Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm học 20222023

“Đề thi HSG giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2022-2023”

PHỊNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HUYỆN THIỆU HỐ
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN
NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023
MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh-Lớp 8
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 22/03/2023

(Đề thi gồm 06 trang)

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
* Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, trước mỗi phần nghe thí sinh có 30 giây để
đọc nội dung bài nghe, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
* Thí sinh đọc kỹ đề bài (bằng tiếng Anh) trước khi nghe.

Link tải file nghe:
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Part I: Listening to a woman calling a local museum about children's art and craft
workshops. Fill each of the gaps with no more than TWO words and/ or a number. You will
listen TWICE. (5 points)
CHILDREN'S ART AND CRAFT WORKSHOPS
Example
Answer
Workshops organised every: Saturday
• Adults must accompany children under (1) _____________
• Cost: £2.50

• Workshops held in: Winter House, (2) _____________ Street
• Security device: must push the (3) _____________ to open door
• Should leave car behind the (4) ________________
• Book workshops by phoning the (5) _____________ (on 200765)
Part II: Listen to a conversation between a mother and her son about preparing for exams
and decide which of the following statements is True (T) or false (F). You will listen TWICE.
(5 points)
6. Richard thinks that last-minute studying is best.
T
F
7. With his present system, Richard will be able to revise everything.
T
F
8. Richard agrees that his present lifestyle is crazy.
T
F
9. Coffee and chocolate help Richard to work better
T
F
10. Richard has been exercising properly.
T
F
Part III: Listen to a radio interview with a volcanologist and circle the correct answer (A, B,
C, or D) to each of the following questions. You will listen TWICE. (5 points)
11. What the scientist finds the most amazing about volcanoes is the fact that ______.
A. they can kill a large number of people very quickly
B. you never know when they will erupt
C. volcanoes have enormous power
D. their eruptions are highly predictable.
12. Mount Etna is called the “Friendly Giant” because_____________

A. it is very big.
B. everyone has heard of it. C. it rarely kills people. D. it looks terrible
13. Mount Etna has killed_______________
A. 73 people.
B. 69 people.
C. 3,000 people.
D. 4,000 people
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14. Mount Fuji in Japan is the________________ volcano on that site.
A. 2nd
B. 1st
C. 3rd
D. 4th
15. The word “volcano” comes from Italian meaning “__________”.
A. a burnt mountain B. a falling mountain C. a burning mountain D. a forming mountain
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 points)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the rest. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (3 points)
16. A. addicted
B. canal
C. abandon
D. explanation
17. A. leisure
B. socialise

C. satisfied
D. pasture
18. A. sacred
B. arrived
C. invited
D. beloved
Question II. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) next to the word whose main stress is placed
differently from the others. (2 points)
19. A. curious
B. project
C. diverse
D. preserve
20. A. oceanic
B. generation
C. recognise
D. recommend
SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)
Question I. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C, or D to complete
each sentence below. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
21. I think he will join us to, ________ ?
A. don’t I
B. won’t he
C. will he
D. do I
22. Does she fancy ____________a book to the younger children?
A. reads
B. reading
C. to read
D. read
23. Her English accent is so good that she is thought of as a________speaker.

A. natural
B. official
C. non-native
D. native
24. Don’t tell Mary your plans or she will tell everyone. She is always _____her mouth off.
A. shooting
B. talking
C. speaking
D. eating
25. “Nha Ba Nu” (Nu’s Family) has become_________ the highest-grossing films in the
Vietnamese film history.
A. by far
B. by many
C. by long
D. by much
26. You should eat less and do more exercise. ________, you won’t lose weight.
A. If only
B. Otherwise
C. Or
D. Unless
27. You couldn’t possibly visit Paris without seeing _______ Eiffel Tower.
A. Ø
B. a
C. an
D. the
28. Without__________, all the resources necessary for life would be damaged, wasted or
destroyed.
A. preservation
B. conservation
C. maintenance

D. protection
29. Whenever I have to speak in public, I get_______________in my stomach.
A. worms
B. butterflies
C. crabs
D. mosquitoes
30. Ann: “Do you mind if I take a seat here ?”
Brian: “____________.”
A. Yes, I don’t mind
B. No, do as you please
C. No, I don’t mind
D. Yes, do as you please
Question II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in the blanks (7 points)
31. All our beautiful forests (destroy) if we do nothing to protect them.
32. Vietnamese football team (play) better, they wouldn’t have left the 2023 AFC U20 Asian
Cup so early.
33. Henry was very lucky when he fell off the ladder yesterday. He (hurt) himself badly.
34. By the time my mother came back home, I (finish) all my assigments.
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35. My hometown seems (change) dramatically since the local authorities carried out New
Rural Development program.
36. It is important that teenagers (equip) with proper vocational guidance at their early age.
37. I’m so excited to go to the live show of my idol at the local threatre. The show (start) at 8
p.m tommorrow.

