CCNA 1 and 2 Companion Guide, Revised (Cisco Networking Academy Program) part 105 potx

Appendix C
Check Your Understanding
Answer Key
This appendix contains the answers to the Check Your Understanding review questions
at the end of each chapter.
Chapter 1
1. The connection to the Internet can be broken down into which of the following?
D. All of the above
2. What is the main circuit board of a computer?
B. Motherboard
3. What are PCMCIA slots?
A. Slots used in laptops
4. What is a NIC?
B. A printed circuit board that provides network communication
5. Which of the following is/are the resource(s) you need before you install a NIC?
D. All of the above
6. Which number system is based on powers of 2?
C. Binary
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1010 Appendix C: Check Your Understanding Answer Key
7. Match the following terms with their definitions:
1. Bit
2. Byte
3. kbps
4. MHz
A. The smallest unit of data in a computer
B. A standard measurement of the rate at which data is transferred over a
network connection
C. A unit of frequency; the rate of change in the state or cycle in a sound wave,
alternating current, or another cyclical waveform
D. A unit of measure that describes the size of a data file, the amount of space

on a disk or another storage medium, or the amount of data being trans-
ferred over a network
Answers: 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
8. What is the largest decimal value that can be stored in 1 byte?
C. 255
9. What is the decimal number 151 in binary?
B. 10010111
10. What is the binary number 11011010 in decimal?
C. 218
11. What is the binary number 0010000100000000 in hexadecimal?
A. 0x2100
12. What is the hexadecimal number 0x2101 in binary?
A. 0010 0001 0000 0001
13. Which of the following statements is true of ping?
D. All of the above
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Chapter 2 1011
Chapter 2
1. What was the first type of microcomputer network to be implemented?
C. LAN
2. Using modem connections, how many modems would it take to allow connections
from ten computers?
C. Ten
3. What is a code that is “burned in” to a network interface card?
B. MAC address
4. Which topology has all its nodes connected directly to one center point and has
no other connections between nodes?
C. Star
5. What do TIA and EIA stand for?
B. Telecommunications Industry Association, Electronic Industries Alliance

6. LANs are designed to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Operate within a limited geographic area
B. Allow many users to access high-bandwidth media
D. Provide full-time connectivity to local services
7. Which of the following statements best describes a WAN?
A. It connects LANs that are separated by a large geographic area.
8. Which of the following statements correctly describes a MAN?
C. A MAN is a network that spans a metropolitan area such as a city or
suburban area.
9. Which of the following is not one of the features of a SAN?
D. SANs minimize system and data availability.
10. What service offers secure, reliable connectivity over a shared public network
infrastructure?
B. Virtual private network
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1012 Appendix C: Check Your Understanding Answer Key
11. What links enterprise customer headquarters, remote offices, and branch offices
to an internal network over a shared infrastructure?
B. Intranet VPN
12. What is the name of the part of a company’s LAN that is made available to select
parties such as employees, customers, and partners?
B. The extranet
13. What is the movement of objects through layers?
B. Flow
14. The OSI model has how many layers?
D. Seven
15. What is the OSI model?
D. All of the above
16. Which of the following is the correct order of the network layers?
B.

1: Physical
2: Data link
3: Network
4: Transport
5: Session
6: Presentation
7: Application
17. Which layer of the OSI model handles physical addressing, network topology,
network access, and flow control?
B. The data link layer
18. Which of the following best defines encapsulation?
D. Wrapping data in a particular protocol header
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Chapter 2 1013
19. An e-mail message is sent from Host A to Host B on a LAN. Before this message
can be sent, the data must be encapsulated. Which of the following best describes
what happens after a packet is constructed?
B. The packet is put into a frame.
20. In the TCP/IP model, which layer deals with reliability, flow control, and error
correction?
B. Transport
21. Repeaters can provide a simple solution for what problem?
D. Too many nodes or not enough cable
22. Which of the following is true of a bridge and its forwarding decisions?
C. Bridges operate at OSI Layer 2 and use MAC addresses to make decisions.
23. Which of the following is true of a switch’s function?
B. Switches combine the connectivity of a hub with the traffic regulation of
a bridge.
24. What does a router route?
C. Layer 3 packets

25. Which of the following statements is true?
C. A DSLAM serves as the interface point of between a number of subscriber
premises and the carrier network.
26. What is/are the function(s) of an AAA server? (Select all that apply.)
D. All of the above
27. What is/are the function(s) of a firewall? (Select all that apply.)
A. Software-based
B. Hardware-based
C. Filter traffic
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1014 Appendix C: Check Your Understanding Answer Key
Chapter 3
1. Match the columns:
1) Neutrons A) Particles that have a negative charge
2) Protons B) Particles that have no charge (neutral)
3) Electrons C) Particles that have a positive charge
C. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
2. Which of the following regarding electricity is untrue?
D. None of the above.
3. Match the following to their respective units of measurement:
1) Voltage A) Ohm
2) Current B) Ampere
3) Resistance C) Volt
D. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
4. Electrons flow in loops called .
D. Closed, circuits
5. What is the maximum cable length for STP?
C. 100 meters
6. How many pairs of wires make up a UTP cable?
B. 4

