20 de thi thu thpt quoc gia nam 21 mon tieng anh co dap an giai thich chi tiet

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20 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG MƠN TIẾNG ANH
NĂM 2021 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN
ĐỀ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 1. New Zealand was the first country ______ women to vote.
A. that give

B. to give

C. gave

D. giving

Question 2. He got a bad mark. He _____have prepared the lesson carefully.
A. shouldn’t

B. wouldn’t

C. should

D. would

Question 3. _____ they do not have much experience, their applications have been approved.
A. So that

B. Although

C. Because

D. As soon as

Question 4. The accused ______ guilty to all charges
A. confessed

B. pleaded

C. said

D. admitted

Question 5. The newspaper did not mention the ________ of the damage caused by the fire
A. amount

B. range

C. quality

D. extent

Question 6. If I ______ to the store later, I’ll get you some milk.
A. was going

B. went

C. go

D. will go

Question 7. Scientist are now beginning to conduct experiments on _____ trigger different sorts
of health risks.
A. noise pollution can

B. how noise pollution

C. how noise pollution can

D. that noise pollution

Question 8. Sportsmen ______ their political differences on the sports field.
A. put aside

B. take apart

C. take place

D. keep apart

Question 9. It is _____ funniest book that I have ever read.
A. an

B. the

C. a

D. X

Question 10. With greatly increased workloads, everyone is ______ pressure now
A. out of

B. above

C. under

D. upon
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Question 11. After you ______ your exam, I will take you out to eat. Is it OK ?
A. were finishing

B. finished

C. have finished

D. are finishing

Question 12. I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet of the opera; they’re not really my
______.
A. cup of tea

B. biscuit

C. sweets and candy

D. piece of cake

Question 13. The phone suddenly _____ while Joanna _____ the housework.
A. rang – did

B. was ringing – did

C. was ringing – was doing

D. rang – was doing

Question 14. We hung coloured lights around the room for _____.
A. decorative

B. decoration

C. decorate

D. decorator

Question 15. It is important that he _____ into a good university.
A. gets

B. getting

C. get

D. got

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 16. It was an interested book that I bought at Ngoc Binh Store last Sunday

A. interested

B. last Sunday

C. at

D. that

Question 17. The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species
that have become extinct have increased.
A. extinct

B. industrialized

C. species

D. have

Question 18. Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating
electricity for the surrounding area.
A. to control flooding

B. generating

C. surrounding area

D. irrigation

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8
August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and
Thailand, joining hands initially.
A. officially

B. basically

C. firstly

D. lastly

Question 20. If the examiner can't make sense of what your essay is about, you'll get the low
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mark.
A. communicate

B. estimate

C. declare

D. understand

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 21. A. climate

B. greenhouse

C. footprint

D. upset

Question 22. A. infectious

B. atmosphere

C. chemical

D. consequence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 23. My father is less friendly than my mother.
A. My father is not as friendly as my mother.
B. My father is more friendly than my mother.
C. My mother is not as friendly as my father.
D. My mother is less friendly than my father.
Question 24. “I bought these books last week”. He said
A. He said he had bought these books last week.
B. He said he had bought those books the week before.
C. He said he bought these books last week.
D. He said he bought these books the week before.
Question 25. She probably buys this house next week.
A. She doesn’t have to buy this house next week.
B. She may buy this house next week.
C. She should buy next house next week.

D. She must buy this house next week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26. You can stay in the flat for free. You pay the bills.
A. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.
B. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
C. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.
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D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.
Question 27. It is such an interesting book. I have read it three times
A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times.
B. Such interesting was book that I have read it three times.
C. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times.
D. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song
to the child. In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where
the cattle are kept. There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name.
In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big,
wide world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they
hold initiation ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain
designated age, they learn the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African
tribes consider that children from nine to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world.
They may have to carry out several tests.
Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage

lasts about three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught
how to become young warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are
also circumcised. At the second stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp
called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting the wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds.
This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they will marry and become owners of large
cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are fourteen or fifteen. They are taught
by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies. Soon after that they are
married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers.
Question 28. What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the young warriors

