4 ĐỀ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 CHUYÊN THPT MÔN TIẾNG ANH: PHÚ YÊN, THỪA THIÊN HUẾ, BẮC NINH

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TỈNH PHÚ YÊN
ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG CHUYÊN
NĂM HỌC 2008-2009
Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

Đề thi có 04 trang.
Thí sinh làm bài trên giấy thi, không làm bài trên đề.

4 ĐỀ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 CHUYÊN THPT MÔN TIẾNG ANH:
PHÚ YÊN, THỪA THIÊN HUẾ, BẮC NINH
PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY
I. Pick out the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest
( 1 point )
1. A. child B. choose C. cheat D. chemical
2. A. student B. stupid C. study D. studio
3. A. cleaned B. repaired C. planned D. laughed
4. A. dog B. sorry C. doctor D. worry
II. Give the correct form of the word in brackets ( 1.5 points )
1. This stamp (collect)…………is valuable.
2. The villagers welcomed the visitors (warm)…………
3. It was very (care)…………of you to break that coffee cup.
4. You can buy waste (produce)…………made from this factory.
5. How much do you (weight)…………?
6. It was (surprise)…………that he failed the exam.
GRAMMAR
I. Choose the correct answer ( 4 points )
1. “ Do you have a bike ?” “ No, but I wish I………….one.”
A. having B. have C. can have D. had
2. You and I went there together ,………….?

A. didn’t you B. didn’t I C. didn’t we D. did we
3. John isn’t going to go, and Peter isn’t………….
A. too B. either C. also D. as well
4. She’d………….to buy that dress.
A. like B. liked C. to like D. liking
5. We are too late. The plane………….off ten minutes ago.
A. took B. has taken C. had taken D. was taken
6. Everyone looks much………….today than he did yesterday.
A. happy B. happily C. more happily D. happier
7. I spent half a year………….this boat.
A. to build. B. building C. built D. on building
8. Tommy suggested………….a pair of shoes for Dad on his birthday.
A. buying B. buy C. to buy D. bought
9. The men and animals ………….you saw on TV were from Japan.

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ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
A. who B. whom C. which D. that
10. I’m very proud………….my father.
A. in B. of C. off D. to
11. I………….late for the meeting next week. So don’t wait for me.
A. might be B. should be C. might D. must be
12. If I………….any problem, I………….ask for your help.
A. has……will B. had……will C. have…. would D. have…… will
13. The meal………….when I came.
A. was be cooked B. is cooked C. was being cooked D. is being cooked
14. He wonders………….with my heavy luggage.
A. what I will do B. what will I do C. what I would do D. what I do
15. He ………….to find a job, but he had no luck.
A. tried hard B. tried hardly C. hardly tried D. try hardly

16. The driver was………….
A. serious injured B. seriously injured C. injure seriously D. injured serious
II. In these sentences, each one has four underlined words or phrases marked A,B,C and D.
Choose the one word or phrase which must be changed in order for the sentence to be
correct. ( 1.5 points )
1. When she lived (A) at a farm, Kate (B) used to get up early and (C) go to bed as the sun (D)
went down.
2. Kin (A) missed her plane yesterday (B) because a traffic jam (C) on her way to (D) the
airport.
3. Sara (A) speaks so (B) fastly that I (C) can’t understand (D) her.
4. (A) How many (B) information (C) did you (D) ask for ?
5. (A) Would you mind (B) to give me (C) a hand (D) with the bag ?
6. Pelé, (A) from Brazil, is (B) considered one of the (C) greatest football (D) player of all
time.
READING
I.Read the passage and decide which answer best fits each space (2.5 points)
Some people call it Britain. Others say (1)………….Britain. Many people mistakenly
call the (2)………….country England. But its real name is a mouthful : the United Kingdom
(3)………….Great Britain and Northern Ireland. That’s why it’s usually just called the United
Kingdom, or UK for (4)………….
The United Kingdom is a (5)………….made up of four parts : England, Scotland,
Wales, and (6)………….Ireland. For centuries, it was (7)………….by kings and queens. The
United Kingdom still has a monarchy, although today its power is mostly symbolic.
England is the biggest part, but don’t (8)………….the others. Each part was once ruled
separately. Each has its (9)………….culture and its own native language, which some people
still speak. Each even has its own national soccer (10)………….!
1. A. Big B. Great C. Huge D. Large
2. A. all B. most C. mostly D. whole
3. A. of B. in C. for D. with
4. A. easy B. little C. short D. small

