Tuyển chọn 35 đề trắc nghiệm ôn thi tốt nghiệp THPT môn Tiếng Anh mới nhất (Có đáp án)

1. Đề chính thức thi tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Bộ
Giáo dục và Đào tạo
2. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THPT
Lý Thái Tổ
3. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THPT
Tiên Du số 1
4. Đề minh họa thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT
Nguyễn Khuyến
5. Đề minh họa thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Phạm Văn Đồng
6. Đề minh họa thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Tôn Đức Thắng
7. Đề minh họa thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT
Võ Thị Sáu
8. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT
Nguyễn Viết Xuân
9. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên
Lương Văn Chánh
10. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Nguyễn Thái Bình
11. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Trần Bình Trọng
12. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Trần Quốc Tuấn
13. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Phan Chu Trinh
14. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT
Nguyễn Bá Ngọc
15. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT
Võ Nguyên Giáp
16. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT

Nguyễn Trung Thiên
17. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Trần Suyền
18. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Nguyễn Thị Minh Khai
19. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Bình Sơn
20. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên
Bắc Ninh
21. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên
Hà Giang


22. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên
Hạ Long
23. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên
KHTN
24. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên
Long An
25. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên
Trần Phú
26. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Kim Liên
27. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Lê Hữu Trác
28. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT
Lý Thái Tổ
29. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT
Hưng Yên
30. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Liên trường THPT

Nghệ An
31. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT
Ninh Bình
32. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên
Nguyễn Trãi
33. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên
Thái Nguyên
34. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 mơn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chun
Hồng Văn Thụ
35. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chun
Thái Bình


KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2020
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

Bài thi: KHOA HỌC XÃ HỘI

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

Mơn thi thành phần: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

MÃ ĐỀ THI: 422
Họ, tên thí sinh: .....................................................................
Số báo danh: .............................
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. furniture

B. customer

C. ambition

D. balcony

Question 2: A. market

B. machine

C. hobby

D. luggage

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. warms

B. starts

C. reads

D. rings

Question 4: A. score

B. fold

C. phone

D. close

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 5: My mother is often……..first person to get up in the family.
A. a

B. an

C. the

D. no article

Question 6: The city has changed a lot since I last…….it.
A. visited

B. would visit

C. will visit

D. visit

Question 7: Those boys were excited about the new game in the beginning, but now they have…..it.
A. gone off

B. look after

C. filled in

D. got on

Question 8: It’s necessary to listen to opinions that are......from ours.
A. differ

B. differently

C. difference

D. different

Question 9: If I....you, I wouldn’t go out in this weather.
A. had been

B. am

C. will be

D. were

Question 10: You may not see how important your family is.....
A. until you live far from home

B. after you had lived far from home

C. when you were living far from home

D. as soon as you lived far from home

Question 11: A fashionista herself, Helena is.......about her clothes, especially when making her
appearance in public.

A. particular

B. feasible

C. receptive

D. creditable

C. don’t you

D. haven’t you

Question 12: You often walk to school,.....?
A. won’t you

B. didn’t you

Question 13: My daughter sometimes practises......English with her friends after school.


A. to speaking

B. to speak

C. speaking

D. speak

Question 14: The football team has waited....the championships for 30 years.
A. for

B. to

C. up

D. about

Question 15: The local shop deals in many kinds of hair products.....from reasonably priced shampoos
rather expensive dyes.
A. are ranged

B. are ranging

C. range

D. ranging

Question 16: Applications for admission to this university are not processed with a high school......
A. licence

B. paper

C. diploma

D. resume

Question 17: Fathers can......a good example to their children by helping wwith the household chores.
A. hold

B. set

C. follow

D. raise

Question 18: I can’t give chapter and....., but to the best of my knowledge, it’s a line from “Romeo and
Juliet”
A. verse

B. note

C. rhyme

D. scene

Question 19: Polar bears are in danger of going extinct.......climate change.
A. because

B. despite

C. because of

D. although

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The beautiful sandy beach with a lot of sunshine and good foods made his holiday
complete.
A. serious

B. normal

C. perfect

D. terrible

Question 21: The candidate was rejected as he could not meet all the requirements for this position.
A. satisfy

B. arrange

C. establish

D. produce

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The intenal structure of the ancient palace is complicated like that of a maze.
A. narrow

B. complex

C. simple

D. attractive

Question 23: Everyone was secretly rehearsing a surprise performance for Alex’s proposal but
annoyingly Jim let the cat out of the bag at the last minute.
A. disclosed the plan

B. concealed the plan

C. revised the plan

D. abandoned the plan

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Dave is talking to Hanah after their school’s English speaking contest.
- Dave: “Congratulations! You’ve given a great performance.”
- Hanah: “.........”
A. No, don’t worry

B. It’s nice of you to say so.

C. Me neither

D. I’m sorry to hear that

Question 25: Gini and Adrian are talking about a book they have read lately.