B. the cattle owners

C. the Maasai herds

D. the wild animals
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Question 29. The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. explore

B. participate in

C. experience

D. commence

Question 30. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough.
B. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother.
C. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family.
D. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world.
Question 31. Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child?
A. at their house

B. at the village church

C. on the cattle farm

D. near the thorn fence

Question 32. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa
B. Activities in a birth celebration
C. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby
D. Celebrations in Africa
Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 33. A. worked

B. trained

C. stopped

D. missed

Question 34. A. dynasty

B. royal

C. intact

D. citadel

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 35. Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving.
~ Linda: “I think drink-driving should be severely punished.”
~ Peter "............. . It may cause accidents or even deaths.”
A. I don’t understand what you mean.

B. I don’t think so.

C. I absolutely agree with you.

D. You must be kidding.

Question 36. A porter is talking to Mary in the hotel lobby.
~ Porter: “May I help you with your suitcase?”
~ Mary: “..............”
A. You’re welcome.

B. What a shame!

C. Yes, please.

D. Me too.
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Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
Foot racing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport
but also as a way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate
money to a good cause. Though serious runners may spend months training to compete, other
runners and walkers might not train at all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to
beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun and exercise. People of all ages, from those of
less than one year (who may be pushed in strollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this
sport. The races are held on city streets, on college campuses, through parks, and in suburban
areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest foot race in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San
Francisco every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and
ends on the west side at the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this
race through the streets and hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who
compete to win and who might finish in as little as 34 minutes. Behind them are the thousands
20 who take several hours to finish. In the back of the race are those who dress in costumes and
come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who dressed like Elvis Presley, and
another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in a long line and who were
carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a long
white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders,
and they were actually married at some point along the route.
Question 37. The phrase “to a good cause” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. for an award

B. for a good purpose

C. to reward the winner

D. to protect a wise investment

Question 38. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. cause and result

B. specific to general

C. chronological order

D. statement and example

Question 39. The word “activity” in the first paragraph is most similar to which of the
following?
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A. motion

B. pursuit

C. expectation

D. pilgrimage

Question 40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners were serious about winning.

B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.
C. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley.
D. Some runners were participating in a wedding.
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT implied by the author?
A. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization.
B. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
C. Foot races appeal to a variety of people.
D. Walkers can compete for prizes.
Question 42. The word “bystander” refers to __________.
A. a participant

B. a judge

C. a spectator

D. a walker

Question 43. The main purpose of this passage is to ________________________.
A. give reasons for the popularity of the foot races
B. describe a popular activity
C. encourage people to exercise
D. make fun of runners in costume
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. relaxed about

B. interested in

C. busy with

D. free from

Question 45. He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies.
A. concealed

B. betrayed

C. declared

D. disowned

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate
and influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (46)
______ more harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of
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consumers. Presumably, most parents (47) ______ are always worrying about their children’s safety
buy mobile phones for them to track their whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers want
mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. (48)
________, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow
students. There is also (49) ________ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What
employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss?
Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once

we've left the office.
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one.
Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at
short (50) _______. They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.
Question 46. A. brought

B. played

C. done

D. made

Question 47. A. whom

B. what

C. which

D. who

Question 48. A. Moreover

B. Therefore

C. However

D. So that

Question 49. A. arguable

B. doubtless

C. unhesitating

D. indisputable

Question 50. A. warning

B. time

C. term

D. notice

ĐÁP ÁN
1

B

6

C

11

C

16

A

21

D

26

D

31

C

36

C

41

B

46

C

2

C

7

C

12

A

17

D

22

A

27

A

32

A

37

B

42

C

47

D

3

B

8

A

13

D

18

B

23

A

28

A

33

B

38

D

43

B

48

C

4

B

9

B

14

B

19

C

24

B

29

C

34

C

39

B

44

D

49

D

5

D

10

C

15

C

20

D

25

B

30

C

35

C

40

B

45

A

50

D

ĐỀ 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. mindset

B. application

C. discrimination

D. disposal
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Question 2. A. interviewed

B. remembered

C. established

D. claimed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. achievement
Question 4. A. biomass

B. anonymous

B. geothermal

C. community

C. perseverance

D. bronchi

D. Generosity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. I saw a terrible accident while I _________ on the beach.
A. am walking

