Bộ đề thi thử tốt nghiệp môn tiếng anh 2015 có đáp án chi tiết

Bộ đề thi thử đại học môn tiếng anh 2015
SỞ GD & ĐT
TRƯỜNG THPT
(Đề thi gồm 07 trang)
ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014
MÔN TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 109
Thời gian làm bài 90 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
for each of the blanks.
Looking for an unforgettable way to celebrate that special occasion? Well, the (1)__of options open
today’s youngster – or even “ oldster” for that matter, is a far cry from the traditional party or restaurant
visit. No longer is it (2)__sufficient to invite your friends round , buy some food and get a barker to produce
a cake. No, today’s birthday boy or girl is looking for something out of the ordinary, ranging from the (3)__
expensive to the downright dangerous. Anything goes, as long as it is unusual and impressive.
Top of this year ‘s popular (4)__are as follows: taking some friends rally driving , helicopter lessons,
plane trip and parachuting , and hot air ballooning . Then there is always group bungee jumping or taking
your buddies on a stomach – churning , while water rafting (5)__down rapids.
The desire of adventurous celebration is not restricted to the (6)__. I recently met an octogenarian
who celebrated (7)__the milestone of eighty by having a fly lesson.
Of course, if you have money the world is your oyster. A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of his
friends to a Caribbean island to mark the passing of his half century. Unfortunately I was only a
(8)__relation.
Undoubtedly, the more traditional forms of celebration do continue to (9)__the less extravagant or less
adventurous among us. However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I would not say no to a
weekend in Paris and a meal at the Eiffel Tower. I can (10)__dream. Perhaps by the time I’m eighty I’ll be
able to afford it.
Question 1: A. scale B. degree C. range D. variance
Question 2: A. hoped B. decided C. marked D. considered
Question 3: A. perfectly B. dearly C. outrageously D. explicity
Question 4: A. experiments B. extravagances. C. exposures D. expenses

Question 5: A. ride B. travel C. voyage D. crossing
Question 6: A. adolescents B. teenagers C. youth D. young
Question 7: A. attaining B. arriving C. reaching D. getting
Question 8: A. distant B. remote C. faraway D. slight
Question 9: A. pacify B. satisfy C. distract D. absorb
Question 10:A. however B. but C. nevertheless D. anyway
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 11: A. invalid B. predict C. pretend D. preface
Question 12: A. mausoleum B. conservative C. disqualify D. magnificant
Question 13: A. nuclear B. province C. construct D. complex
Question 14: A. literacy B. contingency C. ceremony D. sanctuary
Question 15: A. optimist B. accuracy C. continent D. artificial
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that could best replace the
underlined part without changing the meaning of the sentence
Question 16: Hypertension is one of the most widespread and potential dangerous diseases
A. colossal B. popular C. common D. scattered
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Question17 : In the United States, a party can nominate a single candidate for office
A. refuse B. keep C. change D. name
Question 18 : The sales of drugs is controlled by law in most of countries
A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding
Question 19: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!
A. considerably B. thoroughly C. altogether D. specificially
Question 20 : A brief outlined of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students at the first
meeting
A. dispensed B. dispered C. distributed D. contributed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the following questions
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of
wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C . Despite its antiquity, certain aspects
of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile
river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways
and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the
pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The
ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were
based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines.
Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. .
Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are
prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have
supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial
beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?
Question 21: What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foundation B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. The lines represent important events D. A superior race of people built in
Question 22: Extraterrestrial beings are___.
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets
Question 23: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
B. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
Question 24: The word feat in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ____.
A. accomplishment B. Appendage C. festivity D. structure
Question 25: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?

A. Architects’plan for the hidden passages B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations D. Dates of important events taking place
throughout time
Question 26 : In the second passage , the word ‘ prophesied’ is closest in meaning to ____.
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A. affiliated B. precipitated C. terminated D. foretold
Question 27: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid B. Problems with the Construction of the Great
Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
Question 28: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement D. knowledge of the earth’s surface
Question 29: Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh D. as an engineering feat
Question 30: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A.it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops C. It was built by a super race D. It is very old
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
question
Question 31 :Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that over two
hundred people ___ away. A. would have turned B. would turnC. had been turned D. would
have to be turned
Question 32: ___ he was good at physics in lower grade, he was terrible at it in grade 12
A. While B. Although C. When D. Except that
Question 33: It is better to try to work ___ rather than against Nature
A. for B. with C. by D. along

Question 34: In the years ___ all the trees will disappear if nothing is done to protect them
A. come B. coming C. to come D. will come
Question 35: Large numbers of Americans watch and participate in sports activities, ___ a deeply in
grained part of American life. A. which is B. which are C. that is D. that makes
Question 36: The accused ___ guilty to all charges.
A. pleaded B. admitted C. said D. confessed
Question 37: Mrs. Archer is known ___ the finest collection of twentieth century art in private hands
A. as have B. having C. by having D. to have
Question 38: Mark is nearsighted. He ___ glasses ever since he was ten years old
A. should have worn B. must wear C. need wear D. has had to wear
Question 39: I like your new car. What ___ is it?
A. brand B. name C. label D. make
Question 40: It___ able to finish it in an hour.
A. couldn’t be too hard if you are B. can’t have been too hard if you were
C. can’t have been too hard if you had been D. couldn’t be too hard if you had been
Question 41 : “ Let’s have supper now. “ -“______”
A. You aren’t eatingB. I won’t C. There aren’t any D. Bill isn’t here
Question 42: ___ an emergency arise, call 911
A. Should B. Can C. Does D. Will
Question 43: ___ in business, one must be prepared to take risks
A. Succeeding B. Success C. To succeed D. Succeed
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Question 44: I don’t like this wine. I like ___.
A. some other B. another C. other D. the other
Question 45: The house is found ___ down
A. to burn B. burning C. having burned D. to have been burned
Question 46: Please look through these papers ___ your pleasure
A. on B. in C. for D. at

