ĐỀ THI và đáp án CHỌN HSG lớp 11 – THPT năm học 2013 – 2014 đề THI môn TIẾNG ANH

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KÌ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 11 – THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 – 2014
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi dành cho học sinh trường THPT Chuyên)
Đề thi gồm: 06 trang
PART A: LISTENING
I. You will hear an interview with a marketing director.
Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. You will listen to the tapes
TWICE.
Lecture on (1)_________.
Example: Tourism and (2)_________.
Common misconception is that marketing indicates (3)_________ in what is being provided.
Marketing is actually essential in sustaining (4)__________.
Compared to a product, a service is more (5)________ and customers have different (6)________.
Aim: offer service beyond hopes of (7)__________.
Important to a. keep informed
b. (8)_________.
One way to achieve this: (9)__________.
(10)_________must always be available for any queries and problems.
II. You will hear the introduction about a library.
Listen and give short answer to the following questions. You will listen to the tapes TWICE.
1. How many printed volumes does the Western Bank Library have?
2. What must students have if they want to borrow books?
3. How long can a registered student keep books?
4. Where do students read books with red label?
5. How can students keep books for longer?
6. What service can help students if they want to reserve the books?
7. What should students do every day to view the loans and details of charges?
8. What should students do with overdue books?
9. How much is the photocopy of Color A4 sheet?

10. What is the opening time of the Western Bank Library at weekend?
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
III. Choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentences.
1. The school was closed for a month because of a serious ________ of fever.
A. outburst B. outbreak C. outset D. outcome
2. To decorate the room, I _______ the help of my roommate.
A. drafted B. engaged C. recruited D. enlisted
3. I tried to talk to her, but she was as high as a ________.
A. house B. sky C. kite D. wall
4. Now I am unemployed; I have too much time ________ and don’t know what to do with myself.
A. on my hands B. in hand C. in my hands D. to hand
5. Hats like this may have been fashionable in the 60’s, but now they are_________the times.
A. over B. beneath C. behind D. under
6. _______ with being so busy both at work and at home, she became increasingly tired and bad –
tempered.
A. How B. Where C. Which D. What
7. – ‘May I smoke?’
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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
- ‘_________’
A. Go ahead! B. What suits you?
C. Accommodate yourself! D. You are free.
8. _________, the whole family slept soundly.
A. Hot though the night air was B. Hot though was the night air
C. Hot although the night air was D. Hot although was the night air
9. Not only ________ a good physician but also a talented violist.
A. she is famous as B. is she known as
C. she appears to be D. appears as she is
10. – Cheer up! It might never happen!
- __________.

A. It’s so very unlikely, isn’t it? B. What do you think?
C. It already has. D. That was the last thing I did.
11. Of course, I will play the piano at the party but I’m a little ________.
A. out of use B. out of practice C. out of reach D. out of turn
12. Where’s that _______ dress that your grandma gave you?
A. pink, long, lovely, silk B. lovely, long, pink, silk
C. lovely, pink, long, silk D. long, pink, silk, lovely
13. _________ air is essential to man, so is water to fish.
A. As B. Just C. Since D. Like
14. Having selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International
Convention, _________.
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech
15. We _______ wandering about without any food.
A. hungered B. made hungry C. had been hungry D. got hungry
16. James was ________ upset after being rejected in love.
A. strongly B. hardly C. deeply D. highly
17. The company have to _______ways of reducing costs.
A. take in B, think over C. look D. work out
18. Don’t take any _______ of Mike – he’s always rude to everyone.
A. notice B. view C. attention D. sight
19. Before you sign the contract, ________ in mind that you won’t be able to change anything later.
A. hold B. bear C. retain D. reserve
20. Does that name _________ to you?
A. ring a bell B. break the ice C. foot the bill D. fall into place
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank.
1. Kate fell _______ with her boyfriend and they stopped seeing each other.
2. She would just sit in her chair, dreaming her life ________.
3. I’ve taken this watch _______ pieces, and now I can’t put it together again.
4. I went to the library, but the book I wanted was out _______ loan.

5. Sorry I’m late. Something cropped _________ at the office.
6. I’m sure my brother will never get married because he hates the feeling of being tied _____.
7. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to catch up______ what she missed why she was away.
8. I don’t think anyone understood what I was saying at the meeting. I failed to get my point _______
9. Jane’s very modest, always playing ________ her success.
10. Check the bottles carefully to make sure they have not been tampered________.
V. Complete the following passage with the correct forms of the given words.
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ACCESS APPEAR COMMIT DENY EXCLUDE
IMMERSE INFANT INSTITUTE LONELY SEE

One of the most challenging aspects of the science anthropology comes from its fieldwork.
Certainly, in its (1)________ as a profession, anthropology was distinguished by its concentration on
so-called primary societies in which social (2)________ appear to be fairly limited and social
interaction to be conducted almost (3)_________ face – to – face. Such societies, it was felt, provided
anthropologists with a valuable (4)________into the workings of society that contrasted with the many
complexities of more highly developed societies. There was also a sense that the way of life
represented by these smaller societies were rapidly (5)________and that preserving a record of them
was a matter of some urgency.
The (6)________ of anthropologists to the first – hand collection of data led them to some of
the most (7)________ places on earth. Most often they worked alone. Such lack of contact with other
people created feelings of intense (8)________ in some anthropologists, especially in the early stages
of fieldwork. Nevertheless, this process of (9)________ in a totally alien culture continues to attract
men and women to anthropology, and is (10)_________ the most effective way of understanding in
depth how other people see the world.
PART C. READING
VI. Read the following passage and choose the options among A, B, C or D that best complete
the blanks.
Stressful situations that (1)________ almost everyday in life seem to be unavoidable.
However, we can do little sometimes to avoid a misfortune or an unpleasant occurrence which may

