15 ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2015 MON TIENG ANH

ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2015
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 1
Thời gian: 90 phút
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
01. The criminal was sentenced to death because of ____ of his crime.
A. the severity B. the complexity C. a punishment D. the importance
02. The discovery was a major ____ for research workers
A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. break-in D. breakout
03. “Would you like me to get a taxi?” - “____.”
A. That would be delightful. Thanks B. Well, let’s see.
C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother D. Yes, I see.
04. You have a good feeling about yourself and____ when you volunteer.
A. others B. other C. the other D. the others
05. If it ____ their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. had been for B. hadn’t been C. hadn’t been for D. wouldn’t have been for
06. By the end of this month I____ for this company for two years.
A. have been working B. will have been working C. will be working D. will work
07. Flooding in April is an unusual ____ in this area.
A. occur B. occurrence C. occurring D. occurred
08. Lorie is very thin, ____ her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. dissimilar to B. unlikely C. unlike D. dislike
09. It is a fact that____ form of energy.
A. electricity being the most useful B. electricity the most useful
C. the most useful in electricity D. electricity is the most useful
10. Please ____ and see us some time. You‘re always welcome.
A. come to B. come about C. come around D. come away.
11. Only in the Civil War ____ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America B. so many American soldiers were
C. many in America D. were so many American soldiers
12. Prices of flats ____ from a few thousand to millions of dollars.
A. vary B. change C. differ D. fluctuate

13. John____ knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work.
A. approved B. applied C. appreciated D. accomplished
14. As it was getting late, the boys decided to____ the campfire and crept into their sleeping bags.
A. put up B. put off C. put out D. put on
15. The general public____ a large number of computers now, because prices are beginning to decrease.
A. must buy B. must be buying C. must have bought D. must bought
16. I have to assure myself that I____ the best possible decision.
A. have leapt B. have made C. have done D. have reached
17. “Sorry, I’m late, Mike.” - “____.”
A. Well, it’s worth a try B. Not on my account C. No, I wouldn’t mind at all D. That’s all right
18. Tony often watches TV after his parents____ to bed.
A. had gone B. have gone C. go D. went
19. Mike: “Tell me what your dog’s like?” - Alice: “____.”
A. Very quickly B. Biscuit and bones C. Very well, thank you D. Big, black and hairy
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the
rest or the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress:
20. A. reindeer B. engineer C. pioneer D. referee
21. A. dangerous B. marvelous C. conspicuous D. numerous
22. A. establish B. illustrate C. intimidate D. inheritance
23. A. expansion B. conversion C. precision D. explosion
24. A. eradicate B. character C. malaria D. spectacular
Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
REALITY TELEVISION
Reality television is genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or humorous
situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of
artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of
television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which resemble
the frantic, often demeaning program produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai), to

surveillance - or voyeurism - focused productions such as Big Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a
modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or abnormal situations, sometimes
coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post-
production techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example,
on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates to
scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and
performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of
celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several styles of
program included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-living-
environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and
the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the
participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviors and
conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word
“reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama.”
25. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ____.
A. they are agree with the statement B. everyone agrees with the statement
C. no one agrees with the statement D. they want to distance themselves from the statement
26. Reality television has ____.
A. always been this popular B. been popular since before 2000
C. only been popular since 2000 D. been popular since approximately 2000
27. Japan ____. A. is the only one place to produce demeaning TV shows
B. has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere
C. produced Big Brother D. invented surveillance focused productions
28. People have criticized reality television because ____.
A. it is demeaning B. it uses exotic locations C. the name is inaccurate D. it shows reality
29. Reality TV appeals to some because ____.
A. it shows eligible males dating women B. it uses exotic locations

C. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances D. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities
30. Pop Idol ____ . A. turns all its participants into celebrities
B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
C. is less likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
D. is a dating show
31. The term “reality television” is inaccurate____.
A. for all programs B. just for Big Brother and Survivor
C. for talent and performance programs D. for talent and performances programs
32. Producers choose the participants ____.
A. on the ground of talent B. only for special-living- environment shows
C. to create conflict among other things D. to make a fabricated world
33. Paul Burnett ____.
A. was a-participant on Survivor B. is a critic of reality TV
C. thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate D. writes the script for Survivor
34. Shows like Survivor ____.
A. are definitely reality TV B. are scripted C. have good narratives D. are theatre
Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of
the blanks.
All life is sound. We are constantly surrounded by sounds and noises (46)_produced_ by nature and everything in it.
For thousands of years man has been speaking and singing, and (47)_thanks to_ his wonderfully constructed ear, perceiving
sounds and noises, although they are but a small part of the inconceivable wealth of sounds filling the universe. Children
everywhere and without (48)_exception_ are born with musical abilities with voices, and with hearing. The difference lies
(49)_merely_ in what they do with these gifts. That (50)_varies_ according to temperament upbringing nationality, and time.
Nature itself is full of sound, full of music. Musical sounds existed millions of years before there was a human ear to hear
(51)_them_ the soft bubbling of the water, the roll of thunder, the whistling and rustling of leaves in the wind and (52)_who_
knows how many other audible manifestations of nature. Man was born (53)_into_ a world of sound. Thunder filled him with
fear and became a symbol of supernatural (54) powers__ . In the roar of the wind he heard the voices of demons. Dwellers at
the seashore (55)_judges_ the temper of the gods by the sound of the waves. Religious rites and music were inseparable at the
dawn of humanity.
35. A. found B. heard C. produced D. existing

36. A. thanks to B. based on C. in spite of D. without
37. A. exception B. doubt C. consideration D. preparation
38. A. absolutely B. merely C. especially D. suddenly
39. A. depends B. forms C. varies D. differentiates
40. A. them B. it C. all D. from
41. A. he B. someone C. who D. everyone
42. A. with B. from C. in D. into
43. A. disasters B. powers C. symbols D. existence
44. A. terrified B. touched C. judged D. heard
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
45. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment block in Kuala Lumpur last
week. A B C D
46. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
A B C D
47. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A B C D
48. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now.
A B C D
49. Everyone ought to know the basic steps that follow in case of an emergency.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in each of
the following questions.
50. The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful, incurable hoof disease.
A. disabling B. vexatious C. dangerous D. irreparable
51. In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. superior B. Mandatory C. Benificial D. Constructive
52. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.
A. irrefuttable B. Imminent C. Formidable D. Absolute
53. The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operation against sea or shore based enemies.
A. unique B. Novel C. Exotic D. Vital

54. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. Relavently C. Almost D. comparatively
Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
TALKING TO ELTON JOHN
Q - Do you miss doing the ordinary things in life?
A- I like plodding round the kitchen doing the things everybody else does. I love going to the supermarket to do the shopping.
I come back with far more stuff than I need. When I am on holiday in St. Tropez, I love to get up at six in the morning to get
the fresh bread. So people often see me wheeling my trolley round the supermarkets in town.
Q - Do you mind being recognized?
A - I’ve tried going out in disguise, but in the end most people recognize me, Ninety- nine percent are very pleasant, very
polite. But it’s frustrating if you get out of bed on the wrong side- and you do some days- and someone asks you for an
autograph and they haven’t got a pen or a piece of paper. But I enjoy my popularity; I don’t see the point in being a recluse.
Q - You once said that you’re a bit of a loner.
A- Yeah, I always have been. By that I don’t mean that I’m alone. It’s just that I like to be my own boss all the time. Don’t
confuse that with being lonely because I’m not. I have lots of great friends around me. Being successful has given me the
confidence to do things I wouldn’t have had the courage to do otherwise. But I still retain that shyness when I first meet
people. I’m never going to get rid of that.
Q - You like your food, don’t you?
A- I’m one of those people who only has to look at a doughnut and I immediately put on 2 pounds without even eating it. I’ve
always had a problem with my weight .it doesn’t bother me too much, although I get depressed when I’m very overweight. I
dieted once and I became so obsessed that I neatly made myself ill. But I’m happy with the way I am at the moment. If you
exercise at least three or four times a week and play tennis, then it’s no problem, but you have to keep at it. ( …)
Q - Do you think you will still be touring and making records in another ten year’s time?
A - I can’t keep touring and making records for the rest of my life- I’ve got to try something different now and then. One thing
I am interested in doing is writing a musical.
Q - So do you think we see you on stage in your town musical one day?
A - I doubt it. I’m not interested in going into a theatre and performing every night. You may find that strange but if you’re on
tour, you’re changing cities. I played at the Hammersmith Odeon once for 14 nights and by the end of it I was going crazy. It
was like going to the office. People who actually appear in plays and musical for two or three years have my greatest sympathy

and admiration. I never consider what I do as work.
55. When Elton goes out, he ____.
A. is recognized by 99% of the population B. wears a disguise
C. gets annoyed if he is recognized D. accepts he will probably be recognized
56. The phrase ‘ a recluse’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. an ordinary person B. a celebrity
C. a person who avoids other people D. a person who gets frustrated with his popularity
57. How has frame changed Elton John?
A. He has become very bossy B. He doesn’t like to be on his own
C. He feels more confident D. He has become shy
58. The phrase ‘a loner’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. a person who likes being alone B. a bossy person
C. a person who is unhappy without other people around D. an only child in the family
59. What does Elton John say about his weight?
A. He is obsessed with his weight B. He gets depressed when he diets
C. He has learnt to control his weight D. He wishes he were thin
60. The word it in the last paragraph refers to ____.
A. his playing at the theatre for 14 nights B. his going crazy after the performance
C. his going to the office D. the Hammersmith Odeon
61. What does the last paragraph tell us about his attitude to work?
A. He loves doing the same thing day after day
B. He hates any sort of job which means following a routine and doing the same thing day after day.
C. He loves playing at the theatre D. He admires people who work hard.
62. Which of the following is not true about Elton John?
A. He loves doing the shopping in supermarkets B. He prefers going out in disguise to avoid people
C. He has a lot of friends
D. Although he’s always had a problem with his weight, he doesn’t care much about it.
63. All of the following suggest that Elton John is basically happy with himself and his lifestyle EXCEPT ____.
A. He enjoys his popularity B. He is happy with the way he is at the moment
C. He never considers what he does as work D. He’s always been a loner.

64. What is his future ambition?
A. to appear in a play or musical B. to break with his present routine
C. to do a word tour D. to play at the Hammersmith Odeon
WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
65. Peter was given the first prize. He felt so happy.
 Having _______________________________________________________________________________
66. He will not come here if his mother doesn’t allow him.
 Unless _______________________________________________________________________________
67. Because he was so sick, he didn’t go to work.
 If ___________________________________________________________________________________
68. “Would you like to have a drink with me?”
 He invited me___________________________________________________________
69. He tried to escape but the police stopped him.
 The police prevented ___________________________________________________
Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about your hobby.

The end
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 1
Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án
1 A 17 D 33 C 49 B
2 A 18 B 34 C 50 D
3 C 19 D 35 C 51 B
4 A 20 A 36 A 52 B
5 C 21 C 37 A 53 D
6 B 22 B 38 B 54 D
7 B 23 A 39 C 55 D
8 C 24 C 40 A 56 C
9 D 25 D 41 C 57 C
10 C 26 D 42 D 58 A

11 D 27 B 43 B 59 C
12 A 28 C 44 C 60 A
13 B 29 C 45 A 61 B
14 C 30 B 46 A 62 B
15 C 31 D 47 A 63 D
16 B 32 C 48 A 64 B
WRITING: Part I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one.
65. Having been given the first prize, he felt so happy.
66. Unless his mother allows him, he won’t come here.
67. If he hadn’t been so sick, he would have gone out.
68. He invited me to have a drink with him.
69. The police prevented him from escaping.
ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2015
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 2
Thời gian: 90 phút
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.
Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) __ _ as much on what they seem
to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2) _ _ and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (3) _ _ to
something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being ( 4) __ _ lies in
picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any
way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (5) __ __ to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them.
Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate
for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance while what many
employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (6) __ __ stability. This raises the awkward question of
whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually
produce (7) __ __ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (8) __ _ into their
private lives.
After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family doctor
to provide (9) _ _ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a
(10) __ __ employee or a values colleague?

Question 1: A. rely B. estimate C. reckon D. trust
Question 2: A. looks B. image C. manner D. expression
Question 3: A. feeling B. view C. notion D. reaction
Question 4: A. good at B. tactful C. successful D. humble
Question 5: A. reluctant B. used C. hesitant D. tending
Question 6: A. psychological B. relevant C. physical D. similar
Question 7: A. faithful B. regular C. reliable D. predictable
Question 8: A. infringement B. invasion C. interference D. intrusion
Question 9: A. reticent B. classified C. confidential D. secretive
Question 10: A. conscientious B. particular C. laborious D. thorough

Choose the answer that best fits the blank in each sentence or substitutes for the underlined words or phrases.
Question 11. The concert didn't come _______ our expectations.
A. up with B. up against C. up to D. round
Question 12. Professor Alan insisted that every student _______ their report by Friday.
A. finish B. finishes C. finished D. had finished
Question 13. - "Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?" - " ___________" .
A. I'm afraid not B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. Anything will do
Question 14. On September 9, 1950, California was admitted to the Union__________.
A. being thirty-first state B. as the thirty-first state
C. for the thirty-first state D. the thirty-first state
Question 15. James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so ____.
A. sensible B. insensible C. sensitive D. senseless
Question 16. _______ that the company has shown rapid growth in the last two years.
A. It is reported B. They are reported C. The report was D. It was reported
Question 17. Having been served lunch, _______.
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.
B. the committee members discussed the problem C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
Question 18. “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “__________________”

