Barron''''s How to Prepare for the SAT 23rd Edition (2008) _10 pptx

820 Six Model SAT Tests
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7. What is the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices
are at (1, 1), (5, 1), (5, 5) and (3, 5)?
(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 24 (E) 10 + 2
8. In the figure above, the graph on the top is the
graph of y = f(x). Which of the following is
the equation of the graph on the bottom?
(A) y = f(x + 2)
(B) y = f(x – 2)
(C) y = f(x + 2) + 2
(D) y = f(x – 2) + 2
(E) y = f(x + 2) – 2
x
y
x
y
2
7


Test 6 821
7
9. What is the value of ?
10. If ab = 20 and a = –5, what is the value of a
2
– b
2
?
1
5

2
10
3
15
4
20
5
25
++++
Directions for Student-Produced Response Questions (Grid-ins)
In questions 9–18, first solve the problem,
and then enter your answer on the grid pro-
vided on the answer sheet. The instructions
for entering your answers are as follows:
• First, write your answer in the boxes at the
top of the grid.
• Second, grid your answer in the columns
below the boxes.
• Use the fraction bar in the first row or the
decimal point in the second row to enter
fractions and decimal answers.
• All decimals must be entered as accu-
rately as possible. Here are the three
acceptable ways of gridding
3
11
= 0.272727
3/11 .272 .273
1
2

3
4
5
6
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
8
9
0
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
3
4
6
7
8

9
7
7
2
2
3
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5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
6
7
8
9

0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
0
2
3
4
1
2
3
4
1
2
3
4
2
3
4
1

2
3
4
1
2
3
0
1
2
3
1
2
4
5
6
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
2
3
4
5
6
0
2

3
4
5
6
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
3
4
5
6
7
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
3
4
5
6

1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
3
4
5
6
7
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
1
2
4
5
6
⎧
⎪
⎪
⎪

⎨
⎪
⎪
⎪
⎩
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
• Note that rounding to .273 is acceptable,
because you are using the full grid, but you
would receive no credit for .3 or .27, because
these answers are less accurate.
Answer: Answer: 1.75
Answer: 100
Write your →
answer in
the boxes.
Grid in
→
your
answer.
• Grid only one space in each column.
• Entering the answer in the boxes is recom-
mended as an aid in gridding, but is not
required.
• The machine scoring your exam can read
only what you grid, so you must grid in
your answers correctly to get credit.
• If a question has more than one correct
answer, grid in only one of these answers.
• The grid does not have a minus sign, so no
answer can be negative.

• A mixed number must be converted to an
improper fraction or a decimal before it is
gridded. Enter 1 as 5/4 or 1.25; the machine
will interpret 1 1/4 as and mark it wrong.
Either position is acceptable

8
15
11
4
1
4


822 Six Model SAT Tests
11. If of x equals of x, what is of x?
12. A clock chimes every hour to indicate the time,
and also chimes once every 15 minutes on the
quarter-hour and half-hour. For example, it chimes
3 times at 3:00, once at 3:15, once at 3:30, once
at 3:45, and 4 times at 4:00. What is the smallest
number of times the clock can chime in an
interval of 2 hours?
Note: Figure not drawn to scale
13. For the figure above, what is the largest value of x
that will fit in the grid?
14. The average (arithmetic mean) amount of savings
of 10 students is $60. If 3 of the students have no
savings at all, and each of the others has at least
$25, including John, who has exactly $130, what is

the largest amount, in dollars, that any one student
can have?
15. In the stair unit in the figure above, all the angles
are right angles. The left side is 5 feet 4 inches,
and the bottom is 9 feet 2 inches. Each vertical
riser is 8 inches. The top step is 10.25 inches,
and each step below it is 1 inch longer than the
preceding step. What is the perimeter, in inches,
of the figure?
16. In the figure above, what is the value of h?
17. Let a and b be positive numbers such that a% of
a% of b equals c. If a
2
% of b equals kc, what is the
value of k?
18. For how many positive three-digit numbers is the
average of the three digits equal to 2?
10
1
4
11
8"
8"
9'2"
5'4"
1
4
"
"
17

1
4
"
1
2
4
5
3
4
2
3
YOU MAY GO BACK AND REVIEW THIS SECTION IN THE REMAINING TIME,
BUT DO NOT WORK IN ANY OTHER SECTION UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
S T O P
7
3
h
4


Test 6 823
8 888888888 8
SECTION
8
Time—20 Minutes
19 Questions
Select the best answer to each of the following questions; then
blacken the appropriate space on your answer sheet.
Each of the following sentences contains one or two
blanks; each blank indicates that a word or set of words

has been left out. Below the sentence are five words or
phrases, lettered A through E. Select the word or set of
words that best completes the sentence.
Example:
Fame is ; today’s rising star is all too soon
tomorrow’s washed-up has-been.
(A) rewarding (B) gradual
(C) essential (D) spontaneous
(E) transitory
1. Given the nature of wood, the oldest totem
poles of the Northwest Coast Indians eventually
fell to decay; only a few still stand today.
(A) resilient (B) combustible (C) malleable
(D) perishable (E) solid
2. Lee, who refrained from excesses in his personal
life, differed markedly from Grant, who notori-
ous drinking bouts with his cronies.
(A) deprecated
(B) minimized
(C) indulged in
(D) shunned
(E) compensated for
3. By nature Toshiro was , given to striking up
casual conversations with strangers he encountered
at bus stops or check-out stands.
(A) diffident
(B) observant
(C) reticent
(D) gregarious
(E) laconic

4. In the absence of native predators to stop their
spread, imported deer to such an inordinate
degree that they overgrazed the countryside and
the native vegetation.
(A) thrived threatened
(B) propagated cultivated
(C) suffered abandoned
(D) flourished scrutinized
(E) dwindled eliminated
5. The contract negotiations were often surprisingly
, deteriorating at times into a welter of accusa-
tions and counteraccusations.
(A) perspicacious
(B) phlegmatic
(C) sedate
(D) acrimonious
(E) propitious
6. Black religion was in part a protest movement—a
protest against a system and a society that was
designed to the dignity of a segment of God’s
creation.
(A) unintentionally reflect
(B) explicitly foster
(C) inevitably assess
(D) deliberately demean
(E) provocatively enhance
Ꭽ Ꭾ Ꭿ ൳ ൴
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824 Six Model SAT Tests
Questions 7–19 are based on the following passages.
The following passages deal with the importance
of money to Americans. The first is taken from a
commencement address made by American philosopher
George Santayana in 1904. The second is taken from
an essay written by British poet W. H. Auden in
1963.
Passage 1
American life, everyone has heard, has extra-
ordinary intensity; it goes at a great rate. This is
not due, I should say, to any particular urgency in
the object pursued. Other nations have more
pressing motives to bestir themselves than
America has: and it is observable that not all the
new nations, in either hemisphere, are energetic.
This energy can hardly spring either from unusu-
ally intolerable conditions which people wish to
overcome, nor from unusually important objects
which they wish to attain. It springs, I should ven-
ture to say, from the harmony which subsists
between the task and the spirit, between the
mind’s vitality and the forms which, in America,
political and industrial tradition has taken on. It is
sometimes said that the ruling passion in America
is the love of money. This seems to me a com-
plete mistake. The ruling passion is the love of
business, which is something quite different. The
lover of money would be jealous of it; he would
spend it carefully; he would study to get out of it

