Bộ đề và hướng dẫn học sinh giỏi tiếng anh lớp 9 ôn tập bồi dưỡng

Tập hợp các đề thi học sinh giỏi môn tiếng anh lớp 9 có đáp án giúp các thầy cô và
các em học sinh yêu thích môn hóa học ôn tập đạt được thành tích cao trong kỳ thi
học sinh giỏi cấp huyện, cấp tỉnh.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC- ĐÀO TẠO
NAM ĐỊNH

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS
NĂM HỌC

Môn: TIẾNG ANH
(Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 09 trang
Điểm bài thi
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Bằng số: ..........................
Bằng chữ: .......................

Họ, tên và chữ ký 2 giám khảo

SỐ PHÁCH

Giám khảo 1: .........................................
Giám khảo 2: .........................................

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này.

A. LISTENING (3.0 points)
Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:
- Nội dung nghe gồm 3 bài, mỗi bài thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần;
- Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc;
- Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

PART 1. Questions 1-10 (1.0 point).
Questions 1-5.
You will hear 5 short conversations twice. There is one question for each conversation. For questions 1-5 put
a tick (√) next to the right answer. There’s an example at the beginning (0).
0. How many people were at the meeting?
A. 3
B. 13
√ C. 30
1. How will Jill go to the football match?
A. on foot
B. by bus
C. by car
2. Who’s going to visit the woman?
A. her baby
B. her sister’s son
C. her father
3. What will Ruby do tonight?
A. clean her shoes
B. do her school work C. go to the cinema
4. How much did the woman’s desk cost?
A. £66.50
B. £60.50
C. £55.00
5. Where’s the man’s watch?
A. He’s wearing it
B. on the bath
C. in the kitchen
Questions 6-10.
Listen to Amy telling her father about her shopping trip. What did she and her friends buy? For questions 610, write a letter A-H next to each person. There are two extra things which you will not need. You will hear
the conversation twice.

People
0.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Amy
Alison
Helen
Lucy
Kerry
Jo

………H……… (Example)
…………………
…………………
…………………
…………………
…………………

Things they bought
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

CD
Magazine
Mobile phone
Picture
Shoes
Suitcase


G. Sweater
H. Video
PART 2. Questions 11-15 (1.0 point).
Listen to Helen talking to her friend, Sam, about being in a rock band. For questions 11-15, tick (√) A, B or
C. You will hear the conversation twice. There’s an example at the beginning (0).
0. In Nick’s band, Helen ______
A. plays the guitar
√ B. sings
C. plays the drums
11. Sam agrees to play the guitar on ______
A. Wednesday
B. Thursday
C. Friday
12. Where does Nick’s band practice?
A. in a garage
B. at Helen’s flat
C. in Nick’s bedroom
13. Sam should bring ______
A. sandwiches
B. CDs
C. a sweater
14. The band will next play at ______

A. a party
B. a club
C. a college
15. How much does Helen earn, per night, in the band?
A. £10
B. £25
C. £110
PART 3. Questions 16-20 (1.0 point).
You will hear a woman asking about tickets for the theatre. Listen and complete questions 16-20. You will
hear the conversation twice. There’s an example at the beginning (0).

THEATRE TICKETS
Name of theatre:

(0) Queen’s

There are tickets for show on:

(16) ……………………..

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (7.0 points)

…….evening.
I. Fill in each blank with an article (a, an or the) where necessary. Write your answers in the numbered
Price for one ticket:
(17) £………………………….
spaces provided. Put a cross (X) where no article is needed. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0
point)
Get tickets from ticket office in:
(18) ……………………..….….Road

In (0) _____the______ days before (1) ___________ invention of radio and television, (2)
Show starts
at: of people made their(19)
___________
majority
own……………………...…….p.m.
entertainment at home. Many (3) ___________
evenings
spent reading (4) ___________(20)
novel,
playing the piano or painting (5) ___________
Buswere
number:
……………………..……..
picture. In many ways, people were almost forced to find (6) ___________ creative outlet in one form
or another. Things have changed a lot since then, however. Now, a typical evening’s entertainment
would be to spend (7) ___________ few hours in front of (8) ___________ television. This is not really
a very productive use of one’s time or energy and has maybe contributed to (9) ___________
breakdown of communication within (10) ___________ family.
II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
There is an example at the beginning (0). (2.0 points)
In 1894 a steamship (0.SAIL) ___was sailing___ across the Atlantic Ocean from England to
America. The sun (1.SHINE) ___________________ and a gentle breeze (2.BLOW)
___________________. The ship (3.SAIL) ___________________ for three weeks and was half way to
its destination – New York. The passengers ( 4.RELAX) ___________________ on deck when suddenly
they heard a loud bang. They all ( 5.JUMP) ___________________ up, (6.RUN) ___________________
to the edge of the boat and (7.LOOK) ___________________ over the side. To their horror they saw
that they (8.HIT) ___________________ some hard object which (9.TEAR) ___________________ a
hole in the side of the ship. Water (10.POUR) ___________________ into the steamship at an alarming
speed. Fortunately another ship arrived half an hour later, just in time to save everyone on board.

III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
There is an example at the beginning (0). (2.0 points)

E-MAIL


There can’t be many people who are ( 0. AWARE) ___unaware___ of e-mail, even if they
have never actually sent one. Although there are some ( 1.SIMILAR) ________________ between email and letters, there are also many differences. The first is that e-mail is delivered ( 2.INSTANT)
________________, so it can be a very ( 3.EFFECT) ________________ means of communication
when speed is important. This speed means that e-mail is more ( 4.PRACTICE) ________________
for communicating over large distances. Another difference is that e-mail tends to be
(5.RELATIVE) ________________ informal. People are much more likely to use language which
they would consider (6.SUIT) ________________ for a formal letter. Words spelled ( 7.CORRECT)
________________ in an e-mail are less likely to be checked than in a letter. One ( 8.EXPLAIN)
________________ for this is that an e-mail seems to be less permanent than something written on
paper. We can be sure that the future ( 9.DEVELOP) ________________ of e-mail will have all
kinds of (10.EXPECT) ________________ effects on the way we communicate.
IV. Write the verbs from the box in the gaps to complete these sentences. You will use some of the verbs more
than once. (2.0 points)
took
cut
put
turned
looked
pulled
ran
1. The journalists _________________ up with the managing editor’s reorganization of the department
for a long time before they started complaining.
2. The paper _________________ down on the number of reporters stationed in foreign countries in an
attempt to save money.