A. Sorry, the seat is taken. B. Yes, I am so glad
C. No, thanks. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
Question 19. - "Do you mind if I use your phone?" - ".__________________."
A. Yes, certainly B. Sorry. I have no idea
C. Not at all. Help yourself D. You can say that again
Question 20. Doing exercises may _______ you to pass the exam.
A. make it easier for B. make easier for C. be easy for D. make easy that
Question 21. _________ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On the contrary B. On my part C. On the whole D. On the other hand
Question 22. In the early 16
th
century, the geography of the globe still _______________ a mystery.
A. maintained B. continued C. was D. remained
Question 23. Although he hadn't spoken French for many years, he picked it _______ again after a few weeks.
A. over B. on C. through D. up
Question 24. The police carried out a _______ search for the missing diplomat.
A. through B. thorough C. throughout D. thoughtful
Question 25. More people speak English than any other language, but non-native speakers now ______ native speakers by
three to one.
A. outnumber B. overtake C. pass D. dominate
Question 26. The government should take _______ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.
A. steps B. measures C. changes D. solutions
Question 27. The chairman requested that _______.
A. the members study the problem carefully B. with more carefulness the problem could be studied
C. the problem was more carefully studied D. the members studied more carefully the problem
Question 28. - "What do you think of football?" - "___________"
A. Of course, football players are excellent B. It's none of my business.
C. Well, it's beyond my expectation D. I am crazy about it.
Question 29. His change of job has ____________ him with a new challenge in life.
A. led B. initiated C. presented D. introduced

Choose one word whose main stress pattern is different from the others'.
Question 30: A. collective B. climatic C. abundant D. regional
Question 31: A. emergency B. concentration C. humanity D. phenomenon
Question 32: A. continent B. government C. reference D. museum
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the
rest
Question 33. A. helicopter B. hospital C. hour D. husband
Question 34. A. money B. notice C. glance D. thank
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions
Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a hindrance, and may even cause
harm. These studies have disclosed that the judgments of interviewers differ markedly and bear little or no relationship to the
adequacy of the job applicants. Of the many reasons why this should be the case, three in particular stand out.
The first reason is related to an error of judgment known as the halo effect. If a person has one noticeable good trait,
their other characteristics will be judged as better than they really are. Thus, an individual who dresses smartly and shows self-
confidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a job well regardless of his or her real ability.
Interviewers are also prejudiced by an effect called the primacy effect. This error occurs when interpretation of later
information is distorted by earlier connected information. Hence, in an interview situation, the interviewer spends most of the
interview trying to confirm the impression given by the candidate in the first few moments. Studies have repeatedly
demonstrated that such an impression is unrelated to the aptitude of the applicant.
The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers. A suitable candidate may be
underestimated because he or she contrasts with a previous one who appears exceptionally intelligent. Likewise, an average
candidate who is preceded by one who gives a weak showing may be judged as more suitable than he or she really is.
Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be inadequate, other selection procedures have
been devised which more accurately predict candidate suitability. Of the various tests devised, the predictor which appears to
do this most successfully is cognitive ability as measured by a variety of verbal and spatial tests.
Question 35. The word “they” in line 6 refers to _______.
A. applicants B. judgments C. interviewers D. characteristics
Question 36. The word “ this” in line 20 refers to _______.
A. measure cognitive ability B. devise personnel selection
C. predict candidate suitability D. devise accurate tests

Question 37. This passage mainly discusses the _______.
A. Judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants. B. Inadequacy of interviewing job applicants.
C. Effects of interviewing on job applicants. D. Techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants.
Question 38. According to the passage, the hallo effect _______.
A. exemplifies how one good characteristic color perceptions B. takes effect only when a candidate is well -dressed
C. stands out as the worst judgmental error D. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
Question 39. The word “hindrance” in line 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assistance B. encouragement C. procedure D. interference
Question 40. According to the passage the first impression _______.
A. can easily be altered B. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
C. is the one that stays with the interviewer D. has been repeatedly demonstrated to the applicant
Question 41. The word “skews” in line 14 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. improves B. opposes C. biases D. distinguishes
Question 42. The author mentions all of the following reasons why interviewing is not an accurate way to predict candidate
suitability EXCEPT the _______.
A. primacy effect B. halo effect C. contrast effect D. cognitive effect
Question 43. The word “confirm” in line 11 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. verify B. misrepresent C. recollect D. conclude
Question 44. The paragraphs following the passage most likely discuss which of the following?
A. More information on the kinds of judgmental effects B. Other reasons for misjudgments of applicants
C. Other selection procedures included in interviewing D. More information on cognitive ability tests
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 45. The Green Garden Restaurant uses fresh produce on their dishes, much of which the owners grow in their own
garden. A B C D
Question 46. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A B C D
Question 47. Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness.
A B C D
Question 48. A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic
A B C

part of the education of every child.
D
Question 49. So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of fresh water in the world.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in each of
the following questions.
Question 50. Most of the school-leavers are sanguine about the idea of going to work and earning money.
A. fearsome B. expected C. excited D. optimistic
Question 51. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time B. time after time C. again and again D. very rapidly
Question 52: It was great to see monkeys in their natural habitat.
A. sky B. land C. forest D. home
Question 53. Setting off on an expedition without thorough preparation and with inadequate equipment is tempting
fate.
A. Taking a risk B. losing heart C. having panic D. going round in circles
Question 54. Peter didn’t mean to be disrespectful to his teacher. He just couldn’t control his temper.
A. Showing lack of trust C. showing impolite behavior
B. Showing nervousness D. showing lack of attention
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force
that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more
than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms
despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory, there is
a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote
stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each
day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the
Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the
Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and
are called the spring tides. At these times, the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies

is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide
into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon, and Earth lie at the apexes of a
triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur.
Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
Question 55: Neap tides occur when ____.
A. the Moon is full B. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon’s gravitational attraction
C. the Sun counteracts the Moon’s gravitational attraction D. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
Question 56: The word felt in line 3 is closest in meaning to____.
A. detected B. dropped C. explored D. based
Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect
one object in space has on the tides is
A. temperature B. density C. size D. distance
Question 58: What is the cause of the spring tides?
A. The Earth’s movement around the Sun B. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
C. Seasonal changes in the weather
D. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
Question 59: The word correspondingly in line 8 is closest in meaning to____.
A. similarly B. interestingly C. unusually D. unpredictably
Question 60: What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water
B. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water
D. The waves created by ocean currents are very large
Question 61: The words In reality in line 6 are closest in meaning to____.
A. characteristically B. similarly C. surprisingly D. actually
Question 62: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those caused by tides? A.
Lines 1 – 4 B. Lines 7 - 9 C. Lines 11 - 14 D. Lines 9 - 11
Question 63: The word configuration in line 14 is closest in meaning to____.
A. surface B. unit C. arrangement D. center
Question 64: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT____.

A. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do
C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon D. The time of high tide is later each day
WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
65. She was made to type these letters before going home.
 The boss made ________________________________________________________________________
66. The street is bad and narrow. It leads to my school.
The street ________________________________________________________
67. The last time it snowed here was 6 years ago.
 It ____________________________________________________________________
68. "Go on Jack, apply for the job," said Sally.
 Sally encouraged ________________________________________________________
69. “I hear you won the first prize in the singing contest at school. Congratulations!” Michael said to Mary.
 Michael ________________________________________________________________
Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the person that you admire most.