the most he could. But the lover of business,
when he is successful, does not much change his
way of living; he does not think out what further
advantages he can get out of his success. His joy
is in that business itself and in its further opera-
tion, in making it greater and better organized and
a mightier engine in the general life. The adventi-
tious personal profit in it is the last thing he
thinks of, the last thing he is skillful in bringing
about; and the same zeal and intensity is applied
in managing a college, or a public office, or a
naval establishment, as is lavished on private
business, for it is not a motive of personal gain
that stimulates to such exertions. It is the absorb-
ing, satisfying character of the activities them-
selves; it is the art, the happiness, the greatness of
them. So that in beginning life in such a society,
which has developed a native and vital tradition
out of its practice, you have good reason to feel
that your spirit will be freed, that you will begin
to realize a part of what you are living for.
Passage 2
Political and technological developments are
rapidly obliterating all cultural differences and it
is possible that, in a not remote future, it will be
impossible to distinguish human beings living on
one area of the earth’s surface from those living
on any other, but our different pasts have not yet
been completely erased and cultural differences
are still perceptible. The most striking difference

between an American and a European is the dif-
ference in their attitudes towards money. Every
European knows, as a matter of historical fact,
that, in Europe, wealth could only be acquired at
the expense of other human beings, either by con-
quering them or by exploiting their labor in facto-
ries. Further, even after the Industrial Revolution
began, the number of persons who could rise
from poverty to wealth was small; the vast major-
ity took it for granted that they would not be
much richer nor poorer than their fathers. In con-
sequence, no European associates wealth with
personal merit or poverty with personal failure.
To a European, money means power, the free-
dom to do as he likes, which also means that,
consciously or unconsciously, he says: “I want to
have as much money as possible myself and oth-
ers to have as little money as possible.”
In the United States, wealth was also acquired
by stealing, but the real exploited victim was not
a human being but poor Mother Earth and her
creatures who were ruthlessly plundered. It is true
that the Indians were expropriated or exterminat-
ed, but this was not, as it had always been in
Europe, a matter of the conqueror seizing the
wealth of the conquered, for the Indian had never
realized the potential riches of his country. It is
also true that, in the Southern states, men lived on
the labor of slaves, but slave labor did not make
them fortunes; what made slavery in the South all

the more inexcusable was that, in addition to
being morally wicked, it didn’t even pay off
handsomely.
Thanks to the natural resources of the country,
every American, until quite recently, could rea-
sonably look forward to making more money than
his father, so that, if he made less, the fault must
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The questions that follow the next two passages relate to the content of both, and to their relationship. The correct
response may be stated outright in the passage or merely suggested.
8 888888888 8
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
(55)
(60)
(65)
(70)
(75)
(80)
(85)

Test 6 825
8 888888888 8
be his; he was either lazy or inefficient. What an
American values, therefore, is not the possession
of money as such, but his power to make it as a
proof of his manhood; once he has proved himself
by making it, it has served its function and can be
lost or given away. In no society in history have
rich men given away so large a part of their for-
tunes. A poor American feels guilty at being poor,
but less guilt than an American rentier
*
who has
inherited wealth but is doing nothing to increase
it; what can the latter do but take to drink and
psychoanalysis?
*A rentier lives on a fixed income from rents and
investments.
7. In Passage 1, the word “spring” in line 8 means
(A) leap
(B) arise
(C) extend
(D) break
(E) blossom
8. The lover of business (lines 22–38) can be
described as all of the following EXCEPT
(A) enthusiastic
(B) engrossed
(C) enterprising

(D) industrious
(E) mercenary
9. The author of Passage 1 maintains that Americans
find the prospect of improving business organiza-
tions
(A) pleasurable
(B) problematic
(C) implausible
(D) wearing
(E) unanticipated
10. In line 28, “engine” most nearly means
(A) artifice
(B) locomotive
(C) mechanical contrivance
(D) financial windfall
(E) driving force
11. The author of Passage 1 contends that those who
grow up in American society will be influenced by
its native traditions to
(A) fight the intolerable conditions afflicting their
country
(B) achieve spiritual harmony through meditation
(C) find self-fulfillment through their business
activities
(D) acknowledge the importance of financial
accountability
(E) conserve the country’s natural resources
12. In lines 43–48 the author of Passage 2 asserts that
technological advances
(A) are likely to promote greater divisions between

the rich and the poor
(B) may eventually lead to worldwide cultural
uniformity
(C) can enable us to tolerate any cultural differ-
ences between us
(D) may make the distinctions between people
increasingly easy to discern
(E) destroy the cultural differences they are
intended to foster
13. The word “striking” in line 50 means
(A) attractive
(B) marked
(C) shocking
(D) protesting
(E) commanding
14. In taking it for granted that they will not be much
richer or poorer than their fathers (lines 59–61),
Europeans do which of the following?
(A) They express a preference.
(B) They refute an argument.
(C) They qualify an assertion.
(D) They correct a misapprehension.
(E) They make an assumption.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(90)
(95)


15. Until quite recently, according to lines 84–88, to
Americans the failure to surpass one’s father in

income indicated
(A) a dislike of inherited wealth
(B) a lack of proper application on one’s part
(C) a fear of the burdens inherent in success
(D) the height of fiscal irresponsibility
(E) the effects of a guilty conscience
16. The author’s description of the likely fate of the
American rentier living on inherited wealth is
(A) astonished
(B) indulgent
(C) sorrowful
(D) sympathetic
(E) ironic
17. In Passage 2 the author does all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) make a categorical statement
(B) correct a misapprehension
(C) draw a contrast
(D) pose a question
(E) cite an authority
18. The authors of both passages most likely would
agree that Americans engage in business
(A) on wholly altruistic grounds
(B) as a test of their earning capacity
(C) only out of economic necessity
(D) regardless of the example set by their parents
(E) for psychological rather than financial reasons
19. Compared to the attitude toward Americans
expressed in Passage 1, the attitude toward them
expressed in Passage 2 is

(A) more admiring
(B) less disapproving
(C) more cynical
(D) less patronizing
(E) more chauvinistic
826 Six Model SAT Tests
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S T O P
8 888888888 8


Test 6 827
9 99999 9
1. If a = –2, what is the value of a
4
– a
3
+ a
2
– a?
(A) –30 (B) –10 (C) 0 (D) 10 (E) 30
2. If a mixture of nuts consists of 3 pounds of
peanuts, 1 pound of walnuts, and 5 pounds of
cashews, by weight, what fraction of the mixture is
peanuts?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
3. When a digital clock reads 3:47, the sum of the
digits is 14. How many minutes after 3:47 will the
sum of the digits be 20 for the first time?