(2)________ us unexpectedly as only it can. At such a moment, one may hit the (3)_______, give in
to the helplessness of the situation or, ideally, put a brave face on it trying to (4)_________ the burden.
Can you (5)_________ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do you
light one cigarette after another? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other neurotics? Or
do you take a different (6)________ and make good use of the time drawing up a schedule for the days
to come? To withstand the stressful moment you can also do a crossword puzzle, listen to your
favorite music or even compose a menu for your Sunday dinner.
In fact, whatever way you (7)________ to the annoying situation, you can exert no impact on it
as the traffic jam will only reduce in due (8)_________. Nevertheless, your reaction might
considerably influence your mood for the rest of the day. The inability to confront a stressful
occurrence like that with a deal of composure and sensibility adds much more strain to your life and in
this way puts your well – being in (9)_________. Surprisingly, it is seemingly negligible hardships we
stumble on daily that run double the risk of developing serious health disorders rather than our isolated
tragedies however painful they may be. (10)_______that so many of those wretched stresses and
inducing troubles affect us in a day, we should, at best, try to avoid them or possibly make radical
alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles.
1. A. devise B. create C. originate D. emerge
2. A. arise B. happen C. befall D. occur
3. A. post B. roof C. bottom D. wall
4. A. subsist B. remain C. cow D. bear
5. A. envision B. observe C. picture D. image
6. A. manner B. stance C. practice D. mode
7. A. strike B. deal C. respond D. challege
8. A. term B. course C. timing D. period
9. A. risk B. weakness C. insecurity D. jeopardy
10. A. Providing B. Given C. Hence D. As much

VII. Read the text and then answer the questions 1 – 5 by choosing A, B, C or D.
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Federal Express is a company that specializes in rapid overnight delivery of high-priority

packages. The first company of its type, Federal Express was founded by the youthful Fred Smith in
1971, when he was only 28 years old. Smith had actually developed the idea for the rapid delivery
service in a term paper for an economics class when he was a student at Yale University. The term
paper reputedly received a less – than – stellar grade because of the infeasibility of the project that
Smith had outlined. The model that Smith proposed had never been tried; it was a model that was
efficient to operate but at the same time was very difficult to institute.
Smith achieved efficiency in his model by designing a system that was separate from the
passenger system and could, therefore, focus on how to deliver packages most efficiently. His strategy
was to own his own planes so that he could create his own schedules and to ship all packages through
the hug city of Memphis, a set – up which resembles the spokes on the wheel of a bicycle. With this
combination of his own planes and hub set – up, he could get packages anywhere in the United States
overnight.
What made Smith’s idea difficult to institute was the fact that the entire system had to be
created before the company could begin operations. He needed a fleet of aircraft to collect packages
from airports every night and deliver them to Memphis, where they were immediately sorted and
flown out to their new destinations; he needed a fleet of trucks to deliver packages to and from the
various airport; he needed facilities and trained staff all in place to handle the operation. Smith had a
$4 million inheritance from his father, and he managed to raise an additional $91 million dollars from
venture capitalists to get the company operating.
When Federal Express began service in 1973 in 25 cities, the company was not an immediate
success, but success did come within a relatively short period of time. The company lost $29 million in
the first 26 months of operations. However, the tide was to turn relatively quickly. By late 1976,
Federal Express was carrying an average of 19,000 packages per night and had made a profit of $36
million.
1. The word developed in paragraph 1 could be replaced by
A. come up with B. come about C. come across D. come into
2. What was a key idea of Smith’s?
A. That he should focus on passenger service.
B. That package delivery should be separate from passenger service.
C. That packages could be delivered on other companies’ planes.

D. That passenger service had to be efficient.
3. A hug city in paragraph 2 is
A. a large city with small cities as destinations.
B. a city that is the final destination for many routes.
C. a city where many bicycle routes begin.
D. a centralized city with destinations emanating from it.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that Smith selected Memphis as his hub city because it
A. was near the middle of the country.
B. had a large number of passenger aircraft
C. already had a large package delivery service.
D. was a favorite passenger airport.
5. Which paragraph explains what made Smith’s model effective?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The third paragraph D. The last paragraph

VIII. Complete the following passage by choosing one sentence from A to H for each blank.
There are more options than needed.
In 1642, a law was passed in Virginia saying that tobacco was to be the only currency in the
colony and although a form of paper money was introduced later, tobacco remained the basis of the
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Virginia currency for over a century. This is not strange as it might seem. (1)_________. Back in
prehistoric times, sharp stones for making axes were used as money by Stone Age people. This is
understandable because they were about the only useful tools that existed at that time. Later, when
metal became more widely used, pieces of bronze were made into small knives, shirts or spades, and
these could be exchanged for the objects the represented.
In more recent times, some of the most varied items have been used as money, such as dogs’
teeth in New Guinea or whales’ teeth ins the Pacific Island. But the greatest success story among
strange currencies was undoubtedly cowrie shells, which for many centuries were accepted as payment
throughout much of Africa and Asia.
(2)_________. This had been used in some parts of the world for well over a thousand years.

Paper was invented by a Chinese government minister, T’sai Lun in AD 105. So it is not surprising
that China also introduced the first paper currency in about AD 650. This worked very well, and when
the famous traveler Marco Polo visited the empire from 1275 to 1292, during the rule of Kublai Khan,
he marved at its sophisticated use throughout the emperor’s lands.
One of the most successful forms of currency was invented during the rule of the Chinese
emperor Wu Ti. When he found himself short of cash, he made a plan to raise money from his wealthy
noblemen. First of all, the emperor collected all the white deer in the country and kept them in a royal
park. Then he passed a law saying that those who wanted to come to the emperor’s court must wear
white masks made of deer skin. (3)________. In time, the noblemen who had bought masks would
offer to sell them to colleagues in return of goods and services, and in this way the deerskins became a
type of currency.
In contrast, one of the least successful currencies of all time was the German mark in the
1920s. (4)_________. At the height of the crisis, when all the inhabitant of Berlin went into a local
cafe and ordered a coffee priced at 5,000 marks, by the time he came to pay the bill, it had risen to
8,000 marks. Prices were rising at 60 percent an hour. In the end the currency became completely
worthless. (6)_______. This, of course, was the system that had been used thousands of years ago,
long before money was invented.
A. The government had made the mistake of printing more and more paper money and as a r/esult the
money became worth less and less.
B. The gorvenment later introduced exchange rates, which made it possible for people to buy and sell
currencies from the three countries.
C. They had no option but to start once again exchanging goods and services with each other, and to
forget about money.
D. These could, of course, only be bought from him, and since he controlled their supply, he could
change fantastic prices for them.
E. In the French Sudan, they remained an acceptable currency for paying taxes until 1907, when they
finally gave way to paper.
F. History shows that almost anything can become money provided that it is relatively scarce and
people want it.
IX. Complete the following passage by filling one word for each blank.

