Đề thi thử đại học môn Tiếng ANh (10)

SỞ GD & ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN
ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA- NĂM HỌC:2014-2015
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) MÃ ĐỀ:485
Họ tên học sinh: SBD:
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:
Question 1: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
This university’s programs ________ those of Harvard.
A. come second after B. are second only to
C. are first except for D. are in second place from
Question 2: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
I could not ______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. hold on B. get along C. make off D. take in
Question 3: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
The room needs ____________ for the wedding.
A. decorate B. to decorate C. be decorated D. decorating
Question 4: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
Mr. Ba: "What shall I do when I want to call you?"
Nurse: " ____________"
A. Press the red button on the left. B. I'd come every ten minutes.
C. You shall find the red button on the left. D. Stay here and enjoy yourself.
Question 5: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
- “Many thanks to you, Kate”
- “________________”
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A. Don’t say so B. It doesn’t matter C. No thanks D. It’s my pleasure
Question 6: Choose the underlined part (marked A, B, C or D) that contains an error.
During our tour of the refinery, it was seen that both propane and gasoline
A B C
were produced in large volumes.

D
Question 7: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
The new manager explained ______ new procedures to save time and money.
A. to the staff that he hoped to establish B. with the staff that he hopes to establish
C. with the staff that he hoped to establish D. to the staff that he hopes to establish
Question 8: Choose the word whose main stress is pronounced differently from the rest.
A. dinosaur B. buffalo C. mosquito D. elephant
Question 9: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
There are rumors of buried ______ in that old house.
A. tomb B. chamber C. treasure D. belongings
Question 10: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
A. bought B. drought C. fought D. sought
Question 11: Choose the word whose main stress is pronounced differently from the rest.
A. comprehend B. religion C. understand D. engineer
Read the passage and choose the best answer (A or B, C, D) from 12 to 21
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid
portions of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large
mountain ranges. In geography, the term “continent” refers to the surface of continuous landmasses
that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet’s surface. On the other hand, another definition is
prevalent in the general use of the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia,
that actually represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies
or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called
subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost
exclusively in the size of particular landmass.
The analysis of compression and tension in the earth’s crust has determined that continental
structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement
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among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of
their distinctive mineral and chemical composition. It is also quite possible that the ocean floor rests
on the top of unknown continents that have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to

have been formed by means of a chemical reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier
ones, thus settling at various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of
the specifics within crust formations by means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate
that a chemical split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified
many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components
that include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and
blockvaulted belts. The basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition
of these features relative to the continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering
and formation of the surface features, soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and
human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary
organization of layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which
generate faulting and mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal
edge leads to the formation of large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic theory. This
process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for
the ongoing continental plate evolution.
Question 12: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Various definitions of the term “continent” B. Continental structure and crust
C. Scientific analyses of continental crusts D. Continental drift and division
Question 13: According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions B. As extensive bodies of land
C. As surgical compositions and ranges D. As the largest identifiable features
Question 14: The word “bounded” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. convened B. covered C. dominated D. delimited
Question 15: The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on
the fact that______________
A. continents have different chemical makeup
B. continents undergo compression and experience tension
C. continents have various underlying layers of crust

D. each continent has several planes and shelves
Question 16: The word “specifics” is closest in meaning to________
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A. precise movements B. exact details C. speculations D. specialties
Question 17: The word “it” refers to____________
A. sea water B. the atmosphere C. the crust D. a chemical split
Question 18: The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. the earth’s atmosphere split into water and solids
B. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed
C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes
D. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor
Question 19: According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The proportional size of continents to one another
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size
C. The distinctive features of their elements
D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features
Question 20: The phrase “This process” refers to ___________.
A. mountain ranges B. plate tectonic theory
C. continental collision D. the rise of margins
Question 21: The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. the process of continent formation has not been completed
B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building
C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges
D. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for
Question 22: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
When the old school friends met, a lot of happy memories __________ back.
A. had brought B. brought C. were brought D. had been brought
Question 23: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
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Marilyn Monroe’s story is well-known: an unhappy childhood, ________ several marriages and

divorces, and eventual suicide.
A. a struggle to become a star B. she was struggling to become a star
C. she became a star D. then a star she became
Question 24: Choose the underlined part (marked A, B, C or D) that contains an error.
My mother doesn’t care how much does the washing machine cost because
A B C
she is going to buy it anyway.
D
Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option A, B, C, D from 25 to 34
After your letter of application and resume, the interview is your best opportunity to (25) _____
the employer - regardless of your background and experience. To do this, use every possible strategy
to develop (26) _______ interviewing skills. The best way is to prepare a selective presentation of
your background, thoughtful answers to potential interview questions, well-researched questions
about the organization, and an effective strategy to introduce yourself. You should also consider your
career goals and what the available job offers (27) ________ you can discuss both of these topics
with employers. Interviewing is a skill that improves and (28) ________ easier with practice.
It is to your advantage to carefully research the job and the organization. There are many (29)
_____ to do this. You can ask for printed materials from the employer, such as annual reports and job
descriptions. This is an entirely (30) _______ request, so do not hesitate to make it. Use your library
and career center resources. Ask colleagues, friends, and faculty about the organization, and about
any personal contacts at the organization they might have. Look at the organization's home page.
Knowing about the job will help you prepare a (31) _________ of your qualifications so that you can
show, point by point, why you are the best (32) ________.
Prepare a clear answer to each of the questions in the interview questions section. Practice
answering questions with a friend, or (33) _____ front of a mirror. Ask your friend to give you
constructive criticism on your speaking style, mannerisms, and gestures. As you practice, avoid
colloquialisms, such as "like" and "you know”. It is (34) _____ to prepare yourself for talking with
complete strangers.
Question 25: A. pressure B. regard C. impress D. press
Question 26: A. effectiveness B. effectively C. effect D. effective

