36 đề thi olympic hsg lớp 10, 11 kèm đáp án

36 ĐỀ THI
OLYMPIC 30/4

TỰ LUYỆN THI

HỌC SINH GIỎI
LỚP 10 VÀ LỚP 11
With Answer Key
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ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30/4
LẦN THỨ XXV – NĂM 2019
Môn thi: Anh văn - Khối: 10
Ngày thi: 06/04/2019
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
Đề này có 08 trang.

 Thí sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm (MULTIPLE CHOICE) trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và

phần tự luận (WRITTEN TEST) trên phiếu trả lời tự luận.

 Trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tơ thêm 2 số 00 vào trước số báo
danh (bằng bút chì).

Phần mã đề thi trên phiếu trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tơ vào ơ 001.

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following
sentences.
1. ______ happy in the new school, he missed his old friends.
A. Usually
B. Although
C. Being
D. Even
2. ______ we leave at 3:00, we should get there by 5:30.
A. Assuming
B. Having assumed
C. To assume
D. Assumed
3. I am sorry to keep you waiting. I hope you ______ long.
A. are not waiting
B. don’t wait
C. haven’t waited
D.
haven’t
been
waiting
4. It's about time you ______ the balcony. It's covered in leaves and dust.
A. cleaned

B. had cleaned
C. to be cleaned
D. to have cleaned
5. Don't be silly! That ______ possibly be David Beckham!
A. mustn't
B. shouldn't
C. won't
D. can't
6. –“I locked myself out of my apartment. I didn't know what to do.”
–“You ______ your roommate.”
A. could have called
B. may have called
C. would have called
D. must have called
7. –“Did the principal of the school answer you yet?”
–“No, but ______ I hear from him by 5pm, I’ll let you know.”
A. might
B. could
C. would
D. should
8. ______ help me make this decision. I’m just so unsure of which direction to take for my future.
A. I’d sooner you will
B. I wish you will
C. If only you could
D. I’d rather you
9. ______ we have enough money, where would you like to travel this summer?
A. So that
B. Provided that
C. Despite the fact that D. Unless
10. Twenty people were arrested during the demonstration, of ______ four were charged with obstruction.

A. who
B. whom
C. which
D. them
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete the
following sentences.
11. She was very appreciative ______ all the support she got from her friends.
A. of
B. for
C. on
12. Her latest novel is coming ______ in paperback soon.
A. across
B. off
C. out
13. As you’ve arrived late, you’ll have to ______ the time you have lost.
A. make up to
B. do up to
C. do up for
14. Mary is jealous ______ her sister because she is much more popular.
A. on
B. of
C. for
15. Your skirt needs taking ______; it's too large.
A. up
B. on
C. over
16. Can you make ______ the meaning of this passage?
A. out
B. for
C. up

17. He’s such a hard man to ______ as he’s always flitting from one site to another.
A. pin in
B. lock in
C. narrow down
18. Don't be put ______ by his manner. He always acts that way.

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D. with
D. about
D. make up for
D. with
D. in
D. into
D. nail down


A. on
B. away
C. off
19. His proposal met ______ total opposition from the committee.
A. about
B. by
C. for
20. You ought to stand ______ your little brother when the others tease him.
A. over with
B. by for
C. about with

D. down

D. with
D. up for

III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
21. It is possible to ______ out of the pension scheme if you do not wish to participate.
A. back
B. charge
C. opt
D. break
22. She always gets what she wants because she knows how to ______ the rules.
A. circumvent
B. desert
C. slack
D. elicit
23. Anthropologists have spent years studying the social system of this ______.
A. breed
B. caste
C. tribe
D. sect
24. I tried to catch the mouse, but it was too ______.
A. intentional
B. obsolete
C. uncommon
D. elusive
25. I have no appetite and I am lethargic. I've been feeling under ______ for ages.
A. pair
B. stress
C. par
D. threat
26. Peter does everything himself because he doesn’t like to ______ control.

A. extinguish
B. relinquish
C. vanish
D. elicit
27. I don't know how I can ______ up the courage to tell him the awful news.
A. pick
B. pluck
C. store
D. set
28. I need to study more for the test. I don’t have a very good ______ of the material.
A. abstract
B. grasp
C. hint
D. gist
29. The weekend is over, so tomorrow morning it's back to the ______.
A. grind
B. labour
C. drudgery
D. toil
30. We could hear the monkey ______ long before we reached their cage.
A. chatting
B. chattering
C. prattling
D. babbling
31. Bob is so short-tempered; he should try to ______ his anger.
A. monitor
B curb
C temper
D stunt
32. The police ______ the woods looking for the lost child.

A. scoured
B. integrated
C. traced
D. encountered
33. Don't mention work to Ray, as it's a sore ______ with him at the moment.
A. finger
B. point
C. place
D. nail
34. The couple ______ under the umbrella to keep dry.
A. enclosed
B. muffled
C. huddled
D. augmented
35. A long, green snake ______ through the grass and disappeared.
A. strutted
B. slunk
C. slithered
D. scampered
36. This schedule isn’t final. It’s only ______.
A. tentative
B. sporadic
C. contemporary
D. subsequent
37. My new pullover______ to half its previous size when I washed it.
A. shrank
B. reduced
C. diminished
D. dwindled
38. The new accounting system ______ all my work useless.

A. transformed
B. rendered
C. transposed
D. converted
39. Martin just loves to ______ his teeth into a really challenging crossword.
A. grind
B. get
C. put
D. sink
40. The doctor said that sweets should be eaten in ______.
A. compulsion
B. restriction
C. moderation
D. qualification
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS): Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits
each space.
Passage A:
The case of food storage in tin cans illustrates how an invention can be successful even when it (41) ______
a new problem for the one it solves. In 1810, Peter Durand (42) ______ tremendous progress in food
preservation with his invention of the tin can. The cans were ideal for transporting food and for (43) ______
spoilage for extended periods. But consumers of canned food had to (44) ______ their own ingenuity to
open the solidly constructed cans, which sometimes outweighed the foodstuffs inside. Durand’s solution had
created a new problem, (45) ______ opening the cans. In the early days, the (46) ______ most favored was
the brute force of a hammer and chisel. In 1858, Ezra Warner designed a crude and somewhat (47) ______
can opener. Finally (48) ______ 1930, the safe design that underlies today’s common kitchen utensils had

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been invented. From the (49) ______ of their introduction, however, the problem of opening the cans

(50)______ not detract from their wide acceptance as a solution to the problem of food preservation.
41. A. substitutes
B. becomes
C. causes
D. is
42. A. provided
B. invented
C. made
D. discovered
43. A. storing
B. preserving
C. keeping
D. preventing
44. A. create
B. know
C. use
D. make
45. A. easily
B. especially
C. hardly
D. namely
46. A. consumer’s
B. method
C. can
D. food
47. A. called
B. dangerous
C. safer
D. sophisticated
48. A. in

B. beyond
C. prior
D. by
49. A. latest
B. way
C. time
D. first
50. A. did
B. does
C. could
D. will
Passage B:
Two eyes help us to see in three dimensions; and two ears allow us to hear in stereo. If recent research
findings are (51) ______, two nostrils function in (52) ______ the same way. In the olfactory system, each
nostril conveys to the brain a slightly different olfactory (53) ______ upon smelling an odor. What is
perceived in combination is (54) ______ used by the brain to get a precise (55) ______ of what the odor is.
The slight difference (56) ______ the olfactory images seems to occur (57) ______ the air flows at a
different rate through each nostril, one of (58) ______ has a low flow-rate and the other a high one. Odors
that dissolve slowly have their maximum effect in the (59) ______ that has a slow movement of air.
Conversely, those that dissolve quickly have their (60) ______ effect when the air stream is moving rapidly.
Thus, air drawn into the nose will give different responses in each nostril. Not yet well understood is how
the brain processes the disparate olfactory images as a single recognizable aroma. Future studies will be
needed to completely explain this phenomenon.
51. A. incorrect
B. reported
C. accurate
D. similar
52. A. so
B. as
C. much

