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ĐỀ SỐ 1

(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined partdiffers from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. although B. authenticity C. through D. tablecloth

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from theother three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 4: A. vaccinate B. parachute C. volunteer D. calculate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each ofthe following questions.

Question 5: Medicine ______ in the pharmacy on the ground floor is cheap and good.

Question 6: He finds physics far ______ than other science subjects.

A. the most difficult B. more difficult C. difficult D. most difficult Question 7: Remember that you won't be able to cancel the contract ______.

A. after you will sign B. because you had signed

Question 8: A good salary allows you to be independent ______ your parents.

Question 9: You aim to provide quality at reasonable prices, ______?

Question 10: She's applied for ______ job with an insurance company.

Question 11: She is performing in Birmingham tonight, on the third leg of her nationwide ______.

Question 12: The small radical faction ______ from the independence movement.

Question 13: Much as she disliked ______ for help, she knew she had to.

Question 14: As a free agent, I had some criteria to meet and this team fitted the ______ perfectly.

Question 15: Nam ______ in the same house since he worked for that company.

Question 16: The fairest way to decide the winner is to ______ a name out of a hat.

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A. make B. check C. pick D. take Question 17: This book ______ by Cambridge University Press.

A. publish B. published C. was publishing D. was published Question 18: Further ______ arose when they published an interview with his family.

A. complicate B. complications C. complicated D. complicatedly Question 19: The classrooms all have computers and interactive whiteboards and ______ .

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completeseach of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Tom is inviting Linda to his birthday party.

Tom: “Would you like to come to my birthday party next week?” Linda: “__________”

A. Why not? B. Yes, I’d love to. C. I don’t think so. D. No, I’d love to. Question 21: Mr. Quang is informing his wife about his business trip to Japan.

Mr. Quang: “I’m going to Japan for business tomorrow.” Mr Quang’s wife: “__________”

C. Why don’t you do now? D. Have a safe journey.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Things got a little wild at the party and three windows were broken.

Question 23: She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The museum will remain open to the public throughout the building work.

Question 25: This booklet provides useful information about local services.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Perhaps I will not go jogging this afternoon.

A. I may not go jogging this after noon. B. I must go jogging this afternoon. C. I mustn’t go jogging this afternoon. D. I shouldn’t go jogging this afternoon. Question 27: Mr. Quang last talked to his daughter 2 months ago.

A. Mr. Quang didn’t talk to his daughter 2 months ago. B. Mr. Quang haven’t talked to his daughter for 2 months. C. Mr. Quang have talked to his daughter for 2 months.

D. Mr. Quang had a conversation with his daughter for 2 months.

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Question 28: “Why does the price of iPhone go up so often?” Mary wondered. A. Mary wondered why did the price of iPhone go up so often.

B. Mary wondered why the price of iPhone goes up so often. C. Mary wondered why the price of iPhone went up so often. D. Mary wondered why does the price of iPhone go up so often.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needscorrection in each of the following questions.

Question 29: The Ministry of Transportation suspended my license and I was extremely embarrassing and humiliated.

Question 30: He left London 2 years ago and I didn’t see him since then.

Question 31: Australia has their own cultural identity, which is very different from that of Britain.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combineseach pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 32: The floor is not clean. The children can't sleep on it.

A. If only the floor had been clean, the children could have slept on it. B. If the floor were clean, the children could sleep on it.

C. If the floor were clean, the children couldn’t sleep on it. D. Provided that the floor is clean, the children can't sleep on it.

Question 33: Her father encouraged her much. She finished the essay on endangered species. A. Hardly had she finished the essay on endangered species when her father encouraged her much. B. Only after she had finished the essay on endangered species did her father encourage her much. C. Not only did she finish the essay on endangered species but her father also encouraged her much. D. Had it not been for he father’s encourage, she couldn’t have finished the essay on endangered species.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

The reason why the consumption of Omega 3 is so recommended is very simple, it has (34) ______ health benefits. Lately there has been a lot of talk about this nutrient, but you may not know exactly what it is and what its properties are. For this reason, we have prepared this article, where we are going to (35) ______ to you what its functions are and why you should include it in your diet.

Omega 3 is a nutrient (36) ______ belongs to the group of polyunsaturated fatty acids. It is made up of three different types of fats: ALA (Alfalimolenic Acid), EPA (Eicosapentaenoic Acid) and DHA (Docosahexaenoic Acid). The last two are the ones that we find most in bluefish and seafood. It is considered an indispensable component in our diet (37) ______ our organism does not produce it by itself, that is why we must introduce it through food.

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Among its different functions, we find: preventing cardiovascular diseases, (38) ______ cardiovascular health, avoiding possible inflammations, increasing good cholesterol, reducing blood pressure and improving the appearance of the skin.

Question 35: A. consider B. develop C. determine D. explain

Question 38: A. agreeing B. remaining C. improving D. adapting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.

HEPA filters were developed in the early 1940s and used first by the Manhattan Project to contain the spread of airborne radioactive contaminants. HEPA filters were introduced commercially in the following decade to eliminate viruses, bacteria, airborne fungi, pollen, human hair, and particulate matter (such as smoke particles, pet dander, and dust) from the air in

buildings. HEPA filters grew in popularity and necessity as technological advances that

accompanied the Cold War saw the growth of industries in need of highly efficient air filters, such as the computer, electronics, aerospace, and nuclear power industries. Hospitals and pharmaceutical manufacturers also kept the filters in high demand, while the emergence of strict air pollution laws in the United States and other countries beginning in the 1970s raised

awareness about the importance of clean air.

HEPA filters have been installed in aircraft and in hospitals, greatly restricting the spread of airborne fungi, viruses, and bacteria. Aircraft filters help slow down the spread of diseases from city to city. HEPA filters in hospital settings and in other medical uses are typically rated higher than the DOE standard—often at 99.99 percent efficiency, H14 in the European system—and equipped with high-intensity ultraviolet lights that kill any bacteria and viruses that the filters trap.

Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. History and Use of HEPA Filters B. Technological Advances of Filters C. HEPA Filters in the United States D. Use of Aircraft Filters

Question 40: According to the passage, HEPA filters ______. A. were developed filters by the Manhattan Project

B. became more popular and necessary due to the growth of industries C. cannot be found in aircraft and in hospitals

D. now no longer trap bacteria and viruses

Question 41: The word that in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

C. technological advances D. air filters

Question 42: The word awareness in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.

Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

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A. HEPA filters can help eliminate many pollutants including viruses. B. Hospitals and pharmaceutical manufacturers requires lots of filters.

C. The spread of viruses and bacteria has been greatly restricted with HEPA filters. D. High-intensity ultraviolet lights haven't been equipped for HEPA filters.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

This technology also uses a passive electronic circuit implanted in the ball that excites a low-frequency magnetic field covering the entire goalmouth as the ball whizzes past it. The electronic circuit is composed of three copper coils in a bunch that is attached between the bladder and surface panel.

The antennas generating this magnetic field are mounted on the crossbar and parallel goalposts. Again, as soon as the ball crosses the line, the antennas sense a change in their magnetic fields and relay the data to a computer, which decides whether the ball has crossed the line or not. If it has, an alert signaling a goal is transmitted to the referee within half a second. The 2012 Club World Cup was the first tournament to implement this technology.

Despite their assistance, Goal-Line Technologies are still frowned upon in some circles. This disdain is partly due to the imminent erosion of the human element, and partly because the results are sometimes confusing or nonsensical. For example, in the game between France and Honduras during the 2014 World Cup, a goal signal was alerted, even though the ball didn’t fully

cross the line. This caused a lot of confusion amongst coaches and commentators who were

watching the replays.

Recently, a few leagues have taken a further step and recruited review systems that allow a referee to look back at his previous decisions. This could allow him to actually fix his mistakes or ask for help when in doubt, even though it might slow down the game’s pace. These sort of halts in a fast-moving game has bothered fans and players equally. The new technology promises

to remove the slightest of human biases and with it, the errors imposed by far away, unsightedrefereeing. However, at the same time, it transitions the sport to an impassive computer-judged

activity. Put it this way, if we make sure that absolutely nothing can go wrong, what’s the difference between a game of football and a (video) game of football?

Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. The 2012 Club World Cup B. The 2014 World Cup C. The Goal-Line Technology D. A fast-moving game

Question 45: The word confusion in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. construction B. distribution C. connection D. distraction Question 46: According to paragraph 2, the antennas generating the magnetic field _____.

A. are mounted on the crossbar and parallel goalposts B. cross the line of the goal

C. change in their magnetic fields D. are transmitted to the referee

Question 47: The word it in paragraph 4 refers to ______.

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A. new technology B. sort C. fast-moving game D. game’s pace

Question 48: The word impassive in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. There is an electronic circuit between the bladder and surface panel of the ball. B. Some people still disagree with the Goal-Line Technologies.

C. The review systems allow a referee to look back at his previous decisions. D. The new technology can’t help remove the slightest of human biases. Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. This technology, using a passive electronic circuit, is to complicated to use. B. The use of the technology is necessary for referees to have precise decisions. C. There used to be an error related to the technology, so it should be eliminated. D. A game of football must be made different from a video game of football.

---HẾT---ĐỀ SỐ 2

(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined partdiffers from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from theother three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 4: A. estimate B. demonstrate C. specialise D. encourage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each ofthe following questions.

Question 5: The man ______ next to the door has been working as a photographer for 5 years.

Question 6: Online trading has been slow to ______ in this part of the country.

Question 7: Do you think Australia is a ______ country than Britain?

A. more democratic B. democratic C. most democratic D. the most democratic Question 8: They agreed not ______ anyone about what had happened.

Question 9: What did you miss most about England______?

A. now that you have lived in France B. although you lived in France C. until you are living in France D. when you were living in France

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Question 10: The epidemic was ______ in check by widespread vaccination.

Question 11: Are you acquainted ______ the man in white?

Question 12: Linda ______ dinner when her friends called her last night.

Question 13: The band isn’t visiting Denmark next May, ______?

Question 14: I don't let the children ______ sweet fizzy drinks.

Question 15: The previous owner of the house had built ______ extension on the back.

Question 16: These houses ______ in the 1880s by Edward Barnes.

A. were designed B. design C. were designing D. designed

Question 17: The invention of the silicon ______ was a landmark in the history of the computer.

Question 18: The state of Michigan has endowed three institutes to do research for ______. A. industry B. industrial C. industrially D. industrialize Question 19: The report assigned the ______ for the accident to inadequate safety regulations.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completeseach of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Minh want to borrow Hoa’s pencil as he left his at home. Minh: “May I borrow your pencil for a while?”

Hoa: “__________”

C. Why don’t you carry yours? D. No, you can. Question 21: Nam is talking to his classmate named Minh.

Nam: “I don’t understand what the teacher has just said.” Minh: “__________”

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Those responsible for these crimes must be brought to court and punished.

Question 23: Don’t get angry with such a thing. It’s only a storm in a teacup.

A. commercial tension B. trivial thing C. serious problem D. financial issue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: In the 1990s, doctors routinely recommended hormone replacement therapy.

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A. conflicted B. supposed C. suggested D. translated

Question 25: An additional grant has enabled the team to push forward with research plans.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: My sister started to work as a journalist three months ago. A. My sister has worked as journalist for three months.

B. My sister started to work as a journalist for three months. C. My sister hasn’t worked as a journalist for three months. D. My sister didn’t start to work as a journalist three months ago. Question 27: It’s not good for us to eat so much sugar every day.

A. We needn’t eat so much sugar every day. B. We must eat so much sugar every day. C. We may eat so much sugar every day. D. We shouldn’t eat so much sugar every day. Question 28: “When is the first day of Lunar New Year Festival, Nam?” asked Martha.

A. Martha asked Nam when the first day of Lunar New Year Festival is. B. Martha asked Nam when the first day of Lunar New Year Festival was. C. Martha asked Nam when was the first day of Lunar New Year Festival. D. Martha asked Nam when is the first day of Lunar New Year Festival.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needscorrection in each of the following questions.

Question 29: When they got home last night. They found that someone have broken into the house.

Question 30: The movie was an instant success and went on to beat five Academy Awards.

Question 31: Is there any significant difference in quality between this two items?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combineseach pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 32: My parents aren't rich. I have no chance to study abroad.

A. If only my parents had been rich, I could have had chance to study abroad. B. If my parents were rich, I could have chance to study abroad.

C. If my parents were rich, I couldn’t have chance to study abroad. D. Provided that my parents are rich, I can't have chance to study abroad.

Question 33: His wife helped him much in his work. He was promoted to chief executive.

A. Had it not been for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have been promoted to chief executive.

B. Only after he had been promoted to chief executive did his wife help him much in his work.

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C. Not only was he promoted to chief executive but his wife also helped him much in his work.

D. Hardly had he been promoted to chief executive when his wife helped him much in his work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infects cells of the immune system, destroying or impairing their function. This leads to progressive deterioration of the immune system, leading to "Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)". The immune deficient system can no longer (34) ______ its role of fighting infection and person starts getting various "opportunistic infections". In 2018, out of (35) ______ 37.9 million people living with HIV globally, 3.8 million were living in 11 countries of the South-East Asia Region of WHO.

HIV can be transmitted only through four major routes - unprotected vaginal or anal sexual intercourse, transfusion of contaminated blood; (36) ______ the sharing of contaminated needles, syringes, surgical equipment or other sharp instruments. It may also be transmitted from a mother to her infant during pregnancy, childbirth and breastfeeding.

Antiretroviral (ARV) drugs are used in the treatment and prevention of HIV infection. They (37) ______ HIV by stopping or interfering with the reproduction of the virus in the body, reducing the amount of virus in the body. By 2018, 23.3 million people were receiving HIV antiretroviral therapy (ART) globally, of (38) ______ two million are from countries in the WHO South-East Asia Region.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.

When lifestyle changes aren’t enough, the next step may be to take medicine. Your health care provider can tell you about special drugs for overactive bladder (OAB).

There are several drug types that can relax the bladder muscle. These drugs, like anti-muscarinics and beta-3 agonists, can help stop your bladder from squeezing when it’s not full.

Some are taken as pills, by mouth. Others are gels or a sticky transdermal patch to give you the

drug through your skin.

Anti-muscarinics and betta-3 adrenoceptor agonists can relax the bladder muscle and increase the amount of urine your bladder can hold and empty. Combination drugs, like using both anti-muscarinics and - betta-3 adrenoceptor agonists together may help control OAB when one option alone isn’t working.

Your health care providers will want to know if the medicine works for you. They will

check to see if you get relief or if the drug causes problems, known as side effects. Some people

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get dry mouth and dry eyes, constipation, or blurred vision. If one drug you try doesn't work, your health care provider may ask you to take different amounts, give you a different one to try, or have you try two types together. Lifestyle changes and medicine at the same time help many people.

Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. Bladder Stops from Squeezing B. What Option to Control OAB C. Prescription Drugs for OAB D. Lifestyle Changes and OAB Question 40: According to the passage, overactive bladder ______.

A. can be treated by using only one drug type B. may get better with combination drugs C. could be eliminated without any side effects D. has nothing related to lifestyle changes

Question 41: The word patch in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.

A. a small piece of material B. an attempt to do something

Question 42: The word They in paragraph 4 refers to ______.

Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Drugs cannot stop the bladder from squeezing.

B. Some drugs are gels or a sticky transdermal patch. C. Some drugs can relax the bladder muscle.

D. Two types of drugs may be taken together if one doesn’t work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

The construction of Stadium 974, previously known as Ras Abu Aboud Stadium, has been completed ahead of schedule for the 2022 FIFA World Cup to be held in Qatar. The stadium is located in the city of Doha, Qatar, and can host up to 40,000 spectators.

The stadium is built according to a modular design, using recycled shipping containers, and is set to be dismantled after the 2022 World Cup concludes, making it the first-ever temporary World Cup stadium.

The arena is made of 974 shipping containers and modular, structural steel, earning its name “Stadium 974”. The Shipping containers and seats, once dismantled, will be provided as assistance to under-developed countries in Africa.

The shape and gaps between the seats allow natural ventilation and artificial cooling.

Moreover, the stadium's proximity to the Persian Gulf offers a natural cool breeze to lighten the

load on the stadium's cooling systems. The containers making up the exterior also serve as spaces to hold staircases, concessions, and restrooms. The containers have also delivered other construction materials to the job site.