- Gini: “That wasn’t an interesting book”
- Adrian: “......I couldn’t go further than chapter 2”
A. No, it was fascinating
C. Yes, it gave me much information

B. You can say that again
D. I think it will get better and better

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26: Single-use plastic products are convenient. They are detrimental to the environment.
A. Convenient though single-use plastic products are, they are detrimental to the environment.
B. It is their detriment to the environment that makes single-use plastic products convenient.
C. Were single-use plastic products convenient, they would be detrimental to the environment.
D. Not only are single-use plastic products convenient, they are also detrimental to the environment.
Question 27: There was unexpected twists in the movie. It was so fascinating.
A. If there had been unexpected twists in the movie, it would have been so fascinating.
B. But for the unexpected twists in the movie, it wouldn’t have been so fascinating
C. Suppose that there was unexpected twists in the movie, it would have been so fascinating.
D. Without the unexpected twists in the movie, it wouldn’t have been so fascinating
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28: The company is (A) looking for (B) a candidate who (C) is honest, hard-working and
responsibility (D).
Question 29: Protective (A) gear for firefighters is supposed to be made of inflamable (B) materials so
as to eliminate (C) the risk (D) of fire.
Question 30: It always take (A) parents a lot of (B) time and patience (C) to bing up their (D) children.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 31: Peter is more successful than his sister.
A. Peter is less successful than his sister.
B. Peter is as successful as his sister.
C. Peter’s sister is more successful than he is.
D. Peter’s sister is not as successful as he is.
Question 32: It is compulsory for all the students to hand in their assignments on time.
A. All the students needn’t hand in their assignments on time.
B. All the students can’t hand in their assignments on time.
C. All the students must hand in their assignments on time.

D. All the students may hand in their assignments on time.
Question 33: “I’m going on a picnic tomorrow” he said.
A. He said that I was going on a picnic tomorrow.
B. He said that he was going on a picnic tomorrow.


C. He said that I am going on a picnic the following day.
D. He said that he was going on a picnic the following day.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
TEENAGERS AND DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY
In many countries, there is a widespread perception that teenager’s lives nowadays are dominated by
technology. However, the information (34)........was gathered in a recent study of Australian teenagers’
use of and attitude towards technology such as that this view doesn’t reflect the reality of their everyday
existence. The research by academics of the University of Canberra in Australia found that, while most
teenagers had ready access to home computers, mobile phones and (35).......electronic devices, they
generally spent more time on traditional (36).......such as talking to family and friends, doing homework
and enjoying hobbies and sports than on using technology. Accessing social media and playing computer
games ranked as low as nineth and tenth respectively among the ten most common after-school activities.
Fifteen-year-old Laura Edmonds is one of the teenagers surveys. She admits to being very (37).........to
her smartphone and makes full use of various apps, (38).........if she needs to unwind after a hard day at
school, she tends to “hang out with my friends, listen to music or chat with my mum and dad.”
Question 34: A. where

B. which

C. when

D. who

Question 35: A. one

B. other

C. every

D. another

Question 36: A. pursuits

B. operations

C. incidents

D. events

Question 37: A. conformed

B. enclosed

C. attached

D. related

Question 38: A. till

B. nor

C. but

D. Like

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 39 to 43.
More and more young people are choosing to take a gap year between finishing school and starting
university. Alternatively, they may decide to take a gap year between graduating from university and
starting a career feeling the need for some time out before joining the rat race. Most students see the time
as an opportunity to travel. The idea of travelling to as many foreign places as possible appeals greatly.
A large percentage of gap-year students have wealthy parents who can easily subsidze their travel.
Others have to save up before they go or look for some forms of employment while travelling. For
example, they may works on local farms or in local hotels. By doing so, they not only earn some money,
but they are likely to meet local people and acquire some understanding of their culture.
There are some students who choose to work for the whole of their gap year. A number may decide to get
work experience, either at home or abroad in an area which they hope to make their career, such as
medicine or computers. A large proportion of students are now choosing to work with a charity which
arranges voluntary work in various parts of the world. The project provides hands-on experience of a very
varied nature, from teaching to helping build roads or dams.
The gap year is not just an adventure. Young people can benefit greatly from encountering new varied
experiences and from communication with a wide range of people. Perhaps most important, gap-year
students have to learn to stand on their own two feet.
Question 39: What could be the best title of the passage?
A. Studying Overseas

B. Taking Time Out

C. Working for Life

D. Contributing to the Community

Question 40: The word “subsidize” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by.......

A. pay for

B. work for

C. apply for

D. ask for

Question 41: The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers t..........
A. gap-year students

B. local farms

C. local people

D. local hotels

Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Students can take a gap year only before starting university.
B. The number of students take a gap year between high school and university is falling
C. Most students consider a gap year as a chance to travel
D. None of the students choose to work for the whole of their gap year to get experience
Question 43: According to the passage, which is perhaps the most benefit of the students’ taking a gap
year?
A. They receive partical training for their future careers
B. They learn how to become independent
C. They earn money to support their further studies
D. They have an opportunity to meet local people