Question 47: Only in the last few days ___ to repair the swimming pool
A. anything has been done B. has done anything C. has anything been done D. has there anything
been done
Question 48: “Hello, I’d like to speak to Mr. Green, please “ – “______”
A. Sorry, can you say that again? B. I’m sorry, I’ll call again later
C. I’m afraid I don’t know D. Let’s wait
Question 49 : ___ percent in the population of Canada speak English?
A. How many B. How much C. What D. Which
Question 50 : ‘’ Would you mind turning down your stereo ?’’ - “______”
A. I’m really sorry! I ‘m not paying attention B. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that
C. No. I don’t D. Yes, I do
Question 51: His job is ___. A. driving a bus B. a bus driver C. bus driving D. a
driver of a bus
Question 52:” I locked myself out of my apartment. I didn’t know what to do” -“ You ___ your
roommate”
A. need have called B. could have called C. would have called D. must have called
Question 53:Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to ___ allowance for her
A. bring B. take C. make D. find
Question 54: Those trousers are far too big. Why don’t you have them___?
A. taken on B. taken in C. taken over D. taken out
Question 55: Lack of exercise and high-fat diets have ___ to be the factor in heart attack
A. known been long B. long been known C. long known been D. been long known
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions .
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat,
rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution. It was noted that
troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York
Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers –
you’re – out , batter out on a caught ball , three outs per inning , a nine man team. “The New York Game”
spread rapidly , replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of

satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it was
played by and for gentlemen. A club might consists of 40 members. The president would appoint two
captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday
afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism
(charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome
of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine ,
and their” muffins “ (the gently duffers who once ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all –
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salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete
professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional baseball
players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-
minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s
“Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat , a season of 84 games became one of 132, a
weekly periodical “ The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands
replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the
Western League based in the growing cities of the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American League.
Question 56: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origin of baseball B. the commercialization of baseball
C. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball D. the development of baseball in the
nineteenth century
Question 57: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if
they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism
that develop in baseball C. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits
Question 58: The word “ inception ” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. requirements B. beginning C. insistence D. rules
Question 59: The word “ lavish “ in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.
A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive
Question 60: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its
inception?
A. a team might consist of 40 members B. the president would choose teams from among the
members
C. they didn’t play on weekend D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the
first nine
Question 61 : According to the second paragraph , all of the following are true except____.
A. commercialism became more prosperous B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income D. people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 62 : Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “ Golden Age”?
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fieldsB. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed D. profits soared
Question 63: The word” somewhat” in line 21 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. to a significant extent B. to a minor extent C. to not the same extent D. to some extent
Question 64: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to____.
A. the Western League B. growing cities C. the Midwest D. the American
League
Question 65: Where in the passage does the author first mention payments to players?
A. lines 4-7 B. lines 8-10 C. lines 11-14 D. 15- 18
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part following that needs
correcting
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Question 66 : At the rate the clerks were processing the applications. Joe figured that it will take four hours
for his to be reviewed A B C
D

Question 67: Professor Layton was equally fond of the two children, but he had to admit that he found the
youngest an easier child to handle A B C D
Question 68: In order to become a law, a bill must be passed not only by the Senate but also the House of
Representatives
A B C D
Question 69: Automobile began to be equipped by built-in radios around 1930
A B C D
Question 70: The Oxford University Publisher has just published a new series of readers for students of
English
A B C D
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 71: Had he known more about the internet, he would have invested in some computer companies
A. Knowing about the internet help him invest in some computer company
B. He didn’t know much about the internet and he didn’t invest in any computer companies
C. Knowing about the internet , he would have invested in some computer companies
D. He would have invested in some computer companies without his knowledge of the internet
Question 72: You should have persuaded him to change his mind
A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t B. You should persuade him to
change his mind
C. You persuade him to change his mind but he didn’t D. You didn’t persuade him to change
because of his mind
Question 73: It would have been better if he had told us his new address
A. He might have told us his new address B. He should have told us his new address
C. He should have told us his new address D. It doesn’t matter that he didn’t tell us his new
address
Question 74: Tom regrets to say that he has left his tickets at home
A. Tom regrets leaving the tickets at home B. Tom was sorry that he has left the tickets at home
C. Tom wishes he hadn’t left the ticket at home D. Tom regrets to leave the ticket at home
Question 75: It is such a wonderful opportunity that we mustn’t miss it