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Designed by Fenwrick Iribarren Architects, Stadium 974 features a modular design, reducing the construction cost, duration, and material waste. In addition to that, the use of water will be reduced by 40% compared to conventional stadium construction due to the efficient methods introduced. Stadium 974’s innovative design is inspired by Qatar’s worldwide trade and

seafaring. Due to its short lifetime, it set a new benchmark and guided the way towards more

sustainable and legacy-driven sporting competitions, opening up hosting opportunities to countries all over the world.

The stadium's design has received a five-star certification in the Global Sustainability Assessment System (GSAS), which rates green building and infrastructure across the Middle East and North Africa.

Here at Hanlons, we love seeing this ingenuity and sustainable use of existing building

materials to create a temporary structure for world events and look forward to witnessing

further innovative sustainable practices for the delivery of the 2032 “climate positive” Olympic Games in Brisbane.

Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. The 2022 FIFA World Cup

B. World Cup stadiums Designed by Fenwrick Iribarren Architects C. Olympic Games in Brisbane in 2032

D. Stadium 974 - a Sustainable Engineering Masterpiece

Question 45: The word proximity in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 46: According to paragraph 5, Stadium 974 ______. A. constructed by Fenwrick Iribarren Architects

B. cost less money and time to construct with less waste C. used 40% more water to save construction time

D. was regarded as Qatar’s worldwide trade and seafaring due to its short lifetime

Question 47: The word it in paragraph 5 refers to ______.

Question 48: The word temporary in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. The stadium will be dismantled after the 2022 World Cup.

B. The name “Stadium 974” originated from the number shipping containers used. C. The containers have been delivered the job site by trucks made of other materials. D. The stadium's design got a five-star certification in GSAS.

Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The stadium can be designed to host more than 40,000 spectators.

B. Under-developed countries in Africa can hardly have such a great design. C. A country can’t host a sport event without a stadium like Stadium 974.

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D. Stadium 974 may ignite further innovative sustainable practices in the future.

---HẾT---ĐỀ SỐ 3

(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined partdiffers from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. classmate B. missing C. pressure D. embarrass

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from theother three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 4: A. decorate B. activate C. centralise D. deliver

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each ofthe following questions.

Question 5: I used to enjoy ______ to the theatre, but I don't get much opportunity now.

Question 6: Many professions feel they deserve higher pay, and nurses are a ______ in point.

Question 7: What is the name of the interesting song ______ on TV now?

Question 8: Mr. Giang ______ in the country when he was a child long time ago.

Question 9: It was a hundred times ______ than I'd expected.

Question 10: The plaster on the walls has been removed to expose the original ______ underneath.

Question 11: It took them ages to ______ how to assemble the chest of drawers.

Question 12: I asked the teacher if I could be excused from football practice ______. A. after my knee still hurts B. as my knee still hurt

C. before my knee has still hurt D. though my knee will hurt

Question 13: The police are collecting ______ in order to piece together the details of the day she died.

Question 14: My sister is serious ______ learning to be a pilot.

Question 15: Hotel bookings are at a pace to ______ a new record this year.

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A. set B. earn C. send D. owe Question 16: There weren’t any large amounts of money involved, ______?

A. will there B. were there C. did there D. are there Question 17: The data ______ and the results have just been published.

Question 18: It's the good weather that makes Spain such a ______ tourist destination.

Question 19: She attended a school for ______ visually impaired.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completeseach of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Linda is talking to David about friends in the class. Linda; “Do you think Anna is the best student in our class?” David: “__________”

Question 21: Trinh is complaining about his bike with Lan. Trinh: “What a nuisance! My bike is broken again.”

Lan: “__________”

A. Good luck. B. That’s why. C. Have it repaired. D. Have it repair.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Jazz is an American modification of musical conventions imported from Europe.

Question 23: It is important to keep in touch with the latest research.

A. lose contact with B. look forward to C. pay attention to D. be interested in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: We generated 10 data sets, which we used to run each of the models.

Question 25: Recently there has been some movement away from traditional methods of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “How much milk do you need to make the cake?” asked my sister. A. My sister asked me how much milk did I need to make the cake.

B. My sister asked me how much milk do I need to make the cake. C. My sister asked me how much milk I need to make the cake. D. My sister asked me how much milk I needed to make the cake.

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Question 27: I haven’t seen my aunt and her husband for years. A. I last saw my aunt and her husband years ago.

B. I didn’t see my aunt and her husband years ago. C. I saw my aunt and her husband for years. D. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years.

Question 28: It isn’t necessary for you to go out at this time at night.

A. You must go out at this time at night. B. You should go out at this time at night. C. You needn’t go out at this time at night. D. You may not go out at this time at night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needscorrection in each of the following questions.

Question 29: High prices are deterring much young people from buying houses.

Question 30: I am watching an interesting football match at the same time yesterday.

Question 31: Kazakova's performance made her the heroin of the Moscow Film Festival.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combineseach pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 32: His health isn't good enough. He can't play the match tonight.

A. If only his health had been good enough, he could have played the match tonight. B. If his health were good enough, he couldn’t play the match tonight.

C. Provided that his health is good enough, he can't play the match tonight. D. If his health were good enough, he could play the match tonight.

Question 33: My father supported me much in my career. I did really well in my business. A. Had it not been for my father’s support, I couldn’t have done so well in my business. B. So well did I do in my business that my father supported me much in my career.

C. Hardly had I done so well in my business when my father supported me much in my career.

D. Only after I had done so well in my business did my father support me much in my career.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

After a month of football, the 2022 FIFA Men’s World Cup in Qatar has concluded with Argentina beating France 4-2 in a penalty shootout (34) ______ drawing 3-3. Record numbers of fans were expected to watch the nail-biting final match at the Lusail Stadium just outside of the Qatari capital Doha.

The tournament featured a highly competitive group stage, (35) ______ global representation in the knockout rounds, dramatic upsets and outstanding individual performances — highlighted by Argentina’s great Lionel Messi and emerging superstar Kylian Mbappé of France.

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From the moment FIFA announced Qatar as the 2022 World Cup host in 2010, non-sporting controversy has (36) ______ the event. In addition to bribery charges against FIFA officials, (37) ______ questions were raised about the suitability of a small nation with limited football history or infrastructure hosting the World Cup.

Complicating the choice of Qatar further was the desert nation’s hot summers which made scheduling the event in its normal June-July timeframe impractical — necessitating the move to November-December, (38) ______ European football associations viewed as disrupting their regular schedules.

Question 35: A. reported B. increased C. deposited D. connected

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.

Many cities and countries have identified food waste (also sometimes called avoidable food waste or food loss and waste) as an issue. According to a 2014 study conducted by Value Chain Management International, the amount of preventable food waste discarded annually in Canada amounts to over $31 billion in losses, with approximately 47% of food waste produced by consumers.

Wasted food has environmental, economic and social implications. When you waste food

that could have been eaten, you are also wasting the natural and human resources that were used

to grow, produce, process and transport that food.

Throwing away edible food represents economic losses. The amount of food thrown away amounts to wasting approximately $1,760 annually for a family of four. And the food that ends up in the waste stream requires resources to manage its disposal and diversion, the cost of which

is passed on to municipal utilities and services.

Wasted food that ends up in the garbage, and ultimately the landfill, produces methane—a greenhouse gas that is 21 times more potent than carbon dioxide. It’s estimated that 7% of greenhouse gases produced globally are due to preventable food waste. Some of that wasted food could be recovered through donation programs and used to help address food insecurity, rather than going to waste.

Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. Food Crisis in Many Cities B. Food and Human Resources C. Wasted Food and Carbon Dioxide D. The Problem of Food Waste Question 40: According to the passage, food waste ______.

A. is really a problem in many cities and countries

B. has no implications on environment, economy and society C. requires no disposal and diversion

D. produces methane in the garbage and landfill

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Question 41: The word that in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

C. natural and human resources D. food

Question 42: The word utilities in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.

A. a way of solving a problem B. a service provided for the public C. a particular part of a situation D. the regular pattern of weather Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. The amount of food waste annually in Canada cost over $31 billion. B. Wasting food means losing the natural and human resources.