HẾT
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 2
Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án
1 A 17 B 33 C 49 A
2 D 18 A 34 D 50 D
3 D 19 C 35 D 51 D
4 B 20 A 36 C 52 D
5 A 21 C 37 B 53 A
6 A 22 D 38 A 54 C
7 C 23 D 39 D 55 C
8 D 24 B 40 C 56 A
9 C 25 A 41 C 57 D
10 A 26 B 42 D 58 D
11 C 27 A 43 A 59 A

12 A 28 D 44 D 60 B
13 D 29 C 45 B 61 D
14 B 30 D 46 C 62 A
15 C 31 B 47 A 63 C
16 A 32 D 48 C 64 C
65. The boss made her type these letters before going home.
66. The street which leads to my school is bad and narrow.
67. It hasn’t snowed here for 6 years.
- It is 6 years since it last snowed here.
- It last snowed here 6 years ago.
68. Sally encouraged Jack to apply for the job.
69. Michael congratulated Mary on winning/ having won the first prize in the singing contest at school.
ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2015
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 3
Thời gian: 90 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following blanks.
Question 1. Let’s go for a walk, _________?
A. shan’t we B. shall us C. shall we D. will we?
Question 2. I am well _________ with the problems encountered in starting a business.
A. aware B. informed C. acquainted D. knowledgeable
Question 3. That news came very fast. They’ll be surprised __________.
A. hearing B. to hearing C. at hearing D. to hear
Question 4. The sink in the locker room tends to _________.
A. flow B. overflow C. flow over D. over flowing
Question 5. – “We’ll have to hurry if we want to finish this project on time.” “_________ __”.
A. OK. But I’ll call you later. B. I’ll say we will!
C. I’m tired. I’ll go home early. D. What a wonderful idea!
Question 6. - “Excuse me. I’m trying to find the library.”“_____________”
A. Where’re your eyes? It’s in front of you. B. Look no further!
C. Find it yourself. I’m busy. D. Oh, nice to meet you.

Question 7. I haven’t had a ________ week. I seem to have done nothing at all.
A. extensive B. productive C. enthusiastic D. economic
Question 8. All the plans have been put _________ for the time being.
A. down B. up C. aside D. low
Question 9. We found some real _________ at the market.
A. prizes B. goods C. bargains D. items
Question 10. There was a ____________________ table in the kitchen.
A. beautiful large round wooden B. large beautiful round wooden
C. beautiful round large wooden D. golden large beautiful round
Question 11. It was _________________ that we spent the whole day at the beach.
A. so nice a weather B. such nice weather C. such nice a weather D. so a nice weather
Question 12. According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree, ____.
A. my education will be employed by the university. B. employment will be given to me by the university.
C. the university will employ me. D. I will be employed by the university.
Question 13. Some teachers argue that students who ____using a calculator may forget how to do mental calculation. A. are
used to B. are used C. is D. were used to
Question 14. The football match tomorrow evening will be broadcasted _________ on TV and radio.
A. stimulatingly B. simultaneously C. jointly D. uniformly
Question 15. Don’t worry! He’ll do the job as ___________ as possible.
A. economical B. economically C. uneconomically D. beautifully
Question 16. If you do not want to _______ the chance, _________ a decision soon.
A. miss/makes B. take/make C. miss/make D. miss/take
Question 17. Near the parked is a famous landmark __________ the Unification Palace.
A. whose named B. called C. is D. is called
Question 18. The problem needs to be ______________ urgently.
A. addressed B. dealt with C. thought D. cleared
Question 19. The city _________ at one time prosperous, for it enjoyed a high level of civilization.
A. should have been B. was C. may have been D. must have been
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main
stress in each of the following sentence.

Question 20. A. moaned B presented C. viewed D. robbed
Question 21. A. position B. consider C. visit D. president
Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest.
Question 22. A. apply B. persuade C. reduce D. offer
Question 23. A. different B. important C. impressive D. attractive
Question 24. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the
following questions.
The brain is the center of the nervous system in all vertebrate and most invertebrate animals. Some primitive animals
such as jellyfish and starfish have a decentralized nervous system without a brain, while sponges lack any nervous system at
all. In vertebrates the brain is located in the head, protected by the skull and close to the primary sensory apparatus of vision,
hearing, balance, taste, and smell.
Brains can be extremely complex. The cerebral cortex of the human brain contains roughly 15–33 billion neurons,
perhaps more, depending on gender and age,

linked with up to 10,000 synaptic connections each. Each cubic millimeter of
cerebral cortex contains roughly one billion synapses. These neurons communicate with one another by means of long
protoplasmic fibers called axons, which carry trains of signal pulses called action potentials to distant parts of the brain or body
and target them to specific recipient cells.
The brain controls the other organ systems of the body, either by activating muscles or by causing secretion of
chemicals such as hormones and neurotransmitters. This centralized control allows rapid and coordinated responses to changes
in the environment. Some basic types of responsiveness are possible without a brain: even single-celled organisms may be
capable of extracting information from the environment and acting in response to it. Sponges, which lack a central nervous
system, are capable of coordinated body contractions and even locomotion. In vertebrates, the spinal cord by itself contains
neural circuitry capable of generating reflex responses as well as simple motor patterns such as swimming or walking.
However, sophisticated control of behavior on the basis of complex sensory input requires the information-integrating
capabilities of a centralized brain.
Despite rapid scientific progress, much about how brains work remains a mystery. The operations of individual
neurons and synapses are now understood in considerable detail, but the way they cooperate in ensembles of thousands or
millions has been very difficult to decipher. Methods of observation such as EEG recording and functional brain imaging tell

us that brain operations are highly organized, while single unit recording can resolve the activity of single neurons, but how
individual cells give rise to complex operations is unknown.
Question 25. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Brain – human’s most complex part of the body. B. Brain’s main function.
C. An overview of the most complex part of the body – Brain. D. The brain’s complex operation.
Question 26. It can be inferred from the passage that______.
A. Jellyfish and starfish do not have brain.
B. The number of neurons in the cortex is about 15 – 33 billion, irrespective of age and gender.
C. The sponge has brain but not nervous system.
D. Neurons communicate with one another by targeting themselves to specific recipient cells.
Question 27. The word “linked” in the 2
nd
paragraph could be best replaced by______.
A. chained B. connected C. bundled D. interfered
Question 28. Which the following is mentioned in the passage?
A. Sponges, which have no central nervous system, are capable of coordinated body contractions and locomotion.
B. All animals have brain protected in skull.
C. 1 cm
3
in cerebral cortex contains about 1,000,000,000 synapses.
D. Neural circuitry in spinal cord can control even complex response to stimuli from external environment.
Question 29. The word “This” in the 3
rd
paragraph refers to:
A. the brain B. the action of the brain C. response D. hormones and neurotransmitters
Question 30. Which of the following is impossible without the brain?
A. extracting information from the environment and acting in response to it.
B. generating reflex responses as well as simple motor patterns such as swimming or walking.
C. control behavior on the basis of complex sensory input which requires the information-integrating capabilities
D. coordinated body contractions and even locomotion