D. such
53. A. process
B. image
C. where
D. once
54. A. which
B. earlier
C. strongly
D. then
55. A. meaning
B. measurement
C. location
D. sense
56. A. in
B. about
C. to
D. when
57. A. before
B. then
C. however
D. because
58. A. those
B. which
C. each
D. such
59. A. nostril
B. chemical
C. flow
D. other
60. A. personal

B. strongest
C. negative
D. slowest
V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS): Read the texts below and choose the best answer
to each question.
Passage A
Recently, researchers conducted a survey to investigate what motivates young adults to exercise. The study
might shed light on why so few college students exercise and why many stop their exercise workouts after
they graduate. Researchers analyzed responses from 937 randomly selected college students at a leading
U.S. university. What the research team found was that 39% of the male students and 26% of the female
students exercised at least three days a week for 20 minutes at a time. These exercise patterns were fairly
similar to those in surveys at other universities. The survey also revealed some critical factors which
motivate college students to exercise.
Men who exercised regularly reported that their friends provided considerable support for them to do so.
Those who exercised only occasionally had moderate support from their friends, while those who did not
exercise at all had little or no support from friends. For women, however, the crucial motivating factor
seemed to come from family members rather than from friends. Women who exercised regularly had a great
deal of positive support to do so from their families. However, women who exercised only occasionally
received moderate levels of encouragement from their families, while those who did not work out at all
received little or no support from their families. Since college students often live far from home, women
students are likely to have a weaker support system than do their male counterparts.
A medical professor, upon seeing the results of the study, remarked that generally there is not so much
emphasis on body performance among girls and young women. “It’s a macho thing to be able to run faster
or lift weights,” he said. “However,” he continued, “for the younger generation, this gender gap appears to
be getting smaller.”
61. What is the main purpose of the study presented in this passage?
A. to investigate college students’ attitudes towards good health and exercise
B. to find out why young women don’t like to exercise

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62.

63.

64.

65.

C. to learn what makes college students exercise
D. to find the best type of exercise workout for college students
What research method was used in this study?
A. College students reported on their friends’ exercise workouts.
B. College students reported on their families’ exercise patterns.
C. College professors answered questions about their students.
D. College students answered questions about themselves.
What similarity between men and women did the study find?
A. The more friends they have, the more they exercise.
B. The more support they have to exercise, the more they exercise.
C. The closer they live to their families, the more they exercise.
D. The more health-conscious they are, the more they exercise.
In comparison to the general college population, students at this university exercise ______.
A. less often than average
B. about the same amount as average
C. more often than average
D. for longer at a time than average
Why does the passage mention that some college students live far from home?
A. to emphasize that they do not see their families every day
B. to criticize their life styles

C. to show how independent they are
D. to explain why they depend on their friends so much

Passage B
It has long been known that underweight, premature babies develop into children who perform worse at
school than children who had normal birth weight and were full-term. A recent study examining the effects
of birth weight on intelligence suggests that even among full-term babies the heavier ones have an
advantage. The study has been following 3,900 British men and women since their birth in 1946. Birth
weight was correlated with scores on tests of reading and arithmetic skills, non-verbal reasoning, memory,
speed, and concentration. These tests were conducted when the participants were 8, 11, 15, 26, and 43
years old. Generally speaking, the heavier children performed better on the tests. The relationship was
strongest at age 8 and then weakened over time. By age 43, the relationship was negligible. The results
were not affected by birth order, gender, father’s social class, or mother’s education and age.
These findings must be interpreted with caution. First, the results were based on averages. Second, birth
weight is only one of numerous factors influencing cognitive function. Parental interest in education - such
as volunteering at school or helping with homework - may offset the effect of birth weight. Furthermore,
poor environmental conditions, such as living in an overcrowded home, breathing polluted air, or being
caught in a bitter divorce can diminish the early advantages enjoyed by heavier babies.
Although no one knows exactly what makes a newborn baby heavy, it is known that healthy, well-nourished
mothers tend to have heavier babies, while those who eat poorly, smoke, and are heavy drinkers tend to
produce smaller ones. There are probably several other variables that affect birth weight, but if and how
those are connected to intelligence is not known.
66. In this study, the researchers examined the relationship between _______.
A. maternal nutrition and birth weight
B. home environment and intelligence
C. age and intelligence
D. intelligence and birth weight
67. What did the researchers find out about the relationship they were studying?
A. It increased up to age 26, then decreased.
B. It remained steady until age 26, then decreased.

C. It decreased as the subjects grew older.
D. It remained steady throughout the study.
68. Which children have an advantage at school?
A. Those who were full-term, lighter weight babies.
B. Those who were premature but normal weight babies.
C. Those who were full-term, heavier babies.
D. Those who were premature babies who gained weight quickly.
69. According to the passage, what is one possible reason to question the conclusions of the study?
A. The study did not consider some environmental factors.
B. The study was done too long ago.
C. The study was done on premature babies, not full term ones.

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D. The study tested different children at different ages.
70. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Premature babies are disadvantaged throughout their lives.
B. Parents’ educational level affects intelligence.
C. No one knows the exact relationship between test scores and intelligence.
D. Bigger babies may be more intelligent than smaller ones.
Passage C
Diving deep into the ocean is difficult for humans, although whales do it easily. The deepest a human has dived
into the ocean without scuba gear is to 450 feet below the surface, which required him to hold his breath for
about two minutes. Humans are unable to go much deeper because at a certain point the external pressure
becomes so great it crushes the ribcage and lungs. Furthermore, lack of oxygen also prevents humans from
staying under water for long periods. It is amazing, then, that whales can dive to depths of up to 10,000 feet and
remain there for as long as two hours. Several adaptations enable the whale to do this, among them the
construction of its ribcage. Unlike humans, whales have fewer “true” ribs, ribs joined directly to the breastbone,
and more “floating” ribs, which are attached only to the preceding rib by cartilage. This flexible design allows the

whale’s ribcage to fold under pressure instead of breaking, and for its lungs to collapse without rupturing
capillaries. Also, during a dive, the whale’s heart slows to as low as 3 to 5 beats a minute. Arteries constrict,
reducing blood flow to many of the whale’s less vital organs, thus conserving oxygen and maintaining blood
pressure in the brain and heart. Humans emerging too suddenly from dives can suffer from “the bends,” when
small bubbles of nitrogen gas form in body fluids and obstruct blood flow, leading to death. Because whales
collapse their lungs, air is pushed from the lungs into the windpipe, which is lined with thick membranes, making
it difficult for nitrogen bubbles to pass into the bloodstream or other tissues. Together, these and other
adaptations enable whales to dive to such depths.

71. What are “floating” ribs?
A. Ribs that are not attached to other ribs.
B. Ribs that are not attached to the breastbone.
C. Ribs that are made of cartilage.
D. Ribs that are not able to fold under pressure.
72. What is the main purpose of this passage?
A. to explain why whales can do something that humans cannot
B. to explain how humans and whales adapted
C. to explain what happens at great depths
D. to explain how the human respiratory system works
73. When a whale dives, what contributes to the conservation of oxygen?
A. Blood pressure increases.
B. Blood flow decreases.
C. The lungs collapse.
D. The ribcage folds.
74. Compared to whales, humans have ______.
A. weaker capillaries
B. thicker membranes in the windpipe
C. fewer floating ribs
D. slower heartbeats
75. How does the whale’s ribcage differ from that of a human?

A. The whale’s ribcage contains fewer vital organs.
B. The whale’s ribcage can bend without breaking.
C. Whales have fewer ribs than humans.
D. The whale’s ribs are not attached to the breastbone.
Passage D
Scientists have not been able to determine the exact age of the Earth directly from its rocks. Geologists have
yet to find any of Earth’s original rocks that have not been recycled and destroyed through the process of
plate tectonics. However, scientists have been able to determine the probable age of our solar system and
to calculate an age for the Earth by looking elsewhere - to outer space. In doing so, they had to assume
that the Earth and the rest of the solid bodies in our solar system formed at the same time and are the
same age.
Asteroids in outer space have not been subjected to the crushing forces of plate tectonics. Meteorites, which
are fragments of asteroids that fall to Earth, contain clues about planetary formation. Being primordial rocks
still in their original state, they can be dated fairly accurately by measuring the radioactive elements
remaining in them since the formation of the solar system. One group of scientists from Germany and

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another from France analyzed meteorites and reached the same conclusion: The final phase of Earth’s
formation, the separation of its metallic core from its silicate-based mantle, occurred about 30 million years
earlier than previously thought.
The ages of more than seventy meteorites have been measured using radiometric dating techniques. The
results show that meteorites, and therefore presumably Earth, formed about 4.5 billion years ago. These
findings also push back the origin of Earth’s moon because most scientists believe that the Moon formed
from material ejected when a Mars-sized planet collided with Earth. The fact that these conclusions about
the age of the Earth were reached by two independent groups of scientists increases the weight of the
findings.
76. What strengthens the claim made in this passage about Earth’s age?
A. Earth and meteorites are the same age.