Question III. Give the correct form of the word in CAPITAL to complete the following
sentences. Write the answer on your answer sheet. (8 points)
38. If thermal pollution continues for a long time, it can _______
POSSIBLE
cause huge bacteria.
39. Ethnic______make up about 15 percent of Vietnam’s population.
MINOR
40. Lionel Messi always performs excellently in the football field. He
ARGUE
is,
, one of the best football players of all times.
41. The female vocalist sang to the __________of a guitar
COMPANION
42. In the past, people thought that Chung cake was square and
SYMBOL
________the earth
43. This bread is completely free from artificial __________
PRESERVE
44. We can’t tell which team will win. The result is so _______.
PREDICT
45. Is it possible to _________between customs and traditions?
DISTINCT
Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text (from 46 to 50). Identify each mistake,
write it down and give your correction. (5 points)
Example: Line 0: annualannually
Hung King Temple festival is annual held from 8th to 11th of the third month in
Line 0
lunar calendar with the main festival day fallen on 10th on which Vietnamese
Line 1
working people are given the right to have a day off. As other festivals in the

Line 2
northern part of Viet Nam, this festival includes two parts: the incense-offering
Line 3
ceremony and the recreational activities. The former, an important part of the
Line 4
festival, is held at Upper temple to express the respect and gratitude of “Dragon
Line 5
and Fairy descendants” with the ancestors. Sacrifices consist of many things such Line 6
as Chung cake, Day cake and a lavish five-fruits tray. After hearing the sound of
Line 7
an old bronze drum, the state representatives, followed by the elders around and
Line 8
pilgrims will conduct the incense-offering rite. The later carries out jubilantly
Line 9
around the temples with a mixture of both traditional and modern activities.
Line 10
Hung Temple festival has become a symbol of the strength of national unity, one
Line 11
connection between past and present by "remember the resource while drinking
Line 12
water" ethnics.
Line 13
(Adapted from />SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION
Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph. Write
the answer on your answer sheet. (10 points)
Turkey has __( 51)___hit by another earthquake just weeks after a tremor devastated the
country and left 48,000 people __( 52)___. The magnitude 5.6 earthquake was centred in the
town of Yesilyurt in Malatya province in southern Turkey. Yesilyurt's mayor, Mehmet Cinar,
told HaberTurk television that a few buildings had collapsed in the town. The country’s disaster
management agency said. There were no___(53) ___reports of casualties; ___( 54)___, at least

110 people have been injured. The disaster management agency has confirmed that 29
buildings have been destroyed in the latest quake. Malatya was among 11 Turkish provinces hit
hard by the magnitude 7.8 earthquake___(55)__devastated parts of south Turkey and northen
Syria __( 56)__ February 6. That quake led to __( 57)__ than 48,000 deaths in ___(
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58)___countries as well as the collapse or serious___(59) ___of 173,000 buildings in Turkey.
Since then, the country has been hit by a number of aftershocks that___(60)___ to more
devastation.
(Adapted from />Question II. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the gaps in the
passage below. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
More Great Uses for Mobile Phones in Class
Since mobile phones’ explosion in popularity, many schools have opposed, even banned
their use in the classroom. Yet, an increasing ___(61)____of educators are now___(62)____to
cell phones in order to bolster student engagement and learning. ___(63)____mobile- phone
use should be limited to situations ___(64)____the technnology genuinely enhances
instructions, the advanced functionality of today’s cell phones makes them ideal for 21 st
century lessons. For example, many schools use these ___(65)____to poll students in class via
text message.
Some schools encourage students to use their phones cameras to snap pictures for use as
inspiration in art classes. ___(66)____allows students to capture photographs of a post- lecture
whiteboard. In secondary schools, kids can grab a detailed image of a teacher’s notes on the
board and email it themselves, resulting ___(67)____incredible study tool.
On field___(68)____, students can participate in scavenger hunts by snapping pictures
of items on a teacher- supplied list. Mobile phones can also help facilitate class discussion.