7. Which connector does UTP use?
C. RJ-45
8. What is an advantage that coaxial cable has over STP or UTP?
C. It can run for a longer distance unboosted.
9. What does the twisting of the wires do in a twisted-pair cable?
C. It reduces noise problems.
10. What is the importance of the EIA/TIA standards? Select all that apply.
B. They provide guidelines for manufacturers to follow to ensure compatibility.
C. They provide the minimum media requirements for multiproduct and multi-
vendor environment.
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Chapter 4 1015
11. A fiber-optic cable transmits multiple streams of LED-generated
light.
A. Multimode
12. What is one advantage of using fiber-optic cable in networks?
D. It is capable of higher data rates than either coaxial or twisted-pair cable.
13. Which fiber-optic cable type is typically used for outside installations?
D. Loose-tube
14. What is the light source typically used in single-mode fiber optics?
B. Laser
15. Which term describes the angle at which a ray hits a glass surface?
C. Angle of incidence
16. Modulation is a process of changing amplitude, frequency, or phase. Which
acronym does not represent a type of modulation?
D. RM
17. Which range does not correctly identify an unlicensed wireless frequency?
C. 9 GHz
18. Which statement does not describe a benefit of spread spectrum?
A. Spread-spectrum transmissions are transmitted at high speeds.

19. Which statement does not describe the features of direct-sequence spread
spectrum (DSSS)?
C. DSSS technology has low throughput of data and short-range access.
20. Which of the following is not a feature of wired equivalent privacy (WEP)?
C. WEP is a security mechanism defined within in the 802.3 standards.
Chapter 4
1. Which of the following is an 802.3u specification?
C. 100BASE-TX
2. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice for Ethernet connectivity?
C. Use Fast Ethernet as a link between the user level and network devices to
support the aggregate traffic from each Ethernet segment on the access link.
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1016 Appendix C: Check Your Understanding Answer Key
3. Which standards body created the cables and connector specification used to
support Ethernet implementation?
C. TIA/EIA
4. Which of the following statements does not correctly describe a media connector?
A. An RJ-45 connector is an 8-pin connector used mainly for terminating coax-
ial cable.
5. For which of the following would you not need to provide a crossover cable?
B. Connecting routers to switches
6. Which technology is not a type of wireless communication?
B. Wideband
7. Which of the following is not a feature of wired equivalent privacy (WEP)?
B. WEP is a security mechanism defined within in the 802.3 standards.
8. Which of the following is not a WAN implementation?
D. Ethernet
9. What type of data-transmission method is used by a WAN?
B. Serial
10. What best describes a DCE?

D. Devices that make up the network end of the user-to-network interface
11. Which of the following media is used to interconnect the ISDN BRI port to the
service-provider device?
A. CAT 5 UTP straight-through
12. What type of connector is used for DSL connection?
B. RJ-11
13. What type of connector is used to connect a router and a cable system?
C. F
14. What type of cable is used to connect a terminal and a console port?
B. Rollover
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Chapter 5 1017
Chapter 5
1. Which of the following is not one of the recognized IEEE sublayers?
B. Data Link Control
2. The recognized IEEE sublayers are concerned with what layers of the OSI
reference model?
B. 1 and 2
3. The LLC, as a sublayer, participates in the process.
B. Encapsulation
4. The first six hexadecimal numbers in a MAC address represent an ?
B. Organizationally unique identifier
5. MAC addresses are bits in length.
C. 48
6. What is the name of the access method used in Ethernet that explains how
Ethernet works?
B. CSMA/CD
7. Where does the MAC address reside?
C. NIC
8. Which of the following statements best describes communication between two

devices on a LAN?
A. The source device encapsulates data in a frame with the MAC address of the
destination device and then transmits it. Everyone on the LAN sees it, but
the devices with nonmatching addresses otherwise ignore the frame.
9. Which functions are associated with framing?
D. All of the above
10. How does a computer on a LAN detect an error in a frame?
C. It compares an FCS in the frame to one that the computer calculates from
the contents of the frame.
11. Media Access Control refers to what?
C. Protocols that determine which computer on a shared-medium environment
is allowed to transmit the data
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1018 Appendix C: Check Your Understanding Answer Key
12. Which best describes a CSMA/CD network?
A. One node’s transmission traverses the entire network and is received and
examined by every node.
13. In an Ethernet or IEEE 802.3 LAN, when do collisions occur?
B. When two stations listen for a traffic, hear none, and transmit simultaneously
14. Which is an important Layer 2 data link layer function?
D. All of the above
15. Which of the following is an Ethernet frame error type?
D. All of the above
16. Which protocol is a nondeterministic protocol?
B. CSMA/CD
17. Which is true of a deterministic MAC protocol?
C. It allows hosts to “take turns” sending data.
18. The network area within which data packets originated and collide is called a
?
A. Collision domain

19. Which best describes broadcasting?
A. Sending a single frame to many stations at the same time
20. Using repeaters the collision domain.
C. Extends
21. The process of using the complex networking devices, such as bridges, switches,
and routers, to break up the collision domains is known as:
B. Segmentation
Chapter 6
1. What is the name of the method used in Ethernet that explains how Ethernet
works?
B. CSMA/CD
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