B. Two separate research studies had the same results.
C. Geologists have found Earth’s original rocks.
D. The moon is older than previously thought.
77. What conclusion did the French and German scientists reach?
A. Meteorites have radioactive elements.
B. Plate tectonics does not occur on asteroids.
C. The Earth is older than was believed in the past.
D. The Moon is older than the Earth.
78. According to the passage, what is involved in “radiometric dating techniques”?
A. using radioactivity to restore an object to its original state
B. measuring the radioactive elements in an object
C. calculating how many times Earth’s rocks were recycled
D. subjecting an object to crushing forces
79. How did scientists date the Earth?
A. directly, by analyzing plate tectonics
B. directly, by measuring Earth’s metallic core
C. indirectly, by dating the Earth’s Moon
D. indirectly, by dating meteorites
80. What indicated the last stage in the Earth’s formation?
A. a reduction in the crushing force of plate tectonics
B. the separation of Earth’s core from its mantle
C. a shower of seventy meteorites falling to Earth
D. the collision of a Mars-sized planet with Earth
B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS): Read the texts below and complete each space with ONE
suitable word.
Passage A
Fallingwater is recognized as one of the most unique and innovative (1) ______ of American architecture of
the 20th century. Designed in 1935 by architect Frank Lloyd Wright, this beautiful house in western
Pennsylvania is actually built over a waterfall. Wright placed the house above the waterfall by anchoring it to

the (2) ______ next to the falls with concrete “trays,” (3) ______ mimic the natural shape of rock ledges. As
a(n) (4) ______, the house appears to be suspended above the waterfall, which cascades underneath it.
Wright took much care in (5) ______ Fallingwater as harmonious with nature as possible by linking the
house to its natural surroundings. He placed large windows on opposite sides of the main rooms so that the
breeze and (6) ______ of the water could flow through the house (7) ______ hindrance. Wright also
proposed covering the building in gold leaf in (8) ______ to imitate the color of dying plants, and thereby
connect the house to the (9) ______ of seasons and the passage of time. Furthermore, he added a
(10)______ of outdoor terraces where people could enjoy the cool air of the wooded valley.
Today, Fallingwater is open to the public with its original setting, furnishings, and artwork
intact. Passage B
Global warming may be threatening one of the world’s most important crops: rice. Increased nighttime
temperatures are associated with significant declines in crop (11) ______, according to a study conducted
by researchers at the International Rice Institute. The researchers analyzed twelve years of rice production
along with twenty-five years of temperature data. This study, a direct measurement of yields produced
under normal field conditions, using (12) ______ that good farmers normally employ, has confirmed
previous simulations and suggests that (13) ______ increases due to global warming will make it
increasingly difficult to feed the Earth’s growing population. Average (14) ______ temperatures, which
increased 0.35 degrees Celsius over the (15) ______ of the study, have little effect on rice production.
However, a strong correlation exists between warmer nighttime temperatures, which have risen an average

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of 1.1 degrees, (16) ______ decreasing rice yields. Although the underlying (17) ______ of this relationship
is unknown, researchers speculate that plants work harder to maintain themselves in (18) ______ to the
warmer nights and consequently divert energy from growth. Thus, an average (19) ______ of just one
degree Celsius can (20) ______ in a ten percent reduction in yields. Similar findings have been reported for
corn and soybean yields in the United States.
II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)
PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.

1. They were in search of ______ archaeological remains. (DATE)
2. He always gets ______ aggressive when he’s drunk. (RESTRAIN)
3. The drop in share prices in March was a ______ of the financial crash that followed in June. (RUN)
4. She sang the first three verses with a piano and the last verse ______. (COMPANY)
5. I really didn't mean to offend her - I just said it ______. (THINK)
6. They were accused of ______ in their treatment of the hostages. (HUMAN)
7. Alcohol is a ______ factor in 10% of all road accidents. (CONTRIBUTE)
8. He had to face up to his own ______ as a father. (ADEQUATE)
9. It was ______ a step in the right direction. (QUESTION)
10. Hospital beds were scarce and medicines were practically ______. (EXIST)
PART 2: Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.
COMPLICATE
STAND
DINE
WELCOME
DEPEND
OCCUR
DEFEND
TERROR
DELICATE
EXPOSE
POISONOUS SEALIFE
One of the most lethal poisons on Earth, ten thousand times more deadly than cyanide, is tetrodotoxin,
more concisely known as TTX. Its potency is well known in East Asia, where it regularly kills (11)______
who have braved the capricious (12) ______ known as puffer fish. This toxin has a (13) ______ method of
operation: twenty-five minutes after (14) ______, it begins to paralyse its victims, leaving the victim fully
aware of what is happening. Death usually results, within hours, from suffocation or heart failure. There is
no known antidote. If lucky patients can (15) ______ the symptoms for twenty-four hours, they usually
recover without further (16)______. It is no ordinary poison. What is strange about its (17) ______ is that it
is found in such a wide range of creatures, from algae to angelfish spanning entire kingdoms of life. It is

rather unlikely that such an unusual toxin evolved (18) ______ in so many unrelated animals. Marine
biologists have discovered that the poison is produced by bacteria living in the gut of its host. The best
explanation is that a symbiotic relationship exists between host and the not (19) ______ guest, where
microbes exchange poison for nutrients, providing a valuable (20) ______ weapon for its host.
III. ERROR CORRECTION: (10PTS) The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify
and correct them.
BEWARE OF VITAMINS!
1
Vitamins are good for our health, aren't they? Perhaps not. New research suggests that rather
than ward off disease, high doses of certain vitamins may make more harm than good and
could even put you in an early grave. Some recent studies suggest that far from improving
health, these vitamins, when taken at very high doses, may actually increase the risks of
5
cancer and a range of debilitating diseases, a discovery that has sent the medicinal world into
a spin. Scientists are unsure as to when vitamins, so essential to health, can be toxic in high
doses. The most likely explanation is that the body is only equipped to deal with the levels
found naturally in the environment. If the intake is too far for the normal range, then the
body's internal chemistry must be shunted out of alignment. What this means is that the
10
commercially sold vitamins and those provided by nature is not always compatible. The
commercial forms may interfere with the body's internal chemistry by “crowding out” the
most natural and beneficial forms of the nutrients. The vitamins obtained in food are also
allied with a host of other substances which may moderate or augment its activity in the
body. The latest advice is to eat a balance diet to ensure you get all the nutrients you need,
15
and if you must take supplements make sure you take the lowest recommended dose and
follow the instructions on the bottle.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS) Rewrite the following sentences using the words
given.
1. People know more about my novels than the plays I write.

(BETTER) I'm ___________________________________________.
2. The staff hated his new policies intensely and so went on strike. (HATRED) So
intense ______________________________________________.

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3. Your attitude to life would be greatly improved by regular exercise.
(WONDERS) Regular exercise would __________________________________.
4. There is someone in the office twenty-four hours a day. (STAFFED)
The office ____________________________________.
5. Do you think her grandmother was offended by what I said? (EXCEPTION) Do
you think ________________________________________?
6. His behavior at the conference gave him the bad reputation he now has.
(CONDUCTED) The way _________________________________________________.
7. Unless we can obtain more information, we can't process your claim.
(FORTHCOMING) Unless further ___________________________________________.
8. Our teacher thinks it would be better to get on as quickly as possible.
(MUCH) Our teacher would prefer us ________________________________.
9. I had to wait for the manager for almost an hour before he would see me.
(BEST) The manager kept ___________________________________________.
10. They remain close friends despite having had many arguments. (FALL)
Frequently as ________________________________________.
END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK
Họ và tên thí sinh: ................................................................................................................................
Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
LÊ HỒNG PHONG

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30/4
LẦN THỨ XXV – NĂM 2019
Môn thi: Anh văn - Khối: 11
Ngày thi: 06/04/2019
Thời gian làm bài : 180 phút

Đề này có 08 trang.