A. It is too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss B. The opportunity is wonderful enough for
us to miss
C. It is a wonderful opportunity so that we can’t miss it
D. The opportunity is so wonderful that we are not able to afford it
Question 76: “ Cigarette?” he asked . “ No, thanks.” I said
A. He asked for a cigarette and I immediately refused B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him
C. He offered me a cigarette and I promptly declined D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at
once
Question 77: “Can I see your ticket please””
A. The inspector asked to see my ticket B. The inspector offered to see my ticket
C. The inspector expected to see my ticket D. The inspector asked for my ticket
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Question 78: Only customers with coupons may use the service
A. The service is available for coupons only B. The service is restricted to customers in possession of
coupons
C. Only rich customers can use the service with coupons D. Only customers with coupons are
service here
Question 79: Don’t let her treat you like that
A. You are not let be treated like that by her B. Don’t allow you to be treated like that
C. Don’t let yourself be treated like that by her D. She doesn’t treat you like that
Question 80: She has lost her appetite recently
A. She hasn’t had any food recently B. Her appetite has been very good
C. She has gone off food recently D. She hasn’t eaten a lot of food recently
THE END
ĐỀ THI ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi : Tiếng Anh , khối MÃ A1- D 101
Thời gian làm bài : 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
(Đề thi gồm 06 trang)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best completes each
unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one
Question 1: _____ be needed, the water basin would need to be dammed.
A. Hydroelectric power should
C. Hydroelectric power
B. When hydroelectric power
D. Should hydroelectric power
Question 2: The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes_____ the housewives
with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left
Question 3: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to_____ what she missed while she was away.
A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with
Question 4: Jane: Thank you for a lovely evening. Barbara: _____.
A. You are welcome B. Have a good day C. Thanks D. Cheer!
Question 5: I have English classes _____ day - on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays.
A. all other B. each other C. every other D. this and the other
Question 6: She was _____ she could not say anything.
A. so surprised at the news that
C. so surprised of the news that
B. such surprised at the news that
D. so that surprised for the news
Question 7: There is a huge amount of _____ associated with children’s TV shows nowadays.
A. produce B. manufacturing C. merchandising D. sales
Question 8: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different
as _____.
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. here and there
Question 9: It’s essential that every student _____ the exam before attending the course.
A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed
Question 10: I decided to go to the library as soon as I_____.
A. finish what I did B. would finish what I did

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C. finished what I did D. finished what I was doing
Question 11: _____ in the street yesterday was very friendly.
A. The mounted police, who I saw
C. Who is the mounted police I saw
B. The mounted police I saw whom
D. The mounted police whom I saw
Question 12: A washing machine of this type will certainly_____ normal domestic use.
A. stand up for B. come up with C. get on to D. take down with
Question 13: “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the
teacher said.
A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible
Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified their dead through the use of chemicals, _____ ancient
Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. because B. whereas C. even though D. whether or not
Question 15: It is very difficult to_____ the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language.
A. convert B. convey C. exchange D. transfer
Question 16: Issues from price, place, promotion, and product are_____ of marketing strategies planning,
despite growing calls to expand the range of issues in today’s more complex world.
A. these that are among the most conventional concerns B. among the most conventional
concerns
C. they are among the most conventional concerns D. those are among the most conventional concerns
Question 17: Please cut my hair _____ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length
as
B. the same length
like
C. the same long like D. the same long as

Question 18: Carbon dioxide may be absorbed by trees or water bodies, or it may stay in the atmosphere
when_____ , while it is only in the atmosphere that chlorofluorocarbons find their home.
A. by releasing emissions from cars
C. cars that release emissions
B. released from car emissions
D. emissions are released by cars
Question 19: Half of the children were away from school last week because of_____ of influenza.
A. a break- out B. a breakthrough C. an outburst D. an outbreak
Question 20: A: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
B: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
A. I couldn’t agree more.
C. You’re right.
B. I understand what you’re saying.
D. I don’t see in that way.
Question 21: So little_____ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me.
A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know
Question 22: It’s a formal occasion so we’ll have to_____ to the nines- no jeans and pullovers this time!
A. hitch up B. put on C. wear in D. get dressed up
Question 23: _____ so aggressive, we’d get on much better.
A. She was not B. Had she not C. Weren’t she D. If she weren’t
Question 24: On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. Upon reflection
C. For this time only
B. After discussing with my wife
D. For the second time
Question 25: A: _____. B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t
B. How a beautiful dress you’re
wearing!

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you? D. That’s a beautiful dress you have
on!
Question 26: I studied English for four years in high school. _____ had trouble talking with people when I
was traveling in the US.
A. Therefore, I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I
Question 27: _____ in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing.
A. Frost is produced
C. What produces frost
B. Frost produces
D. What is frost produced
Question 28: All_____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
Question 29: He said that the plane had already left and that I_____ an hour earlier.
A. Must have arrived
C. should have arrived
B. had to arrive
D. was supposed to arrive
Question 30: There seems to be a large _____ between the number of people employed in service industries,
and those employed in the primary sectors.
A. discriminate B. discretion C. discrepancy D. distinguish
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase for each of the blanks from 31- 40
COULD COMPUTER GAMES BE GOOD FOR YOU AFTER ALL
In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to
the cinema or renting videos. But is this 31 necessarily a bad thing? For years, newspaper reports have been
32 saying that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, bad-
tempered, even violent as a 33 result. But new research, 34 carried out in both Europe and the USA,

suggests that the opposite may be true.
Indeed, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve certain skills.
Researchers claim that this is because the games 35 make the brain work harder in certain ways, like 36
noticing sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact that people play the games
repeatedly 37 means that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to become highly
developed.
Social skills may benefit, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first- person shooter games (38
such as)
“Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and co-operation, and that this
(39 helps )them to make good friendships and become strong members of their communities. So rather than
(40 giving) up computer games, perhaps young people need to spend more time on them?
Question
31.
Question
32.
Question
33.
Question
34.
Question
35.
A. necessarily
A. speaking
A. product
A. worked
A. make
A. realizing
A. means
A. in order to
A. supports

A. giving
B. certainly
B. informing
B. result
B. thought
B. force
B. noticing
B. asks
B. such as
B. helps
B. ending
C. fully
C. telling
C. reason
C. turned
C. push
C. imagining
C. brings
C. due to
C. shows
C. taking
D. nearly
D. saying
D.
conclusion
D. carried
D. keep
D. solving
D. causes
D. as well as