(A) 42 (B) 132 (C) 192 (D) 251 (E) 301
4. Gilda drove 650 miles at an average speed of 50
miles per hour. How many miles per hour faster
would she have had to drive in order for the trip
to have taken 1 hour less?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 4 (D) 4
(E) 3
AC
—
and BD
—
are diameters.
Note
: Figure not drawn to scale
5. In the figure above, if w = 40, what is the ratio
of the total length of arcs and to the
circumference?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1
2
2
5
1
4
2
9
1
9

CD



AB

1
3
1
6
1
3
2
3
2
3
1
2
3
8
1
3
1
5
1
9
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For each problem in this section determine which of the five choices
Time—20 Minutes is correct and blacken the corresponding choice on your answer
16 Questions sheet. You may use any blank space on the page for your work.
Notes:
• You may use a calculator whenever you think it will be helpful.

• Use the diagrams provided to help you solve the problems. Unless you see the words “Note:
Figure not drawn to scale” under a diagram, it has been drawn as accurately as possible.
Unless it is stated that a figure is three-dimensional, you may assume it lies in a plane.
SECTION
9
Area Facts Volume Facts Triangle Facts Angle Facts
Reference Information
A =

w
h
b
A = bh
1
2
A = πr
2
C = 2πr
h
h
V = wh
w
V = π r
2
h


a
a
45°

45°
a
a
2a
60°
30°
c
b
a
2
+ b
2
= c
2
360°
x°
y°
z°
x + y + z = 180
r
r

3
a

2
a
w
w°
A

D
C
B


6. Phil’s Phone Shop sells three models of cellular
phones, priced at $100, $125, and $225. In January,
Phil sold exactly the same number of each model.
What percent of the total income from the sales of
cellular phones was attributable to sales of the
cheapest model?
(A) 22 % (B) 28 % (C) 33 % (D) 44 %
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.
7. In the figure above, a circle is inscribed in a square.
If a point is chosen at random inside the square,
which of the following is closest to the probability
that the point is in the shaded region?
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.15 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.25
(E) 0.3
8. Let f(x) = . What is the smallest integer
for which f(x) is defined?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5
9. The chart above shows the percent of students at
Central High School taking each of the four science
courses offered. If every student takes exactly one
science course, and if 20% of the students
taking chemistry switch to physics, what percent
of the students will be taking physics?
(A) 7% (B) 17% (C) 20% (D) 25%

(E) 30%
10. If a team played g games and won w of them, what
fraction of the games played did the team lose?
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)
11. In 1980, the cost of p pounds of potatoes was d
dollars. In 1990, the cost of 2p pounds of potatoes
was d dollars. By what percent did the price of
potatoes decrease from 1980 to 1990?
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 100%
(E) 400%
1
2
gw
w
−
g
gw−
gw
g
−
wg
g
−
wg
w
−
Biology
25%
Earth

Science
30%
Chemistry
35%
Physics
x
x
−
−
π
4
4
9
1
3
4
7
2
9
828 Six Model SAT Tests
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9 999999


Test 6 829
9 99999 9
12. If a square and an equilateral triangle have equal
perimeters, what is the ratio of the area of the
triangle to the area of the square?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.
13. If A is at (3, –1) and B is at (5, 6), what is the slope
of the perpendicular bisector of segment AB
—
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(E)
14. In the sequence 1, 2, 3, –4, 1, 2, 3, –4, …, the
numbers 1, 2, 3, –4 repeat indefinitely. What is
the sum of the first 150 terms?
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 37 (D) 77 (E) 300
15. In the figure above, AB
—
is a diameter of circle O. If
AC = 6 and the radius of the circle is 5, what is the
perimeter of the shaded region?
(A) 14 + 5π (B) 17 + 5π (C) 14 + 10π
(D) 17 + 10π (E) 24 + 5π
16. If the sum of all the positive even integers less
than 1000 is A, what is the sum of all the positive
odd integers less than 1000?
(A) A – 998 (B) A – 499 (C) A + 1
(D) A + 500 (E) + 999
A
2
C
B
A
O

2
5
2
7
−
2
7
−
2
5
−
7
2
4
3
1
1
3
4
43
9
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BUT DO NOT WORK IN ANY OTHER SECTION UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
S T O P


1. Experts predict that global warming will cause sea
levels to raise and lead to flooding from tidal surges.
(A) will cause sea levels to raise and lead to
flooding

(B) would cause sea levels to raise and lead to
flooding
(C) will result in raising sea levels and leading to
floods
(D) will be the cause of sea levels’ rising and
flooding
(E) will raise sea levels and lead to flooding
2. When one realizes how very different caterpillars
and spiders are, you too will find it remarkable that
they produce silks that are similar.
(A) When one realizes how very different caterpil-
lars and spiders are
(B) If one should realize the great differences
between caterpillars and spiders
(C) If one realizes how greatly caterpillars and
spiders differ
(D) When you realize how very different caterpil-
lars and spiders are
(E) Upon the realization of how very different
caterpillars and spiders are
3. The della Robbias created many sculptural reliefs of
the Virgin and Child surrounded by garlands, and
they traditionally worked in terra-cotta.
(A) The della Robbias created many sculptural
reliefs of the Virgin and Child surrounded by
garlands, and they
(B) The della Robbias, who created many sculptur-
al reliefs of the Virgin and Child surrounded
by garlands,
(C) Creating many sculptural reliefs of the Virgin

and Child surrounded by garlands were the
della Robbias, and they
(D) The della Robbias created many sculptural
reliefs of the Virgin and Child surrounded by
garlands, and doing this they
(E) In the creation of many sculptural reliefs of the
Virgin and Child surrounded by garlands, the
della Robbias they
4. An egotist is when a person thinks the entire uni
-
verse revolves around him or her.
(A) An egotist is when a person thinks the entire
universe revolves around him or her.
(B) Egotists think the entire universe revolves
around them.
(C) An egotist is when a person thinks the entire
universe is revolving around them.
(D) An egotist is a person which thinks the entire
universe revolves around him or her.
(E) An egotistical person thinks the entire universe
revolves around himself or herself.
830 Six Model SAT Tests
10 10 10 10 10 10 10
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
Some or all parts of the following sentences are under-
lined. The first answer choice, (A), simply repeats the
underlined part of the sentence. The other four choic-
es present four alternative ways to phrase the under-
lined part. Select the answer that produces the most
effective sentence, one that is clear and exact, and

blacken the appropriate space on your answer sheet. In
selecting your choice, be sure that it is standard writ-
ten English, and that it expresses the meaning of the
original sentence.
Example:
The first biography of author Eudora Welty
came out in 1998 and she was 89 years old at
the time.
(A) and she was 89 years old at the time
(B) at the time when she was 89
(C) upon becoming an 89 year old
(D) when she was 89
(E) at the age of 89 years old
Ꭽ Ꭾ Ꭿ ൴
SECTION
10
Time—10 Minutes
14 Questions
For each of the following questions, select the best answer
from the choices provided and fill in the appropriate circle
on the answer sheet.