 Thí sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm (MULTIPLE CHOICE) trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và
phần tự luận (WRITTEN TEST) trên phiếu trả lời tự luận.

 Trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tơ thêm 2 số 00 vào trước số báo
danh (bằng bút chì).

Phần mã đề thi trên phiếu trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tơ vào ơ 002.

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5PTS): Choose the best options to complete the
following sentences.
1. He has done things he ought not to have done and ______ undone things he ought to have done.
A. leaving
B. will leave
C. left

D. leave
2. The team ______ be the same without him.
A. mustn’t
B. wouldn’t
C. shouldn’t
D. needn’t
3. Suppose she ______ that outrageous story circulating around the office, she'd be furious!
A. has heard
B. heard
C. would hear
D. had heard
4. I'd rather you ______ a noise last night; I couldn't get to sleep.
A. wouldn't make
B. didn't make
C. hadn't made
D. haven't made
5. The teacher has gone home, so you ______ her at the library.
A. can’t have seen
B. mustn't have seen
C. weren't able to see D. couldn’t see
6. I didn’t get home until well after midnight last night. Otherwise, I ______ your call.
A. returned
B. had returned
C. would return
D. would have returned
7. –“Did the kids enjoy the circus?”
–“Absolutely! The clown got them ______ all the time.”
A. laugh
B. to be laughing
C. to laugh

D. laughing
8. –“Have you heard, Samuel has just been awarded his PhD?"
–“Yes, but intelligent ______ he is, he has no basic common sense."
A. although
B. though
C. however
D. while
9. My sister is left-handed, ______ no one else in our family is.
A. which
B. who
C. that
D. for which
10. ______ they couldn’t have told us all that we were likely to lose our jobs because the business was
failing is beyond me.
A. When
B. Why
C. How
D. Whether
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete the
following sentences.
11. I was prepared to back ______ her story because I knew it was the truth.
A. up
B. down
C. on
12. My brother has a flair ______ languages and can speak more than six.
A. about
B. with
C. on
13. A local hotel has been found guilty of ______ incidents of food poisoning.
A. holing up

B. shutting off
C. covering up
14. How would you set ______ teaching a dog to perform tricks?
A. about
B. on
C. for
15. He was led ______ by her flattery but soon discovered how insincere she was.
A. away
B. on
C. out
16. We had to queue ______ before we could get into the cinema last night.
A. up
B. on
C. along

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D. for
D. for
D. tucking away
D. up
D. up
D. in


17. The meeting didn’t ______ until late.
A. end up
B. break up
C. come about
18. Would you like to try ______ this new electric cooker?

A. out
B. by
C. with
19. Although they tried, they couldn't hold ______ their laughter.
A. up
B. in
C. off
20. The student was eligible ______ a full grant to study at university.
A. for
B. to
C. with

D. fall through
D. for
D. over
D. on

III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
21. Having a broken ankle ______ her movements considerably.
A. barred
B. hindered
C. intervened
D. blocked
22. When I came in, I found a great surprise ______ me.
A. expecting
B. celebrating
C. awaiting
D. disregarding
23. You were really ______ when you paid $100 for those shoes. They're not even leather!
A. swiped

B. pinched
C. ripped off
D. pilfered
24. To be well-prepared for studies at a university, you should take ______ courses in school.
A. rigorous
B. feeble
C. porous
D. extravagant
25. The government is making little ______ in its fight to beat inflation.
A. headway
B. advance
C. improvement
D. forward
26. We don’t know him very well. He’s just a casual ______ of ours.
A. relative
B. fraternity
C. acquaintance
D. occupant
27. Greg has, to all intents and ______, finished his degree course, with the exception of his final
dissertation.
A. reasons
B. aims
C. purposes
D. proposals
28. They disagreed at first, but after some discussion, they reached ______.
A. a consensus
B. a majority
C. an acquiescence
D. a persuasion
29. We were all on a ______ -edge until the very end of the Hitchcock film.

A. razor
B. cliff
C. knife
D. chair
30. The ______ thought of going to the dentist gives me nightmares.
A. worthy
B. ripe
C. frank
D. mere
31. We giggled at the sight of Mrs. Brown ______ down the road in her six-inch stiletto heels.
A. staggering
B. tottering
C. reeling
D. stumbling
32. Peter had a difficult time ______ his car into the small parking spot.
A. mobilizing
B. maneuvering
C. manipulating
D. motoring
33. Jane ______ about the surprise party for Sheila and now the whole idea is ruined.
A. blabbed
B. prattled
C. gossiped
D. chatted
34. He ______ the papers in a neat pile.
A. stacked
B. clustered
C. bunched
D. heaped
35. Thousands of refugees are camping at the ______ between the two countries, hoping to find asylum.

A. boundary
B. brim
C. border
D. rim
36. Joe’s health has gotten ______ worse over the last few months.
A. chronologically
B. consecutively
C. serially
D. progressively
37. Jenny was so unhappy as she was under the ______ of her husband.
A. finger
B. skin
C. nose
D. thumb
38. The team had to ______ of the competition because of injuries.
A. pull out
B. extract
C. renounce
D. retract
39. We had a ______ of a time at Jason's party yesterday.
A. whale
B. whole
C. period
D. week
40. Investors were caught ______ by the sharp drop in share prices.
A. undecided
B. unawares
C. unsuspecting
D. unconscious
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS): Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits

each space.
Passage A:
The BBC, in the form of the language-teaching arm of the World Service, and Harper Collins have (41)
______ forces to publish the BBC English Dictionary, "A Dictionary for the World". It is (42) ______ at the

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120 million listeners to the World Service who cannot find the expressions in (43) ______ dictionaries. (44)
______ on 70 million words broadcast at least ten times a year on the World Service, the compilers, (45)
______ by Prof. John Sinclair, have included (46) ______ expressions and word usage, without judging
whether they are being used (47) ______. Elizabeth Smith, the BBC's Controller of English Services, said:
“Our language is (48) ______ on statements by real people, like politicians and (49) ______ which the BBC
has accurately recorded. As broadcasters, we try to use a few idioms and metaphors but only to show that
we (50) ______ in the real world.”
41. A.
42. A.
43. A.
44. A.
45. A.
46. A.
47. A.
48. A.
49. A.
50. A.

connected
pointed
functional
Counting

headed
recent
correctly
designed
so many
inhabit

B.
B.
B.
B.
B.
B.
B.
B.
B.
B.

joined
directed
traditional
Trying
chaired
current
truly
made
thus far
live

C.

C.
C.
C.
C.
C.
C.
C.
C.
C.

attached
trained
conventional
Drawing
dictated
nowadays
sincerely
formed
as to
stay

D. fixed
D. aimed
D. partial
D. Bearing
D. treated
D. late
D. finely
D. based
D. so on

D. exist

Passage B:
Researchers have been perplexed by the increasing prevalence of allergies in children. While many (51)
______ appear to contribute to the (52) ______ of allergies, sensitization to common allergens has been
shown to reduce the risk of allergies persisting from childhood into adulthood. For example, one recent
study shows that exposure early in life to cats and dogs may protect children against allergies (53) ______
pets, dust mites, ragweed, and grass, among other things. Some allergists had (54) ______ thought that
repeated exposure to pets in infancy would (55) ______ the likelihood of developing pet allergies.
(56)______, it is now believed that endotoxins, substances (57) ______ in the mouths of cats and dogs,
may (58) ______ help to prevent allergies. When a pet licks a child during play, endotoxins are transferred
from the animal’s tongue to the child. Endotoxins are (59) ______ to help the human immune system (60)
______ resistance towards some allergens in the environment. The bottom line is that living too clean a life
may contribute to the increasing number of children with allergies.
51. A. ideas
B. factors
C. issues
D. concerns
52. A. development
B. sickness
C. resistance
D. evolution
53. A. of
B. by
C. with
D. towards
54. A. previously
B. already
C. usually
D. later

55. A. improve
B. increase
C. enrich
D. assist
56. A. However
B. Furthermore
C. Moreover
D. Nevertheless
57. A. placed
B. developed
C. introduced
D. found
58. A. also
B. actually
C. not
D. finally
59. A. determined
B. analyzed
C. assumed
D. thought
60. A. destroy
B. maintain
C. produce
D. contribute
V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS): Read the texts below and choose the best answer
to each question.
Passage A
It is well known that adequate sleep is important in the formation of memories. Two recent studies indicate
that performance of motor skills tasks was greatly enhanced if subjects were allowed to sleep immediately
following training. In one study students were taught a series of finger-tapping sequences and then tested

for their memory of the tasks. Performances were 34% faster for the first group of students, who slept for
eight hours immediately after learning the sequences, as compared to the second group, who were kept
awake during that time. Furthermore, error rates were 30% lower for the group that slept after learning.
Performance on the tasks was shown to be unaffected by sleep deprivation prior to the training. Differences
in performance persisted two days later, after the second group of students had also had a full night’s sleep.
This indicates that a window of opportunity exists for sleep to be effective in aiding the memory of motor
skills.