3. Someone in the street _________________ me for that TV presenter Angela Dimble and asked for my
autograph. I guess we do look similar.
4. When they offered me The Breakfast Show, I initially _________________ it down. I didn’t fancy
getting up so early every morning.
5. The receptionist _________________ me through to the wrong department by mistake, so I had to call
back.
6. The MTV Music Awards _________________ place in Los Angeles this year.
7. We always _________________ up to Peter – he was one of the best war correspondents in the history
of television.
8. They _________________ down that old TV studio last week. Apparently, they are going to build a
supermarket in its place.
9. Some friends kindly _________________ me up for a few days while I was there. It was much nicer
than staying in a hotel.
10. The newsagent _________________ out of copies of TeenPop on the first day of its publication, so he
had to order more.

C. READING (5.0 points)
I. The reading passage ‘Public Libraries’ has 7 sections I-VII. Choose the most suitable heading for each
section from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate letters (A-I) in the space provided next to each
section. There are two extra headings which you will not need. Section I has been done as an example. (1.2
points)
A. Financial support
B. Local decisions
C. Influence of people’s interests
D. Materials about Morgan horses
E. History of public libraries

F. Certain books stay in the library
G. Free services for everyone
H. A wide variety

I. Similar ways to arrange books
PUBLIC LIBRARIES

Section I. ………G…………
The word public comes from a Latin word, publicus, meaning people. A public library is for all
the people in a community to use. It charges no fee for its services. The public library will have
available, within the limits of its budget, a wide variety of books and other materials. These books or
other materials may be borrowed, or taken out for a specific time, by anyone in the community. The
library loans its materials.
Section II. ……………………
Public libraries are usually tax-supported. There are a few that are instead supported from
money that has been donated. And there are some that receive part of their money from taxes and part
from gifts.


Section III. ……………………
Few public libraries are exactly alike. Not only are the shapes and sizes of the building
different, but so are the number of books and other materials in each. Your nearest library may be like
the Los Angeles Public Library, which has over 4,538,458 books and bound periodicals (magazines and
journals) in its collection. Or it may be like the Cherokee County Public Library, which has only about
3,800 books in its collection.
Section IV. ……………………
Libraries vary in other ways, too, for instance, in the number of hours (or days) they are open or
in the number of people who work there. Most public libraries, however, arrange their books and other
materials in similar ways. They divide their collections into two basic age groups, children and adult.
Adult books are in one place; children’s books are in another. Then the books are further separated by
the kind of book. Storybooks – works of fiction – are separated from information, or fact books nonfiction.
Section V. ……………………
People often want to refer to, that is, look something up in a certain basic information book.
Thus reference books, which are rarely read cover to cover, are put in a special place in the library, a

reference section or perhaps a reference room. Reference books are never to be taken out of the library
building.
Section VI. ……………………
Each library decides for itself how it should further arrange its books and other materials. In a
large city library, certain nonfiction materials may be put into a special area or separate room. For
instance, there may be a separate room just for all the materials a library has on music. In another large
city, the music materials might not be kept so separate. It would depend on what the people in that city
had indicated they found useful.
Section VII. ……………………
A library’s holdings are everything the library has in its collection. These holdings almost
always reflect the community’s special interests. Suppose, for example, there were a town where
Morgan horses were widely raised and trained. That town’s library would most likely have a great deal
of material about Morgan horses. Since the people who were interested in Morgan horses would
probably less interested in other breeds of horses, the library might have only a small amount of
material on Mustangs or Appaloosas.
II. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Put a tick (√) next to the
correct answer. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.6 points)
TOURISM
Tourism is (0) ______ business. Millions of people around Europe (1) ______ their winters
planning their destination for the following summer, and their summers (2) ______ to foreign countries
for two weeks in the sun. They are the modern-day descendants of the aristocrats and the wealthy who
would (3) ______ months to complete the ‘Grand Tour’ of Europe. But unlike their forefathers, tourists
these days get a bad press. They’re not (4) ______ in the local culture, we’re told; they’re just after the
chance to behave a bit more wildly than they do at home. What’s (5) ______, they damage the local
environment and don’t respect the locals and their (6) ______ of life.
But are tourists really to (7) ______? Or is it the (8) ______ of the tourist industry, which has
(9) ______ to provide reasonably-priced alternatives? And if the local resort only offers a succession of
bars for the tourists to visit, can we really (10) ______ them for not doing more cultural activities?
One holiday company, Far and Away, (11) ______ that tourists are crying out for more cultural
holidays and believes that it has (12) ______ to come up with a range of package holidays which are

affordable, culturally interesting, and environmentally friendly. Their brochure, which is to be (13)
______ later this month, offers 200 holidays based on cultural themes, (14) ______ history and
architecture, learning the language, meeting the locals and war and politics.
Will Far and Away (15) ______ where other companies have failed? Next summer’s tourists
will be the ones who (16) ______.
0. A. large
√ B. big
C. heavy
D. bulky
1. A. take
B. spend
C. pass
D. make
2. A. taking away B. moving away
C. taking off
D. jetting off
3. A. spend
B. make
C. take
D. pass
4. A. devoted
B. eager
C. keen
D. interested
5. A. more
B. most
C. less
D. this
6. A. way
B. manner

C. standard
D. means
7. A. criticize
B. fault
C. blame
D. accuse


8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.

A. criticism
A. avoided
A. accuse
A. claims
A. succeeded
A. brought up
A. comprising
A. succeed
A. make

B. fault
C. blame

B. lost
C. missed
B. charge
C. criticize
B. mentions
C. informs
B. managed
C. achieved
B. brought out C. brought off
B. holding
C. containing
B. manage
C. win
B. take
C. decide

