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Master gmat 2010 part 62 docx

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30. The correct answer is (C). Since either statement considered alone involves a linear
equation in two variables, neither statement alone suffices to answer the question.
Consider the two statements together. Notice that, in each equation, the right side is
the same: the number 3. Thus, 5x 2 4y 5 4y 2 5x. This equation is equivalent to x 5
4
5
y.
Given that x . 0, x must be less than y, and the answer to the question must be no.
31. The correct answer is (A). To simplify the problem, write each numerator term over
the common denominator, then cancel common factors:
x
4
2 y
5
x
4
y
5
5
x
4
x
4
y
5
2
y
5
x
4
y


5
5
1
y
5
2
1
x
4
Then, substitute the values for x and y provided in the question, and combine fractions:
1
~22!
5
2
1
2
4
5
1
232
2
1
16
52
1
32
2
2
32
52

3
32
32. The correct answer is (B). Statement (1) provides a factorable quadratic equation
with two different roots: (x 2 1)(x 2 3) 5 0; x 5 1, 3. Since there are two roots (possible
values of x), statement (1) alone is insufficient to answer the question. Statement (2)
also provides a factorable quadratic equation, but the two roots are the same:
(x 2 1)(x 2 1) 5 0; x 5 1. Since the only possible value of x is 1, statement (2) alone
suffices to answer the question.
33. The correct answer is (C). Statement (1) alone is insufficient because it provides no
information about
CD. Statement (2) alone is insufficient because it provides no
information about
AB. Together, however, statements (1) and (2) suffice to answer the
question. Given statement (1), you can determine the circle’s circumference, which is
twice the length of two arcs created by a diameter chord. From the circumference you
can determine the circle’s diameter and compare it to the length of
CD, which statement
(2) indicates is 5. (Although you don’t need to do the calculations or actually answer the
question, the circle’s circumference is twice the length of arc ACB,or10p, and its
diameter is 10. Given that the length of
CD 5 5, the length of AB . the length of CD,
and the answer to the question is yes.)
34. The correct answer is (E). Since x equals the rate (speed) of the freight train, you can
express the rate of the passenger train as x 1 45. Substitute these values for time and
rate into the formula for each train:
Formula: rate 3 time 5 distance
Passenger: ~x 1 45!~3!53 x 1 135
Freight: ~x!~3!53x
The combined distance that the two trains covered is 3x 1 (3x 1 135) 5 6x 1 135.
35. The correct answer is (D). Statement (1) focuses on the weighted-average concept.

Given a sum as well as the relative weight of all members in the set (all five grocery
items), you can determine each member (the price of each item). Statement (1) provides
all the information you need. Statement (2) alone suffices to answer the question:
$6.05 2 (4)($1.10) 5 the price of the most expensive item. (For the record, given either
statement alone, the price of the most expensive item is $1.65.)
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Practice Test 5 593
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36.
The correct answer is (A). The edge
S
s 1
3
2
D
only accommodates (s 1 1) 1-inch cubes
along its edge. The additional half-inch is unused space. Thus, the number of 1-inch
cubes that can be packed into the box is the product of the three edges: (s)(s 11)(s 21)
5 s(s
2
2 1) 5 s
3
2 s.
37. The correct answer is (D). Regardless of the number of marbles in the bag, the
red-blue-green marble ratio is 4:2:1. As you can see, blue marbles account for
2
7

of the
total number of marbles. Thus, the probability of picking a blue marble is
2
7
.
Verbal Section
1. A
2. E
3. C
4. C
5. E
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. E
12. C
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. A
18. B
19. E
20. E
21. D
22. B
23. D
24. B

25. A
26. C
27. A
28. E
29. D
30. B
31. A
32. B
33. D
34. A
35. A
36. B
37. E
38. D
39. E
40. D
41. D
1. The correct answer is (A). The original version is correct. The subject is compound
and therefore takes the plural verb form require, not the singular form requires—as
choices (B), (C), and (E) provide. Choice (D) undermines the grammatical parallelism
between the underlined phrase and the sentence’s final clause.
2. The correct answer is (E). The original version is not a complete sentence. Choice (E)
corrects the problem by replacing but with is. Choice (B) also fixes the problem, but its
use of the subjunctive mood (would instead) makes no sense in context.
3. The correct answer is (C). The argument fails to explicitly provide that employees
who are at least ten years out of college change employers less frequently on average
than other employees. This premise is essential to the argument’s conclusion, and
choice (C) supplies this additional premise.
4. The correct answer is (C). The original sentence makes an illogical comparison
between speech and region. Choice (C) corrects the problem by adding that of, without