5. A. part B. place C. country D. continent
6. A. North B. Northern C. Northerner D. Northerly

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7. A. lead B. ruled C. headed D. topped
8. A. miss B. leave C. forget D. remember
9. A. own B. personal C. private D. favorite
10. A. group B. crowd C. team D. troop
II. Read the following passage and answer the questions ( 2.5
points )
Dear Santa Claus,
My name is Amy. I am nine years old. I have a problem at school. Can you help me
Santa ? Kids laugh at me because of the way I walk and run and talk. I have cerebral palsy. I
just want one day when no one laughs at me or makes fun of me.
Love, Amy
At radio station WJLT in Fort Wayne, Indiana, letters poured in for the Christmas wish
contest. The workers had fun reading about all the different presents that boys and girls from
across the city wanted for Christmas. When Amy’s letter arrived at the radio station, manager
Lee Tobin read it carefully. He knew cerebral palsy was a muscle disorder that might confuse
Amy’s schoolmates who didn’t understand her disability. He thought it would be good for the
people in Fort Wayne to hear about this special third-grader and her unusual wish. Mr. Tobin
called up the local newspaper.
The next day, a picture of Amy and her letter to Santa made the front page of the News
Sentinel. The story spread quickly. All across the country, newspapers and radio and television
stations reported the story of the little girl in Fort Wayne, Indiana, who asked for such a simple
yet remarkable regular at the Hagadorn house. Envelopes of all sizes addressed to Amy arrived
daily from children and adults all across the nation. They came filled with holiday greetings
and words of encouragement.
1. What was the problem with Amy ?
A. She had no friends at school.

B. She was laughed at by her schoolmates.
C. She was a special muscular third-grader.
D. She could not run and walk by herself.
2. Radio station WJLT
A. was where Santa Claus worked
B. had a contest for children who had disability at Christmas.
C. received letters from children with problems.
D. had a service for children at Christmas.
3. Lee Tobin
A. didn’t understand Amy’s disability.
B. was a kind person.
C. worked for the local newspaper.
D. worked with Santa Claus at Christmas.
4. When Amy’s letter was printed in the newspaper,
A. she could have one day without teasing.
B. children from her school sent her a lot of gifts.
C. letters were sent to her from all over the world.
D. people across the country sent letters with kind words to her.

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5. What is Amy’s full name ?
A. Amy Hagadorn.
B. Hagadorn Amy
C. Fort Amy
D. Wayne Amy
III. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word ( 2.5
points )
It’s a marvelous idea for children to do some cooking at an early age. Generally
speaking, most children can’t wait to help in the (1)………… and love getting involved in the
preparation (2)………… their meals. They should be encouraged to do so, and care should be

(3)………… to ensure they enjoy the experience. It is important to show them how to do
things (4)………… but they shouldn’t be criticized too much. Although the finished (5)
………… may not be quite to your liking, the young cook will undoubtedly find it the tastiest
(6)………… he or she has ever eaten.
Kitchens can, of course, be (7)………… places and so the absolute importance of
keeping an eye (8)………… children at all times cannot be emphasized too heavily. Sharp (9)
………… , for example, should be avoided until children are (10)………… enough to handle
them safely.
WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one ( 2.5
points )
1. His parents made him study for his exams.
He was…………………………………….
2. We’d better buy a new cooker.
It’s…………………………………………
3. I lent my car to that man.
That’s…………………………………….
4. Let’s invite the Browns to the party on Sunday.
He suggested…………………………….
5. Everyone heard about the accident before I did.
I was the…………………………………
II. Writing: - An English-speaking friend is coming to stay with you for the weekend.
- Write a letter telling your friend about three ideas you have for her/his visit.
- Write your letter in about 100 words. Do not write your name and your address.
( 2 points )
_______THE END_______
Họ và tên thí sinh:………………………………………Số báo danh:…………………………………………….

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Chữ ký giám thị 1:……………………… …………….Chữ ký giám thị 2:………………

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ĐÁP ÁN
ANSWER KEY 1
PRONUNCIATION
I. 1 pt
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. D
II. 1.5 pts
1. collection 2. warmly 3. careless 4. products 5. weigh 6. surprising
GRAMMAR
I. 4 pts
1. D 2.C 3. B 4.A 5.A 6.D 7.B 8.A
9.D 10.B 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.B
II. 1.5pts
1.A 2. B 3.B 4.A 5.B 6.D
READING
I. 2.5pts
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C
II. 2.5 pts
1.B 2.D 3.B 4.D 5.A
III. 2.5 pts
1. kitchen 2. of 3. taken 4. correctly 5. result
6. food 7. dangerous 8. on 9. knives 10. old
WRITING
I. 2.5 pts
1. He was made to study for his exams by his parents.
2. It’s time for us to buy a new cooker.
It’s time we bought a new cooker.
3. That’s the man (whom) I lent my car to.
4. He suggested inviting the Browns to the party on Sunday.