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 44 to 50.
“I have not paid a single electricity bill since the year 1970” says Richard Perez with noticable glee. He
can afford to be smug. He lives “ off-grid” – unconnected to the power grid and the water, gas and
sewerage supplies that most people in the world rely on. He ganerate his own electricity, sources his own
water and deals with his own waste disposal – and he prefers in that way. “There are times when the grid
blacks out” he says. “I really like the security of having my own electricity company.”
Perez is not alone. Once the preserve of mavericks, hippies and survivalists, there are now approximately
200,000 off-grid households in the United States of America, a figure that Perez says has been increasing
by a third every year for the past decade. For all of the people who live off-grid, self-sufficency means
guilt-free energy consumption and peace of mind. “It feels brilliant to make use of clean, free energy that
is not from fossil fuels” says Suzanne Galant, a writer who lives off-grid in a rural area in Wales. “And if
something goes wrong, we can fix it ourself”. Now even urbanites are seeing the appeal of generating
some if not all of their own power needs. So is energy freedom an eco pipe-dream or the untimate good
life?
Well, there is only one wy to find out: begin to explore the possibilities of solar, wind or hydro-power.
But unless you live on a sunny, south-facing hillsidewith access to a nearby river or stream, that might
prove prohibitively expensive!
There is no doubt that being off-grid has its problems, and it is not always the cheapest way to get the
energy you need. Even so, pioneers like Perez have proved that it can be done, and without giving up a
21st century lifestyle: “I have got five personal computers, two laser scanners, two fridge-freezer, a
microwave, a covection oven, vacuum cleaners –you name it” says Perez. There is an external beam
antenna on the roof for the phone and a satellite dish for an Internet connection. I have got 70 kWh in
batteries that could last me five days. I have too much electricity”. Too much electricity and no more
bills. That has got to be worth aiming for.
Question 44: Which is the best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Unplugging from the Grid
B. No water, no life!
C. A Day in the Life of an “Off-Grid”

D. Living without Electricity
Question 45: The phrase “blacks out” in paragraph 1 mostly means............
A. fails to work

B. is able to run

C. has no functions

D. serves many purposes

Question 46: According to paragraph 1, Perez has managed to.......
A. save a lot of money with his own company
B. stay independent of certain public utilities
C. provide energy for people in his neighbourhood
D. pay off his electricity bills since 1970
Question 47: The word “pipe-dream” in paragraph 2 mostly means............
A. a promissing vision

B. a terrible situation

C. an impractical hope

D. a real nightmare

Question 48: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to.............
A. being a pioneer

B. getting the energy

C. being off-grid

D. giving up a 21st century lifestyle

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The number of “off-gridders” in the US is said to have risen by 33% over the past ten years
B. Some city dwellers have shown an interest in producing their own electricity
C. “Off-gridders” enjoy not doing harm to the environment
D. People opting for off-grid living used to be considered quite eccentric
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Adopting an off-grid lifestyle is only suitable for low-income people
B. Leading a 21st century lifestyle means consuming a great deal of electricity
C. Many “off-gridders” have made a fortune selling thier own electricity
D. Most people living in temperate regions are against the idea of living off-grid
----------The End----------


ĐÁP ÁN

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

C

B

B

A

C

A

A

D

D

A

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

A

C

C

A

D

C

B

A

C

C

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

A

C

B

B

B

A

B

D

B

A

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

D

C

D

B

B

A

C

C

B

A

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

C

C

B

A

A

B

C

C

A

B


SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG
LÝ THÁI TỔ
Mã đề thi: 896

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN 1
Tên môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút;
(50 câu trắc nghiệm)

(Thí sinh khơng được sử dụng tài liệu)
Họ, tên thí sinh:..................................................................... Số báo danh: .............................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair sentences in the following questions from 1 to 2
Question 1: Beef contains vitamins. Generally, fish contains almost the same vitamins as beef.
A. The vitamins content of fish may be considered in general as similar to beef.
B. Generally, beef and fish may be considered to be a combination of vitamin content.
C. The vitamins content of beef is generally considered to come from fish.
D. What vitamin fish contains may be considered in general to be made from beef.
Question 2: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him.

A. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
B. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery.
C. The man was shot in the bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him.
D. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 3 to 9
Today, there are 600 million cars in the world. They may seem like a lot. However, there are over
7 million people on our planet. Most of the world’s population uses public transportation to get around.
The number of people using public transportation continues to rise. Subway systems worldwide carry 155
million passengers each day. That’s more than 30 times the number carried by all the world’s airplanes.
Every day in Tokyo passengers take more than 40 million rides on public transportation.
Yet many people see public transportation as ‘a depressing experience’, says author Taras
Gresco. They say it is slow, crowded, or too expensive. In fact , Gresco says, it is actually ‘faster, more
comfortable and cheaper’ than driving a car. Like millions of people, Taras Gresco is a ‘straphanger’ - a
person who rides public transportation. In his book straphanger: Saving Our Cities and Ourselves from
the Automobile, Gresco describe the benefits of public transportation. Firstly, it is better for the
environment. When people use public transportation, they use less fuel. Twenty people on one bus use
much less fuel than 20 people in 20 cars. Fewer cars mean less pollution and cleaner air.
Using public transportation can be good for your health in other ways. It can even help you lose
weight. In one study, a group of people took public transportation every day for six months. Each day
they walked to a bus stop or train station. In six months, each person lost an average of six pounds almost three kilograms. Taking public transportation has another benefit, says Gresco. It helps people
become part of their community. When you are alone in your car, you don’t talk to anyone. One Tokyo
straphanger told Gresco, “To use public transport is to know how to cooperate with other people,’ It
teaches you ‘how to behave in a public space’. So, public transportation is more than a way to get to
work or school. It can help lead to cleaner cities. It may also lead to a healthier and more cooperative
world population.
Question 3: According to the passage, the number of people travelling by planes each day is
about
A. 185 million
B. 20 million

C. 125 million
D. 5 million
Question 4: The word ‘it” in the passage refers to
A. driving a car
B. author Taras Gresco.
C. depressing experiece
D. public transportation
Question 5: What is not true about Taras Gresco according to the reading passage?