B. was walking

C. walked

D. were walking

Question 6. The Japanese market _________ 35 per cent of the company's revenue.
A. lets in

B. accounts for

C. cares for D. takes in

Question 7. The biggest fear is that humans might _________ control over robots.
A. lose

B. take

C. keep

D. gain

Question 8. They had sold out all the tickets _________.
A. until we were arriving at the theater

B. when we arrived at the theater

C. because we have arrived at the theater

D. in case we had arrived at the theater

Question 9. The customer said she'd like this coat if it was _________ nicer colour.
A. the B. Ø (no article)

C. a

D. an

Question 10. The talks were meant to break down _________ between the two groups.
A. gates

B. walls

C. barriers

D. fences

Question 11. _________ are that stock price will go up in the coming months.
A. Chances B. Opportunities

C. Possibilities

D. Conditions

Question 12. We didn’t go anywhere yesterday _________ the rain.
A. because

B. in spite of C. because of

D. though

Question 13. The boy insisted on _________ a break after lunch.
A. have

B. having

C. to have

D. had

Question 14. You couldn't help me with my homework, _________?

A. couldn't you

B. will you

C. won’t you

D. could you

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Question 15. It was such a _________ victory then even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it.
A. surprisingly

B. surprise

C. surprising D. surprised

Question 16. Columbus discovered America _________ the 15th century.
A. in B. to C. at D. on
Question 17. I really enjoy being with my father. He has got a really good _________ of
humour.
A. sense

B. way

C. mood

D. feeling

Question 18. You will get a good seat if you _________ first.
A. will come B. would come

C. came

D. come

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always
putting his foot in his mouth.
A. making a mistake

B. doing things in the wrong order

C. saying embarrassing things

D. speaking indirectly

Question 20. In the Navajo household, grandparents and other relatives play indispensable
roles in raising the children.
A. demanding

B. outstanding

C. dominant D. essential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being late B. being efficient

C. being cheerful

D. being courteous

Question 22. He’ll give Joe a red rose and a lovey- dovey poem he wrote.
A. lovesick

B. wild

C. tragic

D. romantic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes the following exchanges.
Question 23. - Mike: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.”
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- Thomas: “__________________”
A. Never mind, better job next time!
C. That’s brilliant enough!

B. Good Heavens!

D. It’s okay, don’t worry.

Question 24. - John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect
our environment?”
- Linda: “___________________”
A. Well, that’s very surprising

B. Yes, it’s an absurd idea

C. Of course not. You bet

D. There is no doubt about it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose
the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And
since the wind is free, operational costs are nearly zero (25) _______ a turbine is erected. Mass
production and technology advances are making turbines cheaper, and (26) _______
governments offer tax incentives to spur wind-energy development. Drawbacks include
complaints from (27) _______ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The slowly rotating blades
can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and high-rise buildings
do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity generated. Nevertheless,
the wind energy industry is (28) _______. Thanks to global efforts to combat climate change,
such as the Paris Agreement, renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (29) _______
wind energy has led the way. From 2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity around the world
increased from 17,000 megawatts to more than 430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also
surpassed the EU in the number of installed wind turbines and continues to lead installation
efforts.
(Adapted from />Question 25. A. therefore B. once