5. I was the last person to hear/know about the accident.
II. 2 pts
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG CHUYÊN

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TỈNH PHÚ YÊN NĂM HỌC 2008-2009
Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

Đề thi có 04 trang.
Thí sinh làm bài trên giấy thi, không làm bài trên đề.

PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY
I. Pick out the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest
( 1 point )
1. A. almost B. not C. gold D. post
2. A. uniform B. ticket C. tide D. inspiration
3. A. great B. bread C. break D. steak
4. A. cleaned B. repaired C. planned D. laughed
II. Give the correct form of the word in brackets ( 1.5 points )
1. A machine could do this much more (easy)……………
2. Jim swims very well. He’s a good (swim)……………
3. Do you know the (long) ……………of the garden ?
4. She tried to make a good (impress)……………on the interviewer.
5. How much do you (weight)…………?
6. It was (surprise)…………that he failed the exam.
GRAMMAR
I. Choose the correct answer ( 4 points )
1. Our father won’t…………….us drive his car.
A. allow B. let C. leave D. permit

2. Nga told me I would have an accident if I…………….more care.
A. I’m not taking B. haven’t taken C. won’t take D. didn’t take
3. Lan showed me the house…………….she was born.
A. which B. which in C. in where D. where
4. He drank only…………….water.
A. a few B. much C. many D. a little
5. These are my…………….three children.
A. brother Tim’s B. brother Tim C. Tim’s brother D. brother is Tim
6. Give me that magazine,……………. ?
A. do you B. don’t you C. will you D. shall you
7. He speaks…………….good English that it is a pleasure to talk with him.
A. so B. such C. such a D. very
8. The washing machine was expensive,…………….we couldn’t afford to buy it.
A. however B. but C. because D. so
9. Mr. Long, …………….has just talked to you, is my uncle.
A. who B. that C. whom D. whose
10. Tornadoes can suck up anything that is…………….their path.
A. on B. in C. at D. for
11. She describes herself…………….a fashion designer.

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ĐỀ DỰ BỊ
A. by B. as C. in D. from
12. He…………….with his friends in an apartment in Hue since last week.
A. living B. has lived C. lived D. live
13. Must this test…………….on time ?
A. finish B. finished C. be finished D. be finish
14. …………….do you prefer, T-shirt or pullover ?
A. What B. How C. Which D. Where
15. Wearing uniform helps students…………….equal in many ways.

A. fall B. feel C. fell D. felt
16. It’s time we…………….the bus.
A. catch B. to catch C. catching D. caught
II. In these sentences, each one has four underlined words or phrases marked A,B,C and D.
Choose the one word or phrase which must be changed in order for the sentence to be
correct. (1.5 points )
1. (A) In my first (B) day in Hanoi, my uncle (C) took me to (D) the Temple of Literature.
2. (A) What’s your (B) favorite food ? - (C) I’d like (D) fish.
3. They (A) often (B) have a dinner (C) at (D) half past six.
4. I can’t (A) give you (B) a lift (C) because my car is (D) repairing.
5. The best (A) ways to reduce (B) garbage is (C) to reuse and (D) recycle things.
6. What (A) time does (B) she have her (C) Physical class ? - (D) At 8.40.
READING
I.Read the passage and decide which answer best fits each space (2.5 points)
Some people call it Britain. Others say (1)………….Britain. Many people mistakenly
call the (2)………….country England. But its real name is a mouthful : the United Kingdom
(3)………….Great Britain and Northern Ireland. That’s why it’s usually just called the United
Kingdom, or UK for (4)………….
The United Kingdom is a (5)………….made up of four parts : England, Scotland,
Wales, and (6)………….Ireland. For centuries, it was (7)………….by kings and queens. The
United Kingdom still has a monarchy, although today its power is mostly symbolic.
England is the biggest part, but don’t (8)………….the others. Each part was once ruled
separately. Each has its (9)………….culture and its own native language, which some people
still speak. Each even has its own national soccer (10)………….!
1. A. Big B. Great C. Huge D. Large
2. A. all B. most C. mostly D. whole
3. A. of B. in C. for D. with
4. A. easy B. little C. short D. small
5. A. part B. place C. country D. continent
6. A. North B. Northern C. Northerner D. Northerly