A. Taras Gresco often travels by public transportation, especially the bus.
B. Taras Gresco wrote a book about the benefits of public transportation.
C. Taras Gresco finds public transportation beneficial for both the cities and the users.
D. Taras Gresco launched a campaign to encourage people to use the public transportation.
Question 6: Which of the following is mentioned as a benefit for a public transportation rider?
A. He or she will be able to learn how to ride a means of public transportation.
B. He or she will have a good chance to make more friends with the different people.
C. He or she will have a good chance to enjoy the natural landscape.
D. He or she will know how to behave in public places and cooperate with others.
Question 7: Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as the one that benefits from the
public transportation?
A. the environment
B. the car driver
C. the city
D. the bus rider
Question 8: How does the environment benefit from people’s use of the public transportation ?
A. Buses and trains not only conserve energy but also save public transportation
B. The smaller number of cars sold helps the automobile industry save the environment
substantially.
C. Subways use renewable energy sources instead of the fossil fuels, making the environment

cleaner.
D. Fewer people using private transportation means less fuel used, hence cleaner environment.
Question 9: Which of the following can be the best title of the reading passage?
A. Public Transportation - a way to Loose Weight.
B. Public Transportation _ We all Benefit
C. public transportation - Cleaner – Cities
D. Public transportation - to Save the Environment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions
from 10 to 12
Question 10: More research is needed to find out if acupuncture is helped with other side effects such as
pain, anxiety or shortness of breath.
A. is needed
B. such as
C. shortness
D. is helped
Question 11: ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide opportunities
for its members.
A. its
B. provide
C. aims at
D. economic growth
Question 12: She complained that her husband never paid her any complements anymore.
A. any complements
B. never
C. anymore.
D. complained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions from 13 to 15
Question 13: They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution.

A. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels.
B. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution.
C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution.
D. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution.
Question 14: “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager promised to be very open-minded.
B. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded.
C. The manager denied having been very open-minded.
D. The manager refused to have been very open-minded.
Question 15: Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper.
A. Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper.
B. Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper.
C. Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper.


D. Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions from 16 to 30
Question 16: - “Are you thinking of flying business class?” - “__________”
A. No, I’d like an aisle seat.
B. No, I’m just on business.
C. No, economy.
D. I’m flying there to attend a party
Question 17: If you watch this film, you _____ about the cultures of Southeast Asian countries.
A. learned
B. would learn
C. will learn
D. were learning
Question 18: Paul noticed a job advertisement while he _____ along the street.
A. walked

B. was walking
C. had walked
D. would walk
Question 19: Solar energy is not widely used _____ it is friendly to the environment.
A. in spite of
B. because of
C. since
D. although
Question 20: The sign warns people _____ the dangers of swimming in this river.
A. with
B. about
C. from
D. to
Question 21: _____, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there.
A. On arrival at the party
B. They had arrived at the party
C. To have attended the party
D. Just attended the party
Question 22: Drinking too much alcohol is said to _____ harm to our health.
A. lead
B. take
C. do
D. make
Question 23: At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a _____ of completion.
A. diploma
B. certificate
C. qualification
D. degree
Question 24: The _____ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great concern to
the government.

A. intensively
B. redundantly
C. excessively
D. marginally
Question 25: Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to _____.
A. possibility
B. opportunity
C. impossible
D. mistake
Question 26: The woman _____when the police told her that her son had died.
A. broke in
B. broke away
C. broke down
D. broke into
Question 27: _____, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. As intelligent the boy was
B. Intelligent as the boy was
C. As the boy was intelligent
D. Intelligent as was the boy
Question 28: . My friend always dreams of having _____.
A. a small red sleeping bag.
B. red sleeping small a bag.
C. small a bag red sleeping.
D. a bad small red sleeping.
Question 29: David graddol, a British linguist, believes that English_____80% of computer- based
communication in the 1990s.
A. accounted for.
B. answered for
C. made over
D. took up

Question 30: _____every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won
B. Having won
C. On winning
D. Winning
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from from 31 to 35
Urbanization programs are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in densely (31) ________
regions with limited land and resources. It is the natural outcome of economic development and
industrialization. It has brought a lot of benefits to our society. However, it also (32) ________ various
problems for local authorities and town planners in the process of maintaining sustainable urbanization,
especially in developing countries.
When too many people cram into a small area, urban infrastructure can't be effective. There will be a (33)
________ of livable housing, energy and water supply. This will create overcrowded urban districts with no


proper facilities. Currently, fast urbanization is taking place predominantly in developing countries where
sustainable urbanization has little relevance to people's lives. Their houses are just shabby slums with poor
sanitation. Their children only manage to get basic education. Hence, the struggle for (34) ________ is their
first priority rather than anything else. Only when the quality of their existence is improved, can they seek
(35)________ other high values in their life.
Question 31: A. numerous B. crowed
C. populated
D. popular
Question 32: A. offers
B. imposes
C. leads
D. poses
Question 33: A. appearance B. plenty
C. lack

D. loss
Question 34: A. survive
B. survival
C. survived
D. survivor
Question 35: A. on
B. with
C. for
D. about
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions from 36 to 37
Question 36: A. liberty
B. final
C. reliable
D. revival
Question 37: A. influenced B. raised
C. introduced
D. developed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges from 38 to 39
Question 38: John: " You're already leaving? The ball is only starting."
- Peter: " But it's very late, so _."
A. It's great fun, thanks
B. Have a good day
C. Goodbye for now
D. Take care
Question 39: John: "Why don't we go to a baseball game?".
- Jimmy:"______".
A. I'd rather go to the art gallery
B. No, thanks. I'd like to sit here

