparation
Information gathering
Relationship building
Information using
None of the above
14. The general structure of a phase model of negotiations involves:
A. Three phases: initiation; problem-solving; resolution
B. Four phases: pre-initiation; initiation; problem-solving; resolution
C. Two phases: problem-solving and resolution
D. None of the above
15. Which is not a key step to an ideal negotiation process?
A. Preparation

B. Relationship Building
C. Information Gathering
D. Bidding
E. All of the above are key steps
16. What is the dominant force for success in negotiation?
A. a distributive vs. integrative strategy
B. the planning that takes place prior to the dialogue
C. the discussions that precede planning sessions
D. the tactics selected in support of strategic goals
E. all of the above
17. Effective planning requires hard work on the following points:
A. Defining the issues
B. Defining the bargaining limit
C. Defining interests
D. Defining limits and alternatives
E. All of the above
18. Interests can be:
A. substantive, directly related to the focal issues under negotiation
B. process based, related to the manner in which we settle this dispute
C. relationship based, tied to the current or desired future relationship between the
parties
D. based in the intangibles of the negotiation
E. all of the above
19. Which is not true of limits?
A. Are the point where you should stop the negotiation
B. Are also called resistance point


C. Establishing them is a critical part of planning
D. They should be ignored in a bidding war

E. All of the above
20. Does any of the following represent the point at which we realistically expect to
achieve a settlement?
A. specific target point
B. resistance point
C. alternative
D. asking price
E. none of the above
21. Which represents the best deal we can possibly hope to achieve?
A. specific target point
B. resistance point
C. alternative
D. asking price
E. none of the above
22. Reactive strategies:
A. encourage negotiators to be more flexible and creative
B. can efficiently clear up confusion about issues
C. will lessen a negotiator's defensive posture
D. can make negotiators feel threatened and defensive
E. none of the above
23. If the other party has a strong and viable alternative, he/she will
A. be dependent on achieving a satisfactory agreement
B. appear aggressive and hostile in negotiations
C. set and push for high objectives
D. have unlimited negotiating authority
E. all of the above
24. A negotiator should ask which of the following questions when presenting issues to the
other party to assemble information.
A. What facts support my point of view?
B. Whom may I consult or take with to help me elaborate or clarify the facts?

C. What is the other party's point of view likely to be?
D. How can I develop and present the facts so they are most convincing?
E. All of the above questions should be asked.
25. Under which of the following questions of protocol would you find a bargaining
relationship discussion about procedural issues that should occur before the major
substantive ones have been raised?


A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

What agenda should we follow?
Where should we negotiate?
What is the time period of the negotiation?
What might be done if negotiation fails?
How will we keep track of what is agreed to?


Chương 5: Ethics in Negotiation
1. Most of us tend to enter our negotiations much more focused on our own pressures
than we are of the pressures on the other side.
2. Must of us tend to enter our negotiations feeling that we have much more pressure to
make a deal than the other side does.
3. By asking ourselves this key question prior to any negotiation, we can begin to unlock
the door to our perceived power in any negotiation: "If I've got all this pressure on me,
what might be the pressure on the other side?"
4. You always have more power than you think.

5. If you are a buyer, the best way to increase your power is to___________.
6. If you are a seller who sells products and services for a living, the best way to increase
your power is to _____________.
7. If you are a seller who is selling a very limited quantity of a particular item, then you
increase your power by____________.
8. BATNA is an acronym for what?
A. Bad Acting Takes Negotiators Apart
B. By Advancing The Negotiator's Agenda
C. Best Advice is To Negotiate Adversarially
D. Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement


1. Negotiators with a competitive orientation are more likely to:
A. Be honest.
B. Share objective and accurate information.
C. Misrepresent information.
D. Overlook the other party's unethical tactics.
2. To redeem themselves, negotiators who have failed in prior negotiations are likely to:
A. Use whatever means it will take, including deception, to win.
B. Avoid deceptive tactics to maintain their reputations.
C. Negotiate integratively.
D. Focus more on ethical tactics during the preparation stage of the negotiation.
A. Use whatever means it will take, including deception, to win.
3. People who label behaviors as unethical before they see the outcome, but later approve of
these behaviors when they learn that the outcome was positive, are:
A. Overlooking indirect unethical behavior.
B. Overlooking gradual unethical behavior.
C. Influenced by the consistency bias.
D. Influenced by the outcome bias.
4. Misrepresentation and inappropriate information gathering are examples of:

A. Ethical negotiating tactics.
B. Ethically questionable negotiating tactics.
C. Unethical negotiating tactics.
D. Typical integrative negotiating tactics.
5. "Actions are ethical as long as they provide the greatest good for the greatest number of
people." This statement describes:
A. The utilitarianism ethical reasoning framework.
B. The rights and duties ethical reasoning framework.
C. The social contract ethical reasoning framework.
D. The fairness and justice ethical reasoning framework.
6. "Negotiations are ethical as long as the tactics are respectful of others, do not preclude
others from using them, and are accepted by rational people acting rationally." This statement
describes:
A. The utilitarianism ethical reasoning framework.
B. The rights and duties ethical reasoning framework.
C. The social contract ethical reasoning framework.
D. The fairness and justice ethical reasoning framework.
7. An ethical alternative to lying about your bottom line is to:
A. Focus on your problems or needs.
B. Obtain limited authority so you do not have to lie.