7. A. lead B. ruled C. headed D. topped
8. A. miss B. leave C. forget D. remember
9. A. own B. personal C. private D. favorite
10. A. group B. crowd C. team D. troop

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II. Read the following passage and answer the questions ( 2.5
points )
Teeth do lots of things. They help you eat by chewing food. It’s the first step in the
process of digestion. Teeth also help you talk. Say the word thirsty and the word little. Did you
feel your tongue touch your upper front teeth ? You should have felt it on the th- and the –tle.
You need your teeth to create certain sounds in speech. Teeth help determine how you look .
They support muscles in your face. If you didn’t have teeth , your lips would go inward.
Teeth are the hardest parts of the human body. They often survive long after the bones
have decayed. Although they are hard, teeth can decay. Have you ever had a hole in a tooth ? It
develops when tiny bacteria eat away at the enamel. Luckily, a dentist can fill the holes that
bacteria make. Once a tooth decays, it can more easily break. That’s why it’s so important to
keep teeth clean. Brushing your teeth helps get rid of bacteria and the bits of food that bacteria
feed on.
1. Human teeth are………….
A. an important part of the digestive system.
B. beautiful when you smile and talk.
C. to make your lips full.
D. what lucky dentists look after.
2. In order to pronounce the word thing, you need to………….
A. let your lips go inward.
B. use your teeth together with your tongue.
C. learn how to make a speech.
D. support your face with your teeth.
3. How many main things teeth do to humans according to the 1

st
paragraph ?
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five
4. Teeth are…………….
A. the hardest parts of the human body which survive forever.
B. hard but they can also decay.
C. too hard to break.
D. filled by dentists when they decay.
5. We can avoid tooth decay by………….
A. living next to the dentist’s.
B. feeding bacteria with food.
C. keeping teeth clean.
D. filling the hole ourselves.
III. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word ( 2.5
points )
Nearly all the discoveries that have been made through the ages can be found in books.
The (1)……………….of the book is one of humankind’s greatest achievements, the
importance of which cannot (2)……………….overestimated. Books are very adaptable,
providing us (3)……………….both entertainment (4)………………. information. The
production of books began in Ancient Egypt, though not in a form (5)………………. is
recognisable to us today. The books read by the Romans , (6)………………., have some
similarity to the ones we (7)……………….now. Until the middle of the 15
th
century, in
Europe, all books were (8)……………….by hand. They were often beautifully illustrated and
always rare and (9)………………. . With printing came the possibility of cheap, large-scale

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publication and distribution of books, making knowledge (10)………………. widespread and
accessible.

WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one ( 2.5
points )
1. I didn’t arrive in time to see her.
I wasn’t early………………………………
2. “ Why don’t you put your luggage under the seat ? “ he asked.
He suggested………………………………
3. Turn off all switches before leaving the workshop.
All the switches……………………………
4. Mrs. Edwards is the owner of that car.
That car…………………………………….
5. May I borrow your pen ?
Would you mind……………………………
II. Writing: - An English-speaking friend is coming to stay with you for the weekend.
- Write a letter telling your friend about three ideas you have for her/his visit.
- Write your letter in about 100 words. Do not write your name and your address.
( 2 points )
_______THE END_______

Họ và tên thí sinh:………………………………………Số báo danh:…………………………………………….
Chữ ký giám thị 1:……………………… …………….Chữ ký giám thị 2:………………

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ĐÁP ÁN
ANSWER KEY 2
PRONUNCIATION
I. 1 pt
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D
II. 1.5 pts
1. easily 2. swimmer 3. length 4. impression 5. weigh 6. surprising

GRAMMAR
I. 4 pts
1. B 2.D 3. D 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.D
9.A 10.B 11.B 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.D
II. 1.5pts
1.A 2. C 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.C
READING
I. 2.5pts
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C
II. 2.5 pts
1.A 2.B 3.B 4.B 5.C
III. 2.5 pts
1. invention 2. be 3. with 4. and 5. that
6. however 7. read 8. written 9. expensive 10. more
WRITING
I. 2.5 pts
1. I wasn’t early enough to see her.
2. He suggested that I should put my luggage under the seat.
3. All the switches must be turned off before leaving the workshop.
4. That car belongs to Mrs Edwards.
5. Would you mind if I borrowed your pen ?
II. 2 pts

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC
THỪA THIÊN HUẾ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - NĂM HỌC 2007-2008

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài : 150 phút
(Đề thi gồm có 6 trang - Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi
này)