Test 6 831
5. Harold Brodkey’s eager anticipated first novel was
so long in coming—more than three decades, as it
turned out—that he actually became famous for not
writing a book.
(A) Brodkey’s eager anticipated first novel was so
long in coming

(B) Brodkey’s eager anticipated first novel took so
long to come
(C) Brodkey eagerly anticipated his first novel, it
was so long in coming
(D) Brodkey eagerly anticipated his first novel, and
it took so long to come
(E) Brodkey’s eagerly anticipated first novel was
so long in coming
6. Studies demonstrate the beneficial effects of keep-
ing pets, many senior housing centers are adopting
strays from local humane societies.
(A) Studies demonstrate the beneficial effects of
keeping pets, many
(B) Though studies demonstrate the beneficial
effects from keeping pets, many
(C) Because studies demonstrate the beneficial
effects of keeping pets, many
(D) Studies demonstrate the beneficial effects of
keeping pets, and many
(E) Studies demonstrate that there are beneficial
effects from keeping pets, therefore many
7. Having excelled in football, baseball, as well as
track, Jim Thorpe is hailed by many as the greatest
athlete of the twentieth century.
(A) Having excelled in football, baseball, as well
as track
(B) With his excellence in football and baseball
and being a track star
(C) Because he excelled in football, baseball, and
track

(D) Having excelled in football and baseball, what
is more, track
(E) By being excellent in football and baseball and
also track
8. Running an insurance agency left Charles Ives little
time for composition, yet he nevertheless developed
a unique musical idiom.
(A) nevertheless developed a unique musical idiom
(B) nevertheless developed a very unique musical
idiom
(C) therefore developed a uniquely musical idiom
(D) nevertheless developed his musical idiom
uniquely
(E) however developed a very unique and idiomat-
ic music
9. While some scientists are absorbed by the philo-
sophical question of what consciousness is, but oth-
ers restrict themselves to trying to understand what
is going on at the neurological level when con-
sciousness is present.
(A) While some scientists are absorbed by the
philosophical question of what consciousness
is,
(B) Although some scientists are absorbed by the
philosophical question of what consciousness
is,
(C) Some scientists are absorbed by the philosoph-
ical question of what consciousness is,
(D) Some scientists being absorbed by the philo-
sophical question of what consciousness is,

(E) While some scientists absorbed the philosophi-
cal question of what consciousness is,
10. Given the difficulties inherent in bringing up
children, it is remarkable that so many single parents
succeed in raising happy, healthy youngsters
(A) Given the difficulties inherent in bringing up
children, it is remarkable that
(B) Given the difficulties inherent in bringing up
children, it seems remarkably that
(C) If you give the difficulties inherent and bring
up children, it is remarkable that
(D) Giving the difficulties inherent in the upbring-
ing of children, they are remarkable in that
(E) Having been given the difficulties inherent in
bringing up children, one is able to remark
that
11. Music journalism at its highest level is a valid liter-
ary genre, not a
vicarious alternative to mastering an
instrument.
(A) genre, not a
(B) genre, it is not a
(C) genre; not a
(D) genre, but is not a
(E) genre; and it is not a
10 10 10 10 10 10 10
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE


12. Although his fantasy trilogy, The Lord of the Rings,

was far better known than his linguistic research on
Anglo-Saxon verse, Professor Tolkien refused to
grant interviews about the novels he had written or
otherwise to promote his nonacademic work.
(A) had written or otherwise to promote
(B) had written or otherwise promoting
(C) wrote nor otherwise promoting
(D) has written nor otherwise to have promoted
(E) wrote or otherwise promoting
13. Many of us attempt to rewrite our personal stories to
present ourselves in the best light; indeed, there is an
almost universal inclination to this.
(A) there is an almost universal inclination to this
(B) our inclination for it is almost universal
(C) our having this inclination is an almost
universal condition
(D) we are almost universally inclined to do so
(E) doing so is almost universal as an inclination
within us
14. The best known Iban textiles, large ceremonial
cloths called pua kumbu, whose designs depict the
flora and fauna of Borneo as well as figures from the
spirit realm.
(A) textiles, large ceremonial cloths called pua
kumbu, whose designs depict
(B) textiles, large ceremonial cloths called pua
kumbu, in whose designs are depicted
(C) textiles are large ceremonial cloths called pua
kumbu, whose designs depict
(D) textiles are large ceremonial cloths called pua

kumbu, their designs depict
(E) textiles, large ceremonial cloths, are called pua
kumbu, in their designs are depicted
832 Six Model SAT Tests
YOU MAY GO BACK AND REVIEW THIS SECTION IN THE REMAINING TIME,
BUT DO NOT WORK IN ANY OTHER SECTION UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
S T O P
10 10 10 10 10 10 10


Test 6/Answer Key 833
Answer Key
Note: The letters in brackets following the Mathematical
Reasoning answers refer to the sections of Chapter 12
in which you can find the information you need to answer
the questions. For example, 1. C [E] means that the
answer to question 1 is C, and that the solution requires
information found in Section 12-E: Averages.
Section 2 Critical Reading
Section 3 Mathematical Reasoning
Section 4 Writing Skills
Section 5
Section 6 Critical Reading
1. C
2. B
3. E
4. A
5. C
6. C
7. D

8. E
9. C
10. C
11. E
12. D
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. E
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. E
24. C
On this test, Section 5 was the experimental section. It could have been an extra critical reading, mathematics, or
writing skills section. Remember: on the SAT you take, the experimental section may be any section from 2 to 7.
1. A
2. E
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. E
8. C
9. D
10. B
11. A

12. D
13. E
14. D
15. E
16. D
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. D
21. D
22. C
23. C
24. D
25. C
26. D
27. A
28. C
29. E
30. D
31. D
32. B
33. A
34. E
35. C
1. E [G]
2. E [C]
3. B [A, E]
4. A [J]
5. C [D, H]
6. B [I, D]

7. B [J, K]
8. B [E]
9. A [J]
10. D [J]
11. D [A]
12. C [G]
13. C [I, J]
14. B [E]
15. D [Q, N]
16. A [D]
17. C [L, N]
18. C [E]
19. C [G]
20. D [K, L]
1. C
2. E
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. E
15. E
16. D

17. E
18. D
19. D
20. D
21. C
22. D
23. B
24. A


Section 7 Mathematical Reasoning
Multiple-Choice Questions
Grid-in Questions
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
[B] [A] [A, B] [P] [I]
14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
[E] [K] [J] [C] [E, P]
or 2.4
0 00
11 1
22 22
33 33
44 44
55 55
66 66
77 77
88 88
99 99
1
0 00

11 11
22 22
33 33
44 44
55 55
66 66
77 77
88 88
99 9
9
0 0
11 11
22 22
33 33
44 44
55 55
66 66
77 77
88 88
99 99
0
0 00
11
22 22
33 33
44 44
55 55
66 66
77 77
88 88

99 99
11
0 00
11 11
22 22
33 33
44 44
55 55
66 66
77 77
8 88
9 9
89.9
1. A [K]
2. D [D]
3. C [F]
4. B [M]
5. E [A, G]
6. C [L, O]
7. B [K, N]
8. D [R]
834 Six Model SAT Tests
0 00
11 11
22 22
3 33
44 4
55 5
66 66
77 77

88 88
99 99
3 45
0 00
11 11
22 22
3 33
44 4
55 55
66 66
77 77
88 8
99 99
348
0 00
1 11
2 22
33 33
44 44
55 5
66 66
77 77
88 88
99 99
12/5
0
1 11
22 22
33 33
44 44