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In the other study, a group of people who were taught keyboarding sequences in the morning, and then
tested 12 hours later without a period of sleep, improved their typing ability by 2%. Another group, who
were taught the sequences in the evening, and then tested 12 hours later after a night’s sleep, improved
their typing ability by 20%. This study found that performance improvement is linked to Stage 2 sleep, or
non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep, typically experienced late at night or in the early morning hours.
According to this study, those who get up earlier than usual, thus interrupting their Stage 2 sleep, may have
difficulty remembering motor skills tasks they had learned the day before.
61. According to the studies, what improves motor skills performance?
A. Waiting two days before continuing instruction
B. Learning tasks in the correct sequence
C. Learning a skill and then sleeping
D. Getting a good night’s sleep before learning a skill
62. The findings of the first study indicate that ______.
A. sleep deprivation before learning a task has a negative effect on performance
B. sleeping immediately after learning a task has a positive effect on performance
C. sleep deprivation immediately after learning a task has no effect on performance
D. sleeping immediately before learning a task has a positive effect on performance
63. The results of the second study ______.
A. are unrelated to the first study

B. contradict the results of the first study
C. confirm the results of the first study
D. explain the results of the first study
64. According to the passage, what is the importance of NREM sleep?
A. A decrease in NREM improves the formation of memories.
B. Too much NREM slows down the formation of memories.
C. There is no relationship between NREM and the formation of memories.
D. Lack of NREM inhibits the formation of memories.
65. According to the studies, which strategy would be best for learning to play the piano?
A. Learning in the evening, and then getting a good night’s sleep
B. Learning immediately after getting up very early
C. Learning in the morning, and then doing something else
D. Learning late in the evening and then taking a short nap
Passage B
Scientists at a Texas university have successfully cloned a cat for the first time. DNA obtained from a female
donor cat named Rainbow was transplanted into an egg cell whose nucleus and chromosomes had been
previously removed. The egg cell was then implanted into a surrogate mother, Allie. Sixty-six days later, a
kitten, later named Copy Cat, was born. The breakthrough in cloning a household pet was greeted with
excitement by pet lovers, many of whom have already “banked” their pets’ DNA and even made financial
contributions to the university in the hope of one day obtaining a clone. The news was also welcomed by
scientists interested in the preservation of endangered species.
Although scientists now have the technology to clone animals, Copy Cat’s birth came only after several
unsuccessful attempts at cloning a cat. Researchers first tried using skin cells from a donor cat to create a
clone, but only one pregnancy resulted out of 188 embryos, and this ended in a miscarriage. Scientists then
tried using cells from cats’ ovarian tissue. Out of 87 such embryos, only Copy Cat survived. Although
comparable to the success rate in sheep, cows, goats and pigs, these odds must be reduced to make pet
cloning feasible.
Animal rights activists claim that pet cloning is dangerous for the animals involved, and that it could
needlessly increase the pet population of the country. Also, activists say that believing cloning will bring the
same animal back is a fallacy.

Although Copy Cat’s coat color is similar to Rainbow’s and a genetic match confirms that she is indeed a
clone, her behavior and personality are very different. Rainbow is reserved, while Copy Cat is playful and
curious. In reality, social environment and upbringing are more likely to determine the personality of an
animal than genetic material and blood type.
66. The main purpose of this passage is to ______.
A. advocate further research into pet cloning
B. encourage pet lovers to bank their pets’ DNA
C. generate funds for the university’s pet cloning project
D. present the pros and cons associated with cloning pets

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67. What is Allie’s relationship to Copy Cat?
A. She gave birth to Copy Cat.
B. She was cloned from Copy Cat’s DNA.
C. She has the same personality as Copy Cat.
D. She provided the donor cells used to create Copy Cat.
68. According to the passage, what important fact should pet lovers keep in mind before cloning their pet?
A. Banking a pet’s DNA is expensive.
B. Cloning will bring back the same animal.
C. The clone could be different from the original animal.
D. Cloning sheep, cows and pigs is easier than cloning a cat.
69. What beneficial effect might cloning have in the future?
A. It could be used to prevent miscarriages.
B. It could be used to prevent the extinction of rare animals.
C. It could reduce the number of unwanted pets in the country.
D. It could reduce the impact of upbringing on a pet’s behavior.
70. According to the passage, which factor is most important in determining a pet’s behavior?
A. Its DNA

B. Its donor tissue
C. Its environment
D. Its surrogate mother
Passage C
Brood parasitism, an unusual practice among birds, involves one species laying its eggs in another species’
nest, leaving the host to raise the intruder’s young. For instance, female European Cuckoos lay their eggs
only in the nests of other birds. A cuckoo egg usually closely mimics the eggs of the host, one of whose
eggs is often removed by the cuckoo. The host may recognize the intruder’s egg and abandon the nest, or
she may stay and raise the young. Soon after the cuckoo hatches, if there are any host bird’s young in the
nest, the cuckoo will toss them out, using a scooplike depression in its back. The host parents are then
left to raise the young cuckoo.
Brown-headed cowbirds are another brood parasitic species. They have been known to parasitize over 200
other species of birds. Their eggs do not closely mimic host eggs, and they do not oust host eggs and young
from their nests. Instead, cowbirds tend to hatch earlier than hosts and grow faster, thus crowding out and
reducing the food intake of the host’s young.
Some host species have learned, however, to reject invader eggs. Scientists do not fully understand how
these rejector species have developed, or why some species still accept invader eggs even when the eggs
look different. Some scientists believe that acceptors are birds that do not want to risk damaging or
accidentally removing one of their own eggs when trying to eject an invader. Others believe that beak size
influences rejection, allowing birds with large beaks to eject invader eggs more easily. Still other scientists
claim that chance plays a big role in deciding which birds will be acceptors and which will be rejectors.
71. What do European Cuckoos and brown-headed cowbirds have in common?
A. They are both rejector species.
B. Their eggs do not closely mimic host eggs.
C. They lay their eggs in the nests of other birds.
D. They have been known to parasitize over 200 other species.
72. What is the “scooplike depression” mentioned at the end of paragraph one used for?
A. to remove host birds’ young
B. to remove host birds’ eggs
C. to remove a parasite’s young

D. to remove a parasite’s egg
73. What is one difference between European Cuckoos and brown-headed cowbirds?
A. Cuckoos raise their own young.
B. The baby cuckoo eats the host birds’ eggs.
C. The baby cuckoo crowds out host bird babies.
D. The baby cuckoo ejects host birds’ young from nests.
74. What advantage do young cowbirds have in another bird’s nest?
A. They toss out the host birds’ young.
B. They develop faster than the host birds’ young.
C. They are very similar to the host birds’ young.
D. The mother cowbird removes one of the host birds’ eggs.