C. The amount of food thrown away is approximately $1,760 annually. D. Wasted food could be used to help tackle food insecurity.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

The new technology uses 12 dedicated tracking cameras mounted underneath the roof of the stadium to track the ball and up to 29 data points of each individual player, 50 times per second, calculating their exact position on the pitch. The 29 collected data points include all limbs and extremities that are relevant for making offside calls.

Al Rihla, adidas’ official match ball for Qatar 2022™, will provide a further vital element

for the detection of tight offside incidents as an inertial measurement unit (IMU) sensor will be

placed inside the ball. This sensor, positioned in the centre of the ball, sends ball data to the video operation room 500 times per second, allowing a very precise detection of the kick point.

By combining the limb- and ball-tracking data and applying artificial intelligence, the new

technology provides an automated offside alert to the video match officials inside the video operation room whenever the ball is received by an attacker who was in an offside position at the moment the ball was played by a team-mate. Before informing the on-field referee, the video match officials validate the proposed decision by manually checking the automatically selected

kick point and the automatically created offside line, which is based on the calculated positions

of the players’ limbs. This process happens within a few seconds and means that offside decisions can be made faster and more accurately.

After the decision has been confirmed by the referee on the pitch, the exact same positional data points that were used to make the decision are then generated into a 3D animation that perfectly details the position of the players’ limbs at the moment the ball was played. This 3D animation, which will always show the best possible perspectives for an offside situation, will then be shown on the giant screens in the stadium and will also be made available to FIFA’s broadcast partners to inform all spectators in the clearest possible way.

Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. How Semi-automated Offside Technology Work?

B. Official Match Ball for Qatar 2022™

C. An Inertial Measurement Unit (IMU) Sensor D. What 3D animation shows spectators

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Question 45: The word detection in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 46: According to paragraph 3, the kick point and offside line ______. A. send offside alert to the video match officials

B. are decided by an attacker

C. are selected and created automatically D. make the match faster and more accurately

Question 47: The word artificial in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. strong-willed B. dewy-eyed C. man-made D. open-minded

Question 48: The word which in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. The new technology uses 29 dedicated tracking cameras.

B. The sensor sends ball data to the video operation room 500 times per second. C. The process of deciding offside takes just a few second.

D. A 3D animation can perfectly details the position of the players’ limbs. Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Collected data of the new technology doesn’t include limbs and extremities.

B. The new technology, which make the match equal and precise, is new and modern. C. The new technology may remove manual work of video match officials.

D. FIFA’s broadcast partners’ spectators can decide an offside situation.

---HẾT---ĐỀ SỐ 4

(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined partdiffers from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from theother three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 4: A. demolish B. understand C. interact D. entertain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each ofthe following questions.

Question 5: The advertisement showed a group of horsemen on the beach, galloping through the sea ______ .

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Question 6: He decided to ______ on his initial research and write a book.

Question 7: He claims ______ met the president, but I don't believe him.

Question 8: There's a (an) ______ in the pipe so you can't see from one end to the other.

Question 9: The woman ______ care of the small boy in the room is his mother.

Question 10: The insurance policy does not cover damage caused by normal ______ and tear.

Question 11: Men tend to be ______ than women.

A. aggressive B. most aggressive C. the most aggressive D. more aggressive Question 12: Please shut all the windows and turn off the light before you ______ out.

Question 13: Tom is very extrovert and confident ______.

A. because Katy had been shy and quiet B. although Katy was shy and quiet C. while Katy is shy and quiet D. unless Katy will be shy and quiet Question 14: It ______ that in Tanzania one elephant in three is an orphan.

Question 15: Laura couldn’t have said so. It was contrary ______ her thought.

Question 16: If you ______ the rule, you’re going to be punished for it.

Question 17: We were always spending so much time in traffic, ______?

Question 18: It is ______ easy for newcomers to pick off the most lucrative business and ignore the rest.

Question 19: He managed to pay off his ______ debts in two years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completeseach of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Laura is asking Tom for his idea about a vacation at the beach. Laura: “Do you think a vacation at the beach will do me good?”

Tom: “__________”

A. Sure. Have a good time there. B. Yes, I think. C. Could you bye me something? D. Yes, it does. Question 21: Alex is talking to David about his bookshelf.

Alex: “I regret that I bought such a small bookshelf.”

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Davis: “__________”

C. Why are you so stupid? D. Yeah. A bigger one is better.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We'll keep a running subtotal and add the tax on at the end.

Question 23: He makes no bones about the fact that his apartment is a mess.

A. fails to confirm B. fails to ensure C. tries to hide D. tries to show

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The company claims to have obtained its database of names by legitimate means.

Question 25: It's the good weather that makes Spain such a popular tourist destination.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Perhaps she will not come to see me this evening.

A. She must come to see me this evening. B. She may not come to see me this evening. C. She have to come to see me this evening. D. She should come to see me this evening. Question 27: I last ate Indian spicy food five years ago.

A. I haven’t eaten Indian spicy food for five years. B. I didn’t eat Indian spicy food five years ago. C. I have eaten Indian spicy food for five years. D. I ate Indian spicy food for five years.

Question 28: “Who is going to buy this big luxury house?” she said to him. A. She asked him who is going to buy that big luxury house.

B. She asked him who is going to buy this big luxury house. C. She asked him who was going to buy that big luxury house. D. She asked him who was going to buy this big luxury house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needscorrection in each of the following questions.

Question 29: The guard looked at him and carried on scanning the crowds full of eager and exciting tourists instead.

Question 30: I don’t go to work tomorrow, so I was staying up late tonight.

Question 31: Since their establishment two years ago, the advice centre has seen over 500 people a week.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combineseach pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 32: I don’t have enough money. I can't buy that new mobile. A. If only I had had enough money, I could have bought that new mobile. B. If I had enough money, I could buy that new mobile.

C. If I had enough money, I couldn’t buy that new mobile.

D. Provided that I have enough money, I can't buy that new mobile.

Question 33: The doctor's waiting room was bright. It was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.

A. Not only was the doctor's waiting room bright but it was also cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.

B. However the doctor's waiting room was, it was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains. C. No sooner had the doctor's waiting room been bright than it was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.

D. Had it not been for the doctor's bright waiting room, it wouldn’t have been cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

Roland Garros is one of four tennis tournaments that are referred to as Grand Slams (formerly Majors). These four Grand Slams are considered the pinnacle of the professional tennis world, with relatively (34) ______ players being able to boast a Grand Slam title on their resume. The status of these tournaments is (35) ______ in the prize money and ranking points awarded. The 2,000 points granted to the winner of the French Open is double (36) ______ of the biggest non-Grand Slam events in the regular tour (not counting the World Tour Finals).

Of the four Grand Slams, Roland Garros is the only slam to be played on clay, a significant factor as the playing surface is dramatically different when (37) ______ to hard and grass courts. This has led to a situation where players can be dominant in the other three slams, yet miss out on the French Open. This has been the case twice in recent times, with Roger Federer and Novak Djokovic going through periods where they seem almost unstoppable on hard and grass courts, (38) ______ only managing a single win at Roland Garros. Conversely, players like Rafael Nadal have far more success at the French Open than the other Slams.

Question 35: A. reflected B. permitted C. responded D. practised

Question 37: A. attempted B. challenged C. advanced D. compared

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.

There are over 3,000 species of mosquitoes in almost every country around the world, with roughly 200 species in the U.S. alone. Unfortunately, these flying pests can carry malaria, West

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Nile virus, dengue, yellow fever, Zika virus, and more. This danger to humans occurs when mosquitoes ingest the disease, carry it in their bloodstream and then transfer it to the next person they bite.

It’s a common misconception that mosquitoes suck blood for food. Mosquitoes ingest blood

to nourish their bodies so they can lay and hatch healthy eggs. Mosquitoes can lay 100 eggs at a

time, so populations of this pest can get out of control quickly. When eliminating mosquitoes, it’s key to use multiple methods, to kill mosquitoes at every stage of the life cycle.

It’s also important to note that repelling and killing mosquitoes aren’t the same thing. Repelling mosquitoes will keep them away from you by making you less attractive to them. They’re attracted to the carbon dioxide from our breath and elements of our sweat. Mosquitoes are also attracted to standing water, laying eggs in areas such as birdbaths, damp potting soil, standing water in kitchens, puddles, and more.

