Master gmat 2010 part 10 pot

live without encumbrances. Emerson
wanted to visualize Thoreau as the
ideal scholar in action that he had
called for in the “American Scholar.” In
the end, however, Emerson regretted
Thoreau’s too-private individualism,
which failed to signal the vibrant
revolution in national consciousness
that Emerson had prophesied. For
Emerson, what Thoreau lacked, Walt
Whitman embodied in full. On reading
Leaves of Grass (1855), Emerson saw
in Whitman the “prophet of democracy”
whom he had sought. Other American
Renaissance writers were less optimis-
tic than Emerson and Whitman about
the fulfillment of the democratic ideal.
In The Scarlet Letter (1850), Nathaniel
Hawthorne concluded that antinomian-
ism such as the “heroics” displayed by
Hester Prynne leads to moral anarchy;
and Herman Melville, who saw in his
story of Pierre (1852) a metaphor for
the misguided assumptions of demo-
cratic idealism, declared the transcen-
dentalist dream unrealizable. Ironi-
cally, the literary vigor with which both
Hawthorne and Melville explored the
ideal showed their deep sympathy with
it even as they dramatized its delusions.
15. The author of the passage seeks

primarily to
(A) explore the impact of the Ameri-
can Renaissance writers on the lit-
erature of the late 18th Century.
(B) illustrate how American litera-
ture of the mid-18th century dif-
fered in form from European lit-
erature of the same time period.
(C) identify two schools of thought
among American Renaissance
writers regarding the demo-
cratic ideal.
(D) point out how Emerson’s
democratic idealism was
mirrored by the works of the
American Renaissance writers.
(E) explain why the writers of the
American Renaissance believed
that an ideal world was forming
in America.
16. Based on the passage’s information,
it can be inferred that Emerson
might be characterized as any of the
following EXCEPT
(A) a transcendentalist.
(B) an American Renaissance writer.
(C) a public speaker.
(D) a would-be prophet.
(E) a political pragmatist.
17. With which of the following state-

ments about Melville and Hawthorne
would the author most likely agree?
(A) Both men were disillusioned
transcendentalists.
(B) Hawthorne sympathized with
the transcendental dream more
so than Melville.
(C) They agreed as to what the
transcendentalist dream would
ultimately lead to.
(D) Both men believed the idealists
to be misguided.
(E) Hawthorne politicized the
transcendental ideal, whereas
Melville personalized it.
18. Last year, two drownings occurred at
Lake Serene, so this year the lake’s
owner added one more lifeguard to
the lakefront staff. No drownings
have occurred at the lake this year.
However, the new lifeguard has been
home with the flu for nearly half the
summer, so it appears that the new
lifeguard was not needed after all.
Which of the following, if true, would be
most damaging to the argument above?
(A) This year, the lake’s owner
posted a warning about swim-
ming without a lifeguard
present.

(B) Drowning is not the lake
owner’s only safety concern.
(C) The lake has been equally
crowded with swimmers this
year as last year.
(D) Lake activities are safer in the
presence of lifeguards.
(E) The new lifeguard has never
saved a person from drowning.
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19. Analyst Q predicts that the share
price of MetaCorp stock will remain
at its current level or higher as long
as most stock analysts continue to
recommend that investors buy the
company’s stock, and that stock
analysts will continue to recommend
MetaCorp stock to investors as long
as the company continues to show a
profit. Analyst T predicts that the

share price of MetaCorp stock will at
least remain at its current level, even
if economic conditions worsen for
MetaCorp’s industry as a whole, as
long as MetaCorp continues to show
a profit.
If the predictions of Analyst Q and
Analyst T are all accurate, which of
the following is logically inferable
from them?
(A) Stock analysts would be more
likely to recommend MetaCorp
stock to investors if economic
conditions for MetaCorp’s
industry are good than if they
are poor.
(B) If MetaCorp stops showing a
profit, stock analysts will be
less inclined to recommend the
company’s stock to investors.
(C) If stock analysts stop recom-
mending MetaCorp stock to
investors, then the price of
MetaCorp stock is less likely to
at least remain at its current
level than if stock analysts
continue to recommend it.
(D) If economic conditions worsen
for MetaCorp’s industry as a
whole, stock analysts will be