C. though

D. so that

Question 26. A. few

B. many

C. a little

D. much

Question 27. A. locals

B. foreigners C. master

D. levels

Question 28. A. relating

B. worrying C. booming D. informing

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Question 29. A. when

B. which

C. why

D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Stella McCartney was born in 1972, the daughter of pop star Sir Paul McCartney. She is
the youngest of three sisters. One sister is a potter and the other sister does the same job as their
mother used to do - she works as a photographer. Stella's brother, James, is a musician. Stella
first hit the newspaper headlines in 1995 when she graduated in fashion design from art college.
At her final show, her clothes were modeled by her friends, Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss,
both well-known models. Unsurprisingly, the student show became front-page news around the
world. Stella hadn't been in the news before as a fashion designer but she had spent time
working in the fashion world since she was fifteen. In March 1997, Stella went to work for the
fashion house Chloe. People said the famous fashion house had given her the job because of her
surname and her famous parents but Stella soon showed how good she was. She designs clothes
which she would like to wear herself, although she's not a model, and many famous models and
actors choose to wear them. In 2001 Stella started her own fashion house and has since opened
stores around the world and won many prizes. A lifelong vegetarian, McCartney does not use
any leather or fur in her design. Instead, she uses silk, wool and other animal-derived fabrics.
(Source: Adapted from Objective PET)
Question 30. Which of the following is NOT true about Stella’s family?
A. She is the youngest.

B. Her father is a famous singer.

C. One of her sisters is a photographer. D. She has three sisters.
Question 31. Stella, Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss__________.

A. had been friends before 1995 B. are very famous fashion models
C. all performed at the final show in 1995 D. met for the first time at her fashion show
Question 32. Which of the following is TRUE about the show?
A. There was no one famous appearing in the show.
B. Everyone was surprised when Stella’s show was successful.
C. The show was the last show of Stella.

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D. The models performed clothes designed by Stella.
Question 33. The word “them” in the passage refers to _________.
A. clothes

B. models

C. prizes

D. actors

Question 34. The word “lifelong” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. permanent

B. changing C. temporary

D. inconstant

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the questions.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the
atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely.
Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous changes. When the first
air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were
limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled- a far cry from the extensive list of harmful
substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of health aspects of
various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even
water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxides and
nitrogen oxides are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these
pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in
biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to
move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these compounds
dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such
region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification
scheme of the cycles. The result is an concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The
concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that
the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not
be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we
know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally
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in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0. 08 parts per million
(ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however has a natural level
of 0. 1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.

Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
B. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
C. What constitutes an air pollutant?
D. The economic impact of air pollution.
Question 36. The word “adversely” in the first paragraph in closest in meaning to
__________.
A. negatively

B. quickly

C. admittedly

D. considerably

Question 37. The word “These” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. the compounds moved to the water or soil
B. the components in biogeochemical cycles
C. the pollutants from the developing Earth
D. the various chemical reactions
Question 38. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role
in controlling air pollution?
A. They have existed since the Earth developed.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They function as part of a purification process.
Question 39. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions
__________.
A. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
B. can be dwarfed by nature’s output of pollutants

C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
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D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
Question 40. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a
substance is only useful if __________.
A. it is in a localized area

B. the other substances in the area are known

C. it can be calculated quickly

D. the natural level is also known

Question 41. The word “detectable” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. beneficial B. separable C. special

D. measurable

Question 42. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air
pollution laws.
B. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
C. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air
pollution laws.
D. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that

needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Helen Killer, who was both blind and deafness, overcame her inabilitites with
the help of her teacher, Ann Sulivan
A. inabilities B. deafness C. who

D. blind

Question 44. Fertilizer, which added to the soil to replace or increase plant nutrients, include
animal and green manure, fish and bone meal and compost.
A. include

B. which

C. increase

D. compost

Question 45. The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species
that has become extinction has increased.
A. extinction B. industrialized

C. species

D. has

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
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Question 46. He took the food eagerly because he had eaten nothing since dawn.
A. He had eaten nothing since dawn although he took the food eagerly.
B. Having eaten nothing since dawn, he took the food eagerly.
C. The food was taken at dawn and he had nothing to eat then.
D. He had eaten something before but he took the food eagerly.
Question 47. However old and worn his clothes were, they looked clean and of good quality.
A. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good
quality.
B. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn.
C. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality.
D. His clothes looked clean and of good quality because they were old and worn.
Question 48. The children ran to the yard to see the dragon, but it was no longer there.
A. The dragon had gone after the children ran to the yard.
B. The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the yard.
C. When the children ran to the yard, the dragon was going.
D. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the yard.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue.
A. The house, the gate of whom was painted blue, is very beautiful.
B. The house, which is very beautiful, was painted blue.
C. The house, the gate of that was painted blue, is very beautiful.
D. The house, the gate of which was painted blue, is very beautiful.
Question 50. Most of the classmates couldn’t come. He invited them to the birthday party.
A. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn’t come.
B. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come.
C. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come.