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75. According to the passage, birds with large beaks ______.
A. tend to accept invader eggs
B. are able to remove invader eggs
C. tend to damage their own eggs
D. are rejected by birds with small beaks
Passage D
There are more than 500 carnivorous plant species growing naturally in the world, ranging in size from a
fraction of an inch to vines that are over 60 feet tall. While often biologically quite different from each other,
these plants all share a common trait, carnivorousness. This is the ability to capture animals and digest
them. Why have some plant species developed this extraordinary property? Most carnivorous plants grow in
acid soils or water that is poor in mineral salts. In order to survive, these plants have devised ingenious
traps over several thousands of years of evolution. Some use pools of water to drown unlucky visitors,
others have sticky surfaces that work like flypaper, and some have “snap traps” that clamp down on insects
in a matter of milliseconds. The prey captured by these traps supply the vitamins and minerals that other
plants would normally absorb through their roots.

Even though these plants may have diverse appearances and grow in different environments, they are often
closely related to each other. In the 19th Century, Charles Darwin believed that landbased Venus flytraps,
found in North and South Carolina, and aquatic waterwheels, which grow in Europe, Asia and Australia, were
closely related because they both depend on snap traps to catch their prey. A century later, British
researchers looking more closely at the form and structure of the waterwheel, decided that its closest kin
was not the Venus flytrap but the terrestrial sundew. The sundew consumes insects caught with its flypaper
trap.
However, it has recently been proved that Darwin’s hunch was right after all. Scientists at the New York
Botanical Garden studied the DNA of about a dozen carnivorous plants. They concluded that the world’s only
two snap-trapping plants really are sibling species, whereas the sundew is no closer than a cousin, sharing a
more distant common ancestor.
76. How does a snap trap work?
A. It drowns an insect.
B. It encloses an insect.
C. It traps an insect on its sticky surface.
D. It digests an insect through its roots.
77. Why did Darwin think the Venus flytrap and the waterwheel were related?
A. They live in similar environments.
B. They have similar DNA.
C. Both are siblings of the sundew.
D. Both have snap traps.
78. British researchers decided that the two species most closely related to each other are______.
A. waterwheels and sundews
B. flytraps and snap traps
C. Venus flytraps and sundews
D. Venus flytraps and waterwheels
79. How are non-carnivorous plants different from carnivorous plants?
A. Non-carnivorous plants get nutrients through their roots.
B. Non-carnivorous plants can live in acid soils.
C. Non-carnivorous plants are less biologically diverse than carnivorous plants.

D. Non-carnivorous plants evolved more slowly than carnivorous plants.
80. What are the two snap-trapping plants mentioned in the last sentence?
A. The aquatic waterwheel and the terrestrial sundew
B. The Venus flytraps from North and South Carolina
C. Venus flytraps and the aquatic waterwheel
D. Venus flytraps and the terrestrial sundew
B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS): Read the texts below and complete each space with ONE
suitable word.

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Passage A
It is common knowledge that rainfall in the mountains directly influences nearby river levels. Yet recent
research has revealed that some efforts are not seen (1)______ fifty years after the rain has fallen. A study
by a civil engineering professor investigated the (2) ______ it takes for precipitation to travel from
mountains to valleys (3) ______ underground aquifers, or water passages. Using a computer model, this
scientist (4) ______ on the water levels of a major river in the Rio Grande Valley in New Mexico. His model
showed that a drought that occurred fifty years ago could be partly to (5) ______ for current low water
levels. The model assumed a fifty-year wet climate cycle followed by an abrupt change in which precipitation
was cut in half. For decades, there was no change in the base flow of the Rio Grande, (6) ______ after fifty
years that dry cycle (7) ______ up in the river. Previously, (8) ______ such as how much water to store and
(9) ______ from reservoirs have been based on a conservative view, because it has been hard to predict
streamflows years (10) ______. However, if additional research supports this study, the much-delayed
impact of droughts on underground water levels would have significant implications for water management.
Passage B
Over one hundred brightly colored and diverse frog species have recently been identified on the tropical
island of Sri Lanka. The new species were identified by noticeable (11) ______ in physical features, habitat,
development, and genetic make-up. Some are tiny and dwell on the ground, whereas (12) ______ are large

and inhabit trees. Five of the new (13)______ lay eggs in homespun baskets suspended above water, so
that when the eggs (14) ______ the tadpoles have no difficulty taking their first (15) ______. The remaining
new frog species give birth to their young by producing eggs on the forest floor. These frogs (16)______ the
tadpole stage and emerge as miniature (17) ______ of their parents.
Frogs and other amphibians are important indicators of ecological balance; therefore a decline in their
numbers would be considered a warning that (18) ______ of the natural environment for a particular area is
needed. (19) ______ that Sri Lanka has already lost 95% of its forests, measures to protect the remaining
forest fragments are crucial. Since many frogs produce chemicals that could have practical applications in
health care and medical treatment, they are a potential source of new drugs. Thus, ensuring that frogs are
protected by preserving and restoring their (20) ______ is very important.
II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)
PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. Another nuclear accident in the same place is virtually ______. (CONCEIVE)
2. Though she had spent hours fixing the computer, he ______ her efforts. (LITTLE)
3. Smoking has caused ______ damage to his lungs. (REVERSE)
4. –“Was it a good read?" –“Oh, totally ______! I finished it in two days." (PUT)
5. The police file was ______ because of new evidence. (ACT)
6. The war has ______ nearly two-thirds of the country's population. (ROOT)
7. Premature disclosure of the test sites might lead to ______ of the experiment. (VALID)
8. Their ten-point lead puts the team in an almost ______ position. (ASSAIL)
9. The poet fell in love with her and ______ her in his verse. (MORTAL)
10. He was able to pass ______ through several military checkpoints. (HINDER)
PART 2: Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.
DISPENSE
NUMBER

PORTRAY
SYMBOL

NOBLE

MIME
COMPANY
COMPREHEND
RIDICULE
FACE
SILENT ACTING
Mime and pantomime was a Greek and Roman dramatic entertainment representing scenes from life, often
in a (11) ______ manner. Currently, the art has evolved into the (12) ______ of a character or the narration
of a story solely by means of body movement. The Greco-Roman mime was a farce that stressed (13)
______ action but which included song and spoken dialogue. In Roman pantomime, unlike the mime actor,
the players wore (14) ______ masks, which identified their characters but deprived them of speech and of
the use of (15) ______ gestures. Thus hand movements were particularly expressive and important.
Pantomimus, dressed like a tragic actor in a cloak and long tunic, usually performed solo, (16) ______ by an
orchestra. In the theatre of China and Japan, mime acquired a role unknown in the West, becoming a(n)
(17) ______ part of the major dramatic genres. In Chinese drama the conventions of gesticulation, as well
as the (18) ______ of the stage properties, are immense in scope and (19) ______ to those unfamiliar with
the traditional forms. The high art of modern mime was (20) ______ philosophically by such artists as
Marcel Marceau, who defined mime as lithe art of expressing feelings by attitudes and not a means of
expressing words through gestures.

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III. ERROR CORRECTION: (10PTS) The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify
and correct them.
1

5

10

15

A SPORTING GOAL FOR WOMEN
Football is traditionally, a man's sport, but now the women are muscling in on their act, or so
it seems. Because many top male footballers have been transferred for astronomical sums of
money that the game has become more a highly-powered business than a sport. This is
where the women come in, more motivated, more interested in the game more than in
promoting themselves and generally better behaved both on and in the pitch, making a strong
contrast to their male counterparts' greed and cynicism. Indeed, as to FIFA, the world football
governing body, the future of football belongs to women, and the organization has put out to
actively promote women's football. Perhaps, in view of the fact that women are half the
world's population, this is how it should be. In the USA, many members of national women's
football teams are well known than male footballers, and some professional female players in
both North America and Europe have attracted lucrative sponsor deals. Generally, two
problems beset women's football: the need to be taken more serious and for more funding to
be made available. Once these have already achieved along with the blessing of FIFA, we
should see footballers who are accessible, cooperative, decent and sporting in place of the
spoiled mercenary star boys of sport.

IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS) Rewrite the following sentences using the words
given.
1. He realised how much he cared for her only when she had been away for a long time.
(HOME) Her prolonged________________________________________________________.
2. So that she would be able to leave the room quickly, Kathy stood by the door. (POSITIONED)
Kathy ____________________________________________________________.
3. This essay shows a slight improvement on the last.
(MARGINALLY) This essay is______________________________.
4. If they discover your role in the incident, you will go to prison. (LIGHT) If
your role in the incident _______________________________.