Question 31. The word “decipher” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. decode B. devalued C. observe D. distract
Question 32. Methods of observation such as EEG recording and functional brain imaging tell us______.
A. how individual cells give rise to complex operations is unknown. B. the works of brain are highly organized.
C. single unit recording can resolve the activity of single neurons. D. nothing.
Question 33. The word “complex” in the 2
nd
paragraph can be best replaced by______.
A. compliant B. confused C. complication D. intricate
Question 34. The passage can be described as______.
A. informative B. complicating C. romantic D. thrilling
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for each of the
blanks.
Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Drought, storms, and fires can change
ecosystems. Some changes (35) _ _ the ecosystem. If there is too little rainfall, plants will not have enough water to live. If a
kind of plant die (36) _ _, the animals that (37) _ _ it may also die or move away. Some changes are good for ecosystem. Some
pine forests need (38) _ _ for the pine trees to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside pinecones. Heat from a forest fire melts
the seal and lets the seeds (39) _ _.
Polluting the air, soils, water can harm ecosystems. Building (40) _ _ on rivers for electric power and irrigation can
harm ecosystems (41) _ _ the rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and cutting down (42) _ _ destroy ecosystems. Ecologists are
working with companies and governments to find better ways of (43) _ _ fish, cutting down trees, and building dams. They are
looking for ways to get food, lumber, and other products for people (44) _ _ causing harm to ecosystems.
Question 35. A. harm B. harmless C. harmful D. harms
Question 36. A. off B. away C. over D. forever
Question 37. A. fed with B. feed on C. fed up with D. feed
Question 38. A. flame B. fires C. blaze D. burning
Question 39. A. fly B. in C. go D. out
Question 40. A. moats B. ditches C. bridges D. dams
Question 41. A. on B. around C. over D. under
Question 42. A. hills B. jungles C. forests D. woods

Question 43. A. catching B. holding C. carrying D. taking
Question 44. A. avoid B. without C. not D. no
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs correction.
Question 45. Isabella danced in her bare feet and wore loose-fitting clothing garments that allowed her freedom of movement.
A B C D
Question 46. Most fatty acids have been founded as essential components of lipid molecules.
A B C D
Question 47. Antarctic blue whales can be 100 foot long and weigh more than any dinosaur that
ever lived. A B C D
Question 48. In seeking its representative writers, twentieth-century America seems to be searching
A B
for someone who chronicle the chaos and lack of direction reflected in some contemporary values.
C D
Question 49. The enclosing card gives details about room rates and services.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the
following questions.
The Fukushima I nuclear accidents are a series of ongoing equipment failures and releases of radioactive materials at
the Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant, following the 9.0 magnitude Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami on 11 March 2011. The
plant comprises six separate boiling water reactors maintained by the Tokyo Electric Power Company (TEPCO). This accident
is the largest of the 2011 Japanese nuclear accidents arising from the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami, and experts consider it
to be the second largest nuclear accident after the Chernobyl disaster, but more complex as all reactors are involved.
At the time of the quake, reactor 4 had been de-fueled while 5 and 6 were in cold shutdown for planned maintenance.
The remaining reactors shut down automatically after the earthquake, with emergency generators starting up to run the control
electronics and water pumps needed to cool reactors. The plant was protected by a seawall designed to withstand a 5.7 metres
(19 ft) tsunami but not the 14-metre (46 ft) maximum wave which arrived 41–60 minutes after the earthquake. The entire plant
was flooded, including low-lying generators and electrical switchgear in reactor basements and external pumps for supplying
cooling seawater. The connection to the electrical grid was broken. All power for cooling was lost and reactors started to
overheat, due to natural decay of the fission products created before shutdown. The flooding and earthquake damage hindered
external assistance.

Evidence soon arose of partial core meltdown in reactors 1, 2, and 3; hydrogen explosions destroyed the upper
cladding of the buildings housing reactors 1, 3, and 4; an explosion damaged the containment inside reactor 2; multiple fires
broke out at reactor 4. Despite being initially shutdown, reactors 5 and 6 began to overheat. Fuel rods stored in pools in each
reactor building began to overheat as water levels in the pools dropped. Fears of radiation leaks led to a 20-kilometre (12 mi)
radius evacuation around the plant while workers suffered radiation exposure and were temporarily evacuated at various times.
One generator at unit 6 was restarted on 17 March allowing some cooling at units 5 and 6 which were least damaged. Grid
power was restored to parts of the plant on 20 March, but machinery for reactors 1 through 4, damaged by floods, fires and
explosions, remained inoperable. Flooding with radioactive water through the basements of units 1–4 continues to prevent
access to carry out repairs.
Measurements taken by the Japanese science ministry and education ministry in areas of northern Japan 30–50 km
from the plant showed radioactive caesium levels high enough to cause concern. Food grown in the area was banned from sale.
It was suggested that worldwide measurements of iodine-131 and caesium-137 indicate that the releases from Fukushima are
of the same order of magnitude as the releases of those isotopes from the Chernobyl disaster in 1986; Tokyo officials
temporarily recommended that tap water should not be used to prepare food for infants. Plutonium contamination has been
detected in the soil at two sites in the plant. Two workers hospitalized as a precaution on 25 March had been exposed to
between 2000 and 6000 mSv of radiation at their ankles when standing in water in unit 3.
Question 50. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Japanese natural disaster – the nuclear power accident.
B. Fukushima I nuclear accident – the largest nuclear power of all time.
C. The nuclear power accident – Japanese catastrophe. D. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant.
Question 51. It can be inferred from the passage that_____.
A. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant is the world’s largest nuclear accident.
B. The accident happened in the early part of the year 2011.
C. Chernobyl is the world’s largest and most complex nuclear accident.
D. Reactor doesn’t involve in the accident.
Question 52. The word “ongoing” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. old-fashioned B. onslaught C. continuous D. disastrous
Question 53. The word “withstand” in the second paragraph is could be best replaced by_____.
A. stand B. stand together C. wrestle D. strike
Question 54. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT_____.