Tổng điểm: Giám khảo 1: Giám khảo 2: Mã phách:
I. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY ( 35 points)
Part 1: Choose the best answer among A,B,C or D. (15 points)
1. My mother used to ………. research in this library when she was a student.
A. make B. do C. making D. doing

2. Let’s go to the beach this weekend, ………… ?
A shall we B. do we C. don’t we D. will we
3. I wish he ……… that.
A. doesn’t say B. didn’t say C. hasn’t said D. hadn’t
said
4. My father has gone away. He’ll be back ……… a week.
A. for B. at C. until D. in
5. Don’t do this all at once; Do it little little.
A. by B. to C. from D. with
6. They are both good because they type carefully.
A. typewriters B. typists C. typers D. typemen
7. We didn’t to the station in time to catch the train.
A. get B. reach C. arrive D. approach
8. I don’t think that purple shirt with your yellow skirt.
A. suits B. fits C. goes D. wears
9. We had to stop for gasoline at a filling .
A. garage B. service C. station D. pump
10. you study harder, you won’t pass the examination.
A. If B. Although C. Despite D. Unless

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11. He ordered them …… it again.

A. don’t do B. not do C. not to do D. didn’t do
12. Quite soon, the world is going to energy resources.
A. run out of B. get into C. keep up with D. come up
again
13. We decided not to go camping because of the ………rain.
A. great B. strong C. heavy D. extra
14. Mary works at a supermarket. She ………. $ 5 an hour.
A. pays B. brings C. takes D. earns
15. The students have got ……… news about their exams.
A. many B. some C. few D. a few
Part 2: Put the verbs in brackets into the correct tense or form. (10 points)
1. Quang (talk) to another student when I
(see) him today.
2. That proposal ( consider) by the members right now.
3. Less than half of the cans of paint (use) up to now.
4. A: I (lose) my glasses. I can’t find them anywhere.
I (look for) them for hours.
B: Don’t worry. I (do) the same thing the other week but
I (find) them a few days later.
5. He is working tomorrow. If he (have) a day off tomorrow,
he
(go) to the beach.
. Part 3: Correct the words in bold. (10 points)
Ex: Jane did a lot of mistakes in her composition.
… made…… …
1. I’m afraid you’ve lost your test. You only got 23%.
……………………
2. Congratulations! You’ve gained first prize in the competitions!
……………………
3. I’ve asked everyone where Jane is, but none can tell me.

……………………

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4. I’m a bit short of cash. Can you borrow me some until tomorrow?
……………………
5. Gills has got a good job and wins a good salary.
……………………
6. Do you mind if I make a photograph of you?
……………………
7. Our school is nearby to the town centre.
……………………
8. It’s so peaceful living in the nature away from the city.
……………………
9. I feel asleep. Do you mind if I go to bed?
……………………
10. My mother tried to avoid me from going to the club. .
…………………
.
II. READING COMPREHENSION ( 35 points)
Part 1: Use one of these words in its correct form to complete the text. (10 points)
retire, promote, redundant, interview, contract, reference,
pensioner, applicant, career, train, employment
ADVICE TO YOUNG PEOPLE ABOUT TO START WORK
In these days of high (0) unemployment, it is often difficult for young people to find a job. If
they are lucky enough to be asked to go for a(n) (1)…………………….………… , they may find that
there are at least 20 other (2) ……………………… ……for the job. If a company is thinking of
offering you a job, they will ask you for at least one (3) ……………………… ……from either your
previous employer or someone who knows you well. Before taking up your job, you may have to sign a
(4) …………………………. You will probably have to do some (5) ………………………… , which
help you to do the job more successfully. Once you have decided that this is your chosen (6)

…………………………, you will then have to work hard to try and get (7) …………………………,
which usually brings more responsibility and more money! If you are unlucky, you may be made (8)
…………………………, and not be able to find another job. It is also a good idea to pay some money
into a (9) …………………………scheme, which will help you to look after yourself and your family
when you are (10) …………………………. Finally, good luck!

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Part 2: Read the passage below and choose the correct answer among A, B, C or D (10
points)
GREEK THEATRES
The word theatre comes from Greek and literally means seeing place. The theatre
has been popular in ancient times. People did not go to the theatre simply to see an
interesting (1) for the plays formed part of religious festivals. (2) early
Greek theatres consisted of no more than a flat space with an altar at the foot of a
hillside. (3) that time, there were no (4) as there are in modern theatres,
so the (5) stood or sat on the slopes of the hillside. Gradually, special theatres were
made by building large stone or wooden steps one (6) another up the hillside. In
later times, a hut was built at the far side of the acting area where it formed a background
for the actors (7) the parts of the different characters. Eventually, a (8)
platform was built so that the actors could be seen more clearly. This was the first
appearance of anything (9) our modern stage. As well as these permanent
theatres, there were simple wooden stages (10) around by actors wandering from
one place to another. There was also a hut with curtains that served both as background
scenery and as a dressing room.
1. A. scene B. performance C. scenery D. stage
2. A. Whole B. Complete C. Full D. All
3. A. In B. For C. At D. On
4. A. chairs B. benches C. seats D. stools
5. A. watchers B. players C. viewers D. audiences
6. A. among B. between C. around D. behind