D. accusation
D. failed
D. arrest
D. persuades
D. resulted
D. brought round
D. including
D. accomplish
D. do

III. Read the passage and put a tick (√) next to the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for each of the questions
below. (2.2 points)
In the early days of the United States, postal charges were paid by the recipient, and charges
(1)

varied with the distance carried. In 1825, the United States Congress permitted local postmasters to
give letters to mail carriers for home delivery, but these carriers received no government salary and their
entire compensation depended on what they were paid by the recipients of individual letters.
In 1847 the United States Post Office Department adopted the idea of a postage stamp, which of
(5)
course simplified the payment for postal service but caused complaining by those who did not like to
prepay. Besides, the stamp covered only delivery to the post office and did not include carrying it to a
private address. In Philadelphia, for example, with a population of 150,000, people still had to go to
(10) the post office to get their mail. The confusion and congestion of individual citizens looking for their
letters was itself enough to discourage use of the mail. It is no wonder that, during the years of these
cumbersome arrangements, private letter-carrying and express businesses developed. Although their
activities were only semi-legal, they thrived, and actually advertised that between Boston and
Philadelphia they were a half-day speedier than the government mail. The government postal service
(15) lost volume to private competition and was not able to handle efficiently even the business it had.
Finally, in 1863, Congress provided that the mail carriers who delivered the mail from the post
offices to private addresses should receive a government salary, and that there should be no extra charge
(20) for that delivery. But this delivery service was at first confined to cities, and free home delivery became
a mark of urbanism. As late as 1887, a town had to have 10,000 people to be eligible for free home
delivery. In 1890, of the 75 million people in the United States, fewer than 20 million had mail
delivered free to their doors. The rest, nearly three-quarters of the population, still received no mail
unless they went to their post office.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(25)
A. The increased use of private mail services
B. The development of a government postal system
C. A comparison of urban and rural postal services
D. The history of postage stamps
2. What happened in the early days of the US postal system?
A. No postal charges were applied for letters.
B. The recipients of letters had to pay the charges.

C. The senders of letters had to pay the charges.
D. The same charges were applied for all letters.
3. The word “varied” in line 2 could best be replaced by
A. increased
B. differed
C. returned
D. started
4. The word “covered” in line 8 could best be replaced by
A. hid
B. protected
C. included
D. spread
5. Which of the following was seen as a disadvantage of the postage stamp?
A. It had to be purchased by the sender in advance.
B. It increased the cost of mail delivery.
C. It was difficult to affix to letters.
D. It was easy to imitate.
6. Why does the author mention the city of Philadelphia in line 9?
A. It was the site of the first post office in the United States.
B. Its postal service was inadequate for its population.
C. It was the largest city in the United States in 1847.
D. It was honored by the first United States postage stamp.
7. The word “cumbersome” in line 12 is closest in meaning to
A. troublesome B. handsome
C. hateful
D. quarrelsome


8. The word “they” in line 14 refers to
A. Boston and Philadelphia

B. Businesses
C. arrangements
D. letters
9. The private postal services of the nineteenth century claimed that they could do which of the following
better than the government?
A. Deliver a higher volume of mail.
B. Deliver mail more cheaply.
C. Deliver mail faster.
D. Deliver mail to rural areas.
10. In 1863 the United States government began providing which of the following to mail carriers?
A. A salary
B. housing
C. transportation
D. free postage stamps
11. The word “confined” in line 21 is closest in meaning to
A. granted
B. scheduled
C. limited
D. recommended

D. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Use suggestions to make complete sentences. Make any changes necessary. You can add more
words but cannot omit the given words. Write your answers in the space provided. There is an
example at the beginning (0). (1.6 points)
0. He/ often/ go/ school/ foot.
He often goes to school on foot.
1. Nick/ not get/ good marks/ unless/ he/ study/ harder.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Last night/ after/ Tim/ have/ dinner/ he/ do/ homework/ bedroom.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. It/ such/ cold/ weather/ we/ just/ want/ stay/ indoors.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. Martin/ try/ take/ medicine/ his cold.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. Kate/ refuse/ lend/ man/ money/ because/ not/ meet/ him/ before.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. Fashion/ change/ every year/ and/ people/ nowadays/ love/ keep/ update trend.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
7. I/ glad/ you/ take part/ Summer camp/ International students/ my city/ next May.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
8. If/ it/ not/ be/ for/ his innocence/ he/ not/ got/ trouble.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
II. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the clues at the
beginning of each sentence. There’s an example at the beginning (0). (1.4 points)
0. Ryota started working here in 2011.
 Ryota has been working here since 2011.
1. Driving fast is dangerous, whether you are an experienced driver or not.
 However __________________________________________________________.
2. In spite of all our warnings, he walked into the woods alone.
 Although we _______________________________________________________.
3. It is said that his wife died in a foreign country.
 His wife ___________________________________________________________.
4. The cook said that they had run out of cooking oil.
 The cook said that there wasn’t _________________________________________.
5. On arriving at an airport, I usually go straight to the check-in desk.

 I usually go straight to the check-in desk as _______________________________.
6. Such success has not been achieved by many players in the world of ice hockey.
 Only a few _________________________________________________________.
7. You must show your student card as you enter the library.
 You are ___________________________________________________________.


III. Writing an argument: (2.0 points)
It is said that ‘Living in a big city gives us lots of advantages’. What’s your opinion? Give
reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
You should write about 150 words.
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--------- THE END --------

SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO
NAM ĐỊNH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS
NĂM HỌC 2011-2012
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

A. LISTENING (3.0 points)
PART 1. (1.0 point)
- 0.1 point for each correct answer.
1A
6F

2B
7B

3C
8G

4A
9D

5B
10A

14C

15B

PART 2. (1.0 point)

-

0.2 point for each correct answer.
11B

12A

13C

PART 3. (1.0 point)

-

0.2 point for each correct answer.
16. Wednesday 17. 8.50
18. FERRET

19. 7.45

20. 136

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
I. Article. (1.0 point)
- 0.1 point for each correct answer.
1. the
2.the
3.X
6.a
7.a
8.the/a

4.a
9.the

5.a
10.the

II. Verb-form. (2.0 points)
- 0.2 point for each correct answer.
1. was shining 2. was blowing 3. had been sailing
4. were relaxing
5. jumped
6. ran
7. looked
8. had hit
9. had torn
10. was pouring/ had been pouring


III. Word-form. (2.0 points)
- 0.2 point for each correct answer.
1. similarities
2. instantly
5. relatively
6. suitable
9. development 10. unexpected

3. effective
7. incorrectly

IV. Phrasal verbs. (2.0 points)

- 0.2 point for each correct answer.
1. put
2. cut
3. took
6. took
7. looked
8. pulled

4. turned
9. put

4. practical
8. explanation

5. put
10. ran

C. READING (5.0 points)
I. Matching titles and paragraphs. (1.2 points)
- 0.2 point for each correct answer.
2A
3H
4I
5F
6B
7C
II. Closing reading. (1.6 points)
- 0.1 point for each correct answer.
1B
2D

