NIIT_TEST_QT2 pps

Ñeà Thi Traéc Nghieäm QT3
1) Which DBMS user performs only basic operations on the database?
Options
1. Application programmer
2. Sophisticated user
3. End user
4. Database administrator
2) The three-level architecture of a DBMS helps achieve ______.
Options
1. Data independence
2. Data integrity
3. Data security
4. Data redundancy
3) Which of the following relationship types is demonstrated when a student enrolls
for two courses simultaneously?
Options
1. One-to-One
2. Many-to-One
3. One-to-Many
4. Many-to-Many
4) Which of the following performs the task of replacing blocks of data?
Options
1. Database administrator
2. File manager
3. Disk manager
4. Database manager
5) Which of the following is a pool of values from which one or more attributes draw
their actual values?
Options
1. Relationship
2. Entity

3. Domain
4. Table
6) Which of the following denotes an association between entity types?
Options
1. Relation
2. Relationship
3. Relationship type
4. Relation type
7) Which of the following features is essential for two tables to be union compatible?
Options
1. Attributes with same data types
2. Attributes with same data
3. Attributes with unique data
4. Attributes with different data types
8) A candidate key that does not become a primary key is called a(n) ______ key.
Options
1. Candidate key
2. Foreign key
3. Alternate key
4. Composite key
9) In ______, every higher-level entity must also be a lower-level entity.
Options
1. Generalization
2. E/R diagram
3. Specialization
4. Many-to-Many relationship
10) Which of the following causes update anomalies in a database?
Options
1. Normalization
2. Entity relationships

3. Functional dependency
4. Redundancy
11) Each value of an attribute A in relation R is associated with precisely one value of
attribute B. What is this called?
Options
1. Top-down approach
2. Normalization
3. Denormalization
4. Functional dependency
12) Which SQL statements are used to create and delete tables?
Options
1. DDL
2. DQL
3. DML
4. DCL
13) Which type of view includes all rows but only some columns of the source table?
Options
1. Joined
2. Column subset
3. Grouped
4. Row subset
15) Which of the following is defined as an association among entities?
Options
1. E/R diagram
2. Supertype
3. Relationship
4. Attribute
16) In which of the following models is data represented in the form of a tree?
Options
1. Hierarchical model

2. Relational model
3. Entity-Relationship model
4. Network model
17) Which of the following performs the task of replacing blocks of data?
Options
1. Database administrator
2. File manager
3. Disk manager
4. Database manager
18) Dependent entities are also called:
Options
1. Weak entities
2. Regular entities
3. Subtypes
4. Supertypes
19) Which data model has the database structured in fixed-format records of several
types?
Options
1. Relational model
2. Object-based logical model
3. Network model
4. Hierarchical model
20) A(n) ______ is a pool of values from which one or more attributes draw their
actual values.
Options
1. Relation
2. Domain
3. Entity
4. Supertype
21) A candidate key that does not become a primary key is called a(n) ______ key.

Options
1. Candidate key
2. Foreign key
3. Alternate key
4. Composite key
22) Functional dependencies represent _______ relationships.
Options
1. One-to-One
2. One-to-Many
3. Many-to-One
4. Many-to-Many
23) If attribute A in a relation is functionally dependent on attribute B, attribute B is
called a ___________.
Options
1. Determinant
2. Candidate key
3. Composite key
4. Primary key
24) What is the term used for the intentional introduction of redundancy in a table in
order to improve performance?
Options
1. Normalization
2. Denormalization
3. Functional dependency
4. Top-down approach
25) Which SQL statements are used to create and delete tables?
Options
1. DDL
2. DQL
3. DML

4. DCL
26)Which data integrity constraint requires that a column contain a non-null value?
Options
1. Entity integrity
2. Referential integrity
3. Business rules
4. Required data
27) The network administrator of StoreData, Inc., wants to perform typical installation
of SQL Server 2000 on one of the three available computers. How much HDD space
should the administrator use for the installation?
Options
1. 250 MB
2. 80 MB
3. 300 MB
4. 47 MB
28) Which of the following statements are true about upgrading SQL Server 6.5 to
SQL Server 2000?
Options
1. To upgrade SQL Server 6.5 to SQL Server 2000, you must perform
version upgrade.
2. You only need a system database for performing an upgrade.
3. A user should use a local drive for the upgrade process when there is not
enough hard drive space.
4. It is not possible to upgrade from SQL Server 6.5 to SQL Server2000.
29) Which of the following components of Microsoft SQL Server 2000 is used for
developing client application to access and modify data stored in SQL Server 2000
databases?
Options
1. SQL Server 2000 relational database engine
2. SQL Server 2000 English Query