7. A. playing B. making C. doing D. being
8. A. lifted B. raised C. moved D. pulled
9. A. as B. like C. equal D. similar
10. A. carried B. held C. brought D. fetched
Part 3: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
ONE word in each space. (15 points)
A POP STAR
John Lennon was (0)born in Liverpool in 1940. He was always
(1) on music and played in a pop group (2)
school and Art college .

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John (3) married to Cynthia in 1962 and they had a son
(4) name was Julian. At that time, John was a member of a group
(5) “ The Beatles” . Many beautiful songs (6) written
by John and wherever the group went, crowds of fans gathered to see them . They
(7) scream and faint when “ The Beatles” played and lots of people have
their hair cut in a Beatles style. Soon, everyone had heard (8) “The
Beatles” and John was (9) richer than he had ever thought.
Having achieved world-wide success, John started to make records
(10) his own after 1968 , and it was in the same year when
(11) marriage to Cynthia came to an end. He had met Yoko Ono
(12) he married the following year. John lost weight and grew his hair long , as
can (13) seen on the covers of the records that he made with Yoko. He set
up home in the United States and had a son called Sean.
Many people considered John Lennon to be (14) most talented of
all “The Beatles”. He sang about peace and love and so when he was murdered by one of his
fans, outside his New York apartment , the whole world (15) shocked .
More than 50,000 fans turned up to a ceremony in his memory. He was only forty when he
died.

III. WRITING: ( 30 points)
Part 1: There is a mistake in each sentence below. Underline the
mistake and write the correct sentence. (10 points)
EX: I am reading a book which it is very interesting.
→ I am reading a book which is very interesting.
1. My mother, that is nearly 60, is coming to live with us.
………………………………………………… … … …
2. Andrew has been a teacher of English since a very long time.
…………………………………………………… ……
3. It is not easy to grow up children in a modern world.
…………………………………………………… …
4. I think we should go some sightseeing this afternoon.
……………………………………………………… … ….

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5. The room where I am staying in is very noisy.
…………………………………………………………… …
6. This is Peter, who his sister works at your school.
……………………………………………………… ……
7. Do you want to see the pictures that we took them on holiday?
…………………………………………………………… …
8. Have you ever considered to become a professional footballer?
………………………………………………………… …
9. I’ll give Tania your letter if she will come to school tomorrow.
…………………………………………………………………………
10. I’ve really got to cut up smoking.
………………………………………………………… … ….
Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first
sentence using the word given. Do not change the word given. ( 10 points)
1. Could you possibly help me with this box? mind

Would ……………………………………………………………………………
2. “Who ate the cake?” she asked. had
She wanted ……………………………………………………………… …
3. What sort of weather did you have on holiday? like
What ……………………………………………………………………….……
4. I am not good at skiing, but I’d like to learn. not
I do……………………………………………………………………………
5. The exam wasn’t as hard as I expected. than
The exam…………………………………………………………………………
6. Don’t forget to contact me if you come to London. touch
Don’t forget to…………………………………………………………………………
7. Make sure that you don’t arrive late. turn
Make sure that…………………………………………………………………………
8. Your English will improve if you keep practising. get
Your English…………………………………………………………………………
9. Normally I have a ten-minute journey to school. me

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Normally………………………………………………………………………… …
10. She is keen on meeting people from other countries. who
She wants………………………………………………………………………… ….
Part 3: In about 250 words, write about the advantages and disadvantages of a child
in a large family. (10 points)

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……. The end …………

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC
THỪA THIÊN HUẾ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - NĂM HỌC 2007-2008

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài : 150 phút


HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
I. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35 points)
Part 1: 15 points: one point for each correct answer
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Key B A D D A B A C C D C A C D B
Part 2: 10 points: one point for each correct answer
1. was talking – saw
2. is being considered
3. has been used
4. have lost – have been looking for/have looked for– did – found
5. had – would go
Part 3: 10 points: one point for each correct answer
1. failed 2.won 3. nobody/ no one 4. lend 5. earns/gets