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D. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn’t come.
ĐÁP ÁN
1-A

2-C

3-D

4-A

5-B

6-B

7-A

8-B

9-C

10-C

11-A 12-C 13-B 14-D 15-C 16-A 17-A 18-D 19-C 20-D
21-A 22-C 23-A 24-D 25-B 26-B 27-A 28-C 29-B 30-D
31-A 32-D 33-A 34-A 35-C 36-A 37-B 38-D 39-A 40-D

41-D 42-A 43-B 44-A 45-A 46-B 47-C 48-B 49-B 50-C
ĐỀ 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair sentences in the following questions from 1 to 2
Question 1: Beef contains vitamins. Generally, fish contains almost the same vitamins as beef.
A. The vitamins content of fish may be considered in general as similar to beef.
B. Generally, beef and fish may be considered to be a combination of vitamin content.
C. The vitamins content of beef is generally considered to come from fish.
D. What vitamin fish contains may be considered in general to be made from beef.
Question 2: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him.
A. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
B. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery.
C. The man was shot in the bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him.
D. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 3 to 9
Today, there are 600 million cars in the world. They may seem like a lot. However, there are
over 7 million people on our planet. Most of the world’s population uses public transportation to get
around. The number of people using public transportation continues to rise. Subway systems
worldwide carry 155 million passengers each day. That’s more than 30 times the number carried by
all the world’s airplanes.
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Every day in Tokyo passengers take more than 40 million rides on public transportation.
Yet many people see public transportation as ‘a depressing experience’, says author Taras
Gresco. They say it is slow, crowded, or too expensive. In fact , Gresco says, it is actually
‘faster, more comfortable and cheaper’ than driving a car. Like millions of people, Taras Gresco

is a ‘straphanger’ - a person who rides public transportation. In his book straphanger: Saving
Our Cities and Ourselves from the Automobile, Gresco describe the benefits of public
transportation. Firstly, it is better for the environment. When people use public transportation,
they use less fuel. Twenty people on one bus use much less fuel than 20 people in 20 cars.
Fewer cars mean less pollution and cleaner air.
Using public transportation can be good for your health in other ways. It can even help
you lose weight. In one study, a group of people took public transportation every day for six
months. Each day they walked to a bus stop or train station. In six months, each person lost an
average of six pounds - almost three kilograms. Taking public transportation has another benefit,
says Gresco. It helps people become part of their community. When you are alone in your car,
you don’t talk to anyone. One Tokyo straphanger told Gresco, “To use public transport is to
know how to cooperate with other people,’ It teaches you ‘how to behave in a public space’. So,
public transportation is more than a way to get to work or school. It can help lead to cleaner
cities. It may also lead to a healthier and more cooperative world population.
Question 3:

According to the passage, the number of people travelling by planes each day is

about
A. 185 million
Question 4:

B. 20 million

C. 125 million

The word ‘it” in the passage refers to

A. driving a car

B. author Taras Gresco.

C. depressing experiece

D. public transportation

Question 5:

D. 5 million

What is not true about Taras Gresco according to the reading passage?

A. Taras Gresco often travels by public transportation, especially the bus.
B. Taras Gresco wrote a book about the benefits of public transportation.
C. Taras Gresco finds public transportation beneficial for both the cities and the users.
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D. Taras Gresco launched a campaign to encourage people to use the public transportation.
Question 6:

Which of the following is mentioned as a benefit for a public transportation rider?