C. It's good to play baseball
D. No, I don't.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions from 40 to 44
The word robot first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek. In the play, a
man makes a machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing its owner. In the
1940s, the American science fiction writer Isaac Asimov wrote a series of stories about robots and
invented the term robotics, the science of robots. Meanwhile, in the real world, the first robots were
developed by an engineer, Joseph F. Engelberger, and an inventor, George C. Devol. Together they
started Unimation, a manufacturing company that produces the first real robot in 1961, called the
Unimate. Robots of this type were installed at a General Motors automobile plant and proved to be a
success. They worked reliably and saved money for General Motors, so other companies were soon
acquiring robots as well.
These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in
science fiction films. In fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans. They were simply
pieces of computer-controlled machinery, with metal “arms” or “hands”. Since they were made of metal,
they could perform certain jobs that were difficult or dangerous for humans, particularly jobs that involve
high heat. And since robots were tireless and never got hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful
for tasks that would be tiring or boring for humans. Industrial robots have been improved over the years,
and today they are used in many factories around the world. Though the use of robots has meant the
loss of some jobs, at the same time other jobs have been created in the design, development, and
production of the robots.
Rise of the Robots, Silicon Valley Entrepreneur, Martin Ford, 1988.
Question 40: What is Unimation?
A. It’s the producer of the first robot
B. It’s the name of a robot inventor
C. It’s the name of a robot
D. It’s a robot making program
Question 41: What can be said about Karel Capek?
A. He was the first to create the word “robot”

B. He is an American writer
C. He made a robot
D. He made a robot in order to kill a person
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots?


A. They are not distracted
B. They are tiring
C. They can do jobs involving high heat
D. They don’t need food
Question 43: What are industrial robots like?
A. They behave like humans
B. They controlled machinery
C. They look like humans
D. They are computer-controlled machines
Question 44: When did the word “robot” appear?
A. in the 1920s
B. in the 40s
C. in the 19th century
D. in the 60s
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions from 45 to 46
Question 45: : The aboriginal people of Australia are experts at survival in an environment with scanty
resources.
A. ordinary
B. natural
C. limited
D. abundant
Question 46: Sometimes , in order to get things done, you have to take the initiative.
A. sacrifice for others

B. make the last decision
C. make important changes
D. raise the first idea
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the bolded part in each of the following questions from 47 to 48
Question 47: He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. wasn’t happy
B. didn’t care
C. showed surprise
D. didn’t want to see
Question 48: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have
academic or personal problems.
A. sympathize
B. please
C. satisfy
D. discourage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions from 49 to 50
Question 49: A. open
B. answer
C. cartoon
D. paper
Question 50: A. knowledgeableB. prosperity
C. certificate
D. development
-----------------------------------------------

----------- HẾT ---------ĐÁP ÁN

1

2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

A
B
D
D
D
D
C
D
B
D

11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19

20

B
A
D
B
A
C
C
B
D
B

21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30

A
C
B
C
B
C

B
A
A
B

31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

C
D
C
B
C
A
B
C
A
A

41
42
43

44
45
46
47
48
49
50

A
B
D
A
C
D
C
D
C
A


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO BẮC NINH

TRƯỜNG THPT TIÊN DU SỐ 1

Đề gồm 5 trang

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN 1
NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021
MÔN: Tiếng Anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60phút (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mã đề 207

Họ và tên học sinh :....................................................................

SBD .................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. New Zealand was the first country ______ women to vote.
A. that give
B. to give
C. gave
D. giving
Question 2. He got a bad mark. He _____have prepared the lesson carefully.
A. shouldn’t
B. wouldn’t
C. should
D. would
Question 3. _____ they do not have much experience, their applications have been approved.
A. So that
B. Although
C. Because
D. As soon as
Question 4. The accused ______ guilty to all charges
A. confessed
B. pleaded
C. said
D. admitted
Question 5. The newspaper did not mention the ________ of the damage caused by the fire
A. amount

B. range
C. quality
D. extent
Question 6. If I ______ to the store later, I’ll get you some milk.
A. was going
B. went
C. go
D. will go
Question 7. Scientist are now beginning to conduct experiments on _____ trigger different sorts of health
risks.
A. noise pollution can
B. how noise pollution
C. how noise pollution can
D. that noise pollution
Question 8. Sportsmen ______ their political differences on the sports field.
A. put aside
B. take apart
C. take place
D. keep apart
Question 9. It is _____ funniest book that I have ever read.
A. an
B. the
C. a
D. X
Question 10. With greatly increased workloads, everyone is ______ pressure now
A. out of
B. above
C. under
D. upon
Question 11. After you ______ your exam, I will take you out to eat. Is it OK ?