3C
4D
5A
11A 12B 13B 14D 15A

6A
16C

7C

8B

9D

10C

III. MCQ reading. (2.2 points)
- 0.2 point for each correct answer.
1B
2B
3B
4C
5A

6B

7A

8B

9C

10A

11C

D. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Use suggestions to make sentences. (1.6 points)
- 0.2 point for each correct answer.
1. Nick will not/cannot get good marks unless he studies harder.
2. Last night after Tim had had dinner, he did his homework in his bedroom.
3. It is/was such cold weather that we just want/wanted to stay indoors.
4. Martin tried to take the/ some medicine for his cold.
5. Kate refused to lend the man some money because she hadn’t met him before.
6. Fashion changes every year and people nowadays love keeping update trend.
7. I am (very) glad that you are taking part in the summer camp for international students in my city
next May.
8. If it hadn’t been for his innocence, he wouldn’t have got into trouble.
II. Finish second sentences. (1.4 points)
- 0.1 point for each correct answer.
1. However experienced you are, driving fast is dangerous.
2. Although we had warned him, he walked into the woods alone.
3. His wife is said to have died in a foreign country.
4. The cook said that there wasn’t any cooking oil left.
5. I usually go straight to the check-in desk as (soon as) I arrive at/ get to an airport.
6. Only a few people/ players have achieved such success in the world of ice hockey.
7. You are required/ asked to show your student card as you enter the library.
III. Writing an argument. (2.0 points)
Marking scheme
The impression mark is based on the following scheme:

1. Format. (0.2 point) - the argument has 3 parts: the Introduction ( 01 para), the body (01 or more
para) and the conclusion (01 para).
2. Content. (1.0 point): a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
Note:
- Students can totally agree/ disagree or partly agree
- Students can give their opinion right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his or her
own opinion in the conclusion.
3. Language. (0.5 point): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of secondary
gifted students
4. Presentation. (0.3 point): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of secondary
gifted students.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
NAM ĐỊNH

BÀI THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
Năm học

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
Đề thi này có 07 trang

Điểm bài thi

Họ, tên và chữ ký 2 giám khảo

Bằng số: ....................................
Bằng chữ: ..................................

Giám khảo 1: .........................................
Giám khảo 2: .........................................

SỐ PHÁCH
(Do hội đồng chấm
thi ghi)

PART A. PHONETICS (1.0 point)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
circling A, B, C or D. (0) is an example. (0.5 p)
0.
A. climate
B. comprise
©. notice
1.
A. hobby
B. honest
C. humor
2.
A. mention
B. option
C. federation
3.
A. ghost
B. office
C. long

4.
A. locate
B. celebrate
C. considerate
5.
A. photographs
B. passengers
C. catalogues

that of the others by
D. divide
D. happen
D. suggestion
D. modern
D. nominate
D. highlands

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D.
(0) is an example. (0.5 p)
0. A. ethnic
B. area
©. comprise
D. Buddhist
1. A. prevent
B. purpose
C. pollute
D. protect
2. A. notice
B. peaceful
C. region

D. divide
3. A. primary
B. religion
C. tropical
D. friendliness
4. A. magazine
B. understand
C. embroider
D. entertain
5. A. territory
B. mausoleum
C. recognition
D. federation

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3.0 points)
I. Choose the best word or phrase to complete the following sentences by circling A, B, C or D. (0)
is an example. (1.0 p)
0. After two hours traveling by bus, we finally ______ Vung Tau.
A. came
B. got
©. reached
1. Let’s go somewhere for a drink, ______?
A. will we
B. won’t we
C. shall we

D. went
D. shan’t we

2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

My sister can make her own clothes and design her own ______.
A. models
B. labels
C. sizes
D. styles
The new secretary in the sales department is a fast typist but her letters are full of spelling_____.
A. errors
B. mistakes
C. tricks
D. faults
His uncle was the last man ______ in the Second War World.
A. to die
B. died
C. to be died
D. was died
"What are you doing?" - “________”
A. It doesn't touch you.
B. It’s none of your business.
C. You don't enter at all.
D. Look after your own affairs.

Eating, together with chatting, ______ among the most popular activities at recess at school in
America.
A. are
B. is
C. has been
D. have been
Ba and his family had ______ to their home village.
A. a two-days trip
B. a two-day trips
C. a two-day trip
D. two-day trips
He devoted a lifetime ______with disabled children.
A. to work
B. work
C. to working
D. working
Advice is given ______ students can choose the best course.
A. so as
B. for
C. in order that
D. in order to
It is strongly recommended that the machines ______every year.
A. check
B. checked
C. are checked
D. be checked

II. Each of the following sentences has ONE mistake. Underline the mistake and write the
correction in the provided blank on the right. (0) is an example. (0.5 p)
Questions

0. She is taking trip with her friends.
1. However cheap it is, poor quality products never appeal to customers.
2. So far, Linda has been writing five novels on the problems teenagers
have to cope with in the new world.
3. The mother was pleasant surprised when her daughter came to visit her.
4. My cousin composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the
major Broadway musicals.
5. They thought that it had been a very satisfied dinner.

Correction
a trip

III. Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. Write your answers on the numbered
blanks. (0) is an example. (1.0 p)
Have you ever got really caught in the excitement and emotion of good action film, and
wondered in (0. AMAZE) amazement how film stars manage to perform dangerous acts like
jumping off buildings or driving at great speed? Of course, it is only a ( 1.MOMENT)
____________________ feeling as it is no secret that the real ( 2.PERFORM)
____________________ are almost invariably stunt men or women, who can earn a very good
(3.LIVE) ____________________ by standing in for the stars when necessary. The work is
incredibly demanding, and before qualifying for this job they have to undergo a rigorous training
program and (4.PROOF) ____________________ their ability in a number of sports (5.INCLUDE)
____________________ skiing, riding and gymnastics.
(6.NATURE) ____________________, the safety of the stunt performer is of the utmost
importance. Much depends on the performer getting time exactly right so everything is planned
down to the (7.TINY) ____________________ detail. In a scene which involves a complicated
series of actions, there is no time for careless mistakes. A stunt man or woman often has only one
chance of getting things right, (8.LIKE) ____________________ film stars, who can if necessary,
film a scene (9.REPEAT) ____________________ until it gains the director’s (10.APPROVE)
____________________.

IV. Fill in each gap with an appropriate preposition or particle. (0) is an example. (0.5 p)
0.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Could you look
after
the baby while I was going out?
You can't rely ______________ the post. It’s always late.
Don't blame me ______________ what happened. It wasn't my fault.
Keep away ______________ those electrical wires.
I'm rather anxious ______________ her, I haven't received a letter from her.
He promised her an Oxford dictionary, but disappointingly he went ______________ on his word.