If there is just one single thing more astonishing than the ability of the adult human being to
talk, it is the process by which someone learns to do this. Some parts of the process are still
(1)________ much a closed book, but it is for the (2)_________ part possible to describe what the
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child is doing at various stages in its development, even if we cannot account (3)________ how
exactly it learns to do these things.
In fact, research carried out by various linguists has (4)_________ rise to as many theories as
there are differences in the rate of development. A baby actually makes sounds from the moment it is
born, but for some time these are rather far removed (5)_________ articulate speech. In something like
a year, a baby will probably be at a stage where one or two syllables represent the peak of its
achievement as a speaker; one more year and it will be (6)_______ out with short phrases, and after
this it seems (7)________ time at all before the child is capable of uttering complete sentences.
Despite being a truly remarkable feat of learning, this is one that is performed by the vast
(8)_________ of human beings. Complex operations are brought (9)________ play in these dealing
with speech and language; the key (10)_______ in brain work, though tongue – work and ear – work
play a part in the whole process.
PART D. WRITING
X. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word/phrase in capitals, and so that the meaning
stays the same.
1. Please excuse Jane’s poor typing; she’s only been learning for a month. ALLOWANCES
2. This is the procedure. FOLLOWS
3. I just didn’t know what to say. LOST
4. Alison bought the big house because she wanted to open a hotel. VIEW
5. We decided to spend the afternoon exploring the shop LOOKING
XI. With 250-300 words, write about the following topic:
Increasing the price of petrol is the best way to solve growing traffic and pollution problems.
To what extent do you agree or disagree? What other measures do you think might be effective?
Give reasons for your answer with relevant examples from your knowledge and experience.
THE END
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KÌ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 11 – THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi dành cho học sinh trường THPT Chuyên)

PART A – LISTENING (2.0 PT)
I. 1.0 pt (0.1/item)
1. services marketing 6. expectations
2. legal advice 7. clients
3. weakness 8. constantly improve
4. customer numbers 9. conduct surveys
5. intangible 10. A representative
II. 1.0 pt (0.1/item)
1. over / more than 1,300,000 6. Reservation System Service
2. Univerisity Library UCard 7. check library account
3. four weeks 8. pay fine
4. closed Reserved Room 9. 50 pounds
5. renewing 10. 9 a.m – 6 p.m
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.5 PT)
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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
III. 1.0 pt (0.05/item)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. C
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. D
16. C 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A
IV. 0.5 pt (0.05/item)
1. out 2. away 3. to 4. on 5. up
6. down 7. on 8. across 9. down 10. with
V. 1.0 pt (0.1/item)

1. infancy 2. institutions 3. exclusively 4. insight 5. disappearing
6. commitment 7. inaccessible 8. loneliness 9. immersion 10. undeniable
PART C. READING (3.0 PT)
VI. 1.0 pt (0.1/item)
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B
VII. 0.5 pt (0.1/item)
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B
VIII. 0.5 pt (0.1/item)
1. F 2. E 3. D 4. A 5. C
IX. 1.0 pt (0.1/item)
1. very/pretty 2. most 3. for 4. given 5 from
6. coming 7. no 8. majority 9. into 10. lies
PART D. WRITING (2.5 PT)
X. 0.5 pt (0.1/item)
1. Please make allowances for Jane’s poor typing; she’s only been learning for a month.
2. The procedure is as follows.
3. I was lost for words.
4. Alison bought a big house with a view to opening a hotel.
5. We decided to spend the afternoon looking around the shop.
XI. 2.0 pt.
- The writing passage should be well-organized: introduction, body and ending of the passage: 0.25 pt
- The ideas should be clarified with relevant and specific examples: 1 pt
- The writing passage is supposed to be free of grammatical and spelling errors: 0.75 pt
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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 1…. - THPT NĂM HỌC 201… - 201… (ĐỀ LUYỆN 16)
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
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B. PHONETICS (5 points). Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
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19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
C. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15 points).
21. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “_________”
A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!”
Mr John: “_________”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “________”
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn’t grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test
28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. when

29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.
A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been
33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news.
37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain).
38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked ____________ (success).
39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea.
40. There was a ____________ (wide) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies.
41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her.
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases and other
____________ (sick).
43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance.
44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
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45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface).
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5 points).
46. Last week unless my mother had had enough money, she would have bought that toy for me.