3. SQL Server 2000 Meta Data Services
4. Transact-SQL
30) What is the minimum requirement of free space that you should set for SQL
Server master database at the time of upgrading SQL Server 6.5 to SQL Server 2000?
Options
1. 2 MB
2. 3 MB
3. 4 MB
4. 1MB
31) Jack wants to use Windows as the authentication mode to version upgrade the
existing SQL Server 7.0 database to SQL Server 2000. Which one of the following
actions should he perform in sequence to do so?
Options
1. Run the setup program of SQL Server 2000, select the instance name of
SQL Server 2000, activate the version upgrade process from a local
computer, perform the upgrade process, and connect the SQL Server
with Windows authentication mode.
2. Run the setup program of SQL Server 2000, connect the SQL Server
with Windows authentication mode, select the instance name of SQL
Server 2000, activate the version upgrade process from a local
computer, and perform the upgrade process.
3. Run the setup program of SQL Server 2000, activate the version upgrade
process from a local computer, select the instance name of SQL Server
2000, perform the upgrade process, and connect the SQL Server with
Windows authentication mode.
4. Run the setup program of SQL Server 2000, activate the version upgrade
process from a local computer, select the instance name of SQL Server
2000, connect the SQL Server with Windows authentication mode, and
perform the upgrade process.
32) To repair the corrupt index, you need to execute:

Options
1. DBCC DBREINDEX
2. DBCC REINDEX
3. DBCC REINDEXDB
4. DBCC DBREINDEX and DBCC SHOWCONTIG
33) Which database operation enables you to locate a particular object or file on
individual disks or to logically group data files that are spread across multiple disks?
Options
1. Adding Filegroups
2. Expanding a Database
3. Shrinking a Database
4. Attaching a Database
34) A filegroup:
Options
1. Is a collection of primary data file and secondary data file
2. Can exist independently
3. Can contain transaction log files
4. Contains information about file identification, file size, and file
growth
35) Detaching a database:
Options
1. Moves a database from its current location to other location
2. Has minimal affect on data files and transaction log files
3. Disables you to attach the database in the same computer system
4. Reduces the size of the database
36) Which of the following database objects is used to accelerate the retrieval of rows
from a table or a view?
Options
1. Constraints
2. Triggers

3. Stored procedures
4. Indexes
37) Which granularity level of SQL Server 2000 applies a lock to a single row in a
table?
Options
1. RID
2. Key
3. Page
4. Extent
38) Patricia is the database administrator of JFY, Inc. The head office in Kansas has
asked her to perform snapshot publication and merge publication on certain databases
within a few minutes. Seeing the time constraint, she selects the Distributors
Properties option from the Replication Monitor pop-up menu. Which one of the
following options will she then select to apply the publication type?
Options
1. Publication Databases
2. Publishers
3. Distributors
4. Subscribers
39) When transactions stored in the transaction log are being replicated, which one of
the following replication agents stores changes to the marked transactions in the
database stored on the distributor?
Options
1. Distribution Agent
2. Log reader agent
3. Agent History Clean-up agent
4. Snapshot agent
40) Which RAID level of SQL Server 2000 supports the maximum number of disks?
Options
1. 10 (1+0)

2. 5
3. 1
4. 0
41) Alyssa wants to maintain referential integrity of the table that needs to be
replicated. Which one of the following filters should she use?
Options
1. Static Filter
2. Join Filter
3. Dynamic Filter
4. Both static and Dynamic Filter
42) Which database roles can execute the system-stored procedures?
Options
1. db-owner
2. db_datareader
3. db_securityadmin
4. db_datawriter
43) Which of the following stored procedure enables a Window 2000 user to connect
to SQL Server 2000?
Options
1. sp_revokelogin
2. sp_grantlogin
3. sp_defaultdb
4. sp_denylogin
44) Which of the following property specifies the different levels of functionality in a
SQL Server 2000 database?
Options
1. Access
2. Recovery
3. Compatibility
4. Settings