55 55
66 66
77 77
88 88
99 99
100
0 00
11 1
22 2
33 33
44 44
55 55
66 66
77 77
88 88
99 99
21


Answer Key 835
Section 8 Critical Reading
Section 9 Mathematical Reasoning
Section 10 Writing Skills
1. E
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. E
6. C
7. C

8. A
9. C
10. A
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. C
1. E [A]
2. C [B]
3. C [P]
4. D [H]
5. B [L]
6. A [C]
7. C [K, L, O]
8. E [R]
9. B [C, Q]
10. C [B]
11. C [C, D]
12. A [J, K]
13. C [N]
14. D [P]
15. A [J, L]
16. D [A, P]
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. B

8. E
9. A
10. E
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. E
15. B
16. E
17. E
18. E
19. C


836 Six Model SAT Tests
Score Your Own SAT Essay
Use this table as you rate your performance on the essay-writing section of this Model Test. Circle the phrase
that most accurately describes your work. Enter the numbers in the scoring chart below. Add the numbers
together and divide by 6 to determine your total score. The higher your total score, the better you are likely to
do on the essay section of the SAT.
Note that on the actual SAT two readers will rate your essay; your essay score will be the sum of their two
ratings and could range from 12 (highest) to 2 (lowest). Also, they will grade your essay holistically, rating it on
the basis of their overall impression of its effectiveness. They will not analyze it piece by piece, giving separate
grades for grammar, vocabulary level, and so on. Therefore, you cannot expect the score you give yourself on
this Model Test to predict your eventual score on the SAT with any great degree of accuracy. Use this scoring
guide instead to help you assess your writing strengths and weaknesses, so that you can decide which areas to
focus on as you prepare for the SAT.
Like most people, you may find it difficult to rate your own writing objectively. Ask a teacher or fellow
student to score your essay as well. With his or her help you should gain added insights into writing your
25-minute essay.

654321
POSITION Clear, convincing, Fundamentally Fairly clear Insufficiently Largely unclear Extremely unclear
ON THE TOPIC & insightful clear & coherent & coherent clear
ORGANIZATION Well organized, Generally well Adequately Sketchily Lacking focus and Unfocused and
OF EVIDENCE with strong, relevant organized, with organized, with developed, with evidence disorganized
examples apt examples some examples weak examples
SENTENCE Varied, appealing Reasonably varied Some variety Little variety Errors in sentence Severe errors in
STRUCTURE sentences sentences in sentences in sentences structure sentence
structure
LEVEL OF Mature & apt Competent Adequate Inappropriate or Highly limited Rudimentary
VOCABULARY word choice word choice word choice weak vocabulary vocabulary
GRAMMAR Almost entirely Relatively free Some technical Minor errors, and Numerous major Extensive severe
AND USAGE free of errors of errors errors some major ones errors errors
OVERALL Outstanding Effective Adequately Inadequate, but Seriously flawed Fundamentally
EFFECT competent shows some deficient
potential
Self-Scoring Chart Scoring Chart (Second Reader)
For each of the following categories, For each of the following categories,
rate the essay from 1 (lowest) rate the essay from 1 (lowest)
to 6 (highest) to 6 (highest)
Position on the Topic Position on the Topic
Organization of Evidence Organization of Evidence
Sentence Structure Sentence Structure
Level of Vocabulary Level of Vocabulary
Grammar and Usage Grammar and Usage
Overall Effect Overall Effect
TOTAL TOTAL
(To get a score, divide the total by 6) (To get a score, divide the total by 6)

Calculate Your Raw Score 837
Calculate Your Raw Score
Critical Reading
Section 2 = (A)
Section 6 = (B)
Section 8 = (C)
Critical Reading Raw Score = (A) + (B) + (C) =
Mathematical Reasoning
Section 3 = (D)
Section 7
Part I = (E)
(1–8)
Part II = (F)
(9–18)
Section 9 = (G)
Mathematical Reasoning Raw Score = (D) + (E) + (F) + (G) =
Writing Skills
Section 4 = (H)
Section 10 = (I)
Essay + = (J)
score 1 score 2
Writing Skills Raw Score = H + I (J is a separate subscore)
number correct number incorrect
−
⎛
⎝
⎜
⎞
⎠
⎟

1
4
number correct number incorrect
−
⎛
⎝
⎜
⎞
⎠
⎟
1
4
number correct number incorrect
−
⎛
⎝
⎜
⎞
⎠
⎟
1
4
number correct
number correct number incorrect
−
⎛
⎝
⎜
⎞
⎠

⎟
1
4
number correct number incorrect
−
⎛
⎝
⎜
⎞
⎠
⎟
1
4
number correct number incorrect
−
⎛
⎝
⎜
⎞
⎠
⎟
1
4
number correct number incorrect
−
⎛
⎝
⎜
⎞
⎠

⎟
1
4
number correct number incorrect
−
⎛
⎝
⎜
⎞
⎠
⎟
1
4


838 Six Model SAT Tests
Evaluate Your Performance
Critical Mathematical Writing
Reading Reasoning Skills
700–800 59–67 48–54 40–49
650–690 52–58 44–47 36–39
600–640 46–51 38–43 31–35
550–590 38–45 32–37 27–30
500–540 30–37 26–31 22–26
450–490 22–29 19–25 17–21
400–440 14–21 12–18 11–16
300–390 3–13 3–11 3–10
200–290 less than 3 less than 3 less than 3
Identify Your Weaknesses
Critical Reading

Question
Question Numbers
Chapter to
Type Section 2 Section 6 Section 8 Study
Sentence 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Chapter 4
Completion 7, 8
Critical Reading 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, Chapter 5
14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17,
19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 18, 19
24 22, 23, 24


Identify Your Weaknesses 839
Identify Your Weaknesses
Mathematical Reasoning
Section Question Numbers Pages to
in Chapter 12 Section 3 Section 7 Section 9 Study
A Basics of 3, 11 5, 10, 11 1, 16 372–385
Arithmetic
B Fractions and 9, 11 2, 10 385–396
Decimals
C Percents 2 17 6, 9, 11 396–404
D Ratios and 5, 7, 16 2 11 404–413
Proportions
E Averages 3, 8, 14, 18 14, 18 413–419
F Polynomials 3 419–424
G Equations and 1, 12, 19 5, 9 425–434
Inequalities
H Word 5, 15 4 434–441
Problems

I Lines and Angles 6, 13 13 441–447
J Triangles 4, 7, 9, 10, 13 16 12, 15 448–458
K Quadrilaterals 7, 20 1, 7, 15 7, 12 459–465
L Circles 17, 20 6 5, 7, 15 465–472
M Solid Geometry 4 472–476
N Coordinate 17 7 13 477–484
Geometry
O Counting and 6 7 485–493
Probability
P Logical 12, 18 3, 14, 16 494–499
Reasoning
Q Data 9 499–507
Interpretation
R Functions 8 8 507–512
Identify Your Weaknesses
Writing Skills
Question Numbers Chapter to
Question Type Section 4 Section 10 Study
Improving Sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, Chapter 9
9, 10, 11 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14
Identifying Sentence Errors 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, Chapter 9
18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23,
24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29
Improving Paragraphs 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35 Chapter 9
Essay Chapter 10