A B C D
47. It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.
A B C D
48. Those people say that it is such polluted air that they can’t breath, don’t they?
A B C D
49. It is noisy enough in this room, so I would rather you stop shouting like that.
A B C D
50. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president of the university, is intelligent, capable and
A B
awareness of the problem to be solved.
C D
D. READING
I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the most suitable for
each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all of them. (5 points).
A. terrible B. size C. hope
D. wrong E. loose F. problem G. want
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people (51)________ to be fashionable, but they don’t want to
look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or school, perhaps because they are not
formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the (52)_________ size, and find that your trousers
are too tight, especially if you are a little bit overweight. Very (53)________ clothes make you feel slim, but
when they have shrunk in the washing machine, then you have the same (54)________! If you buy light cotton
clothes, then they might not be warm enough for winter. If your shoes are not tight, and if you aren’t dressed
for the cold, you might look good, but feel (55)________!
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
(10 points)
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As (56)________as 1958
about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The number of public school
libraries increased dramatically (57)_______ the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary
Education Act of 1965, ( 58)_______ provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs
and facilities, including their libraries. (59) ________, many educators claim that since the legislation was

passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (60)______ of new library
technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (61) -
_______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public school expenses. Therefore,
the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (62) ______ capabilities of the communities in which they
are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (63) _______ abundant resources,
spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (64) ______, school districts in many poor areas
house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed
by volunteers, who organize and (65) ______ books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.
56. A. freshly
57. A. though
58. A. that
59. A. Nevertheless
60. A. fine
61. A. go
62. A. educational
B. recently
B. with
B. who
B. Therefore
B. fee
B. come
B. economical
C. frequently
C. during
C. which
C. Consequently
C. cost
C. rely
C. political

D. newly
D. when
D. this
D. Otherwise
D. sum
D. stay
D. financial
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63. A. for
64. A. country
65. A. attain
B. with
B. converse
B. obtain
C. on
C. contrast
C. contain
D. by
D. conflict
D. maintain
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D(10 points).
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying,
smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh
milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas
Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail
Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became
more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880,
however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate.
Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets.

Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more
produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and
to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and
western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of
the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of
producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two
thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most
homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were
heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could
take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
66. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
67. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to
A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
68. During the 1860’s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.
69. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
70. The word” them” in line 13 refers to
A. refrigerator cars B.growers C. perishables D. distances.
71. The word” fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device
72.The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer

C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
73. The word “ Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to
A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because
74. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage
75. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
10
C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners
E. Writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentences
printed before. (5 points)
76. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
- Since
77. She was not only bad-tempered but also very lazy.
- As well
78. “ Nothing will persuade me to apply for that kind of job.” She said.
_ She flatly
79. The school I studied at last year was better than this one.
- This school isn’t
80. You must leave now, or you’ll miss the bus.
- You’ll miss
II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences of a letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I/ write/ complain/ hair drier/ buy/ your shop/ last Saturday/ and/ treatment/ I receive/ when/ I try/
return/ a few days later.
82.I buy/ hair drier/ Wednesday, November 22
nd

.
83. first time/ try/ use/ handle become/ extremely hot/ and within a few minutes/ part/ plastic casing/ begin/
melt.
84. I turn/ off/ immediately/ return/ with/ receipt/ your shop/ Saturday.
85. I explain/ situation/ one/ assistants/ ask/ money back/ but / be told/ speak/ you.
86. Unfortunately you/ not available/ that day/ I/ write instead.
87. I enclose/ hair drier/ copy of/ original receipt.
88. Please send/ full fund/ soon/ possible.
Yours faithfully,
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic: ( 10 points)
What club do you want to be founded in your school? Why?
B. PHONETICS: ( 5 points) ( 1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.
I. Choose the word, phrases or expression which best completes each sentence. ( 15 points)
( 1 point for each correct answer)
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. A 28.B
29. D 30.A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35.A
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 points)
(1 point for each correct answer)
36. THRILLING
37. EXPLANATION
38. UNSUCCESSFULLY
39. DISAGREEMENTS
40. WIDESPREAD
41. WORSENED
42. SICKNESSES
43. INFORMED
44. AWAKE
11

45. RESURFACING
III. Choose the underlined word or phrases in each sentence that needs correcting. ( 5 points)
(1 point for each correct answer)
46.A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50.C
D. READING:
I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the most suitable for
each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all of them. ( 5 points) (1 point for each
correct answer)
51. G 52.D 53.E 54.F 55.A
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space. ( 10 points)
(1 point for each correct answer)
56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer. ( 10 points)
(1 point for each correct answer)
66.D 67. A 68. B 69.B 70.C 71.A 72.C 73.B 74.B 75.C
E. WRITING.
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. ( 5 points).
( 1 point for each correct answer)
76. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
Or (Since we didn’t have anything else to do, we decided to go for a walk.)
77. As well as being bad-tempered, she’s very lazy.
78. She flatly refused to apply for that kind of job.
79. This school isn’t as/so good as the one ( that/which) I studied at last year.
Or (This school isn’t as/so good as the one at which/ where I studied last year.)
80. You’ll miss the bus if you don’t leave now.
Or (You’ll miss the bus unless you leave now.)
II. Use the words or phrases suggested to write full sentences to make a letter. ( 10 points)
Dear Sir or Madam.

81. I am writing to complain about the/a hair drier (0.5)( which/that I) bought in your shop last Saturday(0.5)
and the treatment (which/that) I received (0.5)when trying/I tried to return it a few days later.(0.5)
82. I bought the hair drier(0.5) on Wednesday, November 22
nd
.(0.5)
83. The first time I tried to use it,(0.5) the handle became extremely hot (0.5)and within a few minutes part of
the plastic casing began to melt.(0.5)
84. I turned it off immediately (0.5)and returned it with the receipt to your shop on Saturday.(0.5)
85. I explained the situation to one of the/ your assistants (0.5)and asked for my/the money back(0.5) but I
was told (that I had) to speak to you.(0.5)
86. Unfortunately, you were not available that day,(0.5) so I am writing instead.(0.5)
87. I enclose the hair drier(0.5) and a/the copy of the original receipt.(0.5)
88. Please send me a full refund (0.5) as soon as possible (0.5)
Yours faithfully.
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic. ( 10p)
Gîi ý phÇn cho ®iÓm chi tiÕt nh sau:
1. Form: (paragraph) (1 point) (§o¹n v¨n kh«ng xuèng dßng - §ñ sè tõ )
2. Content: (4 points )
Good topic sentence (0.5 p) and appropriate supporting ideas (3.5 points)
3. Language: (5 pts)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1.5p)
+ Suitable connectors (0.5)
+ Correct grammar (2.5 p)
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5p)
12
the end
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
—————
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 5 trang)

KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 11 THPT NĂM HỌC ……
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Dành cho học sinh các trường THPT không chuyên
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
————————
Part I: Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D.
1. Our holiday was_________ by the weather.
A. spoilt B. damaged C. overcome D. wasted
2. The_________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high.
A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum
3. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car
A. warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned
4. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked out B. run across
C. run out D. knocked down
5. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_________ and visited all the important museums and
buildings.
A. sight-seeing B. traveling C. looking D. touring
6. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance.
A. book B. engage C. reserve D. buy
7. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a car.
A. pride B. admiration C. surprise D. jealousy
8. He asked if we would_________ to share the room.
A. accept B. consider C. agree D. approve
9. I wondered whether you would like to_________ to the theater tomorrow.
A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out
10. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.
A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First
11. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union and the
employers.

A. refuse B. confuse C. refute D. defuse
12. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked.
A. horrified B. terror-struck C. terrorized D. terrified
13. His illness made him_________ of concentration.
A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless
14. Has the committee_________ a decision yet?
A. done B. made C. arrived D. voted
15. I am a bit hungry. I think_____________ something to eat.
A. I’ll have B. I’ll be having C. I’m going to have D. I’m having
16. What do you plan to do when you_____________ your course at college?
A. finish B. will finish
C. have finished D. is going to finish
17. Where_____________? Which hairdresser did you go to?
A. did you cut your hair B. have you cut your hair
C. did you have cut your hair D. did you have your hair cut
18. ‘Shall I stay here?’ ~ ‘I’d rather_____________ with us’.
A. you come B. you to come C. you would come D. you came
19. I_____________ saying what I think.
A. believe B. believe in C. believe for D. believe when
20. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________ just in time.
A. could stop B. could have stopped
13
C. managed to stop D. must be able to stop
Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the
space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types.
Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and
knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The
proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation are
achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a person’s

ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude
tests can help you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or
musician. However, all mental tests are in some sense achievement tests
because they assumption some sort of past learning or experience with
certainly objects, words, or situations. The difference between
achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intention use.
0. traditional → traditionally
1. _____________________
2. _____________________
3. _____________________
4. _____________________
5. _____________________
6. _____________________
7. _____________________
8. _____________________
9. _____________________
10. _____________________
Part III: Give the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blanks.
Dark black clouds in a dull sky meant one thing and one thing only: there was going to be a (1.thunder)… Not
one of us had brought an umbrella, or even a (2.rain)……. So when Jack suggested we should go to a museum,
we all agreed immediately. As we had been (3. shop)………all morning we were now feeling very tired, it would
be a (4. pleasant)……… to sit down. We took a bus and arrived just as large shops of rain were beginning to
fall.
The museum was quite (5.desert)……and very peaceful. We sat down in the main hall and listened to the rain
(6. beat)…….against the windows.
Suddenly, there was a great (7. disturb)…… at the (8. enter)……… a large party of schoolboys were (9. lead)
………in by a teacher. The poor man was trying to keep them quiet and threatening to punish them, but they
did not pay the (10.slight)……. attention.
Section B: Reading
Part I: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blanks.

Fill each numbered blank with one suitable word from the list given below.
The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists (1)………… about
250 species of fish as sharks. These fish live in oceans (2)……… the world, but they are most common in warm
seas.
Sharks (3)………….greatly in size and habits. Whale sharks, the largest kind of shark, may grow 60 feet long.
A whale shark weighs up to 15 tons, more than twice (4)…………….much as an African elephant. The smallest
shark may (5)………… only 4 inches long and weigh less than 1 ounce. Some kinds of sharks live in the depths of
the ocean, but (6)……………are found near the surface. Some species live in coastal waters, but others (7)
……………far out at sea. A few species can even live in (8)………… water.
All sharks are carnivores (meat- eaters). Most of them eat (9)…………fish, including other sharks. A shark’s
only natural enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or they tear off large chunks of flesh. They
also (10)……………… on dead or dying animals.
1. A. classify B. divide C. organize D. arrange
2. A. all B. through C. throughout D. over
3. A. grow B. rise C. evolve D. vary
4. A. as B. so C. very D. exactly
14
5. A. stretch B. measure C. develop D. expand
6. A. some others B. others C. different kinds D. some sharks
7. A. dwell B. exist C. emigrate D. migrate
8. A. fresh B. sweet C. light D. clear
9. A. uncooked B. live C. lively D. alive
10. A. eat B. swallow C. exist D. feed
Part II: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century, thirteen
vitamins have been (1)…………
A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can also (2)
…………to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to (3)…………from scurvy that is a disease resulting
from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from
scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables (4)…………vitamin C which is

necessary for good (5)…………
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will lead to
different (6)…………For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beri-beri, a disease that
causes heart problems and mental (7)…………A lack of vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while
deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The
(8)…………that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people suffering from these
illnesses by giving them doses of the (9)…… vitamins.
Today, vitamins are (10)…………in the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy.
Part III: Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best answer among A, B, C or
D.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having
incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the
1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales,
Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around
the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. That small
enslaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities
proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and
diplomacy.
Currently, more than 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two
thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising,
media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are 700 million English users in the world,
and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users of any
language in the world.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of nonnative users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an internatonal language.
D. The use of English for science and tecnology.
2. English began to be used beyond England approximately