A. were finishing
B. finished
C. have finished
D. are finishing
Question 12. I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet of the opera; they’re not really my ______.
A. cup of tea
B. biscuit
C. sweets and candy
D. piece of cake
Question 13. The phone suddenly _____ while Joanna _____ the housework.
A. rang – did
B. was ringing – did
C. was ringing – was doing
D. rang – was doing
Question 14. We hung coloured lights around the room for _____.
A. decorative
B. decoration
C. decorate
D. decorator
Question 15. It is important that he _____ into a good university.
A. gets
B. getting
C. get
D. got
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 16. It was an interested book that I bought at Ngoc Binh Store last Sunday
A. interested
B. last Sunday
C. at

D. that
Question 17. The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have
become extinct have increased.


A. extinct
B. industrialized
C. species
D. have
Question 18. Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for
the surrounding area.
A. to control flooding
B. generating
C. surrounding area
D. irrigation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 19. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967
in Bangkok, Thailand, with Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand, joining
hands initially.
A. officially
B. basically
C. firstly
D. lastly
Question 20. If the examiner can't make sense of what your essay is about, you'll get the low mark.
A. communicate
B. estimate
C. declare
D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three

in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 21. A. climate
B. greenhouse
C. footprint
D. upset
Question 22. A. infectious
B. atmosphere
C. chemical
D. consequence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 23. My father is less friendly than my mother.
A. My father is not as friendly as my mother.
B. My father is more friendly than my mother.
C. My mother is not as friendly as my father.
D. My mother is less friendly than my father.
Question 24. “I bought these books last week”. He said
A. He said he had bought these books last week.
B. He said he had bought those books the week before.
C. He said he bought these books last week.
D. He said he bought these books the week before.
Question 25. She probably buys this house next week.
A. She doesn’t have to buy this house next week.
B. She may buy this house next week.
C. She should buy next house next week.
D. She must buy this house next week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 26. You can stay in the flat for free. You pay the bills.
A. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.

B. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
C. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.
D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.
Question 27. It is such an interesting book. I have read it three times
A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times.
B. Such interesting was book that I have read it three times.
C. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times.
D. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct


answer to each of the questions.
In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the child. In
Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept. There,
her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name.
In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide
world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation
ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they learn
the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children from nine to
twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several tests.
Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts about
three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become young
warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised. At the second stage,
the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting the
wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they will
marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are fourteen or
fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies. Soon after
that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers.
Question 28. What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the young warriors

B. the cattle owners
C. the Maasai herds
D. the wild animals
Question 29. The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. explore
B. participate in
C. experience
D. commence
Question 30. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough.
B. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother.
C. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family.
D. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world.
Question 31. Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child?
A. at their house
B. at the village church
C. on the cattle farm
D. near the thorn fence
Question 32. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa
B. Activities in a birth celebration
C. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby
D. Celebrations in Africa
Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 33. A. worked
B. trained
C. stopped
D. missed
Question 34. A. dynasty
B. royal

C. intact
D. citadel
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 35. Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving.
~ Linda: “I think drink-driving should be severely punished.”
~ Peter "............. . It may cause accidents or even deaths.”
A. I don’t understand what you mean.
B. I don’t think so.
C. I absolutely agree with you.
D. You must be kidding.
Question 36. A porter is talking to Mary in the hotel lobby.
~ Porter: “May I help you with your suitcase?”


~ Mary: “..............”
A. You’re welcome.
B. What a shame!
C. Yes, please.
D. Me too.
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to the following questions.
Foot racing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as
a way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good cause.
Though serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers might not train
at all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun
and exercise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who may be pushed in strollers) to those
in their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college campuses, through
parks, and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest foot race in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco

every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west side
at the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the streets and hills
of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might finish in as little
as 34 minutes. Behind them are the thousands 20 who take several hours to finish. In the back of the race
are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who dressed
like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in a long line and
who were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a long
white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and they
were actually married at some point along the route.
Question 37. The phrase “to a good cause” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. for an award
B. for a good purpose
C. to reward the winner
D. to protect a wise investment
Question 38. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. cause and result
B. specific to general
C. chronological order
D. statement and example
Question 39. The word “activity” in the first paragraph is most similar to which of the following?
A. motion
B. pursuit
C. expectation
D. pilgrimage
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners were serious about winning.
B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.
C. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley.
D. Some runners were participating in a wedding.
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT implied by the author?

A. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization.
B. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
C. Foot races appeal to a variety of people.
D. Walkers can compete for prizes.
Question 42. The word “bystander” refers to __________.
A. a participant
B. a judge
C. a spectator
D. a walker
Question 43. The main purpose of this passage is to ________________________.
A. give reasons for the popularity of the foot races
B. describe a popular activity
C. encourage people to exercise
D. make fun of runners in costume
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in


each of the following questions.
Question 44. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. relaxed about
B. interested in
C. busy with
D. free from
Question 45. He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies.
A. concealed
B. betrayed
C. declared
D. disowned
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced
every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (46) ______ more harm than
good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers. Presumably, most parents (47)
______ are always worrying about their children’s safety buy mobile phones for them to track their whereabouts.
We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact. In this
context, the advantages are clear. (48) ________, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by
bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (49) ________ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What employee, on the
way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us, according
to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office.
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally speaking,
they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (50) _______. They also
provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.
Question 46. A. brought
B. played
C. done
D. made
Question 47. A. whom
B. what
C. which
D. who
Question 48. A. Moreover
B. Therefore
C. However
D. So that
Question 49. A. arguable
B. doubtless
C. unhesitating
D. indisputable
Question 50. A. warning