PART C. READING (3.0 points)
I. The reading passage ‘Hire me’ has 6 sections I-VI. Choose the most suitable heading for each
section from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate letters (A-H) in the space provided
next to each section. There are two extra headings which you will not need. Section I has been
done as an example. (1.0 p)
A. Learning from the experienced
B. Networking on the bus
C. Finding out about your interests
D. Meeting more people
E. Talking to friends and family
F. Checking help wanted ads
G. Attending job fairs

H. Using telephone directory
HIRE ME
Section I. ………E……………
Many of the leads on new jobs will come from people that know you the best. To increase
referrals from this group, make sure they know the types of jobs you are seeking. You also need to
be looking out for them, so know their interests. Remember, networking is a two-way street.
Section II. ……………………
You name it and there is an association or group for it. Associations are groups of people
that have at least one thing in common. You can start by using the yellow pages under
associations to find one that may appeal to you. They usually meet once a month to network and
share ideas that are related to their interests. This is a great way to build your networking contacts
with people that share some of your goals.
Section III. ……………………
We use it every day to find doctor, dentist, plumber or anything else in town. Why not use
the yellow pages to find a job? Before you open the yellow pages, write down what you want to
find out so that you won’t waste either your time or the employer’s time. The best times to call most
businesses are from 9:30 a.m to 11:00 a.m and 1:30 p.m to 3:00 p.m. All you are asking is, “How
do I obtain employment with your company?” Some companies now have voicemail called “job
lines” to tell you of the procedures. Be ready to write down the information. I recommend that you
purchase a street map book of the city. The book will help you pinpoint the location of the
business. The book will also prevent you from asking the question, “Can you give the directions?”
Always thank them for their time. Remember – you interrupt their day.
Section IV. ……………………
Every Sunday thousands of employers place job openings in the major papers and smaller
local community papers throughout the city to attract needed personnel to service their customers.
Before you seek the information, you will need to ask the following three questions: 1) Where do I
want to work? 2) Which fields interest me? 3) Do I have the required skills to apply for this
position? For the best results, respond to the ad within 48 hours of printing. Many ads only want
you to fax or apply in person – so follow the rules.
Section V. ……………………

Hidden behind all those voicemail boxes is a real person. Job fairs enable you to meet
them face to face. Plan on attending at least four job fairs per year. At each job fair, meet at least 6
to 10 people. Follow up with the people you meet with a thank-you card or letter. Job fairs can be a
great opportunity to find out what skills you need to learn to get into a specific field. Job fairs are
like a wedding reception line. Shake hands, talk for one or two minutes and move on to the next in
line. Your goal is to get a contact inside the company.
Section VI. ……………………
Every working day we get in our cars and line up like cattle to move down the roadways,
each of us alone in our cars. Try taking the bus and use this time to network. Think of the bus as a
small informational meeting of 40 people. Start your approach with a friendly “Hello”. Some people
may not say it back to you. In time you may meet some contacts through taking the bus. If
networking on the bus doesn’t work for you, at least you can take advantage of the other benefits
of riding the bus – using the time to organize your day, read the paper or a good book, saving over
200 gallons of gas per year, paying no parking fees – and you can wave at your friends stuck in
the slow lane.
II. Fill in each numbered blank from 1-10 with one suitable word. Write the words in the spaces
provided. (0) is an example. (1.0 p)


Hawaii is famous (0)
all
over the world for its stable climate. The temperature
(1) __________________ changes that much and ocean currents keep it cool, even (2)
__________________ the area lies within the tropics. The western sides of the islands are dry,
while further to the north, (3) __________________ the island is more mountainous, there is a
high level of rainfall, in some places higher than (4) __________________ else in the world.
The stable climate and the fertile soil are the reasons (5) __________________ agriculture
being an important source of income. Pineapples and sugar (6) __________________ grown all
year round. Tourism is also important, although it is banned on (7) __________________ few of
the islands.

Hawaii is covered with flowers the (8) __________________ year round. There are more
than 1700 species of flowering plants and trees and many of them (9) __________________ been
imported from around the world. You will never forget a visit (10) ___________________ this
island paradise in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.
III. Read the passage and circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for each of the questions below.
(1.0 p)
It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an
(1)
education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to
school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no
bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or
(5)
on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe
of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people
debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a
certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a
stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged
(10)
in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong
process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral
part of one's entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern
varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at
(15)
approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks,
do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are
the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the
boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not
likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the

(20)
newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the
formalized process of schooling.
1. What’s the best title for the passage?
A. Getting an education
B. The difference between schooling and education
C. Education is much more open-ended than schooling
D. It’s never late to get an education
2. What does the author probably mean by using the expression "children interrupt their education
to go to school" (lines 2-3)?
A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.
B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.
C. Summer school makes the school year too long.
D. All of life is an education.
3. The word "bounds" in line 5 is closest in meaning to
A. rules
B. experiences
C. limits
D. exceptions
4. What does the word “it” in line 6 refer to?
A. school
B. schooling
C. education
D. job
5. All of the following are true about education EXCEPT ______
A. It is a bigger term than schooling.
B. Its agents vary greatly.
C. It consists of both formal and informal learning.
D. It takes places almost everywhere except the schools.
6. The word "chance" in line 10 is closest in meaning to ______

A. unplanned
B. unusual
C. lengthy
D. lively
7. The word "they" in line 18 refers to
A. slices of reality
B. similar textbooks
C. boundaries
D. seats


8. The phrase "For example," line 19, introduces a sentence that gives examples of
A. similar textbooks
B. the results of schooling
C. the workings of a government
D. the boundaries of classroom subjects
9. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.
B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.
C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
D. Education involves many years of professional training.
10. The passage is organized by
A. listing and discussing several educational problems
B. contrasting the meanings of two related words
C. narrating a story about excellent teachers
D. giving examples of different kinds of Schools