D. serves
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Question
36.
Question
37.
Question
38.
Question
39.
Question
40.
D. stopping
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 41 to 50
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting (truyền đạt) information by
use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through
performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is
pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh (chua, chói), by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself,
and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and
melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright,
confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the
words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect
intuitive (trực giác) sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or
excitement, all of which are .usually discernible (nhận rõ) by the acute listener. Public performance is a
manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice
and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination

with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic,
political, or pedagogic (sư phạm) communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional
health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive,
outgoing, or exuberant (cới mở), to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the
facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a
speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically
(mạnh mẽ) alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is
evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted (hẹp hòi) and harsh sound of
the angry, and by dull and lethargic (thờ ơ) qualities of the depressed.
Question 41. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The function of the voice in performance
C. The connection between voice and personality
B. Communication styles
D. The production of speech
Question 42. What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and
feelings over and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication. D. Feelings are more difficult to express than
ideas.
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Question 43. The word "Here" in line 9 refers to_____.
A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
Question 44. The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained
Question 45. Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15?
A. As examples of public performance B. As examples of basic styles of communication

C. To contrast them to singing D. To introduce the idea of self-image
Question 46. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's____.
A. general physical
health
B. personality C. ability to
communicate
D. vocal quality
Question 47. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide_____.
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
Question 48. The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
Question 49. The word "evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. questioned B. repeated C. indicated D. exaggerated
Question 50. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy B. Depression C. Boredom D. Anger
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest ones
Question 51: A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. term
Question 52: A. colonel B. journal C. touring D. adjourn
Question 53: A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious
Question 54: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
Question 55: A. Valentine B. imagine C. discipline D. determine
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 56 - 64
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the world's
species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining
patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the
general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and
conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the

striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he
mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the
British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of
tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and
tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and
plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions,
rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the
Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for
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vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still
in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are
made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the
evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples
because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by
imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 56: The word "consequence" in line 2 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. result B. explanation C. analysis D. requirement
Question 57: The word "striking" in line 7 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 58: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they_____.
A. are simple in structure
C. are viewed positively by people
B. have been given scientific names
D. are found mainly in temperate climates

Question 59: The word “exceed” in line 10 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
Question 60: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
Question 61: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity
EXCEPT_____.
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 62: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics
C. Their names
B. Their adaptation to different habitats
D. Their variety
Question 63: The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 16-17 as an example of a location where_____.
A. butterfly behavior varies with climate
B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
C. butterflies are affected by human populations
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 64: The word "generated" in line 24 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 65: All of the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly among the friendly to human
A B C D
Question 66: Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is
A B C
wood pulp, which is used in paper-making.

D
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Question 67: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and
A B
the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment.
C D
Question 68: Chicago's Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the
A B C
ground to the top of it antenna.
D
Question 69: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting
A B C
to pass the exam.
D
Question 70: In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what
A B C
he won a Newberry Caldecot award.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 71: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work. B. If her were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
Question 72: The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and drinks they wanted.
A. The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drinks. B. The hostess tried hard to please her
guests.
C. The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess.

D. Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks.
Question 73: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time.
A. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early.
B. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure.
C. The meeting lasted much longer than usual. D. There was not enough time to hold the meeting.
Question 74: Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.
A. More men than women have insurance. B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.
D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.
Question 75: Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter.
A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer.
B. More people have summer colds than winter colds. C. People get colder in the summer than in the
winter.
D. The winter is much colder than the summer.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that expresses the best
meaning formed by the given words
Question 76:. No/ doubt/ Alison/ promote
A. It’s no doubt Alison will be promoting. B. There’s no doubt that Alison will be promoted.
C. There’s no doubt Alison will promote.D. It’s no doubt that Alison is promoted.
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Question 77: your organization/ possible/ conference/ place
A. Your organization made it possible to take place this conference.
B. Your organization made possible for this conference to take place.
C. Your organization made it possible this conference to take place.
D. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.
Question 78: when/ you/ make/ mind/ university/ attend?
A. When are you going to make up your mind about which university to attend?
B. When will you make up your mind which university to attend?
C. When are you going to make your mind about which university to attend?

D. When are you making up your mind about university to attend?
Question 79: I/ not see/ point/ rule/ we/ not/ cycle/ school
A. I can’t see the point of this rule which we don’t cycle to school.
B. I can’t see the point of this rule which says we can’t cycle to school.
C. I don’t see the point of this rule which we are not allowed to cycle to school.
D. I can’t see the point of rule which says we can’t cycle to school.
Question 80: despite / short day/ we/ complain/ much/ do
A. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain about having too much to do.
B. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain having too much to do.
C. Despite a short day, we tend to complain about too much to do.
D. Despite such short day, we tend to complain about having too much do.
HẾT
ĐỀ THI ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi : Tiếng Anh , khối MÃ A1- D102
Thời gian làm bài : 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Choose the word which has different stress pattern:
1 A primitive B particular C continuous D connected
2 A intensify B summary C philosophers D instruction
3 A pressure B medical C immortal D lightning
4 A language B lyrical C evidence D disadvantage
5 A sedentary B available C additional D majority
Choose the best option:
6 _____ is a time that is supported to be free from worries.
A. Child B. Childlike C. Childish D. Childhood
7 Within a couple of hours, a very important _____ on the new tax policy will be made.
A. announce B. announcement C. announcer D. announcing
8 One _____ of public transport is its unreliability.
A. benefit B. disadvantage C. harm D. drawback
9 _____ accepting your job offer, I'd like to know a bit more about the company.
A. In advance B. In order C. Until D. Before