45) In Technowhiz, Inc., users work in Novell Netware, UNIX, and Linux
environment. To enable users to access SQL Server 2000 from any of the platforms,
the database administrator should authenticate users using the:
Options
1. Mixed Mode
2. SQL Server Authentication
3. Windows Authentication
4. LINUX or UNIX Authentication Mode
46) When a user requests to access the SQL Server 2000 instance by submitting a
Kerberos ticket (Windows 2000) for verification of identity, which one of the
following authentication mode is SQL Sever 2000 using?
Options
1. SQL Server Authentication
2. Windows Authentication
3. Mixed Mode
4. Kerberos Mode
47) When a new user-defined database role is created, the entry is made in which one
of the following system tables?
Options
1. sysusers
2. syspermissions
3. sysdatabases
4. sysmembers
48) Which table stores the details about the stored procedures, triggers, and views?
Options
1. syscomments
2. sysusers
3. syspermissions
4. sysdatabases
49) Suppose a full database backup is performed on Sunday at 12:00 a.m., and a

differential database backup is performed on Monday and Tuesday at 12:00 a.m.?
Which one of the following information will the differential database backup hold?
Options
1. Changes since Monday at 12:00 AM
2. Changes from Sunday at 12:00 a.m. to Monday at 12:00 a.m.
3. Changes from Sunday at 12:00 a.m. to Tuesday at 12:00 a.m.
4. No changes will be available in this backup
50) Which of the following server roles includes the members of Windows built-in
Administrators group by default?
Options
1. serveradmin
2. securityadmin
3. sysadmin
4. processadmin
51) Consider the following time line: 9.00-Backup starts 9:10-Melissa enters Quantity
3 for customer 15, whose name is Rudy Becker 9:15-The transaction is committed 9:
20-Backup finishes 9:25-David changes the name for customer 15 to Daniel 9:26-The
transaction is committed 9:30-Media fails for database 10:00-Database is restored
from 9:20 What is the state of customer 15?
Options
1. The record displays the name for customer 15 as Daniel.
2. The record displays the name for customer 15 as Rudy Becker.
3. The record for customer 15 does not exist.
4. The record of customer 15 contains NULL against the name field.
52) From the following options which job step of SQL Server 2000 contains the full
path to all the executable files and command?
Options
1. CMDExec commands
2. Transact-SQL statements
3. Microsoft ActiveX scripts

4. Replication tasks
53) From the following options, which attribute of the SQL Server alert contains the
name of the stored procedure that has generated the error?
Options
1. Severity
2. Message string
3. Procedure name
4. State code
54) Identify the datatype that is used to store variable length character data.
Options
1. binary
2. varbinary
3. char
4. varchar(n)
55) Identify the operators that allow row retrieval from a table based on the condition
specified in the WHERE clause.
Options
1. Logical operators
2. Comparison operators
3. Range operators
4. Arithmetic operators
56) Which keyword in the WHERE clause specifies an inclusive range to search?
Options
1. BETWEEN
2. NOT BETWEEN
3. OR
4. AND
57) Identify the wildcard that represents any single character within the specified
range.
Options

1. %
2. -
3. []
4. [^]
58) Identify the date function that returns datepart from the listed date as an integer.
Options
1. DATEADD
2. DATEDIFF
3. DATENAME
4. DATEPART
59) Which join type enables you to display data from multiple tables after comparing
values present in a common column?
Options
1. Inner Join
2. Outer Join
3. Cross Join
4. Equi Join
60) A join that uses an asterisk (*) sign in the SELECT list and displays redundant
column data in the result set is termed as:
Options
1. Inner Join
2. Outer Join
3. Cross Join
4. Equi Join
61) Identify the category of data integrity that ensures that each row can be uniquely
identified by an attribute called the primary key.
Options
1. Entity integrity
2. Domain integrity
3. Referential integrity

4. User-defined integrity
62) A rule can be bound using the system-stored procedure named:
Options
1. sp_bindrule
2. sp_help
3. sp_helptext
4. sp_unbindrule
63) Which keyword is used to specify whether the existing data is to be checked for a
newly added constraint or a re-enabled constraint?
Options
1. WITH CHECK
2. WITH NOCHECK
3. ADD CONSTRAINT
4. CONSTRAINT
64) Which conditional statement evaluates a list of conditions and returns one of the
various possible results?
Options
1. The CASE Statement
2. The IF…ELSE Statement
3. The BEGIN…END Statement
4. The WHILE statement
65) Which command is used to find out whether the table or index is heavily
fragmented?
Options
1. DBCC SHOWCONTIG
2. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
3. CREATE INDEX
4. FILL FACTOR
66) Identify the option that forces the data modification statements to meet the criteria
given in the SELECT statement defining the view.