A. He or she will be able to learn how to ride a means of public transportation.
B. He or she will have a good chance to make more friends with the different people.
C. He or she will have a good chance to enjoy the natural landscape.
D. He or she will know how to behave in public places and cooperate with others.
Question 7: Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as the one that benefits

from the
public transportation?
A. the environment

B. the car driver

C. the city

D. the bus rider

Question 8: How does the environment benefit from people’s use of the public transportation ?
A. Buses and trains not only conserve energy but also save public transportation
B. The smaller number of cars sold helps the automobile industry save the environment
substantially.
C. Subways use renewable energy sources instead of the fossil fuels, making the environment
cleaner.
D. Fewer people using private transportation means less fuel used, hence cleaner environment.
Question 9: Which of the following can be the best title of the reading passage?
A. Public Transportation - a way to Loose Weight.
B. Public Transportation _ We all Benefit
C. public transportation - Cleaner – Cities
D. Public transportation - to Save the Environment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions from 10 to 12
Question 10:

More research is needed to find out if acupuncture is helped with other side

effects such as pain, anxiety or shortness of breath.
A. is needed

B. such as

C. shortness

D. is helped
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Question 11: ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide
opportunities for its members.
A. its

B. provide

C. aims at

D. economic growth

Question 12: She complained that her husband never paid her any complements anymore.
A. any complements

B. never

C. anymore.

D. complained

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions from 13 to 15
Question 13:

They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution.

A. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels.
B. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution.
C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution.
D. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution.
Question 14: “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager promised to be very open-minded.
B. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded.
C. The manager denied having been very open-minded.
D. The manager refused to have been very open-minded.
Question 15: Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper.
A. Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper.
B. Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper.
C. Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper.
D. Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions from 16 to 30
Question 16: - “Are you thinking of flying business class?” - “__________”
A. No, I’d like an aisle seat.

B. No, I’m just on business.

C. No, economy.

D. I’m flying there to attend a party

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Question 17:

If you watch this film, you _____ about the cultures of Southeast Asian

countries.
A. learned
Question 18:

B. would learn

C. will learn

D. were learning

Paul noticed a job advertisement while he _____ along the street.

A. walked

B. was walking

C. had walked

D. would walk

Question 19: Solar energy is not widely used _____ it is friendly to the environment.

A. in spite of

B. because of

C. since

D. although

Question 20: The sign warns people _____ the dangers of swimming in this river.
A. with
Question 21:

B. about

C. from

D. to

_____, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there.

A. On arrival at the party

B. They had arrived at the party

C. To have attended the party

D. Just attended the party

Question 22: Drinking too much alcohol is said to _____ harm to our health.
A. lead

B. take

C. do

D. make

Question 23: At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a _____ of
completion.
A. diploma
Question 24:

B. certificate

C. qualification

D. degree

The _____ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great

concern to
the government.
A. intensively
Question 25:

B. redundantly

C. excessively

D. marginally

Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to

_____.
A. possibility

B. opportunity

C. impossible

D. mistake

Question 26: The woman _____when the police told her that her son had died.
A. broke in

B. broke away

C. broke down

D. broke into
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Question 27: _____, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. As intelligent the boy was

B. Intelligent as the boy was

C. As the boy was intelligent

D. Intelligent as was the boy

Question 28: . My friend always dreams of having _____.
A. a small red sleeping bag.

B. red sleeping small a bag.

C. small a bag red sleeping.

D. a bad small red sleeping.

Question 29: David graddol, a British linguist, believes that English_____80% of computerbased
communication in the 1990s.
A. accounted for.

B. answered for

C. made over

D. took up

Question 30: _____every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won

B. Having won

C. On winning

D. Winning

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from from
31 to 35
Urbanization programs are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in densely
(31) ________ regions with limited land and resources. It is the natural outcome of economic
development and industrialization. It has brought a lot of benefits to our society. However, it
also (32) ________ various problems for local authorities and town planners in the process of
maintaining sustainable urbanization, especially in developing countries.
When too many people cram into a small area, urban infrastructure can't be effective. There will
be a (33) ________ of livable housing, energy and water supply. This will create overcrowded
urban districts with no proper facilities. Currently, fast urbanization is taking place
predominantly in developing countries where sustainable urbanization has little relevance to
people's lives. Their houses are just shabby slums with poor sanitation. Their children only
manage to get basic education. Hence, the struggle for (34) ________ is their first priority
rather than anything else. Only when the quality of their existence is improved, can they seek
(35)________ other high values in their life.
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Question 31: A. numerous B. crowed