10 Let's have a _____ of tennis after lunch if you're not tired, shall we?
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A. match B. play C. game D. party
11 He played a very important ______ in politics until he was well over 80.
A. scene B. job C. position D. part
12 The noise from the traffic outside stopped me from _____ to sleep.
A. falling B. starting C. beginning D. going
13 She _____ down completely on hearing of her friend's death.
A. broke B. turned. C. put D. fell
14 Jack can speak two languages. One is English. _____ is Vietnamese.
A. Other B. The other C. Another D. Others
15 The manager did not offer her the job because of her untidy _____.
A. sight B. view C. appearance D. presence
16 "Is that a new coat?" "Yes, what _____ it?”
A. are you thinking of B. do you think of C. is your idea about D. did you think about
17 How do you do? ______.
A I'm very fine, thanks B. Thanks to my mother C. How do you do? D. With my brother.
18 The girl _____ is my neighbor.
A. talks to the lady over there. B. is talking to the lady over there
C. was talking to the lady over there D. talking to the lady over there
19 ______ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn't want to answer his phone call.
A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled
C. Because-of she quarreled D. Had quarreled
20 My daughter often says that she won't get married until she _____ 25 years old.
A. is B. will be C. will have been D. has been
21 My father asked me _____ of the film.
A. what did I think B. what I think C. what I thought D. what I did thought
22 Everyone in both cars _____ injured in the accident last night, ______?

A were / weren't they B. was / weren't they C. was / wasn't he? D. were / were they
23 The more he tried to explain, ______ we got
A. the much confused B. the many confusing C. the more confusing D. the more
confused
24 Not only _____ us light, but it also gives us heat.
A. the sun gives B. the sun has given C. has the sun given D. does the sun give
25 If you hadn't stayed up so late last night, you ______ sleepy now.
A. wouldn't have felt B. wouldn't feel C. wouldn't fell D. wouldn't have fallen
Read the passage and choose the best answer:
Within the last century the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (26) ____
dramatically, largely (27) ____ people burn vast amounts of fossil fuels - coal and petroleum and its
derivatives. Average global temperature also has increased - by about 0.6 Celsius degree within (28)
____ past century.
Atmospheric scientists (29) ____ found that at least half of that temperature increase (30)
____ attributed to human activity. They predict that (31) ____ dramatic action is taken, global
temperature will continue (32) ____ by 1 A to 5.8 Celsius degrees over the next century. Although
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(33) ____ increase may not seem like a great difference, during the last ice age the global
temperature (34) ____ only 2.2 Celsius degrees cooler than it (35) ____ presently.
26 A. has risen B. rose C. has raised D. raised
27 A. because of B. although C. despite D. because
28 A. a B. some C. the D. any
29 A. had B. have C. are D. ought to
30 A. should be B. is being C. had been D. can be
31 A. unless B. if C. provided D. as long as
32 A. be rising B. to rise C. to be risen D. to be rising
33 A. so much B. so C. such an D. such
34 A. had been B. has been C. is D. was

35 A. is B. has been C. was D. will be
Read the passage and choose the best answer:
Clean freshwater resources are essential for drinking, bathing, cooking, irrigation, industry, and
for plant and animal (36) ____. Unfortunately, the global supply of freshwater is (37) ____ unevenly.
Chronic water shortages (38) ____ in most of Africa and drought is common over much of the globe.
The (39) ____ of most freshwater supplies - groundwater (water located below the soil surface),
reservoirs, and rivers - are under severe and (40) ____ environmental stress because of overuse, water
pollution, and ecosystem degradation. Over 95 percent of urban sewage in (41) ____ countries is (42)
____ untreated into surface waters such as rivers and harbors;
About 65 percent of the global freshwater supply is used in (43) ____ and 25 percent is used in
industry. Freshwater (44) ____ therefore requires a reduction in wasteful practices like (45) ____
irrigation, reforms in agriculture and. industry, and strict pollution controls worldwide.
36 A. survive B. survived C. surviving D. survival
37 A. delivered B. distributed C. provided D. given
38 A. exist B. lie C. show D. l:itay
39 A. resources B. springs C. sources D. starting
40 A. increasing B. growing C. climbing D. ascending
41 A. growing B. miserable C. poverty D. developing
42 A. recharged B. discharged C. charged D. discharging
43 A. farming B. planting C. agriculture D. growing
44 A. reservation B. conservation C. preservation D. retention
45 A. ineffective B. illogical C. irrational D. inefficient
Identify one mistake in the following sentences:
46 (A) Mined over 2,000 years (B) ago, copper is one of (C) the earliest (D) know metals.
47 (A) The average adult (B) has got from two (C) to five (D) colds each year.
48 Computers (A) have made (B) access to information (C) instantly available just (D) by push a few
buttons.
49 Some gorillas (A) beat their chests (B) as an (C) express of (D) high spirits.
50 Because vitamins (A) contained (B) in a wide (C) variety of foods, people seldom (D) lack most of
them.

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Choose the best option:
51 Simon physics at all.
A. was hardly not interested in B. was hardly interested in
C. was hardly not interesting on D. was not hardly interested in
52 If a student ____ it is very unlikely that he will receive a good education.
A. behaves badly arid who is lazy, B. who behaves badly and was lazy,
C. who behaves badly and is lazy, D. behaves badly and is lazy,
53 The audience, ____ enjoyed the performance.
A. most of them were students, B. most of whom were students,
C. they were mostly students, D. they themselves were students,
54 The tests .in this. book are arranged ____
A. in order of difficult B. in order of difficulty
C. in orderly difficult D. in the order of difficulty
55 The success of the play was due to ____
A. the actors and how it was produced B. the acting and the production
C. the actors and its production D. how they acted and the production
Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one:
56 It is a pity you didn't tell us about this.
A. I wish you have told us about this. B. I wish you would tell us about this.
C. I wish you had told us about this D. I wish you would have told us about this.
57 I've never gone to the car wash before.
A. This is the first time I have had my car washed. B. This is the first time I have washed my car.
C. Never have I washed my car before. D. Never has my car been washed.
58 After he had finished the report, he submitted it to the director.
A. Finishing the report, it was submitted to the director.
B. Having finished the report, it was submitted to the director.
C. Having finished the report, he submitted to the director.