Killing mosquitoes may seem like a tempting option, but it’s not always in our—or the environment’s—best interest. That’s because mosquitoes can become resistant to pesticides,

making them harder to kill over time. Try natural methods first if your infestation is minor, or

turn to the pros if you’re dealing with serious mosquito problems.

Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. Dangers of Mosquitoes B. Mosquitoes and West Nile Virus C. Our Breath and Sweat D. How Pesticides Kill Mosquitoes Question 40: According to the passage, mosquitoes ______.

A. include 3,000 species in the U.S. alone B. suck blood to nourish their bodies C. don’t lay eggs in birdbaths D. can be killed easily with pesticides

Question 41: The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

Question 42: The word infestation in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.

A. distribution B. definition C. location D. destruction Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Mosquitoes carry disease in their bloodstream.

B. Multiple methods should be used to eliminate mosquitoes.

C. There is little difference between repelling and killing mosquitoes. D. Professional methods must be used for serious mosquito problems.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

The Itaewon district in South Korea’s capital is known to revelers as a place of fun, freedom and openness. But its narrow, steep streets and constrained access points proved a lethal mix for Halloween partygoers who became trapped in a crowd crush that left more than 150 people dead. Dubbed "World Food Street" by tourism officials, the warren of alleyways and streets behind the red-brick bulk of the Hamilton Hotel is home to nightclubs, bars, and an eclectic variety of restaurants that reflects Itaewon's international heritage and draws young Koreans in ever-greater numbers.

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As police investigate Saturday’s events, a picture is emerging of how a celebration spiraled into disaster — leaving a nation in collective grief and lingering questions about crowd management and responses by police and local authorities. The National Police Commissioner,

Yoon Hee-keun, acknowledged that crowd control was inadequate, and President Yoon

Suk-yeol said it was critical to improve emergency responses. Police on Tuesday released transcripts of emergency calls that showed increasing distress among revelers as the crowd swelled, providing nearly four hours of warnings that went mostly unheeded.

This account of the tragedy was pieced together from the testimony of more than 15 witnesses, police transcripts, visual evidence and open-source material shared on social media

that was verified by Reuters. Some of those who spoke to Reuters did so on the condition of full

or partial anonymity, citing personal trauma or privacy reasons.

The evening had begun with optimism. South Korea was marking Halloween almost free of the COVID-19 restrictions that had dampened recent years’ festivities, and Itaewon was ready to

party. The crowd was mostly young; many wore colorful costumes as they converged on the

area with friends.

Authorities say more than twice as many people left Itaewon metro station on Saturday than the year before, with as many as 100,000 estimated to be in the area. Three narrow streets and alleyways leading to the station were particularly crammed.

Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. The Warren of Alleyways and Streets behind The Red-brick Bulk B. How a Night of Halloween Revelry Turned to Disaster?

C. Increasing Distress Among Revelers

D. Halloween almost Free of the COVID-19 Restrictions

Question 45: The word inadequate in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 46: According to paragraph 3, the celebration in Itaewon ______. A. was managed well by police and local authorities

B. improved emergency responses to the crowd C. provided nearly four hours of warnings

D. turned into a disaster due to being overcrowded

Question 47: The word that in paragraph 4 refers to ______.

Question 48: The word costumes in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Narrow, steep streets and constrained access points made the area deadly dangerous. B. Restaurants in Itaewon draws young Koreans in ever-greater numbers.

C. The account of the tragedy was collected from 150 witnesses. D. 100,000 estimated to be in the area on that Saturday.

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Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Being poorly managed and overcrowded was the main reasons for the disaster. B. There should have been more than 150 people dead in the disaster.

C. Revelers paid too much attention to The National Police Commissioner, Yoon Hee-keun. D. The COVID-19 restrictions helped control the number of victims in the event.

---HẾT---ĐỀ SỐ 5

(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined partdiffers from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from theother three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 4: A. acknowledge B. concentrate C. contribute D. encourage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each ofthe following questions.

Question 5: You had seen all of Elvis Presley’s movies by the time you were 20, ______? A. won’t you B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. hadn’t you

Question 6: In this study, children’s eye movements ______ while they listened to a series of messages.

A. recorded B. were recording C. were recorded D. record Question 7: The survey covers ______ wide range of industry sectors.

Question 8: My second attempt at making bread was a little more ______.

Question 9: There was nobody on the ______ when I went into the bank, and I had to wait to be served.

Question 10: It took her months to ______ Michael when he ended the relationship.

Question 11: He suffered a stroke in 1988 that left him unable to speak, but his mental ______ wasn't affected.

Question 12: People ______ to the meeting have all come to the venue.

A. are inviting B. inviting C. are invited D. invited Question 13: The man at the court denies ______ to murder his wife.

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A. attempting B. to attempt C. attempt D. to attempting Question 14: He finds physics much ______ than biology.

A. more interesting B. interesting C. most interesting D. the most interesting Question 15: He called me a ______ because I wouldn't swim in the river.

Question 16: I'm afraid I'm not a very good advertisement for the diet ______! A. in order that I had actually put on weight B. since I've actually put on weight C. as soon as I will actually put on weight D. by the time I actually put on weight Question 17: Kate ______ quite different since she got married to Mr. Tom.

Question 18: Are you confident ______ what you have said, Trang?

Question 19: Friends and relatives came to ______ their last respects to Mr. Clarke.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completeseach of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Jack is asking Laura to open the window. Jack: “Would you mind opening the window?”

Laura: “__________”

A. Yes, I would. B. Of course not. C. Forget it. D. No, I mind. Question 21: The post man is talking to Tom on the phone.

Postman: “I will come and give you the package a bit late.” Tom: “__________”

A. Thanks anyway. B. Why late? C. No way. D. I don’t agree.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: I couldn't help smiling when I thought of how pleased she was going to be.

Question 23: You'd think he would have blown his lid when he realized the chef was downstairs.

A. become tired B. felt happy C. stayed calm D. been furious

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The article claims that an increase in crime indicates a decline in moral standards.

A. fluctuate B. estimates C. concentrates D. illustrates

Question 25: After the party I collected up bottles from various parts of the house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: The police started investigating the accident a week ago. A. The police didn’t investigate the accident a week ago.

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B. The police haven’t investigated the accident for a week. C. The police have investigated the accident for a week. D The police started to investigate the accident for a week.

Question 27: It’s not good for a new driver to drive at that high speed. A. A new driver shouldn’t drive at that high speed.

B. A new driver needn’t drive at that high speed. C. A new driver must drive at that high speed. D. A new driver may drive at that high speed.

Question 28: “What would you do if you won the lottery ?” I asked her. A. I asked her what would she do if she won the lottery.

B. She asked me what she would do if she won the lottery. C. She asked me what would she do if she won the lottery. D. I asked her what she would do if she won the lottery.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needscorrection in each of the following questions.

Question 29: When I reach there, the highest building had been destroyed by the storm!

Question 30: In principal there is nothing that a human can do that a machine might not be able to do one day.

Question 31: The ancient Britons inhabited this parts of England before the Roman invasion.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combineseach pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 32: They don’t have free time. They can't fly to Paris for a vacation. A. If only they had had free time, they would have flown to Paris for a vacation. B. If they had free time, they wouldn’t fly to Paris for a vacation.

C. Provided that they have free time, they won't fly to Paris for a vacation. D. If they had free time, they would fly to Paris for a vacation.

Question 33: He is a brave person. He can die for his beliefs. A. However brave he is, he can die for his beliefs.

B. No sooner had he been a brave person than he could die for his beliefs. C. Not only is he a brave person but he can also die for his beliefs.

D. Had it not been for his bravery, he couldn’t have died for his beliefs.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

The full new look of Philippe Chatrier court at Roland Garros has been revealed after work to install the brand new roof was completed ahead of schedule. Retractable roofs have been a feature on the showcourts at Grand Slam for some time, with organisers under (34) ______ pressure to protect their schedules from the elements.

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The French Open was the last of the four Slams to address the issue, and was hit particularly hard by torrential rain in Paris last year. However, Roland Garros wash-outs will now be a thing of the past, (35) ______ Philippe Chatrier has a brand new look to go with the fresh innovation.