840 Six Model SAT Tests
Answer Explanations
Section 2 Critical Reading

1. C. The reviewer was vitriolic (as biting as acid),
devastating (destructive), and irritating (annoy-
ing). He was not constructive or helpful.
Never signals a contrast. The missing word
must be an antonym or near-antonym for the
three adjectives in the series.
Note that you are looking for a word with pos-
itive associations. Therefore, you can elimi-
nate any word with negative ones. Choices D
and E have negative associations. Only
Choice A, B, or C can be correct. Choice C is
preferable. (Contrast Signal)
2. E. The team members tolerated or put up with
the coach’s rules as long as the coach was not
too strict in applying them.
Despite signals a contrast. You expect people
who resent rules to fight them or disobey them.
Instead, the team members put up with them.
Remember: in double-blank sentences, go
through the answer choices, testing the first
word in each choice and eliminating the ones
that don’t fit. You can immediately eliminate
Choices B, C, and D. (Contrast Signal)
3. A. If we still cannot make up our minds whether
low-level microwave radiation is dangerous or
safe, our evidence must be too weak for us to
be able to decide; it must be inconclusive.
Remember: before you look at the choices,
read the sentence and think of a word that
makes sense.

Likely Words: incomplete, uncorroborated,
unverified. (Argument Pattern)
4. B. Tacitus’ descriptions were limited or hindered
by the crude (primitive) state of communica-
tions.
But signals a contrast. The fact that Tacitus’
descriptions match those of other writers of
his time implies that they are reasonable
descriptions for that period. They are adequate
in spite of the limitations they suffered from.
(Contrast Signal)
5. C. If future archaeological discoveries will be
“hard put to match” the revelations of the past
ten years, the past decade’s discoveries must
have been truly remarkable ones, ones that
radically or fundamentally changed the field.
Even striking or dramatic discoveries could
not compare with such revelations.
(Argument Pattern)
6. C. Indian art recalls (is reminiscent of) Japanese
art because, like Japanese art, it minimizes; it
understates.
The clause following “Japanese art” gives
examples of what Japanese art is like: it sug-
gests; it does not state directly or overstate.
Look at the first word of each answer pair. If
the first word means states directly or over-
states, then the second word must mean “is
unlike,” because it is unlike Japanese art to
overstate. If the first word means suggests or

understates, then the second word must mean
“is like,” because it is like Japanese art to
understate. (Examples)
7. D. If irony has become a way of escape, then its
job is to help people escape or evade life’s
terrors.
Note that the second clause defines what is
meant by irony as a mode of escape. It clari-
fies the phrase’s meaning. (Definition)
8. C. Looking down on the demonstrators (viewing
them with “little respect”), the police would
most likely talk about them in pejorative
(negative) terms. (Definition)
9. A. By denying the existence of a love affair
between Pocahontas and John Smith, the
author is debunking (exposing the falseness
of) a common myth.
10. A. By saying “True,” the author admits that there
was some sort of relationship between
Pocahontas and John Smith, even if it was not
the passionate relationship that lovers of
romantic tales would prefer.
11. A. To say that today’s chocolate lovers would not
find the Aztec’s “food of the gods” heavenly
is a humorous understatement. More likely,
their reaction would be like that of the Spanish
explorers who described the unsweetened
chocolate beverage as food for pigs!
12. D. In describing the Aztec beverage as “fitter for
hogs than men,” the explorers were being

scornful or derisive.
13. B. The author describes his rapture or great joy
when he first saw his new owner’s smiling
face. Clearly, his immediate response to the
prospect of living with the Aulds was chiefly
one of marked (distinct) pleasure.
14. E. Lines 21–24 state that “by constant application
to her business, she [Mrs. Auld] had been in a
good degree preserved from the blighting and
dehumanizing effects of slavery.” Mrs. Auld has
applied herself to her business or trade of weav-
ing. She has concentrated on this trade. Because
she has not owned slaves but has kept herself
busy with her own work, she has been relatively
unaffected by slavery and has not adopted the
inhumane attitudes typical of slave owners.
15. E. The sentences immediately following
Douglass’s comment about his early instruc-
tion clarify what he had been taught. He had
been taught to behave in a slavish, obsequious
fashion. However, “her favor was not gained
by it [crouching servility]; she seemed to be
disturbed by it” (lines 29 and 30). In other
words, the obsequiousness in which Douglass
had been drilled distressed his new mistress.
16. D. Fawning and cringing did not serve the pur-
pose of pleasing Mrs. Auld; such slavish
behavior did not do at all in this particular
situation.

Test 6/Answer Explanations 841
17. E. According to Douglass, at the time he met her
Mrs. Auld was a kind, loving woman who had
not yet had the experience of owning slaves.
Thus, she had been kept free of “the blighting
and dehumanizing effects of slavery” (lines 23
and 24). However, she now owned a slave—
Douglass himself—and would inevitably be
affected by her power over him. Her kind
heart would cease to be kind: she was destined
to undergo a change of character as she
became corrupted by her participation in the
institution of slavery.
18. D. The passage does not suggest that a disdain
(scorn) for convention is typical of Mrs. Auld.
Therefore, Choice D is correct.
Mrs. Auld was noted for “constant application
to her business” (lines 21 and 22). This implies
that diligence in labor was one of her charac-
teristics. Therefore, Choice A is incorrect.
Mrs. Auld seemed “disturbed” by “crouching
servility” (lines 26 and 27). This implies that a
dislike of fawning was one of her characteris-
tics. Therefore, Choice B is incorrect.
Mrs. Auld was kindhearted (lines 16 and 17)
and able to put people at ease (lines 32 and
33). This implies that gentleness of spirit was
one of her characteristics. Therefore, Choice C
is incorrect.

Mrs. Auld voluntarily began to teach the
narrator. She wished him well. This implies
that a benevolent nature was one of her
characteristics. Therefore, Choice E is
incorrect.
19. D. Choice D is correct. You can arrive at it by
the process of elimination.
Statement I is true. In line 45 Mr. Auld tells
his wife that instructing slaves is unlawful: it
violates the law. Therefore, you can eliminate
Choice B.
Statement II is untrue. Since Mr. Auld is so
concerned that education would spoil his
slaves, he must believe that slaves can be
taught. Therefore, you can eliminate Choices
C and E.
Statement III is true. Mr. Auld states that a
slave who was able to read would become
“unmanageable” (line 54). Therefore, you can
eliminate Choice A.
Only Choice D is left. It is the correct answer.
20. D. Mr. Auld is arguing that Mrs. Auld should
not give Douglass reading lessons. To con-
vince her, he cites a variant of the proverb
“If you give him an inch, he’ll take a mile.”
(In other words, he’ll take a lot more than
you originally planned to give him.) A mile
is a much larger unit of length than an inch.
We can assume that an ell is a much larger
unit of length than an inch, also.