creating any new problems.
5. The correct answer is (E). The argument relies on the unstated assumption that no
factor other than Gary’s driving speed might be responsible for the recent decrease in
his fuel mileage; in other words, no other circumstances that might affect fuel mileage
have changed recently. One effective way to weaken the argument would be to refute
this assumption. Choice (E) accomplishes this by providing a convincing alternative
explanation for the decrease.
594 PART VI: Five Practice Tests


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6. The correct answer is (C). Of the five choices, choice (C) is the best because it
substantiates an assumption needed for the argument’s conclusion to be reasonable.
Unless the winning candidate actually wages an expensive television ad campaign, it
makes no sense to conclude that this type of campaign contributed to the
candidate’s victory.
7. The correct answer is (A). The passage indicates that prior to the discovery of
extremophiles the thermal threshold was set at 60 degrees centigrade “because it was
thought that the molecular integrity of vital cellular components could not be
maintained beyond such temperatures.” It can be inferred that if extremophiles can live
and thrive past 60 degrees centigrade, they can maintain molecular integrity past the
previous thermal threshold. Hence, choice (A) is the correct answer. (The passage does
not mention extremophiles existing in moderate environments, so choice (B) cannot be
inferred from the passage.)
8. The correct answer is (D). Based on the context, it is clear that the author considers
thermal threshold to mean “the temperature at which biological organisms begin to
break down due to heat.” Choice (D) best expresses this meaning.
9. The correct answer is (B). In the first sentence, the author describes the modification
made to an existing system for classifying biological life forms. Then, in the rest of the
passage, the author provides the reason for the modification.

10. The correct answer is (B). The original sentence suffers from faulty parallelism.
Removing the second phrase of the comparison (set off by commas) reveals the omission
of as (is as crucial as). Choice (B) completes the form of the idiomatic phrase by
including the word as.
11. The correct answer is (E). The original version is redundant in its use of job twice.
Also, at times is not idiomatic here. (Either sometimes or occasionally would have been
correct.) Choice (E) corrects both problems. So does choice (D), but using the word some
twice sounds clumsy and alters the sentence’s meaning—by going too far in limiting the
situations in which a demonstration is requested.
12. The correct answer is (C). In the original sentence, the two-word phrase some times
is improper in context and should be replaced with a word such as occasionally or
sometimes. Also, the original sentence employs the passive voice—the subject (airplanes
departing) is acted upon by (prevented by) its object (severe weather). The result is
awkward and confusing. Choice (C) corrects both problems, replacing some times with
sometimes and using the active voice instead.
13. The correct answer is (C). The passage’s first two sentences point out that large
pharmaceutical companies are motivated primarily by profit, even to the extent that
they trade off millions of cholera- and malaria-related deaths every year to ensure their
own profitability. In light of these premises, the next premise (the passage’s final
sentence) leads strongly to the conclusion that these companies are willing to make a
similar trade-off when it comes to saving victims of germ warfare.
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Practice Test 5 595
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14. The correct answer is (A). The argument depends on the assumption that a great
white shark would not survive at Bayside Aquarium long enough to have any
significant impact on public awareness. Choice (A) provides evidence that helps refute