PART D. WRITING (3.0 points)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given in capital letters at the end. Do not change the word given. There is an example at the

beginning (0). (1.0 p)
0. It’s a pity I can’t come to your birthday party. COULD
 I wish I could come to your birthday party.
1. Please don’t tell my mum the truth. RATHER
 I’d ………………………………………………………my mum the truth.
2. “Why don’t we meet to discuss the pay order?” John to me. SUGGESTED
John …………………………………..….…………….………the pay order.
3. Tim’s brother thought that somebody had killed him with a gun. BEEN
 Tim………………………………………….………………………………..………………… with a gun.
4. I couldn’t concentrate because of the noise coming from the next room. HARD
 The noise coming from the next room…………………….…………...………………..to concentrate.
5. That contestant didn’t succeed in getting to the final round of the quiz show. TO
 That contestant didn’t ……………………………..…………to the final round of the quiz show.
6. Since we’ve run out of tea, I’d better go and buy some. LEFT
 Since there……………..……………………..…….……I’d better go and buy some.
7. The police asked the woman to describe the thief in detail. FULL
 The police asked the woman to give them…………………………….……..………………the thief.
8. The flooding led to the road being closed. RESULT
 The road had to ……………………………………………………… the flooding.
9. It’s a pity I have to go to my cousin’s wedding today. ONLY
 If……………..……………………..………………………..… to my cousin’s wedding today.
10. “You’d better not go out for a walk,” said my father. ADVISED
 My father……………..……..………………………….…………going for a walk.
II. Use suggestions to make complete sentences. Make any changes necessary. You can
add more words but cannot omit the given words. Write your answers in the spaces
provided. (0) is an example. (1.0 p)
0. She/ usually take/ bus/ school.
She usually takes a bus to school.
1. Mr.Brown/ teach English/ six years now.
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………….....................

2. The recent earthquake/ cause/ serious damage/ Japan’s economy.
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………….....................
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………….....................
3. If/ I/ you/ I/ take/ public transport/ school/ avoid traffic jams/ save energy.
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………….....................
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………….....................
4. It/ essential that/ the boy/ have/ good command/ English.
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………….....................
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………….....................
5. We/ having/ very good/ time/ together/ help us/ strengthen/ friendship.
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………….....................
…………………………..…………………………………………………………………….....................


III. Writing an argument. (1.0 p)
Pollution is becoming more and more serious, not only in developed countries but also in
developing and underdeveloped ones all over the world. It is said that “Pollution comes from
human activities”. What’s your opinion?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
Your argument must be between 120 and 150 words.
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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH OAI
TRƯỜNG THCS CAO DƯƠNG

--------THE END------ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Năm học: 2015 – 2016
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.
Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:……………..

………………………………………...

- Bằng chữ:……………
………………………...

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2:
………………………………………...

Số phách
(Do Chủ tịch hội đồng
chấm thi ghi)

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)
Listen to the tape and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word: (0.2 × 15=3.0pts)
DIFERENCES
Are you tall or short? Are you big or small?
People come in many different (1)……………………… and sizes.
(2)……………………… people wear size small (3)………………………, other people wear size (4)
……………………… clothes. There are people who wear large size clothes, some people (5)
……………………… wear extra large clothes.
Some people are (6)………………………, some people are fat, some people are in (7)……………………….
There are people (8)……………………… short hair, other people have long hair, some people have no hair at
all. No two people are exactly (9)……………………….
Some people have long legs - I have short legs. I don't walk as fast as a (10)……………………… with long
(11)………………………, I am not a tall person. In fact, I am quite short.
My feet are a size (12)………………………, my mother has size five (13)………………………, my father
has size twelve feet.
We are all (14)……………………… sizes but is not a bad thing.
It is a good thing that we are all (15)……………………….


PART TWO: PHONETICS (2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C
or D (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
1. A. nature

B. natural
C. volcano
D. waste
2. A. conserve
B. preserve
C. reserve
D. exhaust
3. A. honour
B. hero
C. held
D. happy
4. A. champion
B. character
C. match
D. cheerful
5. A. spread
B. disease
C. health
D. pleasure
II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (0,2 x
5 = 1.0 pt)
1/
2/
3/
4/
5/

A. accident
A. despite
A. chemistry

A. injury
A. spontaneous

B. indicator
B. dislike
B. physics
B. intend
B. secondary

C. magnificent
C. despair
C. geography
C. income
C. honesty

D. longitude
D. distance
D. literature
D. interest
D. monarchy

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.5 pts)
I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.1 x 15 = 1,5 pts)
1. His parents died when he was very young so he was ………….…………..by an aunt.
A. grown up
B. taken care
C. taken after
D. brought up
2. It was very………….…………..of you to lend us your car for the whole week.
A. generous

B. ambitious
C. modest
D. thoughtless
3. I’m going to take a couple of days………….…..…..next month to help my sister move house.
A. over
B. off
C. out
D. up
4. I’m surprising the performance went so well after only three………….…………..
A. auditions
B. applauses
C. rehearsals
D. directions
5. If he ………….…………..more slowly, he would have been able to stop.
A. had been driving
B. has driven
C. drove
D. didn’t drive
6. ………….…………..I’m eating less than usual, I still seem to be gaining weight.
A. Because
B. If
C. Unless
D. Although
7. Susan………….…………..as a nurse for three years before her marriage.
A. worked
B. is working
C. has worked
D. has been working
8. The police questioned me at some length and I didn’t enjoy………….…………..
A. to question

B. questioning
C. being questioned
D. to be questioned
9. You need to talk to a person……………………..you can trust. You will feel better if you do.
A. whose
B. which
C. whom
D. Ø
10. We shall have to………….…………..the meeting until next weekend, I’m afraid.
A. reorganize
B. forward
C. replace
D. postpone
11. The air is not as pure as it ……………………
A. used to be
B. is used to be
C. is used to being
D. was used to be
12. The politician ……………………to admit that he had done anything wrong.
A. accepted
B. denied
C. explained
D. refused
13. I wanted some tea but there was……………………left in the pot.
A. none
B. nothing
C. any
D. no
14. Why don’t you buy bananas when they are much……………………apples?
A. expensive than

B. not expensive than
C. less expensive than
D. lesser expensive than
15. He has arrived, but he talks as if he……………………all about that.
A. know
B. knows
C. known
D. knew
II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)
1. My younger brhother’s birthday is ………………….. January 24.
2. My closed friend, Linh, rented a house next door ………………….. mine.
3. Last night I spoke to my parents ………………….. my hobby.
4. Lan’s school is preparing ………………….. the coming May Day.


5. The teacher has divided their class ………………….. four small groups.
6. Environmentalists are concerned ………………….. the use of dynamite to catch fish.
7. Every body was surprised ………………….. the news
8. These pictures remind me ………………….. my childhood.
9. That old man doesn’t take much exercise apart ………………….. walking.
10. Some designers have modernized the Ao dai ………………….. printing lines of poetry on
it.
III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2x10 = 2.0 pts)
1. We remain close friends, despite having had many………….…………..
(ARGUE)
2. This is a lovely place all year round because of the great ………….………….. of flowers and trees which
grow in the city center.
(VARY)
3. The accident was tragic because of its suddenness causing the………….………….. of many passengers
who would otherwise have been saved.