C. Inject new issues with real value.
D. Commit to the other party's standards instead of committing to his or her positions.
8. Which of the following is not true about negotiators who have more power?
A. They bluff more often.
B. They communicate less with the other party.
C. They want even more power.
D. They are less likely to retaliate or seek revenge if they are duped by the other party.
9. Which of the following is true about personality and negotiating behavior?

A. Negotiators who think they are competitive are more likely to use ethically questionable
tactics than those who think they are cooperative.
B. Competitive negotiators are just as ethical as cooperative negotiators when dealing with
other cooperative individuals.
C. Cooperative negotiators use less deceptive tactics than others when negotiating with
competitive opponents.
D. High Machiavellians are highly selective when it comes to the deceptive tactics that they
use.
10. We tend to overlook unethical behaviors that involve:
A Bad outcomes.
B. Direct harm.
C. In-group favoritism.
D. The unethical actions of persons who were told to behave unethically by a superior.


Chương 6: Perception, Cognition and Emotion
1. Mood is defined as..
A. a short-lived feeling
B. being depressed for more than 1 month
C. a prevailing state of feeling
D. a temporary depression
2. Which of these supports the James-Lange theory of emotion?
A. emotion is a visceral response producing a behavioural response
B. artificial induction of visceral changes does not necessarily produce emotion
C. the viscera are ‘insensitive structures’
D. visceral changes are the same in many emotions
3. The direct emotional circuit controlling fear comprises
A. eye, thalamus, sensory cortex, hippocampus, prefrontal cortex
B. eye, thalamus, amygdala, hypothalamus
C. eye, hypothalamus, visual cortex, striatum

D. eye, geniculate nucleus, hippocampus, prefrontal cortex
4. Which neurotransmitter is most commonly associated with depression?
A. serotonin
B. dopamine
C. septomin
D. glutamate
5. Which of the following is NOT an example of an intrinsically motivated activity?
A. eating a pie because you like pie
B. playing with a toy for the fun of it
C. revising for an exam to get a good grade
D. reading a book because you enjoy the story
6. According to Gray (1972), there are two types of personalities, specifically
A. those that are repelled by positive stimuli and those that are attracted to negative
stimuli
B. those that are attracted to rewarding stimuli and those that tend to avoid aversive
stimuli
C. those that are motivated by greed and those that are motivated by altruism
D. those that believe in simple binary divisions of personality and those that don’t
7. Which of the following are NOT TRUE of motivation?
A. it is the drive, incentive or interest to initiate, perform or maintain a behaviour
B. it is independent of emotion or cognition
C. it is a preparatory phase prior to action
D. it may be influenced by rewards and punishments


8. According to the revised reinforcement sensitivity theory (Gray and McNaughton, 2000),
the behavioural inhibition system (BIS)
A. detects goal conflict between reward and punishment
B. gives one a sensitivity to punishment
C. gives one a sensitivity to reward

D. encourages inhibition of reward seeking
9. Why do those with orbitofrontal cortex damage perform poorly on the Iowa gambling task?
A. choices made are random
B. inability to respond flexibly
C. motivated by reward only (not losses)
D. sensitive to punishment of loss
10. According to the incentive sensitization theory of addiction (Robinson and Berridge,
1993), increased dopamine as a result of repeated drug use leads to
A. sensitivity to the rewarding aspect of the drug
B. neural adaptations in the mesolimbic dopamine system
C. increased sensitivity seen as facial reactivity to pleasure in the rat
D. tolerance of the rewarding effect of a drug
11. Self-actualization is the process whereby individuals
A. establish their concept of self
B. become selfless
C. reach their full potential
D. realize their ideal self
12. Matsuda et al. (2008) found that there appeared to be a cultural difference between
Western and Japanese people’s visual interpretations of emotion, specifically that
A. Westerners seem less sensitive to the visual perception of emotion than Japanese
people
B. Japanese people tend to focus on the mouth, while Westerners seem to look at the eyes
C. Westerners incorporate social context into emotional perception, while Japanese
people tend to see emotions as individual feelings
D. Japanese people tend to interpret emotions in a group context, while Westerners tend
to view emotions in relation to only the individual
13. Psychometric scales are
A. tests used to measure a person’s level of psychopathy
B. an instrument to estimate the mass of a person’s brain
C. survey-type questions that can be used to establish a quantitative measure of a trait,

emotion, mood, etc.
D. questions that assess a person’s level of latent psychic ability
14. Which region of the brain appears to be responsible for the freeze response to a fear
stimulus?