Teachers might ask student to run a Google Search for information on a particular topic. An
___(69)____to presenting the information via lecture or having students read it from a
textbook, discussion- integrated web searchers are___(70)____ more engaging, increasing the
odds that students will retain the information.
61. A. amount
B. number
C. lot
D. few
62. A. getting
B. running
C. turning
D. moving
63. A. Despite
B. Because
C. While
D. Therefore
64. A. where
B. which
C. what
D. when
65. A. devices
B. equipment
C. instruments
D. appliances
66. A. Another
B. Others
C. The Others
D. Other
67. A. from
B. to

C. at
D. in
68. A. journeys
B. trips
C. excursions
D. vacations
69. A. alternation
B. alternative
C. alterable
D. alter
70. A. Potentially
B. potentiality
C. potential
D. potentialise
(Adapted from )
Question III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each
question. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare
mountains and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many
of the most beautiful areas are national parks and are protected from development. When
British people think of the countryside they think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They
imagine cows or sheep in green fields enclosed by hedges or stone walls, and fields of wheat
and barley. Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a network of public footpaths.
Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free
time walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer
people go to fruit farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the
country work on farms. Many commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the
country, where they believe they would have a better and healthier lifestyle.
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The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming
practices, and the use of chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new
houses. The green belt, an area of land around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans
to build new roads are strongly opposed by organizations trying to protect the countryside.
Protesters set up camps to prevent, or at least delay, the building work.
America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas,
especially in the West in states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New
England states, such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms
surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states,
fields of corn or wheat reach to the horizon and there are many miles between towns.
Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for
people who live in the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and
going shopping can mean driving long distances. Some people even have to drive from their
homes to the main road where their mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantages, many
people who live in the country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But
their children often move to a town or city as soon as they can. As in Britain, Americans like to
go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on camping or fishing trips, others go
hiking in national parks.
(Adapted from />71. We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain
A. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another
B. only a few farms are publicly owned
C. none of the areas faces the sea
D. most beautiful areas are not well preserved
72. The word “enclosed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. surrounded

B. embraced C. blocked
D. rotated
73. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside of
Britain?
A. Riding a bicycle
B. Going for a walk
C. Going swimming
D. Picking fruit
74. What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Those who dream of living in the country
B. Those who go to the country for a picnic
C. Those who commute to work in towns
D. Those who go to fruit farms in summer
75. Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?
A. Protests against the building work
B. Plants and wildlife
C. Modern farming practices
D. The green belt around cities
76. The phrase “associated with” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. separated from B. supported by
C. related to D. referred to
77. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT
A. the green belt is under pressure because of the need for land.
B. the use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside.
C. camps are set up by protesters to stop the construction work
D. all organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction
78. The phrase “reach to the horizon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. are varied B. are endless C. are horizontal
D. are limited
79. According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in country because_____

A. life there may be easier for them.
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B. hospitals, schools, shops are conveniently located there.
C. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there.
D. they have a better and healthier lifestyle there.
80. Which of the followings can be inferred from the passage?
A. Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside.
B. American children do not enjoy rural life as much as their parents
C. The minority of American people live in cities and towns.
D. Towns in some Midwestern states in the US are separated by short distances.
SECTION E: WRITING (20 points)
Question I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
81. I haven’t visited my grandparents for 2 months
It is 2 months ______________________________________________________________
82. I prefer going out for a meal to staying at home
I’d rather________________________________________________________________
83. This is the most delicious dish that I have ever had.
I have never had____________________________________________________________
84. People believe that her daughter was attacked by an armed man on the way home.
Her daugter is believed _______________________________________________________
85. We could solve this maths problem because our teacher explained carefully.
But for____________________________________________________________________
Question II. Rewrite each of the following sentences using the given word in brackets so that

it keeps the same meaning. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
86. My parents are proud of my brother’s contribution to the community.
________________________________________________________________(PRIDE)
87. My sister bought a second – hand car last year. She regrets it now.
________________________________________________________________(WISHES)
88. I wrote down his telephone number because I did not want to forget it.
_______________________________________________________________(ORDER)
89. Many Americans strongly disagree with government about banning TikTok on federal
devices.
________________________________________________________(DISAGREEMENT)
90. Ha Long Bay is said to be among top 25 most beautiful places in the world.
_______________________________________________________ (REPUTATION)
Question III. Writing a paragraph on the following topic. (10 points)
Write a paragraph (130-150 words) about the ways to reduce water pollution.
.............................THE END ...........................
Họ và tên thí sinh:.......................................................
SBD:....................
Cán bộ coi thi khơng cần giải thích gì thêm.