less inclined to recommend
MetaCorp stock.
(E) If MetaCorp continues to show
a profit, then the price of
MetaCorp stock will either
remain at its current level
or increase.
20. A national performing arts associa-
tion conducted a survey that appears
to confirm the public’s interest in
high culture. More than 90 percent of
those surveyed said that they were
either “somewhat interested” or
“very interested” in attending
performances of opera, ballet, or
classical music.
Which of the following, if true, would
most seriously weaken the argument
above?
(A) Not all performances of opera,
ballet, and classical music
should be considered
“high culture.”
(B) Not all those who are interested
in attending performances of
opera, ballet, or classical music
are willing to support an arts
association.
(C) Most of those surveyed reported
being “somewhat interested”

rather than “very interested.”
(D) Other statistics show that more
people attend sporting events
than performances of opera,
ballet, or classical music.
(E) The association conducting the
survey receives most of its
funding from sources other than
the general public.
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21. The high level of violence in televi-
sion programming today has often
been cited as an explanation for the
increasing level of violence in our
society. And, in fact, some recent
studies show that the level of
violence in television programming
has increased considerably over the
past twenty years. However, other
recent studies indicate that the level,
while high, is only slightly greater
than it was twenty years ago.
Which of the following, if true, would
provide the best explanation for the
discrepancy among the recent studies
cited in the argument above?
(A) Numerous studies of television

violence have been conducted
since the advent of television,
and their results have not
always been in agreement.
(B) All of those involved in conduct-
ing the cited studies shared the
same perception of what
constitutes “violence” in televi-
sion programming.
(C) Television programming
designed specifically for chil-
dren accounts for a greater
portion of television program-
ming today than it did twenty
years ago.
(D) Many factors other than violence
in television programming have
a significant impact on the level
of violence in society.
(E) Over the last twenty years, the
level of violence in television
programming has increased
more than in society as a whole.
22. All modern computer languages
derive from a more basic “assembly”
language that originated many
decades ago.
(A) All modern computer languages
derive from
(B) Derived from all modern

computer languages is
(C) Resulting in all modern com-
puter languages was
(D) Modern computer languages,
which all resulted from
(E) All modern computer languages
are derived from
23. Despite his admiration of the great
jazz musicians that preceded him,
Blakey opposed them trivializing the
popular genre.
(A) them trivializing the popular
genre
(B) their trivializing of the popular
genre
(C) them when trivializing the
popular genre
(D) the popular genre being trivial-
ized by them
(E) their trivializing the popular
genre
24. Inventors have yet to learn that
something that does two things does
one of them better.
(A) Inventors have yet to learn
(B) Having not yet learned, inven-
tors need to learn
(C) Inventors have not as of yet
learned
(D) Inventors as yet have to learn

(E) Not having yet learned, inven-
tors have to learn
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25. In general, obesity is caused not by
the ingestion of foods that are high
in fat content but rather by eating
foods that contain too much sugar.
For proof, consider that over the past
ten years, even as sales of low-fat
meals, snacks, and desserts have
increased sharply throughout the
world’s developed countries, the
incidence of obesity in those coun-
tries, as a percentage of overall
population, has reached a new high.
Which of the following, if true, would
most support the claim made in the
argument above?
(A) Ninety percent of the low-fat
foods sold in developed coun-
tries are purchased by just 10
percent of the population.
(B) Sales of foods with a high sugar
content have increased signifi-
cantly over the past ten years.
(C) Government-approved stan-

dards of obesity have changed
several times during the past
ten years.
(D) Some foods labeled “low-fat”
actually contain relatively high
levels of fat.
(E) Most physicians consider
regular exercise to be an
important component of any
effective program to prevent or
reverse obesity.
26. The increasing scarcity of available
rental housing, particularly apart-
ments with two or more bedrooms, is
attributable to two recent trends: the
increasing number of new office
buildings as compared to new
apartment buildings and the increas-
ing number of apartments being sold
as condominiums rather than rented.
The passage above best supports
which of the following conclusions?
(A) The rate at which new apart-
ment buildings are being built
is decreasing.
(B) The current demand for reason-
ably priced rental housing is
greater than the current supply.
(C) Most apartments being sold as
condominiums have at least two