Options
1. WITH CHECK
2. WITH ENCRYPTION
3. NOT NULL
4. NULL
67) Identify the global system variable that returns total number of errors that have
occurred during the current SQL server session.
Options
1. @@total_errors
2. @@error
3. @@connections
4. @@version
68) Triggers can be nested up to ___________ levels.
Options
1. 32
2. 10
3. 7
4. 20
69) Which two tables does the UPDATE trigger makes use of?
Options
1. The inserted table and the deleted table
2. The inserted table and the trigger table
3. The inserted table and the updated table
4. The deleted table and the trigger table
70) You need to create a stored procedure for retrieving all the rows from the Titles
table where the title name is ‘The Busy Executive’s Database Guide’
Identify the stored procedure for the problem described.
Options
1. CREATE PROCEDURE prcTitles
AS

SELECT * FROM Titles
WHERE title = 'The Busy Executive''s Database Guide'

2. CREATE PROC prcTitles
AS
SELECT * FROM Titles
WHERE title = 'The Busy Executive's Database Guide.'

3. CREATE PROCEDURE prcTitles
AS
SELECT * FROM Titles
WHERE title = 'The Busy Executive'sDatabase Guide'

4. CREATE PROC prcTitles
AS
SELECT * FROM Titles
WHERE title = 'The Busy Executive''s Database Guide.'
71) Which of the following is true about cursors?
A. You need to set cursor attributes before opening a cursor.
B. You can modify the current row in the result set returned by a cursor.
C. You cannot view the data modified by other users in the result set returned by a
cursor.
D. You can navigate through the result set returned by a cursor, one row at a time in a
sequential manner.
Options
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
72) Which of the following is true regarding the processing of rows in cursors?

Options
1. You need to set cursor attributes before opening a cursor.
2. You can modify the current row in the result set returned by a cursor.
3. You cannot view the data modified by other users in the result set
returned by a cursor.
4. You can navigate through the result set returned by a cursor, one row at a
time in a sequential manner.
73) Which statement describes the atomicity property of transactions?
Options
1. Data modification made by a transaction is independent of the
modifications made by other transactions.
2. All the data modifications are performed or none of them is performed.
3. Any change in data by a completed transaction remains permanently in
effect in the system.
4. All data is in a constant state after a transaction is completed
successfully.
74) GameFun Inc. is a multinational organization that creates gaming software. The
head office of the organization has recently acquired some new products that will help
them increase the interactivity in their games. These products need to be copied to the
branch offices across the world. Identify the kind of replication that should be used in
this scenario.
Options
1. Central Publisher
2. Central Publisher with Remote Distributor
3. Republisher
4. Central Subscriber
75) Ed is the database administrator at FlyFastCouriers. The company is upgrading its
SQL Server and wants to store details such as size and data of creation, of all its
databases. Help Ed view the required information.
Options

1. sp_helptext
2. sp_databases
3. sp_help
4. sp_helpdb
76) Which SQL Server statement can be used to display fragmentation information for
the data and indexes of the specified table?
Options
1. FILL FACTOR
2. DBCC SHOWCONTIG
3. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
4. DBCC DBREINDEX
77) A database cannot be made smaller than the:
Options
1. master database
2. model database
3. tempdb database
4. msdb database
78) Ed Robbins is a SQL database administrator. Ed is developing a database for his
company. This database will be based on SQL 2000, and will be accessed by every
user in the company. In within the database there is a table called EMP. Every user
should be able to only select and insert into EMP. John and Mary are the only
exceptions. They can issue any sort of DDL to EMP. How do you quickly configure
the required related permissions without involving unnecessary overheads?
Options
1. Create a new role called EMP, and assign the appropriate permissions
for the users to this role. Exclude John and Mary from this role.
2. Create a new role called EMP, and assign the appropriate permissions
for the users to this role. Include John and Mary in this role.
3. Create a new role called EMP, and assign the appropriate permissions
for the users to this role. Include John and Mary in this role.