A. the hypothalamus
B. the periaqueductal grey matter
C. the orbitofrontal cortex
D. the anterior cingulate cortex
15. Which of the following brain regions has NOT been identified by researchers as being
activated in response to pleasurable emotions
A. the anterior cingulate cortex
B. the orbitofrontal cortex
C. the insular cortex
D. the medulla oblongata
16. A cognitive process that starts with simple processes and builds to the more-complex
higher levels is known as
A. bottom–up processing
B. lateral processing
C. internal processing
D. top–down processing
17. Deliberately reinterpreting an event with the intention of modifying the emotional
response to it is known as
A. cognitive distortion
B. cognitive suppression
C. cognitive reappraisal
D. cognitive control
18. The emotional processing explanation of post-traumatic stress disorder suggests that the
patient

A. has a cognitive bias that the world is dangerous
B. has a tendency to avoid situations that remind him/her of the trauma
C. has repressed emotional responses
D. has an inability to recognize fear in others
19. Which of the following best describes the concept of an emotion?
A. a response to an external or internal stimulus with the purpose of motivating an action
or behaviour
B. an enduring or recurrent state with no specific causes
C. the mental representation of general feelings within an individual
D. a highly illogical concept, captain
20. TMS is a technique to manipulate activity in a particular brain regions. TMS stands for
A. Transcranial melatonin simulation
B. Transatlantic motivation system
C. Transorbital motor sensitization
D. Transcranial magnetic stimulation


Chương 7: Communication
1. Which of the following is true of personal information systems?
A. Personal information systems that support a particular department are
sometimes called departmental information systems.
B. Adapting to changes in personal information systems is difficult.
C. Such systems have only one user and hence procedures need not be documented
or formalized in any way.
D. The solutions to problems in a personal information system usually involve
more than one department.
2. Which of the following is an example of a personal information system?
A. Scheduling of groundskeeping.
B. Contact manager.
C. Charging of membership fees.

D. Ordering of restaurant supplies from suppliers.
3. Which of the following is an example of a workgroup information system?
A. Charging of membership fees.
B. Contact manager.
C. Accounts payable system.
D. Ordering of restaurant supplies from suppliers.
4. Web store front is an example of a(n) ________.
A. Interenterprise information system.
B. Collaborative information system.
C. Functional information system.
D. Departmental information system.
5. Which of the following is true for workgroup information systems?
A. Workgroup information systems that support a particular department are
sometimes called functional information systems.
B. Workgroup information systems that support a particular business function are
called departmental information systems.
C. Workgroup information systems include categories of procedures, and users are
defined according to levels of expertise with the system as well as by levels of
security authorization.
D. Typically workgroup systems support 10 to 100 users.
6. Which of the following statements about enterprise information systems is true?
A. Its users do not require any formal training.
B. It leads to data duplication among employees.
C. Users of such systems undergo formal procedure training.
D. It is easy to manage change to enterprise information systems.


7. Which of the following stands true for enterprise information systems?
A. Enterprise information systems are information systems that are shared by two
or more independent organizations.

B. The solutions to problems in an enterprise system usually involve more than
one department.
C. Typically enterprise information systems support 10 to 100 users.
D. Enterprise information systems that support a particular business function are
called functional information systems.
8. ________ are information systems that are shared by two or more independent
organizations.
A. Inter-enterprise information systems.
B. Workgroup information systems.
C. Enterprise information systems.
D. Personal information systems.
9. ________ is an example of an inter-enterprise information system.
A. Scheduling of groundskeeping.
B. Contact manager.
C. Ordering of restaurant supplies from suppliers.
D. Charging of membership fees.
10. ________ occurs when data are isolated in separated information systems.
A. Walled garden.
B. Information silo.
C. Scheduling.
D. System integration.
11. "So what do you mean by that?"
A. advising.
B. judging.
C. canalyzing.
D. questioning.
E. supporting.
F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing.
12. "You're mad at me for postponing the meeting?"

A. advising.
B. judging.
C. analyzing.
D. questioning.
E. supporting.


F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing.
13. "You're probably just more upset than usual because of the stress of exams."
A. advising.
B. judging.
C. analyzing.
D. questioning.
E. supporting.
F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing
14. "What reason did she give for not attending?"
A. advising.
B. judging.
C. analyzing.
D. questioning.
E. supporting.
F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing.
15. "Well, that was good of him not to complain."
A. advising.
B. judging.
C. analyzing.
D. questioning.

E. supporting.
F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing.
16. "Have you tried praising her?"
A. advising.
B. judging.
C. analyzing.
D. questioning.
E. supporting.
F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing.
17. "Have you tried talking to him about it?"
A. advising.
B. judging.
C. analyzing.
D. questioning.


E. supporting.
F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing.
18. "Are you as excited as you sound about this big meet?"
A. advising.
B. judging.
C. analyzing.
D. questioning.
E. supporting.
F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing.
19. "Jim should not have said that to Amy after you asked him not to."

A. advising.
B. judging.
C. analyzing.
D. questioning.
E. supporting.
F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing.
20. "And then what happened?"
A. advising.
B. judging.
C. analyzing.
D. questioning.
E. supporting.
F. prompting.
G. paraphrasing.