(DEAD)
4. Contrary to popular………….………….. Walt Disney’s first theme park was not Disneyland. It was a
garden in Bel Air, California.
(BELIEVE)
5. The weather made their progress imppossible. As it had been raining ………….………….. all night, they
had to be very careful as they walked through the thick jungle.
(HEAVY)
6. Most ………….………….. who visit Britain are surprised to find that its inhabitants are more informal than
they had imagined.
(FOREIGN)
7. Gold has several qualities that have made it a commodity of ………….………….. value
throughout history.
(EXCEPTION)
8. All the pupils must have their parents’………….………….. to go for the picnic. (PERMIT)
9. Tim is one of the ………….………….. on a boat trip on Lake Michigan. (PARTICIPATE)
10. I received a letter of………….………….. from the airport.
(CONFIRM)
IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the brackets. (0.2
x 10 = 2.0 pts)
1. When the liner (1. hit) ………….…………..the ice berg, most of the passengers (2. have) ………….
…………..dinner.
2. The identity of Jack the Ripper, a murder responsible for a number of horrendous killings in the nineteenth
century, never (3. establish) ………….…………..
3. Foreign currency can (4. convert) ………….…………..into sterling at a number of points in the city, but the
best rate and lowest commission charges (5. provide) ………….………….. at banks.
4. My brother spent hours (6. repair) ………….………….. his motorbike yesterday.
5. Don’t forget to bring my dictionary when you (7. come………….…………..) back tomorrow.
6. We can’t find our motorbike. You (8. see) ………….………….. it?
7. The ao dai (9. mention) ………….………….. in poems and songs for centuries, and
nowadays they are

worn by many Vietnamese women at work.
8. Would you mind (10. show) ………….………….. me how to send an e-mail?
PART FOUR: READING (4.0 pts)
I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)
Today, in China, (1)………….…………..large scale destruction of forests has occurred, the government has
required that every citizen (2)………….…………..the age of 11 and 60 plant three to five trees (3)………….
…………..year or do the equivalent amount of work in other forest (4)………….………….. The government
claims that at (5)………….…………..1000 million trees have been planted in China every year (6)………….
…………..1982. In western countries, increasing consumer demand for wood products that have been produced
cause forest landowners and forest industries to become (7)………….…………..accoutable for their forest
management and timber harvesting practices.
The Arbor Day Foundation’s Rain Forest Rescue program is a charity that helps to (8)………….
…………..deforestation. The charity uses money to buy up (9)………….…………..preserve rainforest land
before the lumber companies can buy it. The Arbor Day Foundation then (10)………….…………..the land
from deferestation.
B. which
C. that
D. where
1. A. whom
B. between
C. of
D. in
2. A. on


3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

8.
9.
10.

A.
A.
A.
A.
A.
A.
A.
A.

the
services
least
in
increase
pollute
and
protects

B.
B.
B.
B.
B.
B.
B.
B.

for
destructions
the least
since
increasing
motivate
nor
supplies

C.
C.
C.
C.
C.
C.
C.
C.

per
extinction
last
for
increasingly
encourage
or
provides

D.
D.

D.
D.
D.
D.
D.
D.

many
damage
the last
ago
increased
prevent
but
destroy

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)
People are destroying the Earth. The seas and rivers are too dirty (1)………….……..…. swim in. There is (2)
………….……..…. much smoke in the air that it is unhealthy to (3)………….……..…. in many of the world’s
cities. On one well known city, for examples, poisonous gases from cars (4)………….……..…. the air so much
that policemen have to wear oxygen masks. We (5)…………….…..…. cut down so many trees that there are
now vast areas of wasteland all over the world. As a (6)………….……..…., so many farmers in parts of Africa
can not (7)………….……..…. enough to eat. In some countries in Asia (8)………….……..…., is so little rice.
Moreover, we do not take enough care of the countryside wild animals are quickly (9)………….……..….. For
instance, tigers are rare in India now because we have killed too many for them to survive. However, it isn’t so
simple to talk about the (10)………….…..….. We must act now before it is too late to do anything about it. Join
us now!
III. Circle best option A, B, C or D to answer following questions: (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
Dear Grandma and Grandpa,
Thank you both for the wonderful wedding present. Both Jill and I have always wanted to go to France

and visit the many museums. We were so shocked when we first saw the airplane tickets that we almost fainted!
It was more than we could have hoped to receive airplane tickets to France as a wedding present! Paris is
wonderful! The only trouble is trying to decide where to go. I want to go to the museums, but Jill wants to see
more of the beautiful traditional churches. In the end, we decided to see the churches in the morning (when the
weather is cool), and the museums in the afternoon (because they’re air-conditioned). This allows us to get the
most sight-seeing done during our two-week stay. There are many coffee shops, too. Jill likes sitting outsite and
watching people, but I like sitting inside where I can enjoy the smell of the coffee. French coffees are so much
more aromantic and stronger than the coffee we are used to back home. Thanks again for the lovely trip! We
sent you a postcard, but I think we will arrive back home before you get it. It is a picture of the Eiffel Tower.
Love,
Freddy and Jill
1. What did Freddy’s grandparents give him and Jill for a wedding present?
A. Tickets to a museum
B. A cake
C. Some coffee
D. A trip to France
2. Based on this letter, which of the following could be inferred?
A. Freddy and Jill hate to travel.
B. Freddy is an indoor person, and Jill is an outdoor person.
C. Freddy is an outdoor person, and Jill is an indoor person.
D. Both Freddy and Jill are indoor people.
3. Why did they decided to visit the museum in the afternoon?
A. The art is better in the afternoon.
B. They could get a discounted price in the afternoon.
C. The museums are closed in the mornings.
D. The weather is hot and the museums have air conditioning.
4. How long was their trip?
A. The reading does not say
B. One week
C. Two weeks

D. One month
5. Freddy likes sitting inside the coffee shops………………………….
A. because he enjoys the smell of French coffee. B. because it often rains outside.
C. because it’s too cold to sit outside.
D. because he likes to enjoy the music
PART FIVE: WRITING (4.5)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (0.2x5=1.0pt)