A. in 1066 B. around
1350
C. before 1600 D. after 1600
15
3. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world
EXCEPT
A. the slave trade B. the Norman
invasion
C. missionaries. D. colonization
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Most of the information stored on computer systems is in English.
B. Only one thirds of the world’s science writing is in languages other than English.
C. English is the only language used in technology, and advertising.
D. International airports and air controllers use mostly English.
5. According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in the world today?
A. A quarter million B. Half a million
C. 350 million D. 700 million.
Part IV: Read the passage then choose the best sentences A-K to fill in each gap. There is one extra sentence
which you do not need to use:
BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME
Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound worldwide
business.
At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent of all
chocolate is bought at this time.
(1)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century, the
cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central America over three
thousand years ago.
The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central America,
the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains 20-40 seeds. (2)____. In
English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a misspelling from the 17

th
century when they
were also called cacoa and cocao beans.
The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)____. This is from the world in the Aztec language,
Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (4)____. The Spanish found the drink more palatable mixed with cinnamon
and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another century. In the late 17
th
century,
chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate.
(5)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (6)____.
The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and Sons,
combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that you could eat.
(7)____.
At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies. In
1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the French word
for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar
which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (8)____.
It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about four
bars each week. (9)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is when the humble
chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt chocoholics who have grown tired of
conventional snacks.
At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a crash in
cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for them as you munch
your next chocolate bars.
A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate.
C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.
16
D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which had to be
melted down in hot water.

E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.
F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English countryside
quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.
G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something forbidden
elsewhere.
H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.
J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial occasions and for
welcoming visitors.
K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.
Section C: Writing
Part I: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have a similar meaning with the first one.
1. “Don’t forget to phone the police”, she said
She reminded him
2. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man
3. A small church lies at the foot of the hill.
At the foot
4. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club .
Were you
5. We don’t have to do so many things to please him.
It is
6. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself.
He
7. He can’t afford to go to America this summer.
He doesn’t
8. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success .
Timmy’s success has turned
9. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time.
It's a long time

10. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too.
Not only
Part II: Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one , using the word in capital
letters which must not be altered in any way :
1. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
17
Part III: Write a composition (300 words) about the following topic:
How do movies and television influence people’s behavior? Use reasons and specific examples to support
your answer.

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI
NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh- lớp 12

Section A: Grammar & Vocabulary (40điểm)
Part I (1x 20= 20 điểm)
Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C A D A A B A C D
Câu 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D C B A A D D B C
Part II (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)

1. acquiring → acquired 6. vocation → vocational
2. explicitness → explicitly 7. like → as
3. few → a few 8. assumption → assume
4. and → to 9. certainly → certain
5. but → to 10. intention → intended
Part III (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. thunderstorm
2. raincoat
3. shopping
4. pleasure
5. deserted
6. beating
7. disturbance
8. entrance
9. led
10. slightest
Section B: Reading (35 điểm)
Part I ( 1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D
Part II (1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1.discovered 2. lead 3. suffer 4. contain 5. health
6. diseases 7. disorders 8. knowledge 9. necessary 10. available
Part III (1x 5= 5 điểm)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C `5. C
Part IV (1x 10= 10 điểm)
1.K 2.E 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.F 9.I 10H
Section C: Writing (25 điểm)
Part I (1x 10 = 10 điểm)
18
1. She reminded him to phone the police.

2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car
3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church
4. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club.
5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him.
6. He can’t have done it by himself.
7. He doesn’t have enough money to go to America this summer.
8. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person.
9. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time.
10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.
Part II (1x 5= 5 điểm)
1. You should take the price into consi…
2. there is no(longer any)/ there isn’t much call for cars……
3 .coal production/ the coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
4. there is little likelihood. The likelihood………is small of the PM calling an…/that the PM will call a…….
5. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted……
Part III (10 điểm) – Giám khảo tự cho điểm, yêu cầu:
- Thí sinh phải xác định được ảnh hưởng của phim và truyền hình đối với cách ứng xử của con người, cả
về mặt tích cực lẫn tiêu cực
- Nêu được 2- 3 ý nhỏ cho mỗi ý lớn
- Văn viết trôi chảy, diễn đạt gãy gọn (dùng cấu trúc đơn giản nhưng diễn đạt rõ ý)
- Sai không quá 5 lỗi nhỏ (về từ vựng, ngữ pháp, dùng từ… ) thì không trừ điểm
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi gồm 05 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(Dành cho học sinh THPT chuyên)
Thời gian thi: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
PART A. LISTENING
I. You’ll hear two students, Ann and Chris talking about post graduate courses in music.

Listen and give short answer to the questions from 1 to 10. You will listen to the conversation
TWICE.
1. Which college does Chris suggest would be best?
2. What entry requirements are common to all colleges?
3. How much does the course at Leeds Conservatory of Contemporary Music cost?
4. What other expenses are payable to the colleges?
5. When is the deadline of The Academy in London?
Which facilities do the colleges have?
Choose five answers from the box and write the correct letter, A – G, next to questions 6-10.
Colleges
6. Northdown College
7. The Academy in London
8. Leeds Conservatory and Contemporary Music
9. The Henry Music Institute
10. The James Academy of Music
19
Facilities
A. large garden
B. multiple sites
C. practice rooms
D. recording studio
E. research facility
F. student carteen
G. technology suite
II. You will hear a conversation about technology.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will
hear the conversation TWICE.
The Antarctic Polar View project maps Antarctic sea ice by using (1) _________.
Problems to navigate through the water:
- the safety of the ship

- the speed of the ship
- the (2)________ of the ship
NVSAT Satellite: - Collect data
- Identify difference between open water and (3) ________.
Scientists can see surface of sea clearly by using (4) ________.
Helicopter: - Advantage: - map the ice in the air
- look for (5) ________.
- Disadvantages: - much more difficulty
- (6) __________.
The colour of the map is (7) ____________.
Problems of sending pictures in Antarctic ship: (8) __________.
Measure to the problem: (9) ________ images into JPEG 2000 format.
The equipment scientists need for mapping is a (10) _________ on ship.
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. The audience couldn’t listen to the lengthy and pointless speech _________.
A. far any more B. any longer C. any more far D. any lengthier
2. He missed two most important lectures. He _________very ill.
A. had to be B. must be C. was to be D. must have been
3. Allan: “Do you mind if I use your dictionary?” Nick: “_______.”
A. I’m afraid not B. Without doubt C. No, feel free D. Straight ahead
4. Oh, I’m always forgetting _______ these medicines. Is that before or after meal, Ron?
A. when to take B. what I will take with
C. on which I should take D. when I take
5. We rang the doorbell again _______ they hadn’t heard it the first time.
A. because B. although C. for fear of D. in case
6. How boring the lecture was! I _______ just in the first half of it.
A. dropped off B. fell out C. called off D. came out
7. Will it make any _______ to them if we deliver their equipment tomorrow?