A. The cause of the accident is the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami.
B. The earthquake causes a great damage to Japan and the neighboring country.
C. The tsunami struck the country after the earthquake had occurred approximately an hour.
D. The reactor was barred from external assistance because of the flooding and earthquake damage.
Question 55. According to the passage, which of the followings is NOT true?
A. The plant suffered a 14-metre seawall. B. The highest wave was 46 ft in height.
C. The reactor 5 and 6 started overheating though they were in cold shutdown for maintenance.
D. The flood with water containing radioactivity made it impossible for the machinery to be repaired.
Question 56. According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred?
A. The Chernobyl disaster happened in the late 19
th
century.
B. Food was banned from sale for fear that the country would run out of food.
C. The people in Tokyo were advised not to use tap water to cook for children.
D. Two workers were sent to hospital as they were exposed to radiation when standing in water in unit 3.
Question 57. The word “inoperable” in the passage could be best replaced by_____.
A. incompatible B. impracticable C. irrepressible D. mysterious
Question 58. When the earthquake occurred, how many plants were inactive?
A. 3 B. 4, 5, 6 C. 5, 6 D. 5
Question 59. Why does the author mention “plutonium contamination” in the last paragraph?
A. to show that the Japanese discovered plutonium mine after the nuclear accident.
B. to show that plutonium was contaminated after the nuclear accident.
C. to show that the soil was polluted by plutonium. D. to give an example of soil containing natural resource.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in each of
the following questions.
Question 60. The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer.
A. speed B. expect more C. do better D. treat better
Question 61. As all of us cannot be available today, let’s put off the discussion till later.
A. present for the event B. scheduled for the event
C. arranged for the event D. appointed for the event

Question 62: Fallout from a nuclear power station damaged in the tsunami may endanger the vegetation.
A. stimulate B. harm C. inhibit D. benefit
Question 63. To prepare for a job interview, you should jot down your qualifications, work experience as well as
some important information about yourself.
A. What you have experienced C. your own qualities in real life
B. Your bio data and special qualities D. what you have earned through study
Question 64. The activists were accused of contaminating the minds of our young people.
A. Providing healthy ideas C. harming
B. Nurturing D. keeping in the dark
WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
65. It won’t be possible for me to come back home this week because I’m too busy.
- I’m afraid……………………………………………………………………
66. Mr Jones remembered the date, and so did his wife.
- Mr Jones didn’t………………………………………………………………
67. The lesson was so boring that Lan fell asleep.
- It……………………………………………………………………………
68. Peter is my close friend. His father is a policeman.
- Peter, whose………………………………………………………………
69. “Would you like to come to my party tomorrow?” Jean invited me.
- Jean……………………………………………………………………….
Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of computers.

HẾT
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3
Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án
1 C 17 B 33 D 49 A
2 C 18 A 34 A 50 C
3 D 19 D 35 A 51 B
4 B 20 B 36 A 52 C

5 B 21 B 37 B 53 A
6 B 22 D 38 D 54 D
7 B 23 A 39 D 55 A
8 C 24 D 40 D 56 D
9 C 25 C 41 B 57 B
10 A 26 A 42 C 58 A
11 B 27 B 43 A 59 C
12 D 28 A 44 B 60 C
13 A 29 B 45 C 61 A
14 B 30 C 46 B 62 B
15 B 31 A 47 B 63 D
16 C 32 B 48 A 64 C
WRITING:
65. I’m afraid I won’t be able to come back home this week because I’m too busy.
66. Mr. Jones didn’t forget the date, and neither did his wife.
67. It was such a boring lesson that lan fell asleep.
68. Peter, whose father is a policeman, is my close friend.
69. Jean invited me to come to her party the next day.
ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2015
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 4
Thời gian: 90 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions, questions from 1-2
Question 1. A. taught B. laughter C. naughty D. slaughter
Question 2. A. dealt B. dreamt C. heal D. jealous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position
of the main stress in each of the following questions, questions from 3 - 5
Question 3 . A. sandal B. canal C. rental D. vandal
Question 4. A. memorial B. desirable C. reliable D. admirable
Question 5. A. successive B. apprentice C. attendance D. atmosphere

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions, questions from 6 - 25
Question 6. The boy did his homework ____.
A. by himself B. his own self C. on himself D. by his own.
Question 7 . Peter’s got so _____ to opera that it has become a constant companion of his life
A. used to listening. B. used to listen. C. used in listening. D. use to listen.
Question 8. - “May I use your car for a few days?” - “ _____”
A. It's up to you B. Not at all C. You're welcome D. Welcome you.
Question 9 . ________ being tired, I went for a picnic with my family.
A. That B. Since C. Although D. Despite
Question 10 . Preparing for a job interview can be very _____.
A. stress B. stressful C. stressed D. stressing
Question 11 . This knife is very blunt. It needs _____
A. sharpeningly B. sharpen C. sharpening D. sharply
Question 12. Not until the end of the 19th century_____ become a scientific discipline.
A. plant breeding has B. did plant breeding C. plant breeding had D. has plant breeding
Question 13 . This road, _____, is narrow and winding
A. which the two villages are joined B. which the two villages are joining
C. which joins the two villages D. joins the two villages
Question 14. I am going to_____ my dress dry- cleaned
A. make B. send C. get D. take
Question 15. She is very absent-minded. She _____ her cell phone three times.
A. has lost B. loses C. was losing D. had lost
Question 16. - “You look ill. What’s wrong with you?” - “_____”
A. No, sir. B. No matter. C. Not at all. D. Nothing.
Question 17. He is unhappy because his parents do not _____ very well.
A. get over B. get off C. get on D. get away
Question 18. Although the exam was difficult, _____ the students passed it.
A. most of B. none of C. a few D. a lot
Question 19. - “You really have a beautiful blouse, Mary. I have never seen such a perfect thing on you”

- “ ______”
A. Good idea. Thanks for the news. B. Thanks, Tom. That’s a nice compliment
C. Well, that's very surprising! D. Yes, it's our pleasure.
Question 20. By _____ the household chores, he can help his mother after going home from school.
A. ordering B. doing C. having D. making
Question 21 . The youths nowadays have many things to do in their _____ time.
A. leisure B. entertainment C. fun D. amusement
Question 22. I was not _________ to go to parties in the evening until I reached the age of eighteen.
A. permitted B. permission C. permitting D. permit
Question 23. Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, _____?
A. will they B. won't they C. won't it D. will it
Question 24. This factory produced ______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.
A. twice as many B. as twice as many C. as twice many D. as many as twice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction, questions
26-35
Question 25. The salad tasted so well that my brother returned to the salad bar for another helping.
A. so well B. returned to C. salad bar for D. another helping
Question 26. A mosquito is filled with blood is carrying twice its own weight.
A. is filled B. with blood C. twice D. own
Question 27. Joseph Ford, the politician who was kidnapped last week as he was driving for his office,
was released unharmed.
A. who B. as he C. for his office D. unharmed
Question 28. Ozone layer acts as an umbrella against most of the Sun’s dangerous rays.
A. Ozone B. as an C. most D. the Sun’s
Question 29. Neither Jane nor Sarah explained me why they were so late.
A. Neither B. nor C. explained me D. why they were
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions, questions 36 - 37
Question 30. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess C. complicated C. soak

Question 31. My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding exactly which four
comics she was going to buy.
A. excessive B. limited C. required D. abundant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions, questions 38 - 40
Question 32. It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger.
A. urgent B. unavoidable C. important D. necessary
Question 33. Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to
brightness.
A. shine B. record C. categorize D. diversify
Question 34. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding
humanitarianism.
A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 41 - 50.
The general principles of dynamics are rules that demonstrate a relationship between the motions of bodies
and the forces that produce those motions. Based in large part on the work of his predecessors, Sir Isaac Newton
deduced three laws of dynamics, which he published in his famous Principia.
Prior to Newton, Aristotle had established that the natural state of a body was a state of rest, and that unless
a force acted upon it to maintain motion, a moving body would come to rest. Galileo had succeeded in correctly
describing the behavior of falling objects and in recording that no force was required to maintain a body in motion.
He noted that the effect of force was to change motion. Huygens recognized that a change in the direction of motion
involved acceleration, just as did a change in speed, and further, that the action of a force was required. Kepler
deduced the laws describing the motion of planets around the sun. It was primarily from Galileo and Kepler that
Newton borrowed.
In short, Newton’s laws of Motion are: (1) a body at rest remains at rest, and a body in motion remains in
motion along a straight line, unless acted upon by an unbalanced force, (2) if an unbalanced force acts upon a body,
the momentum of the body changes in proportion to the force and in the same direction as the force, (3) to every
action or force, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Question 35. What was the main purpose of this passage?