D. Having finished the report, he submitted it to the director.
59 Jean could not help weeping when she heard the bad news.
A. Jean could not stop herself from weeping at the bad news.
B. Jean could not allow herself to weep at the bad news.
C. Jean could not help herself and so she wept at the bad news.
D. Jean could not help herself because she was weeping.
60 The best solution was thought of by the monitor.
A. The monitor came up with the best solution.
B. The monitor was good with the best solution.
C. No one could solve the problem except the monitor.
D. The best solution was monitored by the thought.
Read the passage and choose the best answer:
In the United States, presidential elections are held in years evenly divisible by four (1888,
1900, 1964, etc.). Since 1840, American presidents elected in years ending with zero have died in
office, with one exception. William H. Harrison, the man who served the shortest term, died of
pneumonia only several weeks after his inauguration.
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Abraham Lincoln was one of four presidents who were assassinated. He was elected in 1860,
and his untimely death came just five years later. James A. Garfield, a former Union army general
from Ohio, was shot during his first year in office (1881) by a man to whom he wouldn't give a job.
While in his second term of office (1901), William McKinley, another Ohioan, attended the Pan-
American Exposition in Buffalo, New York. During the reception, he was assassinated while shaking
hands with some of the guests. John F. Kennedy was assassinated in 1963 in Dallas only three years
after his election.
Three years after his election in 1920, Warren G, Harding died in office. Although it was
never proved, many believe he was poisoned. Franklin D. Roosevelt was elected four times (1932,
1936, 1940 and 1944), the only man to serve so long a term. He had contracted polio in 1921 and
eventually died of the illness in 1945.

Ronald Reagan, who was elected in 1980 and reelected four years later, suffered an
assassination attempt but did not succumb to the assassin's bullets. He was the first to break the long
chain of unfortunate events. Will the candidate in the election of 2020 also be as lucky?
61 All of the following were election years EXCEPT ____
A. 1960 B. 1930 C.1888 D.1824
62 Which president served the shortest term in office?
A. Abraham Lincoln B. Warren G. Harding
C. William McKinley D. William H. Harrison
63 Which of the following is true?
A. All presidents elected in years ending in zero have died in office.
B. Only presidents from Ohio have died in office.
C. Franklin D. Roosevelt completed four terms as president.
D. Four American presidents have been assassinated.
64 How many presidents elected in years ending in zero since 1840 have died in office?
A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
65 The word "inauguration" in the first paragraph means most nearly the same as
A. election B. acceptance speech
C. swearing-in ceremony D. campaign
66 All of the following presidents were assassinated EXCEPT ____
A. John F. Kennedy B. Franklin D. Roosevelt
C. Abraham Lincoln D. James A. Garfield
67 The word "whom" in the second paragraph refers to ____
A. Garfield B. Garfield's assassin C. a Union army general D. McKinley
68 The word "assassinated" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. murdered B. decorated C. honored D. sickened
69 In the third paragraph, "contracted" is closest in meaning to ____
A. communicated about B. developed C. agree about D. notified
70 How long did Warren G, Harding work as a president?
A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 4 years D. 4 years
Read the passage and choose the best answer:

After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he
foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the
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inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death·, he created a fund to be used for
awarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to humanity. Originally there were
five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just
sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony.
Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used
for the awards which vary from $30,000 to $125,000.
Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards (gold medal,
illuminated diploma, and money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important
role in the judges' decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature
prizes.
No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War 11. Some people
have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.
71 The word "foresaw" in the first paragraph is nearest in meaning to __
A. prevailed B. postponed C. prevented D. predicted
72 The Nobel prize was established in order to ___
A recognize worthwhile contributions to humanity B. resolve political differences
C. honor the inventor of dynamite D. spend money
73 In which area have Americans received the most awards?
A Literature B. Peace C. Economics D. Science
74 All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
A. Awards vary in monetary value
B. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention
C. Politics plays an important role in selecting the winners
D. A few individuals have won two awards
75 In how many fields are prizes bestowed?

A. 2 B. 5 C.6 D. 10
76 It is implied that Nobel's profession was in ____
A economics B. medicine C. literature D. science
77 In the first paragraph, "worthwhile" is closest in meaning to ___
A. economic B. prestigious C. trivial D. valuable
78 How much money did Nobel leaves for the prizes?
A. $30,000 B. $125,000 C. $155,000 D. $9,000,000
79 What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite.
B. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity.
C. Alfred Nobel left all of his money to science
D. Alfred Nobel made a lasting contribution to humanity
80 The word "legacy" in the second paragraph means most nearly the same as ____
A. legend B. bequest C. prize D. debt
The end
KEY:
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1 A
2 B
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 D
7 B
8 B
9 D
10 C
11 D

12 D
13 A
14 B
15 C
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 A
20 A
21 C
22 B
23 D
24 D
25 B
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 B
30 D
31 A
32 B
33 C
34 D
35 A
36 D
37 B
38 A
39 C
40 A
41 D

42 B
43 A
44 B
45 D
46 D
47 B
48 D
49 C
50 A
51 B
52 D
53 B
54 D
55 C
56 C
57 A
58 D
59 A
60 A
61 B
62 D
63 D
64 A
65 C
66 B
67 B
68 A
69 B
70 B
71 C