6. take 7. near/close 8. countryside/ country 9.sleepy 10. prevent/stop
II. READING COMPREHENSION (35 points)
Part 1: 10 points: one point for each correct answer
1. interview 2. applicants 3. reference 4. contract 5.
training
6. career 7. promotion 8. redundant 9. pension 10. retired
Part 2: 10 points: one point for each correct answer
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key B D C C D D A B B A
Part 3: 15 points: one point for each correct answer
1. keen / hooked 2. at 3. got 4. whose 5. called

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6. were 7. would 8. of/about 9. much /far 10. on
11. his 12. whom 13. be 14. the 15. was
III. WRITING (30 points)
Part 1: 10 points: one point for each correct answer
1. My mother, who is nearly 60, is coming to live with us.
2. Andrew has been a teacher of English for a very long time.
3. It is not easy to bring up children in a modern world.
4. I think we should do some sightseeing/ go sightseeing this afternoon.
5. The room where I am staying is very noisy./ which I am staying in
6. This is Peter, whose sister works at your school.
7. Do you want to see the pictures that we took on holiday?
8. Have you ever considered becoming a professional footballer?
9. I’ll give Tania your letter if she comes to school tomorrow.
10. I’ve really got to cut down on/ give up smoking.
Part 2: 10 points: one point for each correct answer
1. Would you mind helping me with this box?
2. She wanted to know who had eaten the cake.

3. What was the weather like on your holiday/when you were on holiday?
4. I do not ski very well, but I’d like to learn.
5. The exam was easier than I expected.
6. Do not forget to get/keep in touch with me if you come to London.
7. Make sure that you turn up in (good) time.
8. Your English will get better if you keep practising.
9. Normally it takes me 10 minutes to get to school.
10. She wants to meet people who are /come from other countries.
Part 3: 10 points
Total: 100 points
UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH
SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN
Năm học 2009-2010

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ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh (Dành cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên
Anh)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề);
Ngày thi: 09/07/2009

A. PHONETICS (10 POINTS)
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced
differently from the others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. climate B. comic C. hike D. website
2. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
3. A. cover B. category C. ancient D. decorate
4. A. erupt B. humor C. UFO D. communicate
5. A. Buddhish B. bomb C. viable D. bulb

II. Choose the word ( A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that
of the others. (5 points)
1. A. comprise B. depend C. design D. novel
2. A. tropical B. collection C. tendency D. charity
3. A. friendliness B. occasion C. pagoda D. deposit
4. A. importing B. specific C . impolite D. important
5. A. federation B. unpolluted C. disappearing D. profitable
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. (10 points)
1. All the sentences below use “the”, which is the correct one?
A. Can you pass the sugar please? B. The crime is a problem in many big
cities.
C. The apples are good for you. D. I love the skiing.
2. Our friends have lived in Ho Chi Minh city_______ 2002.
A. for B. since C. in D. about
3. He prefers soccer______ tennis.
A. from B. than C. to D. or
4. If they worked more carefully, they _____ so many mistakes.
A. won’t make B. don’t make C. wouldn’t make D. didn’t make
5. He _______to his friend’s party when his parents asked him to go home.
A. goes B. was going C. went D. has gone
6. There’s a strange man behind us. I think ______.
A. we are followed B. we are being followed
C. we are being following D. we are following
7. Which of the following is the strongest advice?
A. You should get a hair- cut. B. If I were you, I’d get a hair-cut.

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C. You ought to get a hair- cut. D. You really must get a hair- cut.
8. ________ you mind if I use your dictionary?

A. Will B. Do C. Can D. Did
9. Mr. Vo Van Kiet, _______ was our former Prime Minister, was born in Vinh Long.
A. that B. whose C. Who D. whom
10. All that rubbish will have to be ________ at once.
A. get rid of B. got rid of C. got rid D. getting rid of
II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences.
(10 points)
1. My friend was (make)_____ (pay)_______ back the book.
2. Hardly he (take) ________ up the book when the phone (ring) ________.
3. Can you imagine what I (come) _______ across when I (roll) ________ up the carpet
yesterday?
4. If she wins the prize, it (be) __________because she (write) ______very well.
5. He resented (ask) ______ (wait) _______. He had expected the minister to see him at
once.
III. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. (10
points)
1. A lot of toys encourage children’s_________. (imagine)
2. The factory has provided cheaper__________ lately. (produce)
3. Burning coal is an _______ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (economy)
4. According to some scientists the earth is losing its outer atmosphere because
of_____. ( pollute)
5. She has one of the biggest art________ in Britain. ( collect)
6. __________ has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (forest)
7. __________ often walk through the streets shouting or singing about something they
sell. (cry)
8. Gas and oil________ always increases in cold weather. (consume)
9. The police are interested in the sudden________ of the valuable painting. (appear)
10. He claimed that his___________ had caused him to become a criminal. (bring up)
IV. Each of the following sentences has four words or phrases underlined. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one

underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. (5 points)
1. Preserving natural resources mean reserving them for our future.
A B C D
2. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
A B C D