A. To demonstrate the development of Newton’s laws
B. To establish Newton as the authority in the field of physics
c. To discredit Newton’s laws of motion
d. To describe the motion of planets around the sun
Question 36. The word “predecessors” in the passage refers to _____
A. those who came before B. those who provided help
C. those who published their work D. those who agreed with the ideas
Question 37. The phrase “prior to” in the passage could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. before B. after C. with D. simultaneously
Question 38. Which of the following scientists established that the natural state of a body was a state of rest?
A. Galileo B. Kepler C. Aristotle D. Newton
Question 39. The word “it” in line 6 refers to _____
A. rest B. body C. state D. motion
Question 40. Who was the first scientist to correctly describe the behavior of falling objects?
A. Aristotle B. Newton C. Kepler D. Galileo
Question 41. According to Huygens, when was acceleration required?
A. For either a change in direction or a change in speed
B. Only for a change in speed
C. Only for a change in direction
D. Neither for a change in direction nor for a change in speed
Question 42. According to this passage, Newton based his laws primarily upon the work of _____
A. Galileo and Copernicus B. Ptolemy and Copernicus
C. Huygens and Kepler D. Galileo and Kepler
Question 43. The word “momentum” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____
A. weight B. speed C. shape D. size
Question 44. Which of the following describes Inertia or the principles of bodies at rest?
A. Newton’s first law B. Newton’s third law
C. Newton’s law of motion D. Newton’s law of dynamics
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 51 - 60.

In addition to the great ridges and volcanic chains, the oceans conceal another form of undersea mountains:
the strange guyot, or flat-topped seamount. No marine geologist even suspected the existence of these isolated
mountains until they were discovered by geologist Harry H. Hess in 1946. He was serving at the time as naval
officer on a ship equipped with a fathometer. Hess named these truncated peaks for the nineteenth-century Swiss-
born geologist Arnold Guyot, who had served on the faculty of Princeton University for thirty years. Since then,
hundreds of guyots have been discovered in every ocean but the Arctic. Like offshore canyons, guyots present a
challenge to oceanographic theory. They are believed to be extinct volcanoes. Their flat tops indicate that they once
stood above or just below the surface, where the action of waves leveled off their peaks. Yet today, by definition,
their summits are at least 600 feet below the surface, and some are as deep as 8,200 feet. Most lie between 3,200 feet
and 6,500 feet. Their tops are not really flat but slope upward to a low pinnacle at the center. Dredging from the tops
of guyots has recovered basalt and coral rubble, and that would be expected from the eroded tops of what were once
islands. Some of this material is over 80 million years old. Geologists think the drowning of the guyots involved two
processes: The great weight of the volcanic mountains depressed the sea floor beneath them, and the level of the sea
rose a number of times, especially when the last Ice Age ended, some 8,000 to 11.000 years ago.
Question 45. What is the author's main purpose in writing this passage?
A. To trace the career of Arnold Guyot.
B. To describe feature of the undersea world.
C. To present the results of recent geologic research.
D. To discuss underwater ridges and volcano chains
Question 46. The word “conceal” in the passage is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Contain B. Erode C. Hide D. Create
Question 47. The passage implies that guyots were first detected by means of_____
A. a fathometer B. computer analysis
C. a deep-sea diving expedition D. research submarines
Question 48. The author indicates that Arnold Guyot
A. was Harry Hess's instructor B. invented the fathometer
C. named the guyot after himself D. taught at Princeton University
Question 49. What does the passage say about the Arctic Ocean?
A. The first guyot was discovered there.
B. No guyots have ever been found there.

C. There are more guyots there than in any other ocean.
D. It is impossible that guyots were ever formed there.
Question 50. The author states that offshore canyons and guyots have which of the following characteristics in
common?
A. Both are found on the ocean floor near continental shelves.
B. Both present oceanographers with a mystery.
C. Both were formed by volcanic activity.
D. Both were, at one time, above the surface of the sea.
Question 51. According to the passage, most guyots are found at a depth of_____.
A. less than 600 feet. B. between 600 and 3,200 feet.
C. between 3,200 and 6,500 feet D. more than 8,200 feet
Question 52. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “rubble” in the passage?
A. Fragments B. Mixture C. Columns D. Core
Question 53. According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the submersion of
guyots?
A. Erosion and volcanic activity.
B. The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level.
C. Mountain building and the action of ocean currents
D. High tides and earthquakes
Question 54. According to the passage, when did sea level significantly rise?
A. In 1946 B. In the nineteenth century
C. From 8,000 to 11,000 years D. 80 million years ago
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 55 -64.
Vietnamese generally shake hands when greeting and parting. Using both hands shows respect as does a (55)
_____ bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people do not extend their hand, they are greeted with a bow. Women
are more (56) _____ to bow the head than to shake hands. Vietnamese names begin with the family name and are
(57) _____ by a given name. For example, in the name Nguyen Van Due, Nguyen is the family name. People
address (58) _____ by their given names, but add a title that indicates their perceived (59) _______ to the other
person. These titles are family related rather than professional. Among colleagues, for example, the (60) _____ of

the two might combine the given name with the title of Anh ("Older Brother"). A(n) (61)_____ greeting combined
with the given name and title is Xin chao (“Hello”). Classifiers for gender and familiarity are also combined with the
greeting. In formal meetings, business cards are sometimes (62) _____ on greeting.
Vietnamese people have a strong (63) _____ of hospitality and feel embarrassed if they cannot show their
guests full respect by preparing for their arrival. Therefore, it is (64) _____ to visit someone without having been
invited. Gifts are not required, but are appreciated. Flowers, incense, or tea may be proper gifts for the hosts. Hosts
also appreciate a small gift for their children or elderly parents.
Question 55.
Question 56.
Question 57.
Question 58.
Question 59.
Question 60.
Question 61.
Question 62.
Question 63.
Question 64.
A. light
A. possible
A. continued
A. each one
A. relation
A. younger
A. easy
A. changed
A. sense
A. inactive
B. slight
B. capable
B. chased

B. one other
B. relationship
B. most young
B. basic
B. transferred
B. sensation
B. inaccurate
C. lightly
C. probable
C. followed
C. the other one
C. relations
C. youngest
C. fundamentally
C. reversed
C. sensitivity
C. inappropriate
D. lighted
D. likely
D. taken
D. one another
D. relatives
D. young
D. elementary
D. exchanged
D. sensible
D. inexact
WRITING:
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it
1. She knows more about it than I do.