Individually add the update permission to John and Mary.
4. Assign the select and insert permissions of EMP to the public database
role. Give John and Mary the role db_ddladmin.
79) Chris Forsythe is a database administrator at Great Graphics Corp. There are four
database roles in the organization namely Customers, Admin, Technology and
Marketing database roles. The Technology role is denied access to the Products table.
Bill is transferred to the Admin department from the Technology department and is
added to the Admin role. All members of the Admin department except for Bill, have
select permission on the Products table. Help Chris assign select permissions for Bill
on the Products table.
Options
1. sp_droprolemember 'Technology', 'Bill'
2. sp_addrolemember 'db_owner', 'Bill'
3. GRANT SELECT ON Products TO Bill
4. sp_addrolemember 'Admin', 'Bill'
80) Which stored procedure is used to add users to a server role?
Options
1. sp_addlogin
2. sp_adduser
3. sp_srvaddrolemember
4. sp_addsrvrolemember
81) The # symbol is used to:
Options
1. Denote special characters
2. Indicate bookmarks
3. Separate parameters in a URL
4. Separate directories and subdirectories
82) How is XML data retrieved in SQL Server 2000?
Options
1. By the OPENDATASOURCE clause alone

2. By the FOR XML clause alone
3. By the SELECT statement and the FOR XML clause
4. By the OPENXML rowset provider
83) Jim wants to display the title information for all the books on the Web. He wants
each row to be displayed as a single element on the web page. Which FOR XML
option will enable him to do so?
Options
1. RAW
2. AUTO
3. ELEMENTS
4. EXPLICIT
84) The scope of the database is determined at which stage of the DDLC?
Options
1. Preliminary planning
2. Conceptual design
3. Feasibility study
4. Requirements definition
85) Which of the following is defined as an association among entities?
Options
1. E/R diagram
2. Supertype
3. Relationship
4. Attribute
86) Which of the following relationship types is demonstrated when a student enrolls
for two courses simultaneously?
Options
1. One-to-One
2. Many-to-One
3. One-to-Many
4. Many-to-Many

87) Which of the following relational operators is used to extract specified columns
from a given relation?
Options
1. Restrict
2. Product
3. Divide
4. Project
88) Dependent entities are also called:
Options
1. Weak entities
2. Regular entities
3. Subtypes
4. Supertypes
89) Which of the following features is essential for two tables to be union compatible?
Options
1. Attributes with same data types
2. Attributes with same data
3. Attributes with unique data
4. Attributes with different data types
90) Which of the following problems arise when a primary key is allowed NULL
values?
Options
1. It becomes difficult to identify the rows uniquely.
2. It becomes difficult to identify the columns uniquely.
3. It becomes difficult to join tables.
4. It becomes difficult to identify foreign key.
91) Which of the following keys is an attribute that is a candidate for the primary key
but is not the primary key?
Options
1. Alternate key

2. Foreign key
3. Candidate key
4. Composite key
92) Normalization reduces redundancy using_______.
Options
1. E/R diagrams
2. Primary and Foreign keys
3. Non-loss decomposition
4. Top-down approach
93) A table is said to be in the _____ when each cell of the table contains precisely
one value.
Options
1. First normal form
2. Second normal form
3. Third normal form
4. Fourth normal form
94) Which SQL statements are used to create and delete tables?
Options
1. DDL
2. DQL
3. DML
4. DCL
95) For any event that causes a change in the contents of a table, a user can specify an
associated action that the DBMS should carry out. What is this action called?
Options
1. Log
2. Trigger
3. Integrity
4. Relation
96) In an E/R diagram, an entity is represented as a ______.

Options
1. Diamond
2. Line
3. Box
4. Oval
97) Mary Peterson is designing a database system for IMC Inc. She has performed the
activities involved in the first four stages of the DDLC. What activity does she need to
perform at the implementation stage?
Options
1. Evaluate the performance of the database.
2. Create the conceptual schema of the database.
3. Select a DBMS, purchase it, and populate the database with data.
4. Determine the feasibility of the database.
98) The three-level architecture of a DBMS helps achieve ______.
Options
1. Data independence
2. Data integrity
3. Data security
4. Data redundancy
99) In which of the following models is data represented in the form of a tree?
Options
1. Hierarchical model
2. Relational model
3. Entity-Relationship model
4. Network model
100) Which of the following relational operators is used to extract specified columns
from a given relation?
Options
1. Restrict
2. Product

3. Divide
4. Project
101) Dependent entities are also called:
Options
1. Weak entities
2. Regular entities
3. Subtypes
4. Supertypes
102) Which data model has the database structured in fixed-format records of several
types?
Options
1. Relational model
2. Object-based logical model
3. Network model
4. Hierarchical model
103) Which of the following features is essential for two tables to be union
compatible?
Options
1. Attributes with same data types
2. Attributes with same data
3. Attributes with unique data
4. Attributes with different data types
104) A candidate key that does not become a primary key is called a(n) ______ key.
Options
1. Candidate key
2. Foreign key
3. Alternate key
4. Composite key
105) In ______, every higher-level entity must also be a lower-level entity.
Options