this assumption. (Common sense tells us that a captive animal is more likely to survive
in an environment similar to its natural habitat than in a different environment.)
15. The correct answer is (C). The sentence to which this question refers parallels the
preceding sentence, in which the author indicates the Encyclopedists’ concern for both
the theoretical and the practical. The author appears to provide one example of
each—the subject of the human soul is theoretical while the subject of stocking
production is practical.
16. The correct answer is (D). Notice that in the preceding sentence the author uses the
phrase “dared to publicly assert the intellectual freedom ”Thisphrase suggests a
challenge to political authority. Although the inference in choice (D) is not self-evident,
choice (D) is nevertheless a more reasonable explanation than any of the other four
choices for the author’s use of the word “understandably.”
17. The correct answer is (A). Although the French government refused to license its
printing, the work was nevertheless printed and sold extensively throughout Europe.
The clear implication is that its printing (as well as distribution) was illegal.
18. The correct answer is (B). The passage posits the following simple argument: If both
of two conditions (exposure to the nuclear testing at an age less than 10 years) are true,
then a particular result (death before age 50) is certain. Given that this argument is
true, any person alive today who resided in the town during the testing (and therefore
was exposed to the resulting radiation) must have been at least 10 years old at the time.
Here’s the essence of the reasoning:
Premise: If both A and B, then C.
Premise: Not C.
Conclusion: Not both A and B.
19. The correct answer is (E). The argument asserts essentially that it was the
marketing campaign, and not some other factor, that was responsible for the high
number of sales of the new version of ActiveWeb compared to competing products. One
way to support the argument is to rule out one or more other factors that might have
been responsible for this phenomenon instead. By implication, choice (E) provides just
this sort of evidence. While favorable third-party reviews of ActiveWeb would serve to

weaken the claim that the marketing campaign was the cause of the sales results,
unfavorable reviews would accomplish just the opposite.
20. The correct answer is (E). One problem with the original sentence is that it makes
an illogical comparison, suggesting that a pluralistic democracy is not a system of
government, when in fact it is. The solution is to add other to the end of the underlined
phrase. A second problem with the original sentence is that in greater degree is not
idiomatic; to a greater degree would be the appropriate idiom here. Choice (E) corrects
the first error and avoids the second one by replacing in greater degree with the
concise more.
596 PART VI: Five Practice Tests


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21. The correct answer is (D). The words examination, diagnosing, and treatment are not
all grammatically parallel. One solution is to replace diagnosing with diagnosis. Also,
the first clause seems to refer nonsensically to patients because of this word’s proximity
to the clause. The solution is to reconstruct the sentence so that the clause is closer to
physicians than to patients. Choice (D) is the only alternative that corrects both
problems without creating any new ones.
22. The correct answer is (B). The argument assumes that the proposed course of
action—reducing demand for aoli tree bark—is necessary to prevent total depletion of
aoli tree bark within fifty years. However, the argument ignores the possibility of
increasing supply as an alternative means of achieving this goal. Choice (B) provides
this alternative.
23. The correct answer is (D). Based on the last sentence of the passage, we can conclude
that juvenile criminals associate primarily with other juvenile criminals, and that adult
criminals constitute the same group of people who were juvenile criminals. For choice
(D) to not be readily inferable would require that most adult criminals associate
primarily with law-abiding peers as teenagers. But this contradicts what we know
about adult criminals, based on the passage information. Thus, choice (D) is