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3. Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should
be for
A B
students to practice speaking words.
C D
4. The injured man was taken to the hospital.
A B C D
5. In order for one to achieve the desired results in this experiment, it is necessary that
he work as fastly as possible.
A B C D

C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. The reading is followed by several questions about it. There are four possible
answers (A, B, C, or D) for each question. Choose the best answer. (15 points)
BENJAMIN FRANKLIN
Few people can embody the spirit of early America as much as Benjamin Franklin. He
lived through almost the whole of the eighteenth century, being born six years after, and
dying ten years before it ended. In this time he saw the American colonies grow from
tiny settlements into a nation, and he also contributed much to the development of the
new state.
At the age of 17 Franklin ran away to Philadelphia. He had already received some
training as a printer’s apprentice, and this helped him seven years later, with his first
publication, the Pennsylvania Gazette. He also received a contract to do government

printing work, which helped him to rise from his poor background to become a
successful entrepreneur. Some of his experience in business was shared in his famous
Poor Richard’s Almanak, which established his reputation throughout the American
colonies. In another of his works, the Autobiography, which was written toward the end
of his life, he shows the same quiet common sense.
He was deeply interested in science and natural history, and his experiments with
electricity and lightning led directly to the invention of the lightning rod. He was also
interested in improving the conditions of his fellow men. He was involved in a number
of projects in his native Philadelphia, including the setting up of a library, a university,
a philosophical society, and–because he was a pragmatic man–a fire prevention service.
In 1753 he became Postmaster–General of the colonies. Through this experience he
began to develop the idea that the colonies of North America should be a single nation.
Later, he went to London to try to persuade the British government to change the
conditions, especially the taxes, that later led the American colonists into rebellion.
Whatever Benjamin Franklin’s personal feelings about the rebellion of the American
states, he worked hard to make it succeed. As ambassador to France, he encouraged the
French to help George Washington. After the war he attended the American

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constitutional congress. This was his last contribution, for he died later that year. He is
still fondly remembered by Americans as one of the creators of the United States.
1. What is a good description for this text?
A. An autobiography of Benjamin Franklin. B. The life of Benjamin Franklin.
C. The works of Benjamin Franklin. D. Franklin and American Independence.
2. When was Benjamin Franklin born?
A. 1806 B. 1794 C. 1717 D. 1706
3. Which of these happened first?
A. Franklin trains as a painter. B. Franklin runs away to Philadelphia.
C. the American colonies rebel D. Franklin starts his first publication.
4. What was Poor Richard’s Almanak about?

A. Franklin’s reputation. B. How to succeed in business.
C. how to do government printing. D. The text does not say.
5. In which countries did Franklin live?
A. England and France. B. Philadelphia and England.
C. London and America. D. England, America and France.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one
word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). (15 points)
SAVING THE TIGER.
In 1973, when the tiger appeared to (0) be facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for
nature and __(1)____ Indian Government agreed to set ___(2)__ “Operation Tiger” – a
campaign __(3)___ save this threatened creature. They started by creating nine special
parks ___ (4) ___ that tigers could live in safety. The first was at Ramthambhore , a
region ___(5)__ was quickly turning into a desert __(6)__ too much of the grass was
being eaten by the local people’s cattle. At the time there ____(7)__ just fourteen tigers
left there. The government had to clear twelve small villages, which means moving
nearly 1,000 people and 10,000 cattle so the land __ (8) __ be handed back to nature.
Today, Ramthambhore is a very different place, with grass tall ___(9)___ for tigers to
hide in, and There are now at _(10)___ forty of them __(11)__ the park, wandering
freely about. Other animals have also benefited. For example, there are many
___(12)____ deer and monkeys than before. The people __(13)__ were moved are now
living in better conditions. They live in new villages away __(14)___ the tiger park,
with schools, temples and fresh water supplies. There are now sixteen such tiger parks
in India and the animals’ future looks ___ (15)____ little safer.
D. WRITING (25 POINTS)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence
printed before it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase. (20 points)
1. You should review your lessons for the exam.
It’s time____________________________________________________________

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