Question 27: A. so as to B. that C. because D. so that
Question 28: A. makes B. lets C. comes D. becomes
Question 29: A. practices B. ways C. drills D. forms
Question 30: A. correct B. accurate C. proper D. exact
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Question 31: A. list B. sum C. line D. part
Question 32: A. manager B. candidate C. interviewer D. employer
Question 33: A. in B. on C. for D. at
Question 34: A. unnecessary B. important C. exciting D. thrilling
Question 35: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
We would contact your nearest relative _______ any accident occurring.
A. in place of B. on account of C. in spite of D. in the event of
Question 36: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
I’m not all that interested in politics and _______ affairs.
A. actual B. recent C. modern D. current
Question 37: Choose the underlined part (marked A, B, C or D) that contains an error.
The original World Cup trophy was given permanent to Brazil to honour that
A B C
country’s record third world cup title in Mexico in 1970.
D
Question 38: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
Hai: "Let's meet outside the theatre."
Ha: " _________ "
A. Is 6.30 all right? B. What about? C. Yes, let us do it. D. I'd like to go to the concert.
Question 39: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
A. threatened B. managed C. passed D. cleared
Question 40: Choose the word whose main stress is pronounced differently from the rest.
A. catastrophe B. dictionary C. supervisor D. agriculture
Question 41: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
We have bought extra food ______ our friends stay to dinner.

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A. in case B. as long as C. provided D. if
Question 42: Choose the underlined part (marked A, B, C or D) that contains an error.
The word “scuba” is actually an acronym that comes of the
A B C
phrase “self-contained underwater breathing apparatus”.
D
Question 43: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
- “______ detective stories?”
- “In my opinion, they are very good for teenagers.”
A. Are you fond of B. How about
C. What do people feel about D. What do you think about
Question 44: Choose the underlined part (marked A, B, C or D) that contains an error.
In very early times , people around the fire were entertained by storytellers
A B C
with stories of heroes’ wonderful actions and victory.
D
Question 45: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
________ in Stevenson’s landscapes, the more vitality and character the paintings seem to possess.
A. The brushwork is loose B. The looser brushwork
C. The loose brushwork is D. The looser the brushwork is
Question 46: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
Only when you grow up ______ the truth.
A. do you know B. you will know C. will you know D. you know
Question 47: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
“Don’t worry. I have ______ tire at the back of my car.”
A. another B. the other C. others D. other
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Question 48: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
Featured at the Henry Ford Museum of antique cars dating from 1865 _______ .

A. an exhibit is B. which is an exhibit C. an exhibit D. is an exhibit
Read the passage and choose the best answers
Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological
advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor.
This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve
them.
Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other
valuable objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the
RMS Republic, which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan
sonar, a device that projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea
floor, located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such
searches could take months or years. The team of divers searched the wreck for two months, finding
silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five
and a half tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were searching for.
Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck's
treasure does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that
are preserved in nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the
archaeological value is lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success
of salvagers will attract more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered
wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and
unregulated salvages. To counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and
million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.
Question 49: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
B. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.
C. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
D. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
Question 50: The word "sunken" is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
A. underwater B. broken C. hollow D. ancient
Question 51: Which of the following could best replace the phrase "a profile" as used in the passage?

A. an execution B. a projection C. a highlight D. an outline
Question 52: Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?
A. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.
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B. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
D. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar.
Question 53: The author uses the phrase "mint condition" in to describe _______.
A. something tolerant B. something perfect C. something significant D. something magical
Question 54: All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT _______.
A. American Gold Eagle coins B. wine bottles C. silver tea services D. crystal dinnerware
Question 55: From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to _______.
A. do archaeological research B. be a diver
C. shun treasure-seeking salvagers D. put treasures in a museum
Question 56: The word "scoured" is most similar to which of the following?
A. scraped away B. scratched over C. scrambled around D. searched through
Question 57: What is the closest meaning to the word "lure"?
A. knowledge B. luxury C. glare D. attraction
Question 58: The second and third paragraphs are an example of__________.
A. specific to general B. chronological order
C. explanation D. definition
Question 59: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
- “ Would you mind if I use your dictionary?”
- “ Of course not, __________.”
A. Don’t do thatI’m sorry I can’t B. I have a dictionary
C. I’m sorry I can’t D. It’s over there
Question 60: Choose the best option to complete the following sentence.
Remember to take all your personal ______ from the overhead locker when you leave the airplane.
A. wealth B. treasure C. belongings D. profits
II. PHẦN VIẾT: (Thí sinh làm bài trên giấy được phát)

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Write a paragraph about your future job. You should write at least 150 words

THE END
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