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PHỊNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THIỆU HỐ
ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8
NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Ngày thi: 22/03/2023
(Đáp án gồm 06 trang)

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 points)
Part I: Listening to a woman calling a local museum about children's art and craft
workshops. Fill each of the gaps with no more than TWO words and/ or a number. You will
listen TWICE. (5 points)
1. 8 ( eight) 2. (in/on) Tamer
3. green button
4. library
5. education department
Part II: Listen to a conversation between a mother and her son about preparing for exams
and decide which of the following statements is True (T) or false (F). You will listen TWICE.
(5 points)
6. F
7. F
8. T
9. T
10. F
Part III: Listen to a radio interview with a volcanologist and circle the correct answer (A, B,
C, or D) to each of the following questions.
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. C
15. C
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 points)

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the rest. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (3 points)
16.B. canal
17. A. leisure
18. B. arrived
Question II. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) next to the word whose main stress is placed
differently from the others. (2 points)
19. A. curious
20 C. recognise
SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)
Question I. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C, or D to complete
each sentence below. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
21. B. won’t he
22. B. reading
23. D. native
24. A. shooting
25. A. by far.
26. B. Otherwise
27. D. the
28. B. conservation
29. B. butterflies
30. B. No, do as you please
Question II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in the blanks (7 points)
31. will be destroyed
32. Had …… played
33. could/might /may have hurt
34. had finished
35. to have changed
36. (should) be equipped
37. starts

Question III. Give the correct form of the word in CAPITAL to complete the following
sentences. Write the answer on your answer sheet. (8 points)
38. possibly
39. minorities
40. unarguably
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41. accompaniment
44. unpredictable

42. symbolized/symbolised
45. distinguish

43. preservatives

Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text (from 46 to 50). Identify each mistake,
write it down and give your correction. (5 points)
Line
Mistake
Correction
46.
1
fallen
falling
47.

2
As
Like
48.
6
with
to
49.
7
five-fruits
five-fruit
50.
9
later
latter
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION
Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph. Write
the answer on your answer sheet. (10 points)
51. been
52. dead
53. immediate
54. However
55. which/that
56. on
57. more
58. two/both
59. damage/destruction/devastation
60. led
Question II. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the gaps in the
passage below. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)

61. B
62. C
63. C
64. A
65.A
66. B
67. D
68. B
69. B
70.A
Question III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each
question. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
71. B
72. A
73. C
74. A
75. C
76. C
77. D
78. B
79. C
80. B
SECTION E: WRITING (20 points)
Question I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
81. It is 2 months since I (last) visited my grandparents..
82. I’d rather go out for a meal than stay at home.
83. I have never had such a delicious dish (like this/that)
OR: I have never had so delicious a dish (like this/that)
OR: I have never had a more delicious dish than this one.

84. Her daugter is believed to have been attacked by an armed man on the way home.
85. But for our teacher’s careful explanation, we could not have solved this maths problem.
OR: But for our teacher explaining carefully, we could not have solved this maths problem.
Question II. Rewrite each of the following sentences using the given word in brackets so that
it keeps the same meaning. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
86. My parents take pride in my brother’s contribution to the community.
87. My sister wishes that she had not bought a second – hand car last year.
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88. I wrote down his telephone number in order not to forget it.
OR: In order not to forget his telephone number, I wrote it down
OR: I wrote down his telephone number in order that I would not forget it.
89. Many Americans are in strong disagreement with government about /over/on banning
TikTok on federal devices
OR: Many Americans have a strong disagreement with government about/over /on banning
TikTok on federal devices
90. Ha Long Bay has a reputation for/ of being among top 25 most beautiful places in the
world.
Question III. Paragraph writing (10 pts)
Marking scheme:
1. Content:
4.0
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required.
points
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.