72 A
73 A
74 B
75 B
76 A
77 D
78 C
79 A
80 B
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
* ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC * Môn thi : Tiếng Anh , khối MÃ A1- D 103
Thời gian làm bài : 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
I. Phonetics:
A/ Choose the word with different pronunciation of the underlined part:
1 A dozen B glove C love D stove
2 A kites B catches C oranges D buzzes
3 A wood B good C food D childhood
4 A whistled B laughed C lodged D received
5 A prayer B player C mayor D flare
B/ Choose the word with different stress pattern:
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6 A luggage B increase C benefit D argument
7 A satisfaction B disappointed C ancestry D reassure
8 A democracy B committee C. proficiency D television
9 A energy B primary C facilities D pleasure
10 A contemporary B geometry C trigonometry D succession
II. Vocabulary:
A/ Choose the word that best fits each gap of the passage:

To many people, smoking is not just a pleasure, it is an (11) They need it, depend on it and
can’t stop it. If they haven’t smoked for some hours, they feel a (12) for a cigarette. They often (13)
which means they light another cigarette immediately after they have (14) out the one
before.
Smoking is often considered (15) , since many people don’t like the (16) of
cigarettes or the sight of the smoker’s (17) fingers or ashtray full of cigarette – ends. Above all,
smoking is harmful to health and in many countries a (18) is printed on every (19) of
cigarettes. Scientists have proved that there is a link between smoking and a disease which can be (20)
, cancer.
11 A attraction B addition C addiction D admiration
12 A likeness B craving C like D desire
13 A over-smoke B self-smoke C chain-smoke D non-smoke
14 A thought B made C put D given
15 A militant B antisocial C illegal D anti-pollutant
16 A odour B smell C taste D flavour
17 A stained B dirty C dusty D spotted
18 A saying B signal C sign D warning
19 A pack B packing C packet D backpack
20 A fatal B hard C immoral D perilous
B/ Choose the word that best fits each gap of the sentence:
21 Latin music is very in countries where people speak Spanish and Portuguese.
A common B usual C often D frequent
22 This sort of behaviour will not be
A tolerate B tolerated C tolerance D tolerant
23 Farmers can enrich the soil by using .
A fertile B fertilize C fertility D fertilizers
24 for government posts are always thoroughly investigated before being admitted.
A apply B applying C applied D applications
25 Nowadays, chemicals are into some fruits to reduce decay.
A injection B injecting C inject D injected

26 The most important thing is to keep yourself
A occupation B occupied C occupant D occupational
27 The soil must be kept damp at all times or the plant will die.
A moist B wet C dry D arid
28 Our grandfather is buried in that graveyard.
A morgue B churchyard C cemetery D both B & C
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29 A great of people in this country nowadays own a TV set.
A part B majority C unit D mass
30 My sister is an expert in wildlife and its
A conversation B preparation C reservation D conservation
III. Grammar:
Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the sentence:
31 My brother trouble with her motorbike, so he has to take the bus to work these days.
A have B had C was having D is having
32 A fortune–teller predicted inherit a lot of money before the end of the year.
A that I would B that I C that I will D that I did
33 Ben and his brother are hard – working carpenters that I am sure they will a
success of their business.
A so/ do B so/ make C such/ do D such/ make
34 I wouldn’t feel better now if you to me about it last night.
A hadn’t told B hadn’t talked C didn’t tell D didn’t talk
35 No sooner recovered from flu than he had a stomachache.
A had he B he C he was D was he
36 It is difficult to tell identical twins
A on B out C apart D over
37 I’d rather you something more formal to work.
A wore B wear C should D worn

38 When Peter first went abroad to study, he in a dormitory before.
A had never lived B have never lived C never lived D never lives
39 John’s mother has more than two workers under
A hundreds/ her B hundreds/ hers C hundred/ hers D hundred/ her
40 My sister claimed never to so hard in her life.
A work B working C having worked D have worked
41 They discussed with him all afternoon but couldn’t make a decision.
A problem B of the problem C the problem D about the problem
42 He applied for training as a pilot, but they turned him because of his poor eyesight.
A up B back C down D over
43 Peter quit his job at the advertising agency, surprised everyone.
A which B that C who D when
44 I can’t help him in spite of his faults.
A admire B admired C to admire D admiring
45 “What instructions did your boss give you?” “He required that Alice the meeting.”
A would attend B attends C attended D attend
46 We intend to do with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A up B away C down D in
47 In China an ancient medical treatment as a acupuncture is sometimes used during surgery.
A to know B knowing C known D knows
48 It’s imperative that this letter immediately.
A is sent B will be sent C send D be sent
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49 The effects of anaesthetic used for the operation take quite a time to off.
A wear B turn C give D move
50 John lost the bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him
because of his carelessness.
A beautiful Japanese blue new B beautiful new blue Japanese

C new beautiful blue Japanese D Japanese beautiful new blue
IV. Use of English:
A/ Choose the underlined word or phrase in each of the sentences that needs correcting:
51 A farmer’s tractor is like a powerful horse as it plows field, pulls trailers and moves heavy loads.
A B C D
52 Harvey seldom pays his bills on time, and his brother does, too.
A B C D
53 The officials object to them wearing long dresses for the inaugural dance at the country club.
A B C D
54 The pilot and the crew divided the life preservers between the twenty frantic passengers.
A B C D
55 The instructor advised the students for the procedures to follow in writing the term paper.
A B C D
B/ Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one in italics:
56 Would you like to go out for a drink?
A Do you feel like going out for a drink? C. Is going out for a drink to your liking?
B Do you like going for a drink? D. Would you mind going out for a drink?
57 Anyone who misses more than fifty percent of the classes deserves to fail.
A More than fifty percent is too much for one class.
B Fifty percent of the classes have failed the exams.
C People who fail must make up fifty percent of the classwork.
D These who are absent more than half the time should fail.
58 She’s bound to see Harry at the meeting.
A She’s obliged to see Harry at the meeting. C. She’s on her way to see Harry at the
meeting.
B It’s certain that she will see Harry at the meeting. D. She’s too busy to see Harry at the meeting.
59 According to some people, the sinking of the Titanic was the captain’s fault.
A According to some people, the captain was to blame for the sinking of the Titanic.
B According to some people, the captain blamed for the sinking of the Titanic.
C According to some people, the sinking of the Titanic made the captain blameful.