21. C. The author’s purpose in this passage is to
show how he discovered that learning to read
was vital for him if he wanted to be free. The
bulk of the passage deals with learning to
read—the author’s introduction to it, his mas-
ter’s arguments against it, his own increased
determination to succeed in it.
Choice A is incorrect. It is the cause of the
disagreement that is central, not the existence
of the disagreement.
Choice B is incorrect. The author lists, but
does not analyze, the master’s reasons for for-
bidding his wife to teach her slave.
Choice D is incorrect. It is unsupported by the
passage.
Choice E may seem a possible answer, but it
is too narrow in scope. Only the last two sen-
tences of the first paragraph stress Mrs.
Auld’s moral downfall.
22. D. Douglass states that his master “was deeply
sensible of the truths he was uttering.” In
other words, his master was highly conscious
that he was saying the truth; he felt sure that
only evil consequences would come from
teaching a slave to read.
23. B. The author’s tone is strongly ironic. He
knows full well that, in opposing his educa-
tion, his master did not intend to benefit
him. Thus, by acknowledging his “debt”
to his master, the author is underlining his

master’s defeat. His tone is cutting and ironic.
Choice A is incorrect. The author is not filled
with loving sentiment and warmth when he
thinks of his harsh master.
Choice C is incorrect. The author neither
whines nor congratulates himself on his own
moral superiority.
Choice D is incorrect. The author is not
resigned or submissive; he certainly is not
wistful or longing for the days gone by.
Choice E is incorrect. Although the author
still feels anger at the institution of slavery,
when he thinks of his master’s defeat he feels
triumphant as well.
24. A. The author wholly believes his master’s state-
ment that learning would make him unman-
ageable. In other words, education would
make him impossible to enslave.
Choice B is incorrect. The author is concerned
with education for freedom, not for old age.
Choices C, D, and E are incorrect. They are
unsupported by the passage.
Section 3 Mathematical Reasoning
In each mathematics section, for many problems, an alter-
native solution, indicated by two asterisks (**), follows
the first solution. When this occurs, one of the solutions is
the direct mathematical one and the other is based on one
of the tactics discussed in Chapter 11 and 12.
1. E. a – 5 = 0 ⇒ a = 5 ⇒ a + 5 = 10.

842 Six Model SAT Tests
2. E. Use your calculator only if you don’t realize
that 50% = . Otherwise, just say of 50
is 25, and of 25 is 12.5.
3. B. The average of x and y is , and the
product of that fraction and 5 is
5=
**It’s easier and quicker to do this directly,
so substitute for x and y only if you get stuck
or confused. If x = 2 and y = 4, their average
is 3; and the product of 5 and 3 is 15. Only
is equal to 15 when x = 2 and y = 4.
4. A. Since x + 100 = 180, x = 80; also,
180 = y + x + x = y + 80 + 80 = y + 160
⇒ y = 20.
5. C. In 1 minute light will travel
(300,000 km/s)(60 s) = 18,000,000 km.
Therefore, light will travel 150,000,000 kilo-
meters in = 8 light minutes.
6. B. Every hour the hour hand moves through 30°
It will move through 10° in
hour, or 20 minutes; and 20 minutes after 1:15
the time is 1:35.
7. B. Draw a square, and let the
sides be 1. Then, by KEY
FACTS J8 and J10, the
diagonal, d, is , and
d
2

= 2. Since the area of the
square is 1, d
2
is twice the
area of the square.
**By KEY FACT K8, the area of a square =
.
8. B. Since the average of a, b, c, and d is 10, their
sum is 40. The only other condition is that
they be in increasing order. The numbers
could be 1, 2, 3, and 34, in which case both I
and III are false. This guarantees that the
answer is II only, but let’s just verify that II is
true: in any set of numbers that are not all
equal, the smallest number in the set is less
than the average of the numbers, and the
greatest number is more than their average.
9. A. Use TACTIC 1:
draw a diagram, and
label all the line seg-
ments. Now add two
segments to create a
right triangle. Since
the legs are 6 and 8,
the hypotenuse is 10.
**Use TACTIC 8: eliminate the absurd choic-
es and guess. The woman rode 14 miles.
Clearly, the direct path is shorter; eliminate
C, D, and E. Since it’s probably much shorter,
eliminate B, as well.

10. D. Either (i) 5 and 6 are the
lengths of the two legs, or
(ii) 5 is the length of a leg,
and 6 is the hypotenuse.
In either case use the
Pythagorean theorem:
(i) 5
2
+ 6
2
= c
2
⇒
c
2
= 61 ⇒ c = ;
or
(ii) a
2
+ 5
2
= 6
2
⇒
a
2
= 36 – 25 = 11 ⇒ a =.
Statements I and II only
are true.
11. D. By definition, = (5)(3)(2) – (5 + 3 + 2)

= 30 – 10 = 20.
12. C. Check each choice to see which of the equa-
tions has (have) exactly one positive integer
solution.
I. For every number a: (0)(a)(–a) = 0 and
0 + a + (–a) = 0, so for every positive integer a,
= 0 – 0 = 0. (I is false.)
II. = 0 ⇒ a
3
– 3a = 0 ⇒ a
3
= 3a. We’re
looking for positive solutions, so assume
a ≠ 0, and divide by a: a
2
= 3 ⇒ a = ± .
But is not an integer. (II is false.)
III. = 0 ⇒ 6a
3
– 6a = 0 ⇒ 6a
3
= 6a ⇒
a
2
= 1. This equation has one positive integer
solution, a = 1. (III is true.)
Statement III only is true.
2a 3a
a
3

3
a
a
a
0
a
–a
3
5
2
11
61
d
2
2
2
1
3
1
12
of 360°
⎛
⎝
⎞
⎠
.
1
3
150 000 000
18 000 000

,,
,,
55
2
xy+
55
2
xy+
.
xy+
⎛
⎝
⎞
⎠
2
xy+
2
1
2
1
2
1
2
2
1
1
8
8
3
3

3
H
S
5
5
6
6
c
a
(i)
(ii)


Test 6/Answer Explanations 843
13. C. There are many
ways to get the
values of x and y;
here’s the easiest.
Since ∠EFD is an
exterior angle of
᭝FEC, 50 =
30 + x ⇒ x = 20
(KEY FACT J2). Since DF = EF, then a = b and
a + b + 50 = 180 ⇒ a + b = 130,
so a and b are 65 each. But since the opposite
sides of a rectangle are parallel, b = y, so
y = 65 and x + y = 20 + 65 = 85.
14. B. It’s possible to reason the answer out without
writing down and adding up all the numbers,
but it won’t save any time. Systematically list

them: 123, 132, 213, 231, 312, 321. Use your
calculator: the sum is 1332, and the average is
1332 ÷ 6 = 222.
15. D. The sales revenue per dollar of advertising
expenditure is represented by the slope of the
line of best fit. For example, two points on the
line are (150, 60) and (350, 80). Note that, since
the numbers on the x-axis represent thousands
of dollars and the numbers on the y-axis repre-
sent millions of dollars, these two are really the
points ($150,000, $60,000,000) and ($350,000,
$80,000,000). The slope of the line is
100.
16. A. Write the equation from the definition given:
density = . Then, if the population
is p,
**Use TACTIC 6: replace the letters with
easy-to-use numbers. Let = 2 and w = 3.
Then the area is 6; and if the population is
60, the density is 10 people per square mile.
Only equals 60 when = 2, w = 3,
and d = 10.
17. C. Use TACTIC
1: draw a dia-
gram. Since the
distance between
(– 4,1) and (2,1)
is 6, the diameter
of the circle is 6
and the radius is