2. Organization & Presentation:
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language:
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language lower-secondary school students.
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling:
a. Intelligible handwriting.
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

3.0
points
2.0
points
1.0
point

B. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài: 100 điểm
- Thang điểm:
20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
Điểm bài thi
=
5
C. AUDIO SCRIPT
Part I: Listening to a woman calling a local museum about children's art and craft
workshops. Fill each of the gaps with no more than TWO words and/ or a number. You will
listen TWICE. (5 points)

Good morning, Synmouth Museum. Can I help you?
MAN:
Oh yes. Good morning. I’m interested in the children’s workshops and I'd like a
WOMAN:
little more information, please.
Do you mean the Art and Craft workshops?
MAN:
Yes. A friend of a friend mentioned them - the children do painting and make
WOMAN:
models and so forth.
Yes, of course. Um, where to begin? First of all, as you probably know, they run
MAN:
every Saturday .
WOMAN:Fine. And what about ages?
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Well, all ages from five upwards are welcome, though we do ask that children
below eight years of age are accompanied by an adult.
WOMAN:Fine. That wouldn’t be a problem. What about cost?
Well, 1 think you’ll find them very reasonable. It’s £2.50 a child, with 80 pence off
MAN:
for two or more children from the same family.
WOMAN:Oh yes, very reasonable. And are they held in the main museum?
Not exactly. They’re nearby.
MAN:

WOMAN:Could you give me the full address? I don’t know the area very well.
Yes, it’s Winter House.
MAN:
WOMAN:Right.
And that’s in Tamer Street.
MAN:
WOMAN:Could you spell that please?
Yes. T-A-M-E-R Street.
MAN:
WOMAN:Lovely.
And I do need to tell you that there’s a security entrance, so you need to press
the green button for someone to let you in. Don't press the red button please, but
MAN:
don’t worry, it’s all clearly labelled.
OK. And one more question - is parking available nearby? We’re driving in from
WOMAN:
out of town.
Your best bet is to leave your car at the back of the library - on a Saturday
MAN:
morning there are plenty of spaces there. It’s right next door to the museum.
WOMAN:And can I ask about booking places?
Yes, and I must tell you, you really should book by calling the education
MAN:
department here.
WOMAN:Oh, I’m sorry, should I have rung them instead of the main museum number?
No, that’s fine this time, please don’t worry. But for future reference, I’ll give you
MAN:
the direct number. It’s two hundred-seven-six-five.
WOMAN:Great, I’ve got that.)
MAN:

Part II: Listen to a conversation between a mother and her son about preparing for exams
and decide which of the following statements is True (T) or false (F). You will listen TWICE.
(5 points)
M: Here's another mug of coffee. Do you know it’s already a quarter to midnight?
S: Thanks, Mum. I don’t know why I always seem to end up studying at the last minute. I
know it’s silly, and it’s not a good idea. Cramming in facts late at night until the early hours...
M: What you need is a revision timetable. You know, a month or so before the exams start, you
should sit down and plan all the work you have to do, and how much you are going to do each
day. If you did that, you wouldn’t end up working in the middle of the night...
S: Mmmmm ... at the moment I’m just studying the things that I think are likely to come
up. Three or four for each subject. A group of us got together and discussed this ...
M: But is that not a huge risk?
S: Yes, of course it is ... but I haven’t got time to cover the whole course ...
M: And you know, the way you’re doing things at the moment is crazy. Not just from the
work point of view ... but everything. Studying late, getting up late, not eating properly...
S: You’re right. And I’m drinking far too much coffee, and probably eating too much chocolate
too, but they make me feel wide awake, so I’m able to study better...
M: That’s because they’re stimulants. How do you feel after the effect has worn off?
S: W ell... I suppose I just keep taking more. But it’s very hard to get to sleep afterwards, and
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almost impossible to get up in the morning ...
M: You need proper rest ... and exercise. When was the last time you went for a jog .. . or
even went for a walk? And you haven’t been to basketball practice for weeks! If your body is

in such bad shape how can you expect your mind to work properly?
S: Yes, I know ... I [fade]
PART III : Listen to a radio interview with a volcanologist and circle the correct answer (A,
B, C, or D) to each of the following questions.
A: ... and I’d like to welcome Dr Joe Purdy of the Institute for Scientific Research ...
B: Thank you...
A: Dr Purdy, what would you say is the most striking thing about volcanoes?
B: Well, volcanoes are a very powerful natural phenomenon. And of course they can cause a
village with hundreds of people to disappear in seconds. But for me, what is most amazing
about them is the fact that they can erupt at any time, without any warning ...
A: Yes ...
B: But now scientists are working on the idea that volcanic eruptions are related to the moon ...
A: The moon? Can this be possible?
B: Well, they think that the moon may effect volcanic eruptions. For example, a volcano is
more likely to erupt when there is a full moon. This is a very old idea, but it has never been
tested until recently ...
A: I see ...
A: But not all volcanoes are dangerous killers ...
B: Really?
A: Take Mount Etna, in Sicily. Everybody has heard of Mount Etna. It’s called the "Friendly
Giant", not because it’s big - though it is - but because its lava moves very slowly. This gives
people time to escape. It’s not a killer volcano ... even though it looks terrible during its
eruptions ... B: Oh, I didn’t know that about its lava ...
A: It’s true. Also, people have recorded the deaths caused by Mount Etna for over three
thousand years, and it has only killed seventy-three people in all that time. That’s not very
many when you think about it, though there was a large eruption in sixteen sixty-nine ... but
nobody recorded any deaths ...
B: Amazing...
A: Volcanoes are always changing ... for example, the cone, that’s the channel the lava flows
through, can close up and a new cone can form. A new cone is actually a new volcano. On the