 I don’t
2. Although he had a good salary, he was unhappy in his job.
 In spite
3. He prefers golf to tennis.
 He’d rather
4. The garden still needs digging.
 The garden hasn’t
5. Susan felt sick, because she ate four cream cakes.
 If Susan
Topic: Who is your best friend? Describe this person and say why he/she is your best friend.
KEY
1. B
30
A
2. C
31
B
3. B
32
B
4. D
33
C
5. D
34
C
6. A
35
A
7. A

36
A
8. C
37
A
9. D
38
C
10. B
39
B
11. C
40
D
12. B
41
A
13. C
42
D
14. C
43
B
15. A
44
A
16. D
45
B
17. C

46
C
18. A
47
A
19. B
48
D
20. B
49
B
21. A
50
B
22. A
51
C
23. B
52
A
24. A
53
B
54
C
25. A
55
B
26. A
56

D
27. C
57
C
28. A
58
D
29. C
59
B
60
A
61
B
62
D
63
A
64
C
1. I don’t know as much about it as she does
2. In spite of having a good salary, he was unhappy in his job
3. He’d rather play golf than tennis
4. The garden hasn’t been dug yet
5. If Susan hadn’t eaten four cream cakes, she wouldn’t’ t have felt sick
ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2015
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 5
Thời gian: 90 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has its underlined part pronounced
differently from the other three words in each question.

Question 1. A. language B. aviation C. attraction D. applicant
Question 2. A. nervous B. birthday C. worry D. third

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. accomplish B. establish C. abolish D. acronym
Question 4. A. companion B. comfortable C. compliment D. competence
Question 5. A. mechanic B. memorial C. mechanism D. machine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting.
Question 6. Children’s games, which are amusements involve more than one individual,
A
appear to be culturally universal.
B C D
Question 7. When I came back I realized that my camera had been disappeared
A B C D
Question 8. If either of you take a vacation now, we won’t be able to finish this work.
A B C D
Question 9. Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few buttons.
A B C D
Question 10. Among the world’s 44 richest countries, there has been not war since 1945.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11. Question 41.My daughter saw an elephant this morning but she …………….one before.
A. had never seen B. has never seen C. never sees D. never had seen
Question 12. He thought the talk was fascinating. His friend, _______, fell asleep halfway through it.
A. although B. nevertheless C. however D. B or C
Question 13. Have you really got no money_______the fact that you've had a part-time job this term?
A. although B. in spite of C. because of D. in case
Question 14. The doctor gave the patient examination to discover the cause of his collapse.

A. a thorough B. a whole C. an exact D. a universal
Question 15. Her book is about the_______between women and men.
A. unequality B. disequality C. inequality D. non-equality
Question 16. This section of the car park is_______for visitors.
A. private B. reserved C. given D. put
Question 17. The role of women in society has been greatly _______in the last few years.
A. overlooked B. overtaken C. overcome D. overcast
Question 18. Only 40 % of 5-year-olds have_______ to pre-school children.
A. access B. approach C. denial D. recognition
Question 19. He has been_______from running a political office for five years.
A. missed B. avoided C. made D. barred
Question 20. Delegates will meet with_______from industry and the government.
A. represented B. representative C. representatives D. representers
Question 21. Sports drinks have caught _______ as consumers have become more health- conscious.
A. in B. at C. out D. on
Question 22. He was teacher!
A. how good a B. so good a C. so a good D. what a good
Question 23. It's a program that give some insight into the _______ life of the Victorians.
A. household B. inner C. house D. domestic
Question 24. _______having a good salary, he also has a private income.
A. What's more B. Furthermore C. Apart from D. From
Question 25. “ How long is the seminar ?”
“ knowledge, it takes about three hours.”
A. To my best B. To the best of my C. In my best of D. In my best
Question 26. Question 45. Not until home that he had taken someone else's bike.
A. he got/ he realized B. he got/ did he realize
C. did he get/ he realized D. he got/ he did realize
Question 27. - Did your brother go to France ?
- No, our parents suggested that we there at night.
A. not go B. not going C. not to go D. won’t go

Question 28. - Why not open the windows to let clean air in ?
- I’d rather you didn’t . air in our town is quite polluted ?
A. 0 (nothing)- 0 B. 0- The C. a- The D. The- 0
Question 29. at his lessons, still he couldn’t catch up with his classmates.
A. Hardly as he worked B. Hard as he worked
C. Hard as he does D. Hard as he was
Put a suitable word in the blank by marking the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet.
Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know that an “ intranet” is? It is this : just as the Internet connects
people around the world, intranets connect people within a (30) company. In fact, intranets make use of the same
software programs as the Internet to (31) computers and people. This (32) that you do not have to buy a lot of
additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your intranet is working properly, it can link together a huge
amount of (33) which is stored in different places in the company. In this way, people can get the information
they need, regardless (34) where it comes from. A company intranet can , of course, be used for unimportant
information like office memos or canteen menus. But an intranet should (35) important information which
people need to make decision about new products, costs and so on. The intranet is (36) to share their information
with other people. (37) , many departments don’t want to share their specialist knowledge with others. Another
problem which often occurs is (38) top managers like to use the intranet to “ communicate down” rather than to “
communicate across”. That is, they use the intranet to give orders, not to (39) information between themselves
and others working in the same organization.

Question 30. A. large B. jointed C. single D. branch
Question 31. A. contact B. introduce C. distinguish D. compare
Question 32. A. is B. is said C. indicates D. means
Question 33. A. parts B. information C. elements D. properties
Question 34. A. on B. with C. of D. to
Question 35. A. bring B. provide C. give D. take
Question 36. A. likely B. willing C. going D. happened
Question 37. A. Luckily B. Consequently C. However D. Unfortunately
Question 38. A. that B. what C. which D. it
Question 39. A. change B. exchange C. transform D. transit

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 40 to 49.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a greater priority
on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily available, renewable resources
that are both cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two such resources are solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of worldwide
energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of photovoltaic cells that
convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems
in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries,
the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power, which
creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are trapped in
underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which is produces electricity. Geothermal
energy is
50, 000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources. And as with solar power, the
technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in
Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where over 80 percent of private homes are heated by geothermal
power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The
time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale.

Question 40. What is the main topic of this passage ?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 41. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources ?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.

D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
Question 42. Which of the following words could best replace the word “ harnessing”
A. Capturing B. Harassing C. Depleting D. Exporting
Question 43. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 44. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy production ?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 45. Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence:
“ Although the US is not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a similar capacity to
generate geothermal power”
A. after the phrase ” earth-friendly”
B. after the phrase “ growing steadily”
C. after the phrase “ by geothermal power”
D. after the phrase “ global scale”
Question 46. According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power ?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.
Question 47. What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?
A. It is widely used form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.

Question 48. What does the author imply about alternative energy sources ?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.