Testing will now take place on the roof to make sure it is fully operational for the 2020 French Open, (36) ______ starts in May. It is made up of 11 trusses, each weighing in a 330 metric tonnes, with (37) ______ truss split into seven sections measuring 15m long and 3m high.

The trusses were manufactured close to Venice, and took ten years to construct, followed by eight months to install. It will take around 15 minutes to close the roof, which (38) ______ total surface area of one hectare.

Question 34: A. increasing B. securing C. registering D. respecting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.

The amount and brilliance of the colors that develop in any particular autumn season are related to weather conditions that occur before and during the time the chlorophyll in the leaves is dwindling. Temperature and moisture are the main influences.

A succession of warm, sunny days and cool, crisp but not freezing nights seems to bring about the most spectacular color displays. During these days, lots of sugars are produced in the leaf but the cool nights and the gradual closing of veins going into the leaf prevent these sugars from moving out. These conditions – lots of sugar and light – spur production of the brilliant

anthocyanin pigments, which tint reds, purples, and crimson. Because carotenoids are always

present in leaves, the yellow and gold colors remain fairly constant from year to year.

The amount of moisture in the soil also affects autumn colors. Like the weather, soil moisture varies greatly from year to year. The countless combinations of these two highly variable factors assure that no two autumns can be exactly alike. A late spring, or a severe summer drought, can delay the onset of fall color by a few weeks. A warm period during fall will

also lower the intensity of autumn colors. A warm wet spring, favorable summer weather, and

warm sunny fall days with cool nights should produce the most brilliant autumn colors. Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. Influences of Temperature and Moisture B. Why Sugars Stop Moving Out?

C. What Causes a Severe Summer Drought? D. How Does Weather Affect Autumn Color? Question 40: According to the passage, leaves in autumn ______.

A. does not lose chlorophyll B. cannot produce sugars C. also contain carotenoids D. are not affected by moisture

Question 41: The word which in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

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Question 42: The word intensity in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.

Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Temperature and moisture mainly affect the brilliance of the colors. B. Lots of sugar and light can produce the brilliant anthocyanin pigments. C. Combinations of variable factors may make two autumns alike.

D. The most brilliant autumn colors could appear in a warm wet spring.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

In the European Union we are embracing the clean energy transition. An effective way of doing so is through the development of advanced and competitive green technology–we want Europe to be the world leader in this field. To work towards this goal we have set ourselves short and mid-term targets of a 20% share of renewables in our energy system by 2020, and 27% by 2030. Achieving these targets won’t be easy, but we have set up the instruments and tools necessary to facilitate the shift. We have legislation establishing the overall policy for the

promotion of energy from renewable sources, including specific national targets to facilitate

Our efforts are bearing fruit: recent data from the European Environment Agency for 2014 demonstrate that, thanks to renewables, fossil fuel use has been reduced by an estimated 114 Mtoe (megaton oil-equivalent), comparable to the fossil fuel consumption of France. In absolute terms, Germany, Italy and Spain achieved the largest reduction in domestic fossil fuel use and avoided greenhouse gases emissions, as a result of national renewable energy deployment since

2005. All in all, around 380Mt of carbon dioxide emissions have been avoided, which is

equivalent to the yearly emissions of Poland.

These results come together with opportunities for investment and growth. Investments historically allocated to fossil fuels are gradually shifting towards renewables and other sources of clean energy. By 2030, according to the International Energy Agency, we expect investment in renewables to be almost three times the investment in fossil fuel power plants. This is a

tremendous opportunity to position European energy companies at the head of the new global

market of low carbon technologies and one which they are beginning to seize. According to the 2015 State of Renewable Energies in Europe report, the renewable energy sector generated a turnover of €143.6 billion and over one million jobs in Europe in 2014. Wind energy has been the main driver of growth and jobs, accounting for 324,000 jobs and a turnover of €48.3 billion in the same year.

Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. The World Leader in Renewable Energy B. The Fossil Fuel Consumption of France C. Achievement of Renewable Energy So Far D. The International Energy Agency

Question 45: The word promotion in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 46: According to paragraph 1, the European Union ______.

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A. has slowed down the clean energy transition B. wants to be the world leader in clean energy

C. sets the target of 20% share of renewables in its energy system by 2030 D. eliminates the instruments and tools necessary to facilitate the shift

Question 47: The word which in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. 380Mt of carbon dioxide emissions B. yearly emissions

Question 48: The word tremendous in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Fossil fuel use has been reduced by an estimated 114 Mtoe.

B. All in all, around 380Mt of fossil fuel has been used.

C. Investment in renewables is expected to be more than in fossil fuel power plants. D. Wind energy has created a lot of jobs any revenues.

Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Legislation and the overall policy in the EU may set the barrier to clean energy. B. Reduction in fossil fuel use in Germany, Italy and Spain is difficult to achieve. C. The clean energy transition is promising and beneficial to the environment. D. The renewable energy sector generated more energy than ever.

---HẾT---ĐỀ SỐ 6

(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined partdiffers from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from theother three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each ofthe following questions.

Question 5: The defending ______ will play his first match of the tournament tomorrow. A. practitioner B. champion C. apprentice D. guardian Question 6: It was very lucky ______ her that her luggage was found.

Question 7: I don't think he will ______ to your requests if you keep pestering him.

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Question 8: The next Olympic Games won’t be in London, ______?

Question 9: They decided ______ abroad and make a fresh start.

Question 10: This new drug could be ______ important step in the fight against cancer.

Question 11: The problem has come to the ______ again in recent months.

Question 12: I think he feels a lot of ______ towards his father, who treated him very badly as a child.

Question 13: Before the driver started the car, all passengers ______ their seat belts properly. A. fasten B. had fastened C. will fasten D. has fastened

Question 14: Pupils ______ to school early should be allowed to enter the school without any delay.

Question 15: I think I'll ______ a visit to Louvre museum while I'm in Paris this summer.

Question 16: This luxury hotel must be ______ than the small one over there.

A. the most expensive B. more expensive C. expensive D. most expensive Question 17: In some cultures blowing your nose in public ______ impolite.

A. consider B. is considering C. considered D. is considered Question 18: I didn't tell her that he was late ______.

A. though I don’t want to cause her any harm B. when I hasn’t caused her any harm C. because I didn't want to cause her any alarm D. as soon as I will cause her any harm

Question 19: He co-founded World Hunger Year, an ______ devoted to ending world hunger.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completeseach of the following exchanges.

Question 20: The hotel receptionist is asking the customer his name. Receptionist: “Could you please say your name again please?” Customer: “__________”

C. No, I don’t remember. D. Sure, that’s Mike. Question 21: Linda is talking to her friend about her father’s trip. Linda: “My brother’s coming back from his business trip.” Linda’s friend: “__________”

C. Really? I didn’t know when he went. D. He shouldn’t.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The river has been polluted with toxic waste from local factories.

Question 23: In the initial days and weeks, it was literally a case of living from hand to mouth.

A. saving lots of money B. spending a large amount of money C. sending all the money D. losing all the money

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: We've offered her the job, but I don't know whether she'll accept it.

Question 25: I went to the meeting armed with the relevant facts and figures.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “How many books did you buy last weekend?” asked my mother. A. My mother asked me how many books had I bought the last weekend. B. My mother asked me how many books I bought the previous weekend. C. My mother asked me how many books did I buy the last weekend.

D. My mother asked me how many books I had bought the previous weekend. Question 27: This is the first time I have attended such an enjoyable wedding party.

A. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before. B. I have ever attended such an enjoyable wedding party before. C. I attended such an enjoyable wedding party long time ago. D. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time. Question 28: It’s compulsory for the students to correct all these mistakes.

A. The students should correct all these mistakes. B. The students must correct all these mistakes. C. The students needn’t correct all these mistakes. D. The students may not correct all these mistakes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needscorrection in each of the following questions.

Question 29: The school has pupils from much different ethnic and cultural backgrounds.

Question 30: I have gone to see Peter yesterday evening, but he was not at home.

Question 31: She complained that her husband never paid her any complements anymore.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combineseach pair of sentences in the following questions.