B. time
C. term
D. notice
------ END -----ĐÁP ÁN
1

B

6

C

11

C

16

A

21

D

26

D

31

C

36

C

41

B

46

C

2

C

7

C

12

A

17

D

22

A

27

A

32

A

37

B

42

C

47

D

3

B

8

A

13

D

18

B

23

A

28

A

33

B

38

D

43

B

48

C

4

B

9

B

14

B

19

C

24

B

29

C

34

C

39

B

44

D

49

D

5

D

10

C

15

C

20

D

25

B

30

C

35

C

40

B

45

A

50

D


SỞ GD-ĐT PHÚ YÊN
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM 2020 (MINH HỌA)
TRƯỜNG THCS & THPT NGUYỄN KHUYẾN Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. wicked
B. watched C. stopped D. cooked
Question 2: A. head
B. bread
C. clean
D. spread
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. personality B. appropriate
C. information
D. entertainment
Question 4: A. remind
B. number
C. compaint
D. approach
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: When he was a boy, one of his _____ was collecting stamp.
A. hobbies
B. cares
C. sports
D. profession
Question 6: I gave the waiter 50,000 VND and waited for my _____
A. supply
B. change
C. cash
D. cost
Question 7:That’s the first time _____an answer right today

A. I get
B. I’m getting
C. I have got D. cost
Question 8: When I last _________ Jane, she ________ to find a job
A. see/ was trying
B. saw/ was trying C. have seen/ tried
D. saw/tried
Question 9: Just let me ______ which day your parents will arrive and I’ll be glad _____ them
around Hanoi.
A. know/ to show
B. to know/ to show C. know/ showing
D. knowing/ to show
Question 10: The man asked the boys _________
A. why did they fight
B. why they were fighting
C. why the fight
D. why were they fighting
Question 11: - "That's a very nice skirt you're wearing."
-“
______”
A. How a compliment!
B. That's all right.
C. It's nice of you to say so. D. I like you said
so.
Question 15: You’ve just had breakfast , ?
A. do you
B. would you
C. don't you
D. haven't you
Question 13: UNICEF

supports and funds for the most disadvantaged children all over the
world.
A. presents
B. assists
C. provides
D. offers
Question 14: I am sending you my curriculum vitae _____ you will have a chance to study it
before our interview.
A. so that
B. because
C. for
D. since
Question 15: Jake, the boy who sat beside me in class, used to wear _ shirt to school.
A. an old cotton white
B. an old white cotton
C. a white cotton old
D. a cotton old white
Question 16: Without your help, I
the technical problem with my computer the other day.
A. can’t solve
B. couldn’t have solved
C. wouldn’t solve
D. could solve
Question 17:
broken several world records in swimming.


A. She is said to have
B. People say she had
C. It is said to have

D. She is said that she has
Question 18: -John: “ Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?”- Mike: “
”.
A. I wouldn’t like. Thank you.
B. Do you think I would?
C. Yes, you’re a good friend.
D. Yes, I’d love to. Thanks.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: She left school and immediately started to make her own way without help from her
family.
A. find her living B.try her living
C. hold her living
D.earn her living
Question 20: Yes, we went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.
A. every single day B. every other day
C. every second day D.every two days
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: He is a typical optimist, always looking on the bright side of everything.
A. pessimist
B. introvert
C. extrovert
D. activist
Question 22: When I was going shopping yesterday, I accidentally met one of my old friends in
high school.
A. by far
B. by heart
C. by chance
D. on purpose

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 23 to 29.
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of
the world's largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake
Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is
able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by
geothermal heat from the earth's core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from
the frigid temperatures on the surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of
the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of
indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made
scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely
flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the
scientific community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have
survived for thousands upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and
elevated ultraviolet light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the
discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate
and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without
actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish
this.
Question 23: What is true of Lake Vostok?
A. It is completely frozen.
B. It is a saltwater lake.
C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice.
D. It is heated by the sun.
Question 24: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it
.
A. was conducted by air
B. made use of radio waves

C. could not determine the lake's exact size
D. was controlled by a satellite
Question 25: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if
.


A. there were no lake underneath
B. the lake were not so big
C. Antarctica were not so cold
D. radio waves were not used
Question 26: The word "microbes" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. Pieces of dust
B. Tiny bubbles
C. Tiny organisms
D. Rays of light
Question 27: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it
A. can be studied using radio waves
B. may contain uncontaminated microbes
C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light
D. has already been contaminated
Question 28: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of
A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica
B. problems with satellite-borne radar
equipment
C. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating itD. the harsh climate of Antarctica
Question 29: The purpose of the passage is to .
A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered
B. provide satellite data concerning
Antarctica

C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica's geography
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 37
Pollution emitted in industrial areas represents a threat to human health and the surrounding
natural resources. We have a tendency to believe that the production processes are the only source
of environmental damage, and often forget about the possible long-term effects of harmful
production practices. We may think that the closure of these huge industrial areas would improve
the quality of the environment. Unfortunately, this ignores the threat of the remaining waste, which
is abandoned and poorly stored. It represents an even bigger danger because it stands neglected as it
degrades and leaks into the earth without any control at all.
Changes in the water chemistry due to surface water contamination can affect all levels of an
ecosystem. It can affect the health of lower food chain organisms and, consequently, the availability
of food up through the food chain. It can damage the health of wetlands and damage their ability to
support healthy ecosystems, control flooding, and filter pollutants from storm water runoff. The
health of animals and humans are affected when they drink or bathe in contaminated water. In
addition water-based organisms, like fish and shellfish, can pile up and concentrate contaminants in
their bodies. When other animals or humans eat these organisms, they receive a much higher dose of
contaminant than they would have if they had been directly exposed to the original contamination.
Contaminated groundwater can badly affect animals, plants and humans if it is removed from
the ground by manmade or natural processes. Depending on the study of rocks of the area,
groundwater may rise to the surface through springs or seeps, flow sideways into nearby rivers,
streams, or ponds, or sink deeper into the earth. In many parts of fhe world, groundwater is pumped
out of the ground to be used for drinking, bathing, other household uses, agriculture, and industry.
Contaminants in the soil can harm plants when they take up the contamination through their
roots. Eating, breathing in, or touching contaminated soil, as well as eating plants or animals that
have piled up soil contaminants can badly affect the health of humans and animals.
Air pollution can cause breathing-related problems and other bad health effects as
contaminants are absorbed from the lungs into other parts of the body. Certain air contaminants can
also harm animals and humans when they contact the skin. Plants rely on breathing for their growth
and can also be affected by exposure to contaminants moved in the air.