A. displeasure B. alteration C. difference D. conflict
8. What time are you _______ duty? Let’s have a coffee after that.
A. over B. on C. off D. out of
9. Don’t give up your harboring dream. _______ working harder and harder.
A. Try out B. Keep on C. Speed up D. Go off
10. It’s been a good year. I’ve written two books and a couple of articles, and _______ are now in
print.
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A. both of which B. both of them C. all of which D. all of them
11. A: Why didn't you go to work yesterday?
B: I was feeling a bit ____________.
A. under the weather B. full of hot air C. breeze D. under pressure
12. The closets are filled with things we don’t need. We should have a _______soon.
A. garage sale B. rush hour C. housekeeper D. doggy bag
13. If you want to return the suit, you must bring the __________with you as proof of purchase.
A. note B. recipe C. prescription D. receipt
14. Nancy and I had both bought exactly the same kind of school bag without knowing it. It was a
complete ____________.
A. luck B. chance C. fortune D. coincidence
15. I think some modern designs are more like ________ of art.
A. works B. makes C. objects D. jobs
16. Time will _________ whether I made a right choice or not.
A. see B. say C. know D. tell
17. That kind of dress is the _________ of fashion these days.
A. height B. top C. head D. lead
18. You are having problems now but I am sure things will change _________ the better soon.
A. on B. to C. by D. for
19. Despite being a very good student, she didn’t fulfill her ________ later in life.
A. makings B. potential C. capacity D. aptitude
20. If you _______ any problems when you arrive at the airport, give me a ring.

A. come about B. catch on C. run into D. face up
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. (0) have been
done for you.
Anthony Masters was a writer in exceptional gifts and prodigious energy. He began his eventful and
versatile career like a teenager, when he was expelled from school for organizing a revolt against the
school uniform. In order to earn a living, he fulfilled his childhood ambition and took on writing. In
1964, at the age of 23, he published A Pocketful of Rye, a collection of short stories where freshness of
style earned him a distinction of being runner – up in the John Llewellyn Rhys Memorial Prize, an
established and prestigious British – based literacy award. He made the award two years later with his
novel The Seahorse, after which he continued to display his considerable talent by writing both fiction
or non – fiction. The inspiration for many of his novels came from his experience helping the social
excluded: he ran soup kitchens for drug addicts and campaigned for the civic rights of gypsies and
another ethnic minorities. His non – fiction output was typically eclectic, ranged from biographies to
social histories, but it was a writer of children fiction that Masters outshone his contemporaries. His
work contains a sensitivity which remains unequalled by some other writer of the genre.
Answers: 0. in

of
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer
sheet.
With the development of fast motorway systems in many countries, once remote parts of the
countryside are (1. INCREASE) _________ becoming (2. ACCESS) _________ to people who live in
towns and cities. In many parts of the world, rising (3. PERSON) _________ incomes have resulted in
mass (4. OWN) _________ of motor cars at a time when people have more leisure time to fill.
This means that there is a lot of (5. PRESS) _________ on the countryside to accept a growing
number of visitors. In Britain, for example, the (6. NATION) _________ parks are used by more than
one hundred million people annually.
In (7. ADD) _________, similar numbers visit areas that do not enjoy the same level of (8.
PROTECT) _________. Some people regard this invasion of the countryside as (9. DESIRE)
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_________ and they have begun campaigning to try and save some aspects of (10. TRADITION)
_________ rural culture.
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank.
1. That factory turns ________ hundreds of small appliances everyday.
2. The boss asked me to make _______ the hours I missed last week.
3. The suspect was released from prison _______ bail.
4. Once again poor Colin has been passed _______for promotion.
5. Everyone approved of the scheme, but when we asked for volunteers they all hung _______.
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer
by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Have you ever thought about the names of the months? Why are “January” and “February” not
called “Primo” or “Secondo”? Is it because the original names were created in ancient times? Or is it
because the originators preferred odd words?
Take February, for example. Say it aloud a few minutes and you start to wonder. Most people
don’t know who developed these names. However, a little research reveals that the names of the
months came mostly from a combination of the names of Roman gods and goddesses, important
festivals, and the original numbers of the months.
Julius Caesar and Pope Gregory XIII change the calendar to make it more exact. Caesar
developed a new calendar of 364 and a quarter days, the time it takes the earth to orbit the sun from
one spring season to the next. The Pope’s astronomers refined the calendar regarding leap years; they
determined that there should be no leap year in years ending in 00- unless they were divisible by 400;
the years 1700, 1800, 1900 and 2100 would not be considered leap years, while the years 1600 and
2000 would be. This new Gregorian calendar was so accurate that today, scientists need only add leap
seconds every few years to the clock in order to keep the calendar matching the Earth’s cycles.
1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. how the modern calendar was named and developed
B. how the months were named
C. how the leap year system was developed
D. how accurate the modern day is calendar

2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author think the names of the months are __________.
A. odd B. difficult to pronounce
C. inappropriate D. none of the answers
3. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______________.
A. calendars B. days C. astronomers D. years
4. The word “accurate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. interesting B. informative C. correct D. simple
5. Which of the following will be a leap year?
A. 2300 B. 2400 C. 2200 D. 2500
6. Which of the following is true of the Gregorian calendar?
A. It needs major improvements.
B. It was so well designed, it needs little adjusting today.
C. It copied the Roman calendar’s formula of leap years.
D. none of the answers
7. Why is Caesar important in calendar making?
A. He changed the length of the year . B. He extended summer.
C. He has a month named for him. D. He altered the number of days in the year.
8. In what order is the information in the passage presented?
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A. Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian calendar, the modern calendar
B. Roman Gods, important festivals, original numbers of months
C. names of months, Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian calendar
D. none of the answers
9. The word “refined” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. studied B. invented C. observed D. improved
10. Why is the number of 364 and a quarter important?
A. It is the length of time from the beginning of spring to the end of winter.
B. It is the length of a planetary year.
C. It is the most accurate number for calendars.
D. It was a number randomly chosen by Caesar for his calendar.