bedrooms.
(D) More new office buildings than
rental apartment buildings are
currently being built.
(E) The current demand for offices
is greater than the current
demand for rental apartments.
27. Scientist and artist Leonardo Da
Vinci was, and always will be
considered by many, as a singular
figure among those whose scientific,
artistic, and other cultural contribu-
tions defined the Renaissance period
of European history.
(A) was, and always will be consid-
ered by many, as
(B) was and always will be consid-
ered by many as being
(C) was, and always will be by
many, considered
(D) was, and always will be consid-
ered by many as,
(E) was considered by many and
always will be by many
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QUESTIONS 28–30 ARE BASED ON THE
FOLLOWING PASSAGE:

Line During the process of embryonic
development, cells become progres-
sively restricted in their developmental
potential and finally acquire the
biochemical and morphological special-
ization necessary for their respective
functions in an adult. Since enzymatic
and structural proteins are required for
the appearance and maintenance of
this specialization, the differentiated
state results from the synthesis and
activity of cell-specific proteins during
development.
Since all cells of an organism
contain the same genotype as the
fertilized egg, cellular differentiation is
the result of variable gene activity
rather than selective gene loss. Thus,
cellular specialization and cell-specific
protein synthesis result from the
expression of appropriately selected
groups of genes in each cell type. As
development proceeds, the progressive
differentiation of cells is correlated
with changes in the population of
protein species within the embryo,
which in turn reflect the accurate
programming of the time and sequence
of the biosynthesis of different proteins
by the genome. In the absence of

opportunities for genetic analysis,
determining the mechanisms involved
in the regulation of protein synthesis is
key to understanding genome control
during development.
The majority of studies on gene
activity in embryogenesis have been
done on the sea urchin system, where
large numbers of embryos undergoing
relatively synchronous development
can be easily obtained. Also, sea
urchins’ permeability to radioactive
isotopes and to inhibitors of RNA and
protein synthesis provides a distinct
advantage for study over amphibian
material. Especially well documented
are the maternal programming of early
development and the genomic control
of later differentiation in the urchin.
Maternal products, stored in the egg
cytoplasm from oogenesis, can support
development from fertilization through
the hatching blastula stage; however,
development from the mesenchyme
blastula stage is dependent upon gene
products synthesized under the
direction of the embryonic genome.
28. With which of the following state-
ments would the author of the
passage most likely disagree?

(A) Morphological specialization
requires the synthesis of
cell-specific proteins.
(B) Embryonic development
involves differentiation in cell
genotype.
(C) The population of protein
species with the embryo is
dependent upon the timing of
protein biosynthesis.
(D) Enzymatic proteins are required
for an organism’s full develop-
ment.
(E) Selective gene loss is not a
factor in cellular differentiation
during embryonic development.
29. Which of the following statements
about embryonic development in sea
urchins is best supported by the
passage?
(A) Genomic control over early
embryonic development is
especially well documented.
(B) Permeability to RNA inhibitors
is comparable to that in am-
phibian embryos.
(C) Development during the
hatching blastula stage requires
gene products synthesized
under the direction of the

embryonic genome.
(D) Maternal products can support
embryonic development following
the mesenchyme blastula stage.
(E) Genomic control of later cell
differentiation has been studied
extensively.
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30. The last paragraph of the passage
(lines 36–57)
(A) illustrates a biological process
by way of an example.
(B) describes a methodology for
studying a biological phenom-
enon.

(C) compares two stages of biologi-
cal development.
(D) defines and explains an impor-
tant term mentioned earlier.
(E) provides an example which
disproves a scientific theory.
31. Equipment used by private biotech-
nology-research firms becomes
obsolete more quickly than any other
business equipment, simply because
biotechnology advances so rapidly. A
proposed tax law would provide
significant tax incentives for busi-
nesses in every industry to replace
their old equipment with new
equipment. Obviously, political
lobbyists for the biotechnology
industry were the instigators of this
tax proposal.
Which of the following most supports
the claim that biotechnology industry
lobbyists are responsible for the tax
proposal?
(A) Equipment used in the biotech-
nology industry loses its value
more quickly than equipment
used in any other industry.
(B) Biotechnology firms expect
biotechnology advances to
outpace those in other indus-