C. populated

D. popular

Question 32: A. offers

C. leads

D. poses

Question 33: A. appearance

B. plenty

C. lack D. loss

Question 34: A. survive B. survival

C. survived

D. survivor

Question 35: A. on

C. for

D. about

B. imposes

B. with

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 36 to 37
Question 36: A. liberty B. final

C. reliable

D. revival

Question 37: A. influenced B. raised

C. introduced

D. developed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges from 38 to 39
Question 38:

John: " You're already leaving? The ball is only starting."

- Peter: " But it's very late, so _."
A. It's great fun, thanks

B. Have a good day

C. Goodbye for now

D. Take care

Question 39:

John: "Why don't we go to a baseball game?".

- Jimmy:"______".
A. I'd rather go to the art gallery

B. No, thanks. I'd like to sit here

C. It's good to play baseball

D. No, I don't.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 40 to 44
The word robot first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek. In the
play, a man makes a machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing
its owner. In the 1940s, the American science fiction writer Isaac Asimov wrote a series of
stories about robots and invented the term robotics, the science of robots. Meanwhile, in the real
world, the first robots were developed by an engineer, Joseph F. Engelberger, and an inventor,
George C. Devol. Together they started Unimation, a manufacturing company that produces the
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first real robot in 1961, called the Unimate. Robots of this type were installed at a General
Motors automobile plant and proved to be a success. They worked reliably and saved money for
General Motors, so other companies were soon acquiring robots as well.
These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in
science fiction films. In fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans. They were
simply pieces of computer-controlled machinery, with metal “arms” or “hands”. Since they
were made of metal, they could perform certain jobs that were difficult or dangerous for
humans, particularly jobs that involve high heat. And since robots were tireless and never got

hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful for tasks that would be tiring or boring for
humans. Industrial robots have been improved over the years, and today they are used in many
factories around the world. Though the use of robots has meant the loss of some jobs, at the
same time other jobs have been created in the design, development, and production of the
robots.
Rise of the Robots, Silicon Valley Entrepreneur, Martin Ford, 1988.
Question 40:

What is Unimation?

A. It’s the producer of the first robot

B. It’s the name of a robot inventor

C. It’s the name of a robot

D. It’s a robot making program

Question 41:

What can be said about Karel Capek?

A. He was the first to create the word “robot”

B. He is an American writer

C. He made a robot

D. He made a robot in order to kill a person

Question 42:

Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots?

A. They are not distracted

B. They are tiring

C. They can do jobs involving high heat

D. They don’t need food

Question 43:

What are industrial robots like?

A. They behave like humans

B. They controlled machinery

C. They look like humans

D. They are computer-controlled machines

Question 44:

When did the word “robot” appear?
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A. in the 1920s

B. in the 40s

C. in the 19th century

D. in the 60s

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 45 to 46
Question 45: : The aboriginal people of Australia are experts at survival in an environment
with scanty resources.
A. ordinary

B. natural

C. limited

D. abundant

Question 46: Sometimes , in order to get things done, you have to take the initiative.
A. sacrifice for others

B. make the last decision

C. make important changes

D. raise the first idea

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the bolded part in each of the following questions from 47 to 48
Question 47: He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. wasn’t happy

B. didn’t care

C. showed surprise

D. didn’t want to see

Question 48: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students
who have academic or personal problems.
A. sympathize

B. please

C. satisfy

D. discourage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 49 to 50
Question 49: A. open

B. answer

Question 50: A. knowledgeableB. prosperity

C. cartoon

D. paper

C. certificate

D. development

ĐÁP ÁN
1

A

11

B

21

A

31

C

41

A

2

B

12

A

22

C

32

D

42

B

3

D

13

D

23

B

33

C

43

D

4

D

14

B

24

C

34

B

44

A
25