(Source: Adapted from />

Question 30: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Sources of environmental damage
B. The pollution from the city
C. Bad effects of industrial waste
D. The quality of the environment
Question 31: According to the passage, the industry is likely to be thought as______.
A. a danger to the environment
B. the only source of pollution
C. the utmost harmful activity
D. a threat to human health
Question 32: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to______.
A. the remaining waste
B. a danger
C. the environment
D. the threat of the remaining waste
Question 33: Which of the followings affect an ecosystem as the whole?
A. Surface water contamination
B. Soil contamination
C. Groundwater contamination
D. Air contamination
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the followings supports healthy ecosystems?
A. Lower food chain organisms B. Animals C. Water-based organisms D. Wetlands
Question 35: Which of the followings is NOT badly affected by contaminated groundwater?
A. Human
B. Plants
C. Rocks
D. Animals
Question 36: Which of the followings is the flow of water from the ground to the surface?

A. Streams
B. Ponds
C. Rivers
D. Springs
Question 37: Whichof the followings has the closest meaning to the word “absorbed” in the last
paragraph?
A. Consumed
B. Taken in
C. Swallowed
D. Piled up
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A trend that has emerged recently is the sharing of childcare (38) __________ between
husband and wife. Young couples will try to arrange their work schedules so that they work
opposite hours or shifts in order that one parent is always home with the children. Since childcare is
expensive, this saves money for the young couple trying to establish themselves and provide a
secure environment for the family. Husband and wife may also share household chores. Some
fathers are just as capable as mothers at cooking dinner, changing and bathing the baby, and doing
the laundry.
In some cases, the woman’s salary is for family (39) __________ and the father becomes the
“househusband." These cases are still fairly rare. One positive trend, however, is that fathers seem to
be spending more time with their children. In a recent survey, 41% of the children sampled said they
spend equal time with their mothers and fathers. “This is one of our most significant cultural
changes,” says Dr. Leon Hoffman, who co-directs the
Parent Child Center at the New York Psychoanalytic Society. In practice, for over 30 years,
Hoffman has found "a very dramatic difference in the involvement of the father in everything from
care-taking to general decision (40) __________ around kids' lives.”
Another factor has recently been added to the childcare formula. The number of people who work
from home nearly full-time rose 23% from the last decade. The (41) _________ of technology computers, faxes, teleconferencing - has made it easier for at-home workers to be constantly in

touch. Will this new flexibility in the workforce bring a positive change for the (42) __________ of
children? Only time will tell.
Question 38:A. abilities
B. possibilities
C. techniques D. responsibilities
Question 39: A. payment
B. expenses
C. fares
D. fees


Question 40: A. making
B. creating
C. holding
D. giving
Question 41: A. accessible
B. accessibly
C. access
D. accessibility
Question 42: A. well-being
B. security
C. comfort
D. interests
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined, part that needs
correction.
Question 43: Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the
A
B
C
earth’s rotation changes slightly over years.

D
Question 44: On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-topped mountains morethan a
mile
A
B
C
D
beneath sea level.
Question 45: My sister told me that she had met my teacher at the supermarket yesterday.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: He did not work hard. He failed the exam.
A. Even though he failed the exam, he didn’t work hard.
B. Unless he had worked hard, he would have failed the exam.
C. If he had worked hard, he would have passed the exam.
D. However hard he worked, he failed the exam.
Question 47: Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.
A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.
B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.
C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.
D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questionsor indicate the correct answer to each of them.
Question 48: Although he was able to do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
A. The position wasn’t given to him in spite of his ability to do the job.
B. He was given neither the job nor the position.

C. Because he couldn’t do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
D. He got the position despite being unable to do the job.
Question 49: “You’re always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes,
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Question 50: The criminal is believed to be living abroad
A. There’s a belief that that the criminal should be living abroad.
B. It is believed that the criminal is living abroad.
C. The belief is that the criminal should be living abroad.
D. It believes that the criminal is living abroad.


Đáp án
1-A
11-C
21-A
31-B
41-D

2-C
12-D
22-D
32-A
42-A

3-B
13-C
23-C

33-A
43-A

4-B
14-A
24-D
34-D
44-B

5-A
15-B
25-A
35-C
45-D

6-B
16-B
26-C
36-D
46-C

7-C
17-A
27-B
37-B
47-C

8-B
18-D
28-C

38-D
48-A

9-A
19-D
29-D
39-B
49-C

10-B
20-A
30-C
40-A
50-D