5. No one could stand in for Bob when the proposal was drafted. (INSTRUMENTAL)
Bob _______________________________________________.
6. My boss says I can use his car whenever I want to, so long as I'm careful.
(DISPOSAL) My boss says his car _________________________________________.
7. If she hadn’t interfered, there would have been no problems. (SMOOTHLY)
Without her ______________________________________.
8. She didn't understand the situation and so made a terrible mistake.
(STICK) She got ______________________________________________.
9. I tried as hard as I could to make sure that this problem would not arise. (POWER) I
did ________________________________________________________.
10. Karen's bad mood is totally unconnected with the matter in hand. (BEARING)
The matter ___________________________________________.
END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK
Họ và tên thí sinh: ................................................................................................................................
Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TP LONG XUYÊN , TỈNH AN GIANG
TRƯỜNG : THPT CHUYÊN THOẠI NGỌC HẦU
KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30 - 4 LẦN THỨ _____
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: ANH
; LỚP : 10

Số phách

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Câu hỏi 1: ( 5 điểm)
I. WORD CHOICE

Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences:
1. The criminal performed 100 hours of community service work to atone for his crime.
A. make out
B. compensate
C. give up
D. scarifice
2. As a child, Mozart was considered to be an infant _____.
A. fantasy
B. miracle
C. prodigy
D. sensation
3. Marie was nettled by her sister’s constant jocularity and preferred a _____ .
A. miserable
B. indignant
C. sycophantic
D. staid
4. If the student had been less _____, he would not have been expelled from his grade school.
A. indefatigable B. perseverant
C. refractory
D. indigent
5. Despite his intense _____, he failed to secure the prestigious university’s coveted diploma.
A. imbibition
B. lugubriousness
C. lucubration
D. magnanimity
6. It comes as no surprise that societies have codes of behavior; the character of the codes, on the other hand,
can often be _____ .
A. predictable
B. unexpected
C. explicit

D. confusing
7. As my eyesight began to _____ , I spent a lot of time writing about it – both poems and ‘eye journals’ –
describing what I saw as I looked out through damaged eyes.
A. deteriorate
B. sharpen
C. recover
D. adjust
8. Her _____ should not be confused with miserliness; as long as I have known her, she has always been
willing to assist those who are in need.
A. stinginess
B. thrift
C. illiberality
D. intolerance
9. Modern agricultural practices have been extremely successful in increasing the productivity of major food
crops, yet despite heavy use of pesticides, _____ losses to diseases and insects pests are sustained each
year.
A. reasonable
B. equitable
C. considerable
D. incongruous
10. A recent study suggests that vitamin E supplements, despite widespread belief in their _____, are no better
than sugar pills for delaying the onset of the degenerative disease.
A. potential
B. misuse
C. popularity
D. efficacy

Đáp án câu hỏi 1:
1. B
2. C

6. B
7. A

3. D
8. B

4. C
9. C

5. C
10. D


_______________________________________________________________________________
Câu hỏi 2: ( 5 điểm)
II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES.
Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences:
1. Natural selection is defined as the process _____the course of evolution by preserving those traits best
adapted for an organism's survival.
A. to which directs
B. of which directs it C. directs it
D. that directs
2. Manufacturing is Canada's most important economic activity, ____17 percent of the workforce.
A. engages
B. and to engage
C. that it engage
D. engaging
3. ____ 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State, the Eric Canal helped link the
Atlantic Ocean with the Great Lakes.
A. The extension of

B. The extension
C. Extending
D. Extends
4. ____ that life began billions of years ago in the water.
A. It is believed
B. In the belief
C. The belief
D. Believing
5. In geometry, an ellipse may be defined as the locus of all points _____ distances from two fixed points is
constant.
A. which as the sum of
B. of the sum which
C. the sum of whose
D. whose sum that the
6. _____ no two people think exactly alike, there will always be disagreement, but disagreement should not
always be avoided; it can be healthy if handled creatively.
A. There are
B. Why
C. That
D. Because
7. Social scientists believe that _____ from sounds such as grunts and barks made by early ancestors of human
beings.
A. the very slow development of language
B. language developed very slowly
C. language which,, was very slow to develop D. language, very slowly developing
8. _____ technically proficient; it also explores psychological questions.
A. Not only is Barbara Astman's artwork
B. Not only Barbara Asiman's artwork
C. Barbara Astman’s artwork, which is not only D. Barbara Astman's artwork not only
9. Outbreaks of diseases in trees commonly occur _____ stressed because of drought or other environmental

factors.
A. as forests that become
B. in forests become
C. that become forests
D. when forests become
10. _____ the evidence is inconclusive, it is thought that at least some seals have an echolocation
system akin to that of bats, porpoises, and shrews.
A. Rather
B. Despite
C. Although
D. Why

Đáp án câu hỏi 2:
1. D
2. D
6. D
7. B

3. C
8. A

4. A
9. D

5. C
10. C


____________________________________________________________________________
Câu hỏi 3: ( 5 điểm)

PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS
Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences:
1. I’ve been _____ at this report for hours. I’m really fed up with it.
A. slogging away
B. stowing away
C. whittling away
D. surfing away
2. The anaesthetic is _____ and my mouth is beginning to feel quite sore now.
A. dozed off
B. wearing off
C. tipping off
D. rocketing off
3. There have been many complaints that universities are _____ their degree courses in order to attract
more students.
A. pelting down
B. playing down
C. dumbing down
D. coming down
4. When parents are stressed at work, they sometimes _____their children.
A. take it out on
B. miss it out on
C. have it in for
D. make it out of
5. Being spoken to like that really took me _____.
A. away
B. on
C. through
D. aback
6. Therefore, _____ accordance with our regulations, you will be issued with a formal written warning.
A. on

B. at
C. in
D. for
7. Our aunt is really intolerant _____ anyone who has a different point of view to her own.
A. on
B. at
C. with
D. of
8. I think that _____ the circumstances it would be a good idea if you stayed at home for a few days.
A. under
B. on
C. at
D. over
9. Following the financial scandal he left the job _____ disgrace.
A. on
B. in
C. for
D. with
10. We solved the problem …………………. a new device developed by our engineers.
A. by means of
B. by means
C. by means to
D. by mean of

Đáp án câu hỏi 3:
1. A
2. B
6. C
7. D

3. C
8. A

4. A
9. B

5. D
10. A


____________________________________________________________________________
Câu hỏi 4: (5 điểm)
COLLOCATIONS AND IDIOMS
Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences:
1. Today, while the vast majority of people are _____ opposed to the use of drugs in sport, detection
remains a real problem for the governing bodies.
A. staunchly
B. securely
C. steadily
D. vaguely
2. Maps are made with the help of ____ photography.
A. air
B. aeronautics
C. aerial
D. aeroplane
3. It’s hard to believe Brian and Stephen are brothers, isn’t it? They’re as different as _____.
A. Mars from Jupiter B. milk from honey
C. chalk from cheese D. margarine from butter
4. It’s a ____ shame that so little is done nowadays to help the homeless in our large cities.
A. sweeping

B. crying
C. dying
D. pitying
5. Our dog looks very ferocious, but don’t worry, Liz. It’s gentle like ____.
A. a pony
B. a lamb
C. snowflakes
D. a stone
6. I like my new job; the only fly in the ____ is the fact that I have to work every other weekend.
A. fat
B. porridge
C. soup
D. ointment
7. + “I like that painting you bought. Did it cost much?” + “ No, the artist sold it to me for ____.”
A. close to nothing
B. next to anything
C. next to nothing
D. anything next
8. True learning does not _____ in gathering facts from the teachers; it requires active assimilation
of knowledge.
A. achieve
B. consist
C. depend
D. come
9. The saying that “Misfortunes don’t come ____,” means that Bad things can happen at the same
time.
A. soon
B. at once
C. single
D. singly

10. He knows the interviewer already and that will give him an ______ advantage over me.
A. ardent
B. significant
C. unfair
D. considerable