site of Mount Fuji in Japan, there were two other volcanoes there before the present one
...
B: Amazing!
A: Mount Fuji is actually a very popular place for tourists, including the Japanese. It has about
four hundred thousand visitors a year. In the summer, there can be twenty thousand a day ...
B: And can you tell us about the word "volcano" itself?
A: Yes ... it comes from the Italian word "vulcano" which means "burning mountain",
and that comes from the Latin "Vulcanus". All "burning mountains", like Vesuvius and Mount
Fiji, were given this name, but the name "Vulcanus" was first given by the Romans to Mount
Etna because they thought that it was the home of the god Vulcanus ...
----------------- THE END -----------------

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PHỊNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI
NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 8
Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 21 tháng 02 năm 2023

Part A : LISTENING (15pts )

Part I. Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (5 pts)

Link tải file nghe:
/>
VIDEO LIBRARY APPLICATION FORM
Jones
Louise Cynthia
Apartment 1, (1) ______ Black Street, Highbridge
(2) _______
(3) _______
(home)
9456 1309
(work)
Driver's (4) ______ number:
2020 BD
Date of birth:
Day: 25th
Month: (5) ______ Year: 1977
Part II. A young woman talks about recently discovering that she has a half-sister. Listen and
decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). (5 pts)
6. Her family is quite big.
T/F
7. Her younger sister is 20 years old.
T/F
8. Her half-sister is living in Italy.
T/F
9. She has never met her half-sister.
T/F
10. She has no intention of getting to know her half-sister.

T/F
Part III. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear. (5 pts)
11. There are ________ national parks in the US.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 50
D. 52
12. National parks account for ________ of the total land area of the country.
A. 3%
B. 13%
C. 30%
D. 33%
13. National parks attract ________ visitors each year.
A. billions of
B. millions of
C. a billion
D. a million
14. People cut down trees for ________ .
A. barks
B. wood
C. goods
D. other parts
15. Devastating fires in large areas of national parks are caused by ________ .
A. visitors’ vehicles B. lack of money C. careless people D. the parks’ staff
Surname:
First name:
Address:
Postcode:
Telephone:

PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (3 pts)
16. A. chorus
B. charity
C. ache
D. orchestra
17. A. without
B. cloth
C. wealth
D. marathon
18. A. flew
B. few
C. sewage
D. drew
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Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. (2 pts)
19. A. advisable
B. admirable
C. reliable
D. desirable
20. A. accuracy

B. interestingly

C. efficiency

D. dangerously

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21. _______! The tree is going to fall.
A. Look up
B. Look out
C. Look on
D. Look after
22. Last year she earned _______ her brother.
A. twice as much as
B. twice more than
C. twice as many as
D. twice as more as
23. She tries to set ________ an hour a week for practice.
A. about
B. down
C. aside
D. in
24. Caroline is definitely _______ of those two girls.
A. smarter
B. smart
C. the smarter
D. the smartest
25. Peter: It was very kind of you to invite us to your party!
Mary:_______

A. It’s my pleasure
B. No, thanks
C. Ok. That’s great
D. Good idea, thanks
26. Playing ____ violin was to be ____ great adventure for him. He knew _______ little about
it.
A. ø/a/a
B. the/ ø /a
C. a/a/a
D. the/a/ ø
27. It was not until I saw her ________ how beautiful she was.
A. that I realize
B. did I realized
C. which I realize D. did I realize
28. It has been raining all day. This weather makes me__________.
A. depressed
B. depressing C. depress
D. depression
29. I don’t think she will come, _________?
A. do I
B. don’t I
C. will she
D. won’t she
30. “By the way, have you heard the one about the Welshman, the Irishman and the pig?”
“Yes, we have. That joke’s as old as______”.
A. Solomon
B. the hills
C. a dinosaur D. Jupiter
Question II: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (8 pts)
31. The doctor advised him (not eat) ________ too much sugar.