tries for the foreseeable future.
(C) The legislator introducing the
proposed law used to work in
the biotechnology industry.
(D) Other industries have not
lobbied for the proposed law.
(E) Unless a biotechnology firm
replaces its obsolete equipment,
it will be driven out of business
by competing firms.
32. Due to sharply escalating tuition at
four-year colleges, debt on student
loans has increased to the point that
many new graduates are forced
either to pursue graduate-level
degrees, thereby postponing repay-
ment of their student loans, or to
pursue only the highest-paying jobs.
An unfortunate result of this trend is
that fewer and fewer new graduates
are entering important, but lower-
paying, professions that require only
a four-year degree.
Which of the following strategies
would be most effective in reversing
the decline in the number of college
graduates entering lower-paying
professions that require only a
four-year degree?
(A) Encourage college students to

enroll in classes year-round in
order to graduate early.
(B) Expand opportunities for
graduate-level students to
obtain paying jobs while still
in school.
(C) Expand course offerings that
prepare college students for
these lower-paying professions.
(D) Establish higher admission
standards for graduate-level
programs.
(E) Increase the number of aca-
demic units required to obtain a
four-year college degree.
33. International environmental regula-
tions do not protect hybrid species,
but they are protected by way of
domestic laws.
(A) but they are protected by way of
domestic laws
(B) although domestic laws do
(C) and so domestic laws only
protect hybrid species
(D) yet the laws of domestic
protection will so protect
(E) which require legal protection
domestically
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34. Even for high school freshmen and
sophomores, theories concerning the
psychology of death and dying among
the elderly can hold considerable
significance and interest for many
students.
(A) Even for high school freshmen
and sophomores, theories
concerning the psychology of
death and dying among the
elderly can hold considerable
significance and interest for
many students.
(B) Even for high school freshmen
and sophomores with consider-
able interest in theories con-
cerning the psychology of death
and dying among the elderly,
these theories can hold consid-
erable significance.
(C) Theories concerning the psy-
chology of death and dying
among the elderly, for many
students, even high school
freshmen and sophomores, can
hold considerable significance
and interest.
(D) Theories concerning the psy-

chology of death and dying
among the elderly can hold
considerable significance and
interest even for high school
freshmen and sophomores.
(E) Considerable significance and
interest for even high school
freshmen and sophomores is
held in theories concerning the
psychology of death and dying
among the elderly.
35. In order for a new third-world
democratic country to achieve and
maintain political stability, its
government must afford its citizens
the power to elect and remove the
country’s leaders. After all, Country
X is among the most stable countries
in the world, and its government
affords its citizens this power.
The argument above is flawed in that
it ignores the possibility that
(A) many third-world countries
already grant their citizens the
power to elect and remove their
leaders.
(B) a large percentage of third-
world countries have already
achieved, and are maintaining,
political stability.

(C) Country X’s leaders are more
popular among Country X’s
citizens than are the leaders of
most third-world countries
among their citizens.
(D) specific procedures for electing
a country’s leaders vary signifi-
cantly from one country to
another.
(E) Country X was already politi-
cally stable when its citizens
were first afforded the power to
elect and remove their leaders.
QUESTIONS 36–39 ARE BASED ON THE
FOLLOWING PASSAGE:
Line The origin of the attempt to distin-
guish early from modern music and to
establish the canons of performance
practice for each lies in the eighteenth
century. In the first half of that
century, when Telemann and Bach ran
the collegium musicum in Leipzig,
Germany, they performed their own
and other modern music. In the
German universities of the early
twentieth century, however, the
reconstituted collegium musicum
devoted itself to performing music from
the centuries before the beginning of
the “standard repertory,” by which was