D According to some people, it was the sinking of the Titanic that the captain was blamed.
60 Had the announcement been made earlier, more people would have attended the lecture.
A The lecture was held so late that few people attended it.
B More people came late to the lecture because of the late announcement.
C The late announcement helped make the lecture well – attended.
D Few people came to the lecture because the announcement was not made earlier.
V. Reading comprehension:
1. Read the passage and choose the best answer:
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The planet Earth is 4,600 million years old. It is difficult for us to think about such an
enormous length of time because it has little meaning for us. We can, however, simplify the idea to
make it more understandable. We can compare the planet Earth to a person of forty six years of age.
Nothing is known about the first seven years of this person’s life. Very little information exists
about the middle period either. It was only at the age of forty – two that the Earth began to flower.
Dinosaurs and great reptiles did not appear until one year ago, when the planet was forty five.
Mammals only arrived eight months ago. In the middle of last week, man – like apes became ape –
like men and began to communicate with each other. Last weekend, the Ice Age covered the Earth.
Modern man has only been around for four hours. During the last hour man discovered
agriculture. The industrial Revolution and the rise of large cities began just six seconds ago. During
the short time, modern man has made a rubbish tip of the Earth. In one minute, he has increased his
numbers to terrible proportions, and has caused the death of hundreds of species of animals. He has
robbed and destroyed the planet in his search for fuels. Now he stands, like a violent, spoilt child,
delighted at the speed of his rise to power, on the edge of the final mass destruction and of killing all
the life which exists in the solar system.
61 The passage tells us that
A A great deal is known about how the Earth was created.
B life on Earth began relatively recently.
C more is kown about the first part of the Earth’s life than the middle part.

D scientists are well–informed about the middle part of the Earth’s life.
62 We are informed by the author that
A the dinosaurs appeared during the middle period
B mammals and great reptiles both appeared at the same time
C there were more than forty – five kinds of great reptiles
D ape -like man appeared before the last Ice Age.
63 The author is mainly interested in
A the time when man first evolved from apes. C. the effects of farming.
B what has happened since the Industrial Revolution D. the period before the last Ice Earth
64 It would appear that the main danger ahead is that
A man will destroy everything on earth C. there will be a population explosion
B man will use up all the fuels D. more species of animal may die out
65 The author’s general view of man seems to be that
A he has no right to be so destructive. C. he will be able to control the environment
B he has been the most successful animal D. he has learnt a lot from past mistakes
2. Read the passage and choose the best answer:
Most people think of deserts as dry, flat areas with little or no rainfall, but this is hardly true.
Many deserts have varied geographical formations ranging from soft, rolling hills to stark, jagged
cliffs, and most deserts have a permanent source of water. Although deserts do not receive a high
amount of rainfall – to be classified as a desert, an area must get less than twenty five centimeters of
rainfall per year – there are many plants that thrive on only small amounts of water, and deserts are
often full of such plant life.
Desert plants have a variety of mechanisms for obtaining the water needed for survival. Some
plants, such as cactus, are able to store large amounts of water in their leaves or stems; after a rainfall
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these plants absorb a large supply of water to last until the next rainfall. Other plants, such as the
mesquite, have extraordinarily deep root systems that allow them to obtain water from far below the
desert’s arid surface.

66 What is the main topic of the passage?
A Deserts are dry, flat areas with few plant. C. Many kinds of vegetation can survive with little
water.
B There is little rainfall in the desert. D. Deserts are not really flat areas with little plant
life.
67 The passage implies that
A the typical conception of a desert is incorrect.
B All deserts are dry, flat areas.
C Most people are well – informed about deserts.
D The lack of rainfall in deserts causes the lack of vegetation.
68 According to the passage, what causes an area to be classified as a desert?
A The type of plants C. The amount of precipitation
B The geographical formations D. The source of water
69 The word “source” in bold in the passage means
A . supply B storage space C need D lack
65. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage about cacti?
A They have deep root systems.
B They retain water from one rainfall to the next.
C They survive in the desert because they do not need water.
D They get water from deep below the surface of the desert.
70 What is the main topic of the passage?
C Deserts are dry, flat areas with few plants. C. Many kinds of vegetation can survive with
little water.
D There is little rainfall in the desert. D. Deserts are not really flat areas with little
plant life.
71 The passage implies that
A the typical conception of a desert is incorrect.
B All deserts are dry, flat areas.
C Most people are well – informed about deserts.
D The lack of rainfall in deserts causes the lack of vegetation.

72 According to the passage, what causes an area to be classified as a desert?
A The type of plants C. The amount of precipitation
B The geographical formations D. The source of water
73 The word “source” in bold in the passage means
A . supply B storage space C need D lack
70. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage about cacti?
A They have deep root systems.
B They retain water from one rainfall to the next.
C They survive in the desert because they do not need water.
D They get water from deep below the surface of the desert.
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