1. Generalization
2. E/R diagram
3. Specialization
4. Many-to-Many relationship
106) In which of the following normal forms every determinant in a relation is a
candidate key?
Options
1. 1 NF
2. 2 NF
3. 3 NF
4. BCNF
107) What is the term used for the intentional introduction of redundancy in a table in
order to improve performance?
Options
1. Normalization
2. Denormalization
3. Functional dependency
4. Top-down approach
108) Which SQL statements are used to create and delete tables?
Options
1. DDL
2. DQL
3. DML
4. DCL
109) For any event that causes a change in the contents of a table, a user can specify
an associated action that the DBMS should carry out. What is this action called?
Options
1. Log
2. Trigger
3. Integrity

4. Relation
110) Identify the datatype that is used to store variable length character data.
Options
1. binary
2. varbinary
3. char
4. varchar(n)
111) Identify the operators that are used to combine multiple search conditions.
Options
1. Logical operators
2. Comparison operators
3. Range operators
4. Arithmetic operators
112) Identify the operator that allows the selection of values that match any one of the
values in a list.
Options
1. IN
2. AND
3. OR
4. NOT
113) Which of the following SQL statements will you use to retrieve the first ten rows
of the Titles tables?
Options
1. SELECT * FROM Titles WHERE count(*) = 10
2. SELECT count(10) FROM Titles
3. SELECT TOP(10) FROM Titles
4. SELECT TOP 10 * FROM Titles
114) Identify the date function that returns datepart from the listed date as an integer.
Options
1. DATEADD

2. DATEDIFF
3. DATENAME
4. DATEPART
115) Identify the mathematical function that returns the largest integer less than or
equal to the specified value.
Options
1. FLOOR
2. LOG
3. LOG10
4. RAND
116) Which operator is used to combine the result set of two or more queries?
Options
1. UNION
2. IN
3. HAVING
4. GROUP BY
117) Which keyword uses wildcard to ensure that the values entered in specific
columns are of a certain pattern?
Options
1. The LIKE keyword
2. The BETWEEN keyword
3. The NULL keyword
4. The NOT NULL keyword
118) Partial syntax to table creation is given below:
CREATE TABLE table_name
(
column_name datatype [NULL | NOT NULL]
[IDENTITY (SEED, INCREMENT)],
column_name datatype …
)

[ON {filegroup} | DEFAULT]
What does SEED indicate in the given syntax?
Options
1. The starting or the initial value for the IDENTITY column.
2. The step value used to generate the next value for the column.
3. Columns that need automatically generated unique system values.
4. Keywords that specify whether or not NULL values are allowed for
the column.
119) Which keyword is used to specify whether the existing data is to be checked for a
newly added constraint or a re-enabled constraint?
Options
1. WITH CHECK
2. WITH NOCHECK
3. ADD CONSTRAINT
4. CONSTRAINT
120) Groups of SQL statements submitted together to SQL Server for execution are
called:
Options
1. Batches
2. Variables
3. Comments
4. Messages
121) The FILLFACTOR clause is used to:
Options
1. Improve performance of the system by minimizing the amount of
page splitting that occurs each time an index page becomes full.
2. Sort data stored in table in ascending order.
3. Skip statements after CONTINUE inside the loop.
4. Exit from the WHILE loop.
122) What is the implication of NULL in Unique Indexes?

Options
1. NULL values are treated as duplicate values when indexed.
2. NULL values ensure that the indexed column contains no duplicate
values.
3. NULL values ensure that each combination of values in the indexed
column is unique.
4. Columns can contain NULL in more than one row.
123) Which of the following cannot be included in the view definition?
Options
1. The TOP clause.
2. The GROUP BY clause
3. The ORDER BY clause.
4. The DISTINCT clause.
124) Triggers can be nested up to ___________ levels.
Options
1. 32
2. 10
3. 7
4. 20
125) Which integrity can be implemented using the DELETE trigger?
Options
1. Entity
2. Domain
3. User-defined
4. Referential
126) The following SQL batch is created to modify a stored procedure,
prcPrintStoreList.
ALTER PROCEDURE prcPrintStoreList @state char(15)
AS
BEGIN

IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM Stores
WHERE state=@state)
BEGIN
PRINT 'List of Stores'
SELECT stor_id,stor_name,stor_address,city
FROM Stores
WHERE state = state
Return 0
END
ELSE
BEGIN
PRINT 'No Records Found for given state'
RETURN 1
END
END
Identify the output.
Options
1. Compile-time error
2. Run-time error
3. 0
4. 1
127) The row being fetched from the cursor result set is missing. What value is stored
in the @@fetch_status variable?
Options
1. 0
2. -1
3. -2
4. 1
128) Which stored procedure is used to view lock information?
Options

1. sp_helptext
2. sp_lock
3. sp_help
4. sp_helplock
129) You are a database developer for Trender Research. You create two transactions
to support the data entry of employee information into the company's database. One
transaction inserts employee name and address information into the database. The
other transaction inserts employee demographics information into the database. This
transaction is less important than the first transaction. The database administrator has
notified you that the database server occasionally encounters errors during periods of
high usage. Each time this occurs, the database server randomly terminates one of the
transactions. Which of the following might need to be set?
Options
1. DEADLOCK_PRIORITY for the transaction
2. ROWLOCK locking hint
3. Set the READ REPEATABLE isolation level
4. Set the SERIALIZABLE isolation level
130) GameFun Inc. is a multinational organization that creates gaming software. The
head office of the organization has recently acquired some new products that will help
them increase the interactivity in their games. These products need to be copied to the
branch offices across the world. Identify the kind of replication that should be used in
this scenario.
Options
1. Central Publisher
2. Central Publisher with Remote Distributor
3. Republisher
4. Central Subscriber
131) What is the minimum size of a transaction log file?
Options
1. 602K

2. 512K
3. 256K
4. 450K
132) Which stored procedure is used to display information on a database object or a
user-defined datatype?
Options
1. sp_lock
2. sp_helptext
3. sp_help
4. sp_helpuser
133) Consider the following statements:
SINGLE_USER is the default state option for a database.
RESTRICTED_USER allows only the members of the db_owner role to use the
database.
Options
1. Statements A and B are true.
2. Statements A and B are false.
3. Statement A is true and statement B is false.
4. Statement B is true and statement A is false.
134) You are a SQL database administrator. You are developing a database for your
company. Your peer Peter runs an order entry application that requires SELECT,
UPDATE, and INSERT permissions on the Products tables to work. Access to the
other tables in the database should not be restricted. He should not have any SELECT,
INSERT, or UPDATE permissions when accessing the table directly. What needs to
be done in the described scenario?
Options
1. Create one group account that denies SELECT, INSERT, or UPDATE
permissions on the Products table. Add Peter as a member of that group.
2. Create one user account that denies SELECT, INSERT, or UPDATE
permissions on the Products table. Add Peter as a member of that

account.
3. Create one user-database role that denies SELECT, INSERT, or
UPDATE permissions on the Products table. Add Peter as a member of
that database role. Then create an application role with SELECT,
INSERT, and UPDATE permissions on the Products tables.
4. Create one user-database role that denies SELECT, INSERT, or
UPDATE permissions on the entire order entry database. Add Peter as
a member of that database role. Then create an application role with
SELECT, INSERT, and UPDATE permissions on the Products tables.
135) Chris Forsythe is a database administrator at Great Graphics Corp. There are four
database roles in the organization namely Customers, Admin, Technology and
Marketing database roles. The Technology role is denied access to the Products table.
Bill is transferred to the Admin department from the Technology department and is
added to the Admin role. All members of the Admin department except for Bill, have
select permission on the Products table. Help Chris assign select permissions for Bill
on the Products table.
Options
1. sp_droprolemember 'Technology', 'Bill'
2. sp_addrolemember 'db_owner', 'Bill'
3. GRANT SELECT ON Products TO Bill
4. sp_addrolemember 'Admin', 'Bill'
136) Don has to add a new user ,’MyUser’, to the system administrators role. Which
of these statements will give the required outcome?
Options
1. EXEC sp_addsrvrolemember 'MyUser', 'sysadmin'
2. EXEC sp_addsrvrolemember 'MyUser', 'db_ddl_admin'
3. EXEC sp_srvaddrolemember 'sysadmin', 'MyUser'
4. EXEC sp_srvaddrolemember 'db_ddl_admin', 'MyUser'