32. Nothing (do) ________ about this problem for months.
33-34. Can you imagine what I (come) _______ across when I (roll) _____ up the carpet
yesterday?
35-36. Just as I (wonder) _______ what to do next, the phone (ring)______.
37. He would rather he (visit) _________Halong bay last year.
38. Under the tree (some students/ stand)_______ now.
Question III: Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (7 pts)
39. Water pollution has ________ animals' life..
DANGER
40. Will you please give us some________ explanation?
FAR
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41. The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of ______. SPORT
42. Traveling to the countryside is becoming ________ popular nowadays. INCREASE
43. It is________ to own a gun without a special license.
LEGAL
44. When the police found the thief, they also found the ________ merchandise .STEAL
45. Traveling in a plane for the first time was a ________ experience. MEMORY
IV. Identify one of the underlined parts in each sentence that is not correct and then get it
right. Number 0 is an example. (5 pts)
0. I often go to school on bus.
A
B C
D

Answer: D →by

46. The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
A
B
C
D
47. Linda has such many things to do that she has no time to go out.
A
B
C
D
48. Martha being chosen as the most outstanding student on her campus made her parents
A
B
C
D
very happy.
49. Those of you who signed up for Dr. Daniel’s anthropology class should get their books
A
B
C
as soon as possible.
D
50. The Nobel Prize winning candidate, accompanied by his wife and children, are staying
A
B
in Sweden until after the presentation.
C

D
PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
ONE word in each space. (10pts)
People have always dreamed of living forever, and although we all know this will (51)
________ happen, we still want to live as long as possible. Naturally, there are advantages and
disadvantages to a long (52) ________ .
In the first place, people (53) ________ live longer can spend more time with their
family and friends. Secondly, people who have busy working lives look forward to a long,
relaxing time when they can do the things they have never had time for.
(54) ________ the other hand, there are some serious disadvantages. Firstly, many people
become ill and consequently have to (55) ________ time in hospital or become (56) ________ on
their children and friends. Many of them (57)_______this dependence annoying or
embarrassing. In addition to this, the (58) ________ people get, the fewer friends they seem to
have because old friends die or become ill and it's often (59) ________ to make new friends.
To sum up, it seems that living to a very old age is worthwhile for people who stay
healthy (60) ________ to remain independent and enjoy life.
Question II: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. (10 pts)
Birth of the computer
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Most people think of computers as very modern inventions, products of our new
technological age. But actually the idea for a computer (61) ________ worked out over two
centuries ago by a man (62)_________ Charles Babbage.

Babbage was born (63) _____ 1791 and grew up to be a brilliant mathematician. He drew
up plans for several calculating machines (64) _________ he called “engines”. Despite the fact
that he (65) _________ building some of these he never finished any of them. Over the year
people have argued (66) __________ his machines would ever work. Recently, however, the
Science Museum in London has finished building (67) _________ engine based on one of
Babbage’s designs. (68)___________ has taken six years to complete and more (69)
_________ four thousand parts have been specially made. Whether it works or not, the machine
will be on show at a special exhibition in the Science Museum (70) _________ remind people
of Babbage’s work.
61.
A. has
B. was
C. had
D. is
62.
A. known
B. recognized
C. written
D. called
63.
A. on
B. in
C. by
D. for
64.
A. whose
B. who
C. these
D. which
65.

A. wanted
B. made
C. started
D. missed
66.
A. until
B. whether
C. while
D. though
67.
A. some
B. the
C. an
D. that
68.
A. One
B. He
C. They
D. It
69.
A. than
B. therefore
C. when
D. then
70.
A. to
B. as
C. for
D. so
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below.

(10 pts)
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in
season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability
of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage.
However, in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing
process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of
condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common
during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880,
however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans
from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their
daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable
farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to
ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s,
northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes,
previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased
use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice
commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two
thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a
fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the
1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly
foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat.
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Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables,
and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
D. Population movements in the nineteenth century.
72. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to
A. a method of flavoring
B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule
D. a particular time of year
73. During the 1860’s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas
B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars
D. a staple part of the American diet.
74. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860
B. after 1920 C. after 1900
D. before 1890
75. The word “them” in line 13 refers to
A. refrigerator cars
B. growers
C. perishables
D. distances.
76. The word “fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. commonplace object
B. substance
C. luxury item