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Question 32: Linh doesn’t get more pocket money. He can't ask Trinh out to the movie. A. If Linh got more pocket money, he would ask Trinh out to the movie.

B. If only Linh had got more pocket money, he would have asked Trinh out to the movie. C. If Linh got more pocket money, he wouldn’t ask Trinh out to the movie.

D. Provided that Linh gets more pocket money, he won't ask Trinh out to the movie. Question 33: My car engine overheated. It made a strange grinding noise.

A. No sooner had my car engine overheated than it made a strange grinding noise. B. Not only did my car engine overheated but it also made a strange grinding noise.

C. Had it not been for my overheated car engine, it wouldn’t have made a strange grinding noise. D. However my car engine overheated, it was making a strange grinding noise.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

Data breaches and hacks have made the news a lot lately. Just look at the fallout from Target. The harsh reality of doing business online is that your site may get hacked. Customers want to feel secure when they (34) ______ an online purchase and want to be reassured that their financial information won’t be shared or compromised.

Post a clear privacy statement on your site about who has access to your customer’s information. Then, follow through with it. Take steps to (35) ______ customer data and personal information. That includes regularly changing your passwords on your site to discourage breaches and closely monitoring your reports and data to identify any security risks. By remaining vigilant and being proactive, you can protect your site, (36) ______ in turn protects your customers and builds trust and loyalty.

Some of this is highly technical, which means you may want to hire a webmaster or an outside company to audit and maintain your custom site’s security. That costs money, (37) ______ a security breach can cost you your whole business. If you’re using a hosted solution, make sure to stay in close contact with your hosting company to address (38) ______ potential security concerns.

Question 35: A. protect B. schedule C. entrance D. include

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.

In a world with increasing levels of carbon in the atmosphere, these new findings imply that warmer weather and longer growing seasons will not allow temperate deciduous trees to take up more carbon dioxide. The study’s predictive model suggests that by 2100, when tree growing seasons are expected to be between 22 and 34 days longer, leaves will fall from trees between

three and six days earlier than they do now.

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This has significant implications for climate change modelling. If we accept that the amount of carbon taken up by deciduous trees in temperature countries like the UK will remain the same each year regardless of the growing season, carbon dioxide levels will rise more quickly than was previously expected. The only way to change this will be to increase the capacity of trees to absorb carbon.

Plants that aren’t limited by the amount of nitrogen available may be able to grow for longer in the warming climate. These are the trees which can take nitrogen from the air, such as alder. But these species will still lose their leaves at roughly the same time as always, thanks to less daylight and colder temperatures.

But on the upside, with the prospect of some trees losing their leaves earlier and others

losing them at the time they do now, there might be the prospect of prolonged autumnal colours

– and more time for us to kick through the leaves.

Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. Autumn and Growing Seasons B. Growing Season in the UK C. Earlier Autumn Colours D. Nitrogen From the Air

Question 40: According to the passage, carbon and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere ______. A. has been decreasing in the world

B. cannot be taken up more by temperate deciduous trees C. will rise more slowly than was previously expected D. cannot be absorbed by increasing the capacity of trees

Question 41: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

Question 42: The word prospect in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.

A. revolution B. responsibility C. relation D. possibility Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Tree growing seasons may be 22 to 34 days longer. B. Plants may grow for longer in the warming climate. C. Alder will never lose their leaves.

D. Some trees will lose leaves at the time they do now.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

Food security means having, at all times, both physical and economic access to sufficient food to meet dietary needs for a productive and healthy life. A family is food secure when its

members do not live in hunger or fear of hunger. Food insecurity is often rooted in poverty and

has long-term impacts on the ability of families, communities and countries to develop and prosper. Prolonged undernourishment stunts growth, slows cognitive development and increases susceptibility to illness.

Today, more than 800 million people across the globe go to bed hungry every night, most of them smallholder farmers who depend on agriculture to make a living and feed their families.

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Despite an explosion in the growth of urban slums over the last decade, nearly 75 percent of poor people in developing countries live in rural areas. Growth in the agriculture sector -- from farm to fork -- has been shown to be at least twice as effective in reducing poverty as growth in other sectors.

Investing in these smallholder farmers—many of whom are women—and the food systems

that nourish them is more important than ever. In order to feed a population expected to grow to

9 billion people by 2050, the world will have to double its current food production. Given scarcity of natural resources and other challenges, the world will need to be more efficient in how it meets this demand. To ensure that people have sufficient food, aligning short-term assistance with a long-term development strategy can help countries feed their own people.

By addressing acute need as well as the root causes of hunger, poverty and malnutrition,

USAID is strengthening prosperity and security while demonstrating American generosity around the world. USAID’s programs draw on America’s strength in agriculture and bring benefits back to America as well. For example, USAID’s research investments have helped farmers abroad and in the United States protect their harvests from pests and disease.

The enactment of the Global Food Security Act of 2016 and the Global Food Security Reauthorization Act of 2018 solidified the U.S. Government’s continued, bipartisan commitment to reducing hunger, malnutrition and poverty around the world.

Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. Living in Hunger or Fear of Hunger B. Growth in the agriculture sector C. USAID’s research investments D. What is Food Security?

Question 45: The word insecurity in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 46: According to paragraph 1, food security ______. A. is to meet dietary needs for a productive and healthy life B. means living in hunger or fear of hunger

C. is often rooted in poverty and has long-term impacts D. increases susceptibility to illness

Question 47: The word them in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

Question 48: The word acute in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Prolonged undernourishment slows cognitive development.

B. Depending on agriculture to make a living is not secure. C. It need to be more efficient in meeting demand of food. D. USAID has helped farmers abroad harvest their product.

Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Food security is crucial, and many solutions have to be applied to secure it. B. We must be more effective in reducing poverty as growth.

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C. A long-term development strategy can help reduce harvest time.

D. The Global Food Security Act of 2016 allows the US to help other countries.

---HẾT---ĐỀ SỐ 7

(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined partdiffers from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from theother three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 4: A. register B. demonstrate C. celebrate D. resurrect

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each ofthe following questions.

Question 5: I’ve made some sandwiches ______.

A. even if we had a snack on the way B. before we could have a snack on the way C. until we can have a snack on the way D. so that we can have a snack on the way Question 6: When you buy a new ______ , you usually get software included at no extra cost.

Question 7: The boy is quick ______ understanding what I explain to him.

Question 8: My sister has a green ______, but I kill most plants that I buy.

Question 9: They can hear the music from his room sometimes, ______?

A. don’t they B. can’t they C. haven’t they D. couldn’t they Question 10: After Janet _____ her English course, she went to the US to continue her study.

A. will finish B. has finished C. will have finished D. had finished Question 11: They're making ______ most elaborate preparations for the wedding.

Question 12: He deserves ______ locked up for ever for what he did.

Question 13: We want clean rivers and lakes, where you can swim without risk to your ______ .

Question 14: If we could all ______ an effort to keep this office tidier it would help.

Question 15: Trembling with fear, she ______ the money to the gunman.

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Question 16: Information ______ in the group is very useful and valuable for me.

Question 17: Joe’s leg ______ while he was playing football.

A. broke B. was breaking C. was broken D. was being broken Question 18: His grandmother’s illness was ______ than he thought at first.

A. most serious B. the most serious C. serious D. more serious

Question 19: They have attempted to chart the ______ temperature variations over the last 140 years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completeseach of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Linh is inviting Loan to her company’s party.

Linh: “Will you come to my company’s year end party tomorrow?” Loan: “__________”

Question 21: Jack is telling Marry what he is busy with.

Jack: “I’ve been working with this puzzle for nearly two hours.” Marry: “__________”

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Using these indicators, I never realized before how much I appreciated Toronto.

Question 23: We respectfully advise the Culture Secretary not to put her shirt on it.

C. become interested in D. be doubtful about

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: If you compare house prices in the two areas, it's quite amazing how different they

are.

Question 25: We'll need accurate costings before we can agree to fund the scheme.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Perhaps the boy will not take a nap today.

A. The boy should take a nap today. B. The boy need to take a nap today. C. The boy may not take a nap today. D. The boy mustn’t take a nap today.

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Question 27: They last visited Museum of London 3 years ago. A. They paid a visit to Museum of London for 3 years. B. They haven’t visited Museum of London for 3 years. C. They didn’t visit Museum of London 3 years ago. D. They have visited Museum of London for 3 years.