II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in blanks.
The Alexandra Palace in north London was built with private funds as a “People’s Palace”.
Serviced by its own station, it was opened in 1873 and was extremely well (1)_______ until, two
weeks after its opening, it burnt down. It was replaced by a slightly larger building which opened in
1875 and featured, (2)________other things, a splendid organ an Great Hall, which was the size of a
football pitch. Despite the extraordinarily wide range of events (3)_______ there – from dog shows to
great concerts and banquets, from elephant displays to bicycle matches – it always operated at a loss
and by 1877 much of the park around it had been sold to speculative builders, leaving only about half
of the original land.
In 1900, a committee was appointed, whose principal duty was to run the palace and park “for
the free use of the people forever.” There were, however, (4) ________ to charge for entry so that the
substantial costs could be (5) _______ . The Palace continued, with (6) ________ degrees of success,
as an entertainment centre. In the 1930s, it was probably most (7) ________ for being the home of the
world’s first high definition television broadcasts.
In 1980 the building was once more devastated by fire and (8) _______ to a ruin. It was then
decided to (9) _________ it and to create a major exhibition centre with community (10)_______,
such as a restaurant and a health club.
1. A. inhabited B. attended C. crowded D. visited
2. A. among B. between C. from D. around
3. A. performed B. set C. staged D. laid
4. A. powers B. terms C. allowances D. authorities
5. A. fulfilled B. covered C. matched D. made
6. A. unsteady B. varying C. altering D. unsettled
7. A. distinct B. marked C. considerable D. notable
8. A. turned B. converted C. reduced D. wrecked
9. A. recover B. revise C. restore D. reform
10. A. facilities B. conveniences C. supplies D. appliances
III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space.
All tournament chess games are played with a chess clock – that is two clocks joined

together. When one player makes his move, he presses the button which stops his clock and starts his
opponent’s clock. (1)_________fails to keep the time limit, no (2)________ what the position on the
board, loses the game.
Weekend tournaments with a fast time limit and long sessions of play of (3)________ to
twelve hours a day are very strenuous and result in fatigue and time troubles. The play is quite sharp.
Active, attacking chess is the (4)________ of the day and it is difficult to maintain (5)_________
sustained, precise defense against such play. A score of the game must be (6)_________ as play goes
on. Each move is written down on a score sheet, which has to be handed to the tournament officials at
the end of each round. The only thought in everybody’s head is to win. Talent and youth – that’s
23
(7)_________ is needed for success at chess, with the (8)________ on youth. Some approach the
board with a slow, purposeful manner (9)________ giving you a second glance – you simply don’t
count. The seem to imply that the outcome is a foregone conclusion for them; you (10)_______ need
to accept it with good grace.
PART D. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write
your answers on your answer sheet.
1. Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn’t invest into any computer companies.
Had _______________________________________________.
2. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
On _______________________________________________.
3. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
Not only __________________________________________.
4. Because of the traffic jam, Andrew couldn't get to the interview on time.
The traffic jam ______________________________________.
5. This old car probably won’t last for more than three years.
It’s unlikely ________________________________________.
II. Write a passage of about 250 words to show your opinion on the following statement:
“Some people believe that children’s leisure activities must be educational, otherwise they are a
complete waste of time”

THE END
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………….……… …….…….….….; Số báo danh……………………
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
HƯỚNG DẪN CH ẤM
(Đề thi gồm 02 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(Dành cho học sinh THPT chuyên)
Thời gian thi: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Total: 100pts
PART A: LISTENING
I. You’ll hear two students, Ann and Chris talking about post graduate courses in music.
Listen and give short answer to the questions from 1 to 10. (5 pts)
1. The Henry Music Institute
2. a face-to-face interview/ an interview
3. 6,000 pound a year
4. the charges for applying/ application fee
5. January 30
th

Which facilities do the colleges have?
Choose five answers from the box and write the correct letter, A – G, next to questions 6-10.
(5pts)
6.E 7.B 8.C 9.G 10. D
II. You will hear a conversation about technology.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10pts)
1. satellites 6. time consumption
2. efficiency 7. (shades of) grey
24

3. (the) sea ice 8. (poor) Internet connection
4. radar 9. compress
5. leads 10. laptop
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (10pts)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. A 12. A 13. D 14. D 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. You should also
write the line of the mistakes. (10pts)
Qs Mistake Correction
1 like as
2 on up
3 where whose
4 made won
5 or and
6 social socially
7 another other
8 ranged ranging
9 children children’s
10 some any
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer
sheet. (5 pts)
1. increasingly 2. accessible 3. personal 4. ownership 5. pressure
6. national 7. addition 8. protection 9. undesirable 10. traditional
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. (5 pts)
1. out 2. up 3. on 4. over 5. back
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer
by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10pts)
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B

6. B 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. B
II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in blanks.
(10 pts)
1. B 2. A 3, C 4, A 5. B
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. A
III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
1. whoever/who 2. matter 3. up 4. order 5. a/any
6. kept 7. what 8. emphasis 9. without 10. only
PART D: WRITING
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