D. mechanical device
77. The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. increased in cost
B. decreased in number
C. occurred only in the summer
D. were on an irregular schedule
78. The word “Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to
A. occasionally
B. however
C. therefore
D. because
79. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying
B. Cold storage
C. Canning
D. Chemical additives
80. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
B. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
C. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
D. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
PART E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same
as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. Mary started learning English 3 years ago.
→ Mary has ..............................................................................
82. The house shouldn’t be left unlocked for any reason.
→ On no ____________________________________________
83. He worked very hard, but he was unable to earn enough for his living.
→ Hard-working _____________________________________

84. Someone has suggested the resignation of the minister.
→ It..........................................................................................................................
85. It is thought that the accident was caused by human error.
→ The accident………………………………………….……..

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Question II: Do not change the given word, use it to rewrite each of the following sentences
so that each has as a similar meaning as the original one (5 pts)
86. It’s possible that we may soon have no more oil.
RUN
→ It’s possible that _________________________________ oil.
87 The plane had hardly left the airport when the accident happened.
SOONER
→ No _________________________________the accident happened.
88. This matter is none of your business.
CONCERN
→ This matter ______________________________________you.
89. Perhaps they didn’t notice the tyre was flat.
MIGHT
→ They______________________________________ the tyre was flat.
90. He doesn’t get on well with his colleagues.
TERMS
→ He is ______________________________________his colleagues.
Question III. Paragraph Writing(10 pts)

Playing sports brings about many benefits. Write a paragraph (about 130-150 words) to express
your opinion.
----------------- THE END ----------------Họ và tên thí sinh: ............................................................Số báo danh:....................

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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI
NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 8
Ngày thi: 21 tháng 02 năm 2023

A. ĐÁP ÁN
Part A : LISTENING (15pts )
Part I. Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (5 pts)
1: 72
2: 2085
3: 98356712
4: Licence/License
5: July
Part II. A young woman talks about recently discovering that she has a half-sister. Listen and
decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). (5 pts)
6.T

7.F
8.T
9.F
10.F
Part III. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear. (5 pts)
11. D
12. A
13. B 14 B
15. C
PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (3 pts)
16. B
17. A
18. B
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. (2 pts)
19. B
20. C
PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21. B
22. A
23. C
24. C
25. A
26. D
27. A
28. A
29. C

30. B
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Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. not to eat
32. has been done
33-34. came – was rolling
35-36. was wondering – rang
37. had visited
38. are standing some students
Question II: Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
39. endangered
40. further
41. sportsmanship
42. increasingly
42. illegal
44. stolen
45. memorable
V. Identify one of the underlined parts in each sentence that is not correct and then get it
right. Number 0 is an example. (5 pts)

46.
47.
48.
49.

50.

B → worse
A → so
A → Martha’s
C → your
B → is
PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
ONE word in each space. (10pts)
51. not/ never
52. life
53. who/that
54. On
55. spend
56. dependent
57. find
58. older
59. hard/difficult 60. enough
Question II: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. (10 pts)
61- B
66 - B
62- D
67 - C
63- B
68 - D
64- D
69 - A

65- C
70- A
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
71. C
72. D
73. B
74. D
75. C
76. A
77. B
78. B
79. D
80. B
PART E: WRITING (20 pts)
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Question I: Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same
as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. Mary has been learning/ has learnt English for 3 years.
82. On no account should the house be left unlocked.
83. Hard-working as he was, he was unable to earn enough for his living.
84. It has been suggested that the minister (should) resign.
85. The accident is thought to have been caused by human error.
Question II. Use the given words and phrases to complete the following sentences. Make
sure that you do not change the order of these given words and phrases (5 pts)

86. It’s possible that we may soon run out of oil.
87. No sooner had the plane left the airport than the accident happened.
88. This matter is of no concern to you/ This matter does not concern you.
89. They might not have noticed ( that) the tyre was flat.
90. He is not on good terms with his colleagues.
Question III. Paragraph Writing(10 pts)
Playing sports brings about many benefits. Write a paragraph (about 120-150 words) to express
your opinion.
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 pts)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần (mở bài,
thân bài, kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1- 4 pts
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling (3 pts): bài viết khơng có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ
pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không
quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – (3 pts):
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 pts.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20 (Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,2)
Tổng số điểm thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = --------------------------------------5
* Lưu ý: Học sinh giải theo cách khác vẫn cho điểm tối đa.
----------------THE END------------------

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