Question 28: “What will happen to his dogs and cats?” Lan said to us. A. Lan asked us what would happen to his dogs and cats.

B. Lan asked us what would happen to her dogs and cats. C. Lan asked us what will happen to her dogs and cats. D. Lan asked us what will happen to his dogs and cats.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needscorrection in each of the following questions.

Question 29: Alcohol can also make the stomach more sensitive to the irritated effect of aspirin. irritating

Question 30: I detest having to get up when it was dark outside.

Question 31: I prefer the second option - their advantages are simplicity and cheapness.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combineseach pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 32: I don’t have a lot of money. I can't buy a luxury car.

A. If only I had had a lot of money, I would have bought a luxury car. B. If I had a lot of money, I wouldn’t buy a luxury car.

C. If I had a lot of money, I would buy a luxury car.

D. Provided that I have a lot of money, I won't buy a luxury car.

Question 33: He did not appear at work. His colleagues then became suspicious. A. Not until he hadn’t appeared at work did his colleagues become suspicious. B. Having become suspicious, he did not appear at work.

C. Had his colleagues become suspicious, he wouldn’t appear at work. D. Only after his colleagues became suspicious did he not appear at work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

Formula is a breast milk substitute made from a special dried-milk powder. Most infant formula is made from cow’s milk, vitamins and minerals. Formula is (34) ______ with cooled boiled water and fed to babies in a bottle or cup.

The nutrients in formula support a baby’s growth during their first 6 months. Once they reach 6 months, they can start eating solids as well, (35) ______ a baby should not drink regular cow’s milk until they are at least 12 months old. The main sources of protein in formula come from cow’s milk. Formula also includes fat from vegetable oils to (36) ______ a baby’s growth.

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(37) ______ formulas have sources other than cow’s milk, such as soybeans or rice. These specialty formulas have been altered, so they are easier to digest or are suitable for babies (38) ______ cannot tolerate cow’s-milk protein or lactose. Specialty formulas should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.

When Elizabeth Alexandra Mary, the elder daughter of Prince Albert, Duke of York, and his wife, Lady Elizabeth Bowes-Lyon, was born on April 21, 1926, she apparently had little chance of assuming the throne, as her father was a younger son of King George V.

But in late 1936, her uncle, King Edward VIII, abdicated to marry an American divorcée, Wallis Simpson. As a result, her father became King George VI, and 10-year-old “Lilibet” (as she was known within the family) became the heir presumptive to the throne.

Though she spent much of her childhood with nannies, Princess Elizabeth was influenced

greatly by her mother, who instilled in her a devout Christian faith as well as a keen

understanding of the demands of royal life. Her grandmother, Queen Mary, consort of King George V, also instructed Elizabeth and her younger sister Margaret in the finer points of royal etiquette.

Educated by private tutors, with an emphasis on British history and law, the princess also studied music and learned to speak fluent French. She trained as a Girl Guide (the British

equivalent of the Girl Scouts) and developed a lifelong passion for horses.

As queen, she kept many thoroughbred racehorses and frequently attended racing and breeding events. Elizabeth’s famous attachment to Pembroke Welsh corgis also began in childhood, and she owned more than 30 corgis over the course of her reign.

Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. Son of King George V B. Childhood and Education of a Princess C. Life of Queen Mary D. British History and Law

Question 40: According to the passage, Elizabeth Alexandra Mary ______. A. firstly had little chance to become the queen

B. didn’t spend much of her childhood with nannies C. didn’t know about finer points of royal etiquette D. attended no racehorses and breeding events

Question 41: The word who in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. Princess Elizabeth B. grandmother C. her mother D. Margaret

Question 42: The word passion in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.

A. a formal suggestion B. damage to a person’s feelings

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C. a large amount of money D. a very strong feeling of love Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Elizabeth Alexandra Mary’s father was a younger son of King George V. B. King Edward VIII left the throne in 1936.

C. Elizabeth Alexandra Mary couldn’t speak French. D. The queen Elizabeth owned more than 30 corgis.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

There are several important take-home messages here. The first is that all is not lost, and while a standardized test like the one the NAEP reported can tell us something about learning, it

doesn’t tell us everything. Indeed, the value of learning and being in the classroom can’t just be

measured by a single test, and not every child is a good test taker.

However, it is becoming clear that the last few years of remote learning caused by the pandemic weren’t great for our kids, and this test does help confirm that. But kids can learn remotely if they have the right resources, and the kids who suffered most were the ones who were already at a disadvantage and didn’t necessarily have the resources they needed to get through these unprecedented times in terms of learning.

So what do we do? We can work to make sure that disruptions like the ones caused by the COVID-19 pandemic don’t widen the gaps that already exist in our education system, and that if we do have to go back to remote learning, that our kids—all of our kids—have the resources they need to be successful. It also tells us that these students might need more resources now to

help them make up for the time they lost during the pandemic.

Finally, if there is one positive take-home message here, it’s that in-class learning is incredibly important, and we can’t take for granted the value of the work that our teachers and schools are doing when they are spending nearly 40 hours a week in the classroom with our children. On top of that, teachers are under a great amount of pressure to make up for the perceived losses in learning our children have potentially experienced in the past two years. So, as we move into the new school year this fall, let’s remember how important our teachers are,

and be incredibly thankful that they are back in the classroom again.

Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. How the Pandemic Has Impacted Children’s Learning

B. Pandemic Weren’t Great for Our Kids

C. Disruptions Caused by the COVID-19 Pandemic D. The Perceived Losses in Learning of Our Children

Question 45: The word value in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 46: According to paragraph 2, remote learning ______. A. confirm that a test is required for students

B. help children have the right resources C. weren’t beneficial to the kids

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D. is useful for those who were already at a disadvantage

Question 47: The word them in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

Question 48: The word thankful in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. A standardized test like the one the NAEP tells us everything.

B. We should avoid widening the gaps that already exist in our education system. C. In-class learning is incredibly important.

D. Teachers are now under much pressure when teaching our children. Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. A single test does not reflect if a child is suitable for it or not.

B. These unprecedented times in terms of learning help students become mature. C. The value of the work that our teachers and schools are doing has been neglected.

D. Remote learning is not suitable for all, and we should be grateful to teachers’ endeavour.

---HẾT---ĐỀ SỐ 8

(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined partdiffers from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from theother three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 4: A. intimate B. advertise C. graduate D. overcome

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each ofthe following questions.

Question 5: I don’t think a supermarket is ______ than a shopping center.

Question 6: None of the other children play with her, and I think she feels ______.

Question 7: You should take your car in for a service ______.

A. until it was starting to make weird noises B. because it's starting to make weird noises C. in case it had started to make weird noises D. as long as it has started to make weird noises

Question 8: They happened ______ at the right place almost immediately.

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A. look B. to look C. to looking D. looking Question 9: Yesterday Duy was absent ______ class because he was sick.

Question 10: Oil prices were all over the ______ last week, but they seem to be more stable now.

Question 11: She didn’t study modern European history at college, ______?

Question 12: Mr. Trung has met many foreigners since he ______ here last summer.

Question 13: Grapes from this ______ region are freighted all over the world.

Question 14: The talks failed to ______ any progress toward a settlement.

Question 15: Our neighbours are very inconsiderate - they're always playing loud ______ late at night.

Question 16: This newspaper ______ every day. It’s a daily newspaper.

A. publishing B. is publishing C. is published D. published

Question 17: This research seems to give some validity to the ______ that the drug might cause cancer.

Question 18: Any new company is seen as an invader in an already ______ market. A. compete B. competition C. competitive D. competitively Question 19: Workers ______ small children are arranged a separate area to park their cars.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completeseach of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Linh’s mother is asking her about the test. Linh’s mother: “How have you done with the test?” Linh: “__________”

A. The test is good. B. I could have done it better.

Question 21: Linh is inviting Trang to her brother’s wedding on Sunday. Linh: “I would like to invite you to my brother’s wedding this Sunday.” Trang: “__________”

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: A start was made by encouraging and facilitating the recycling of tins and bottles.

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20 đề ôn thi tốt nghiệp thpt 2024 có đáp án

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