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understood music from before the time
of Bach and Handel.
Alongside this modern collegium
musicum, German musicologists
developed the historical subdiscipline
known as “performance practice,”
which included the deciphering of
obsolete musical notation and its
transcription into modern notation, the
study of obsolete instruments, and—
most importantly because all musical
notation is incomplete—the re-estab-
lishment of lost oral traditions associ-
ated with those forgotten repertories.
The cutoff date for this study was
understood to be around 1750, the year
of Bach’s death. The reason for this
demarcation was that the music of
Bach, Handel, Telemann, and their
contemporaries did call for obsolete
instruments and voices and unanno-
tated performing traditions. Further-

more, with a few exceptions, late
baroque music had ceased to be
performed for nearly a century, with
the result that orally transmitted
performing traditions associated with it
were forgotten. In contrast, the
notation in the music of Haydn and
Mozart from the second half of the
eighteenth century was more complete
than in the earlier styles, and the
instruments seemed familiar, so no
“special” knowledge appeared neces-
sary. Also, the music of Haydn and
Mozart, having never ceased to be
performed, had maintained some
kind of oral tradition of perfor-
mance practice.
36. It can be inferred that the “standard
repertory” mentioned in line 15
might have included music
(A) that called for the use of
obsolete instruments.
(B) of the early twentieth century.
(C) written by the performance-
practice composers.
(D) written before the time of
Handel.
(E) composed before 1700.
37. According to the passage, perfor-
mance practice in the early twentieth

century involved all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) deciphering outdated music
notation.
(B) studying instruments no longer
in common use.
(C) reestablishing unannotated
performing traditions.
(D) determining which musical
instrument to use.
(E) transcribing older music into
modern notation.
38. According to the passage, German
musicologists of the early twentieth
century limited performance practice
to pre-1750 works because
(A) special knowledge was generally
not required to decipher
pre-1750 music.
(B) unannotated performing
traditions had been maintained
for later works.
(C) generally speaking, only music
written before 1750 had ceased
to be performed.
(D) the annotation for earlier works
was generally less complete
than for the works of Bach and
Handel.
(E) music written prior to 1750 was

considered obsolete.
39. The author refers to performance
practice as a “subdiscipline” (line 20)
probably because it
(A) was not sanctioned by the
mainstream.
(B) required more discipline than
performing the standard
repertory.
(C) focused on particular aspects of
the music being performed at
the German universities.
(D) involved deciphering obsolete
musical notation.
(E) involved performing the works
that were being transcribed at
the universities.
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40. Veterinarians have developed a new
cat food that contains medication to

prevent hair balls from accumulating
in a cat’s stomach and digestive
tract. Hair balls are generally not
harmful to cats, but they do cause
discomfort. Although the medicated
food is effective, many cats develop
an allergic reaction to it that, left
untreated, can result in a harmful
infection. Accordingly, those con-
cerned about the health of their cats
should not feed this food to them.
The answer to which of the following
questions would be most useful to cat
owners considering whether to feed
the medicated food to their cats?
(A) How much of the medicated
food must a cat eat in order to
develop an allergic reaction?
(B) How noticeable to humans are
the allergic reactions associated
with ingesting the medicated
food?
(C) Are there effective methods of
preventing hairballs other than
feeding a cat the medicated
food?
(D) Do cats typically develop
similar allergic reactions to
other types of food as well?
(E) What percentage of all cat

owners feed the medicated food
to their pet cats?
41. On this issue, this state’s elected
officials ignored the wishes of their
electorate, which cannot reasonably
be disputed in light of the legislative
record.
(A) On this issue, this state’s
elected officials ignored the
wishes of their electorate, which
(B) This state’s elected officials,
ignoring on this issue the
wishes of their electorate,
(C) That this state’s elected officials
ignored the wishes of their
electorate
(D) On this issue, the wishes of the
electorate were ignored by this
state’s elected officials, and
(E) That the wishes of the elector-
ate on this issue were ignored
by this state’s elected officials
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ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS
See Appendix B for score conversion tables to determine your score. Be sure to keep a tally of
correct and incorrect answers for each test section.

Analysis of an Issue—Evaluation and Scoring
Evaluate your Issue-Analysis essay on a scale of 1 to 6 (6 being the highest score) according to
the following five criteria:
Does your essay develop a position on the issue through the use of incisive reasons
and persuasive examples?
Are your essay’s ideas conveyed clearly and articulately?
Does your essay maintain proper focus on the issue, and is it well organized?
Does your essay demonstrate proficiency, fluency, and maturity in its use of sen-
tence structure, vocabulary, and idiom?
Does your essay demonstrate command of the elements of Standard Written En-
glish, including grammar, word usage, spelling, and punctuation?
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