3. Then the area
is π(3)
2
= 9π.
18. C. This question calls for a weighted average. The
students in the first-period class earned a total
of 24 × 78 = 1872 points, and the students in
the second-period class earned 26 × 83 = 2158
points. In total, the 50 students earned
1872 + 2158 = 4030 points, so their average was
= 80.6.
**The average of 78 and 83 is 80.5. However,
since the group of students averaging 83 is
slightly larger than the group with the 78
average, the average must be slightly greater
than 80.5. Eliminate A and B and guess.
There’s no guarantee, but certainly, 80.6 is
slightly greater than 80.5.
19. C. x = 2y – 5 ⇒ 2y = x + 5 ⇒ y = , so
z = 16y
3
= 16
= = 2(x + 5)
3
.
**Use TACTIC 6: replace the letters with
numbers. Let y = 2; then x = –1 and z =
16(2)
3
= 16(8) = 128. Which of the five choices

equals 128 when x = –1? Only 2(x + 5)
3
.
20. D. The length of
the rectangle
is clearly 20,
the length of
two diameters.
The width of
the rectangle
is 10 + h,
where h is the
height of the equilateral triangle formed by
joining the centers of the three circles. Since
the sides of that triangle are 10, the height is
5 (KEY FACT J11). Then the width is
10 + 5 and the area is 20(10 + 5 ) =
200 + 100 .
**Use TACTIC 2: trust the diagram. Clearly,
the length is 20, and the width is much more
than 10, but less than 20. You should even see
that the width must be more than 15, so the
area is between 300 and 400.
Section 4 Writing Skills
1. A. Sentence is correct.
2. E. The original sentence lacks parallel structure.
Choices B and C are wordy and awkward.
Choice D is wordy. Only Choice E both
corrects the error and produces an effective,
concise sentence.

3
3
3
3
16
5
8
2
1
3
()x +
x +
⎛
⎝
⎞
⎠
5
2
3
x + 5
2
4030
50






d

p
w
p=⇒=

population
area
200
2
=
80 000 000 60 000 000
350 000 150 000
20 000,, ,,
,,
,−
−
=
,
,
000
200 000
=
a°
y°
x°
50°
30°
b
°
F
CD

AB
E
(–4,1) (2,1)
d
l
w.
d
l
w
5
55
555
5
5
h = 5 3
20
h


844 Six Model SAT Tests
3. C. Lack of needed subordination. The sentence
establishes a contrast. Most of Heyer’s books
are set in the eighteenth century; one, howev-
er, is set in the eleventh century. Only Choice
C establishes this contrast without introducing
any fresh errors.
4. A. Sentence is correct.
5. D. Error in subject-verb agreement. Do not use as
well as as a synonym for and. Only Choice D
corrects the error.

6. C. Error in number. Because programs is
plural, kind should be plural as well. The pre-
ferred form is these kinds of programs.
7. E. Errors in word usage and in parallelism. Do
not use then, referring to time, in place of the
function word than. The basic sentence states
that modern men are less tolerant than men of
old were. The revision in Choice E clarifies
the meaning of the sentence.
8. C. Errors in verb form and idiom. Choice C both
provides the noun clause with a verb (are
transmitted) and introduces the noun clause
properly with the preposition by.
9. D. The original sentence is both informal and
redundant. By substituting stems from the
desire for is because of wanting, you create a
stronger, more effective sentence.
10. B. Dangling modifier. Ask yourself who was
born in the days when no modest woman
would admit to writing novels. The answer is
Jane Austen. Choice B corrects the error by
making Jane Austen the subject of a depen-
dent clause.
11. A. Sentence is correct.
12. D. Error in word usage. Complimented means
praised. The videotapes did not praise the
exhibition; they made it complete. In other
words, they complemented it.
13. E. Sentence is correct.
14. D. Sentence fragment. Change performing to

performs. The ensemble performs without a
conductor.
15. E. Sentence is correct.
16. D. Error in verb form. The passive voice is nec-
essary here. The accidentally found objects do
not discover anything. Instead they are discov-
ered to be amazingly valuable.
17. D. Error in word usage. Change provoked from to
provoked by.
18. C. Error in subject-verb agreement. A singular
subject requires a singular verb. Culture is part
of the complex mix.
19. A. Error in sequence of tenses. Since refuses is
present tense, change had had to has had.
20. D. Errors in parallelism and in shift of pronoun.
Change your pursuit of to pursuing.
21. D. Error in pronoun-antecedent agreement. Who
is encroaching on human territory? The black
bear is. The antecedent is singular; the pro-
noun should be singular as well. Change their
to its.
22. C. Error in subject-verb agreement. Do not let the
unusual word order confuse you. The subject
of the main clause is differences, plural.
Replace has with have.
23. C. Error in pronoun case. Here, the pronoun is
the object of the preposition between. The sen-
tence should read “between my brother and
me,” not “between my brother and I.”
24. D. Error in word usage. People are indecisive

(unable to make a decision); periods of time
are indefinite (without a fixed or defined end).
Replace indecisive with indefinite.
25. C. Shift in personal pronoun. Replace you should
either with one should or with he or she
should.
26. D. Error in logical comparison. Compare steaks
with steaks, not steaks with meat markets.
Change Chelsea Meat Market to those at
Chelsea Meat Market.
27. A. Error in word usage. Perspective is a noun
meaning viewpoint or vista; prospective is an
adjective meaning expected or future. The
visitors are prospective or future tourists.
28. C. Error in subject-verb agreement. The subject
Gold is singular; the verb should be singular
as well. Replace are with is.
29. E. Sentence is correct.
30. D. Choices A, B, and C abruptly state the con-
trasting point of view without regard to the
context.
Choice D takes the context into account and
provides for a smooth progression of thought.
It is the best answer.
Choice E is confusing. It is unclear until the
end of the sentence whether the other mem-
bers support or oppose the exhibit.
31. D. Choice A is not consistent in style and mood
with the rest of the paragraph.
Choice B is a sentence fragment.

Choice C is excessively wordy.
Choice D fits the context of the paragraph and
expresses the idea correctly. It is the best
answer.
Choice E inappropriately uses in conclusion
and contains the pronoun it, which lacks a
specific antecedent.
32. B. Choice A lacks a main verb; therefore, it is a
sentence fragment.
Choice B accurately combines the sentences.
It is the best answer.
Choice C expresses the idea in a way that the
writer could not have intended.
Choice D subordinates important ideas and
emphasizes a lesser one.
Choice E restates the idea in a manner that
changes the writer’s intended meaning.
33. A. Choice A is the best answer because sentences
10–12 contain basic information about the topic.
Readers are left in the dark unless the informa-
tion appears as early as possible in the essay.
34. E. Choice A contains faulty idiom; the phrase
than of the past is nonstandard usage.