strongly inferable.
24. The correct answer is (B). In the original version, both limit of the number and limit
oftheboundaries improperly use of. (In both cases, limit on is idiomatic.) Also, the
plural numbers should be replaced with number. Choice (B) corrects both problems.
25. The correct answer is (A). The original version is the best one. Choice (B) is wordy
and awkward; choice (C) alters the sentence’s meaning by suggesting not using
waterfront land at all; choice (D) is awkward; and choice (E) contains utilizations, which
is not a word.
26. The correct answer is (C). The passage’s author indicates that Elvery was influenced
by fifteenth-century Italian art, but the author neither states nor suggests that Elvery
was influenced by her French contemporaries. Choice (D) is not explicitly supported in
the passage. However, in the third paragraph the author indicates that Keating was a
student of Orpen. The fact that Orpen participated in the French avant-garde
experiment as a teacher lends strong support to the assertion that Keating was also
influenced by the avant-garde movement.
27. The correct answer is (A). Although the passage does not indicate the subject matter
of the paintings of realists Henry and Keating, the author discusses Lavery and Orpen
as depicting in their paintings somewhat romanticized scenes of politically charged
subject matter. Yeats’ focus on everyday Irish life is set against, yet complements, (i.e.,
provides a “counterpoint to”) the depictions by Lavery and Orpen.
28. The correct answer is (E). The passage’s main concern, expressed in the first
sentence, is with the transition in Ireland from art that was influenced primarily by
Britain’s lyrical tradition to art that reflected Ireland’s distinct national character. Of
the five answer choices, choice (E) is most consistent with this overall concern.
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Practice Test 5 597
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29. The correct answer is (D). As a whole, the passage involves the increasing role that
Irish tradition and nationalism played in the subject matter of Irish painting, beginning
at the turn of the twentieth century. The first sentence strongly suggests that the
article would continue in this vein.
30. The correct answer is (B). Assuming the number of viable competitors has increased
during the last two years, the likely result would be to draw circulation away from
already viable newspapers, including the most profitable one. Given that profitability
depends primarily on advertising revenues and therefore on circulation, choice (B)
actually exacerbates the discrepancy between the two statements.
31. The correct answer is (A). The argument is essentially that the proposed law makes
no sense because knitting needles are dangerous as well. The argument relies explicitly
on an analogy between hypodermic and knitting needles. Thus, the two must be similar
in all respects relevant to the argument. Otherwise, the argument is unconvincing.
Choice (A) affirms that knitting needles are in fact dangerous, thereby affirming the
analogy between the two types of needles.
32. The correct answer is (B). The underlined part leaves it unclear whether the Milky
Way is the name of our galaxy or the name for the center of our galaxy. Choice (B)
reconstructs the underlined part to clear up the ambiguity.
33. The correct answer is (D). In the original version, the shift in time frame from past
(were) to present (have expected) is confusing and illogical. Also, the syntax obscures the
intended meaning; specifically, one could interpret neither result of the two experiments
to mean that each of the two experiments had two results; but this is clearly not the
intended meaning. Finally, the plural verb were does not agree in number with its
singular subject neither result. Choice (D) remedies all of these problems.
34. The correct answer is (A). The subjunctive mood is appropriate for this sentence
since it ostensibly involves a contrary-to-fact situation. Either of two phrases—If empty
space were or Were empty space—would be perfectly acceptable here. Choice (A) employs
the latter phrase. Choices (B) and (C) incorrectly use the present tense is, which is
inappropriate for expressing the subjunctive mood. Choice (B) is also wordy. Choice (D)
is not idiomatic. (That should be replaced with If.) Choice (E) incorrectly uses the past

tense was.
35. The correct answer is (A). Unless the primary motivation for joining a gym is a
concern for health and fitness, the fact that club memberships are in decline is
insufficient to show that people are becoming less concerned about their health and
fitness. The argument fails to rule out other possibilities as the major reasons people
use health clubs—for example, to socialize—as well as other possible reasons people
might discontinue using health clubs—for example, because membership fees have
become less affordable.
36. The correct answer is (B). The high-altitude plateaus are called altiplano (lines
16–17). The passage states explicitly that the soil fertility in the northern altiplano is
generally good (lines 18–20).
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37. The correct answer is (E). The passage provides explicitly that, unlike the Northern
Andes, the eastern slopes of the Central Andes have a dry season (lines 24–29).
38. The correct answer is (D). This question focuses on the information in the second
paragraph. The author first notes that vegetation patterns correspond generally with
climate (as determined primarily by latitude and altitude). Accordingly, altitude and
latitude affect vegetation patterns throughout the region. Then, in the final sentence
the author points out that, in spite of the general correspondence between climate and
vegetation, local patterns may not correspond so precisely with climate, due to a
number of local factors. Choice (D) accurately reflects the information in the second
paragraph.
39. The correct answer is (E). The only evidence the spokesperson has provided that the
coasters still in operation are safe is that no fatalities occurred last year involving any
one of these coasters. To better assess their safety, it would be helpful to determine the
incidence of not just fatal accidents but also non-fatal accidents involving these
coasters. Although the investigations described in choices (B), (C), and (D) might shed

some additional light on the safety of these coasters, the investigation described in
choice (E) relates most directly to the specific coasters that the spokesperson claims to
be safe.
40. The correct answer is (D). The original version misplaces the modifying phrase when
its people obey and revere the law. As it stands, the pronoun its appears to refer to
Lincoln; but the intended reference is to democracy. Choice (D) clarifies the pronoun
reference by positioning its after its antecedent democracy.
41. The correct answer is (D). SubStop complied with the state’s cost-of-living raise
requirements. (The question stem stipulates that all information in the passage is true.)
Therefore, the only explanation for giving either type of raise (discretionary or
cost-of-living) to 2 employees last year is that they had worked for SubStop
continuously for six months.
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Practice Test 5 599
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ANSWER SHEET PRACTICE TEST 6
ANALYTICAL WRITING ASSESSMENT
Analysis of an Issue


answer sheet


Practice Test 6 601
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