Đáp án câu hỏi 4:
1. A
6. D

2. C
7. C

3. C
8. B

4. B
9. D

5. B
10. C


___________________________________________________________________________
Câu 5: Đọc hiểu (Reading comprehension)
Passage A
Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the following questions
Symbiotic Relationships
Symbiosis is a close, long-lasting physical relationship between two different species. In other words, the
two species are usually in physical contact and at least one of them derives some sort of benefit from this

contact. There are three different categories of symbiotic relationships: parasitism, commensalism, and
mutualism.
Parasitism is a relationship in which one organism, known as the parasite, lives in or on another organism,
known as the host, from which it derives nourishment. Generally, the parasite is much smaller than the host.
Although the host is harmed by the interaction, it is generally not killed immediately by the parasite, and some
host individuals may live a long time and be relatively little affected by their parasites. Some parasites are much
more destructive than other, however. Newly established parasite/host relationships are likely to be more
destructive than those that have a long evolutionary history. With a longstanding interaction between the
parasite and the host, the two species generally evolve in such a way that they can accommodate one another. It
is not in the parasite’s best interest to kill its host. If it does, it must find another. Likewise, the host evolves
defenses against the parasite, often reducing the harm done by the parasite to a level the host can tolerate.
Parasite that live on the surface of their hosts are known as ectoparasites. Fleas, lice, and some molds and
mildews are examples of ectoparasites. Many other parasites, like tapeworms, malaria parasites, many kinds of
bacteria, and some fungi, are called endoparasites because they live inside the bodies of their hosts. A
tapeworm lives in the intestines of its host where it is able to resist being digested and makes use of the nutrients
in the intestine.
Even plants can be parasites. Mistletoe is a flowering plant that is parasitic on trees. It establishes itself on the
surface of a tree when a bird transfers the seed to the tree. It then grows down into the water-conducting tissues
of the tree and uses the water and minerals it obtains from these tissues to support its own growth.
If the relationship between organisms is one in which one organism benefits while the other is not affected, it is
called commensalism. It is possible to visualize a parasitic relationship evolving into a commensal one. Since
parasites generally evolve to do as little harm to their host as possible and the host is combating the negative
effects of the parasite, they might eventually evolve to the point where the host is not harmed at all. There are
many examples of commensal relationships. Orchids often use trees as a surface upon which to grow. The tree is
not harmed or helped, but the orchid needs a surface upon which to establish itself and also benefits by being
close to the top of the tree, where it can get more sunlight and rain. Some, mosses, ferns, and many vines also
make use of the surfaces of trees in this way.
In the ocean, many sharks have a smaller fish known as a remora attached to them. Remoras have a sucker on
the top of their heads that they can use to attach to the shark. In this way, they can hitchhike a ride as the shark
swims along. When the shark feeds, the remora frees itself and obtain small bits of food that the shark misses.

Then, the remora reattaches. The shark does not appear to be positively or negatively affected by remoras.
Mutualism is another kind of symbiotic relationship and is actually beneficial to both species involved. In
many mutualistic relationships, the relationship is obligatory; the species cannot live without each other. In
others, the species can exist separately but are more successful when they are involved in a mutualistic
relationship. Some species of Acacia, a thorny tree, provide food in the form of sugar solutions in little


___________________________________________________________________________
structures on their steams. Certain species of ants feed on the solutions and live in the tree, which they will
protect from other animals by attacking any animal that begins to feed on the tree. Both organisms benefit; the
ants receive food and a place to live, and the tree is protected from animals that would use it as food.
One soil nutrient that is usually a limiting factor for plant growth is nitrogen. Many kinds of plants, such as
beans, clover, and alder trees, have bacteria that live in their roots in little nodules. The roots form these nodules
when they are infected with certain kinds of bacteria. The bacteria do not cause disease but provide the plants
with nitrogen-containing molecules that the plants can use for growth. The nitrogen-fixing bacteria from the
living site and nutrients that the plants provide, and the plants benefit from the nitrogen they receive.
1. The word it in the passsage refers to ____.
A. host
B. organism
C. parasite
D. relationship
2. The word relatively in the passage is closest in the meaning to ____.
A. comparatively
B. routinely
C. adversely
D. frequently
3. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage?
(The other choices change the meaning or leave out important information.)
A. A parasite is less likely to destroy the host when it attaches itself at first.
B. Parasite that have lived on a host for a long time have probably done a lot damage

C. The most destructive phase for a host is when the parasite first invades it.
D. The relationship between a parasite and a host will evolve over time
4. The word tolerate in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. permit
B. oppose
C. profit
D. avoid
5. According to paragraph 3, how do ectoparasites survive?
A. They live in mold and mildew on their hosts
B. They digest food in the intestines of their hosts
C. They live on the nutrients in their bacterial hosts
D. They inhabit the outside parts of their hosts
6. Which of the following is mentioned as an example of a commensal relationship?
A. Orchids
B. Mistletoe
C. Ants
D. Fungus
7. The word actually in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. frequently
B. initially
C. really
D. usually
8. In paragraph 7, why does the author use the example of the Acacia tree?
A. To demonstrate how ants survive by living in trees
B. To explain how two species can benefit from contact
C. To show the relationship between plants and animals
D. To present a problem that occurs often in nature
9. According to paragraph 8, how does bacteria affect beans and clover?
A. It causes many of the plants to die
B. It limits the growth of young plants

C. It supplies nitrogen to the crops
D. It infects the roots with harmful nodules
10. In which of the following chapters would this passage most probably appear?
A. Environment and Organisms
B. Pollution and Policies
C. Human Influences on Ecosystems
D. Energy Resources

Đáp án câu hỏi 1:
1. C
2. A
6. A
7. C

3. C
8. B

4. A
9. C

5. D
10. A


___________________________________________________________________________
Passage B
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
GROUP DECISION MAKING
Advantages of Group Decision Making

Committees, task forces, and ad hoc groups are frequently assigned to identify and recommend decision
alternatives or, in some cases, to actually make important decisions. In essence, a group is a tool that can focus
the experience and expertise of several people on a particular problem or situation. Thus, a group offers the
advantage of greater total knowledge. Groups accumulate more information, knowledge, and facts than
individuals and often consider more alternatives. Each person in the group is able to draw on his or her unique
education, experience, insights, and other resources and contribute those to the group. The varied backgrounds,
training levels, and expertise of group members also help overcome tunnel vision by enabling the group to view
the problem in more than one way.
Participation in group decision making usually leads to higher member satisfaction. People tend to accept
a decision more readily and to be better satisfied with it when they have participated in making that decision. In
addition, people will better understand and be more committed to a decision in which they have had a say than
to a decision made for them. As a result, such a decision is more likely to be implemented successfully.
Disadvantages of Group Decision Making
While groups have-many potential benefits, we all know that they can also be frustrating. One obvious
disadvantage of group decision making is the time required to make a decision. The time needed for group
discussion and the associated compromising and selecting of a decision alternative can be considerable. Time
costs money, so a waste of time becomes a disadvantage if a decision made by a group could have been made
just as effectively by an individual working alone. Consequently, group decisions should be avoided when
speed and efficiency are the primary considerations.
A second disadvantage is that the group discussion may be dominated by an individual or subgroup.
Effectiveness can be reduced if one individual, such as the group leader, dominates the discussion by talking too
much or being closed to other points of view. Some group leaders try to control the group and provide the major
input. Such dominance can stifle other group members’ willingness to participate and could cause decision
alternatives to be ignored or overlooked- All group members need to be encouraged and permitted to contribute.
Another disadvantage of group decision making is that members may be less concerned with the group’s
goals than with their own personal goals. They may become so sidetracked in trying to win an argument that
they forget about group performance. On the other hand, a group may try too hard to compromise and
consequently may not make optimal decisions. Sometimes this stems from the desire to maintain friendships and
avoid disagreements. Often groups exert tremendous social pressure on individuals to conform to established or
expected patterns of behavior. Especially when they are dealing with important and controversial issues,

interacting groups may be prone to a phenomenon called groupthink.
Groupthink is an agreement-at-any-cost mentality that results in ineffective group decision making. It
occurs when groups are highly cohesive, have highly directive leaders, are insulated so they have no clear ways
to get objective information, and—because they lack outside information—have little hope that a better solution
might be found than the one proposed by the leader or other influential group members. These conditions foster
the illusion that the group is invulnerable, right, and more moral than outsiders. They also encourage the
development of self-appointed “mind guards” who bring pressure on dissenters. In such situations, decisions—