1. I can not go on a picnic with you because I’m not free today.
-> If I ……………... ……………………………………………………………………….
2. They said that he was the best student in his group.
-> He.……………... ……………………………………………………………………….
3. Mr. Maile was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to his wife at the airport.
-> Mr. Maile regretted .…………………………………………………………………….
4. Weather conditions influence most people’s lives.
-> Most people’s lives …….…………... …………………………………………………..
5. Lan was always ontime until she started going out with Nam.
-> Lan never used .....……………………………………………………………………….
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in
brackets. Do not change the words in any way. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
1. He left the letter on the table. He wanted me to be sure seeing it when I came in.(so that)
-> ………………... ……………………………………………………………………….
2. The book consists of four parts. One of them has been translated into English. (which).
-> ………………... ……………………………………………………………………….
3. “You shouldn’t get up until you feel better”, the doctor said (advised)
-> ………………... ……………………………………………………………………….
4. John hasn’t been back to his native village for nearly thirty years now. (since)
-> ………………... ……………………………………………………………………….
5. Williamson, the policeman, lived next door.

(whose)
-> The policeman…………………………………….………………….……next door.
III. In about 200 words write about your mother - the one you love most of all: (2.5 pts)
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI 9
THANH OAI
Môn: Tiếng Anh
TRƯỜNG THCS CAO DƯƠNG
Năm học: 2015 – 2016

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)
Listen to the tape and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word: (0.2 × 15=3.0pts)
1. shapes

2. Some
3. clothes
4. medium
5. even
6. thin
7. between
8. with
9. alike
10. person
11. legs
12. seven
13. feet
14. different
15. unique
PART TWO: PHONETICS (2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word in each group which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the
others (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
1.
B. natural


2.

A. conserve

3.

A. honour

4.

B. character

5.

B. disease

II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (0.2 ×
5=1.0 pt):
1/
2/
3/
4/
5/
C. magnificent
D. distance
C. geography
B. intend
A. spontaneous
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.5 pts)
I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.1 × 15 = 1.5 pts)
(15 × 0.1 = 1.5 pts)
1-D
2-A
3-C
4-D
5-A
11 - A
12 - D
13 - B

14 - C
15 - D
II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)
1. on
2. to
3. about
4. for
5. into
6. about
7. at / by
8. of
9. from
10. by
III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2x10 = 2.0 pts)
1. arguments
2. variety
3. dealth
4. belief
5. heavily
6. foreigners
7. exceptional
8. permission
9. participants
10. confirmation
IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the brackets. (0.2
x 10 = 2.0 pts)
1. 1. hit
2. were having
3. has never been
4. be converted

5. are provided
established
6. repairing
7. come
8. Have…seen
9. has been mentioned
10. showing
PART FOUR: READING (4.0 pts)
I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)
1. D. where
6. B. since

2. B. between
7. C. increasingly

3. C. per
8. D. prevent

4. A. services
9. A. and

5. A. least
10. A. protects

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)
1.
to
2.
so
3.

live
4.
pollute
5.
6.
result
7.
grow
8.
there
9.
disappearing
10.
III. Circle best option A, B, C or D to answer following questions: (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
1. D. A trip to France
2. B. Freddy is an indoor person, and Jill is an outdoor person.
3. D. The weather is hot and the museums have air conditioning.
4. C. Two weeks
5. A. because he enjoys the smell of French coffee.
PART FIVE: WRITING (4.5)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one.
(0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
1. If I were free today, I could go on a picnic with you.
2. He was said to be the best student in his group.
3. Mr. Maile regretted not having said goodbye to his wife at the airport.
4. Most people’s lives are influenced by weather conditions.

have
problem

5. Lan never used to be late until she started going out with Nam.
6. You can’t have locked the door. Here’s the key.
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in
brackets. Do not change the words in any way. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
1. He left the letter on the table so that I was sure seeing it when I came in.
2. The book consists of four parts, one of which has been translated into English.
3. The doctor advised me not to get up until I felt better.
4. It is nearly thirty years since John last went back to his native village.
5. The policeman whose name was Williamson, lived next door.
III. In about 200 words write about your mother - the one you love most of all: (2.5 pts)
The essay must have at least three ideas below.
1.
Her appearance, age…
2.
Her personality, job(s)…
3.
The reasons why you love or admire her.
Notes: Don’t use proper names, address(s) or office’s name of the people you are describing.
Cao Dương ngày 20 tháng 10 năm 2015
DUYỆT CỦA BGH
Người ra đề

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
NAM ĐỊNH

Trần Hữu San
BÀI THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
Năm học

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
Đề thi này có 07 trang

Điểm bài thi

Họ, tên và chữ ký 2 giám khảo

Bằng số: ....................................
Bằng chữ: ..................................

Giám khảo 1: .........................................
Giám khảo 2: .........................................

SỐ PHÁCH
(Do hội đồng chấm
thi ghi)

PART A. PHONETICS (1.0 point)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
circling A, B, C or D. (0) is an example. (0.5 p)
6.
A. climate
B. comprise
©. notice
7.
A. hobby
B. honest

C. humor
8.
A. mention
B. option
C. federation
9.
A. ghost
B. office
C. long
10.
A. locate
B. celebrate
C. considerate
11.
A. photographs
B. passengers
C. catalogues

that of the others by
D. divide
D. happen
D. suggestion
D. modern
D. nominate
D. highlands

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D.
(0) is an example. (0.5 p)
6. A. ethnic
B. area

©. comprise
D. Buddhist
7. A. prevent
B. purpose
C. pollute
D. protect
8. A. notice
B. peaceful
C. region
D. divide
9. A. primary
B. religion
C. tropical
D. friendliness
10. A. magazine
B. understand
C. embroider
D. entertain


11. A. territory

B. mausoleum

C. recognition

D. federation

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3.0 points)
I. Choose the best word or phrase to complete the following sentences by circling A, B, C or D. (0)

is an example. (1.0 p)
11. After two hours traveling by bus, we finally ______ Vung Tau.
A. came
B. got
©. reached
D. went
11. Let’s go somewhere for a drink, ______?
A. will we
B. won’t we
C. shall we
D. shan’t we
12. My sister can make her own clothes and design her own ______.
A. models
B. labels
C. sizes
D. styles
13. The new secretary in the sales department is a fast typist but her letters are full of spelling_____.
A. errors
B. mistakes
C. tricks
D. faults
14. His uncle was the last man ______ in the Second War World.
A. to die
B. died
C. to be died
D. was died
15. "What are you doing?" - “________”
A. It doesn't touch you.
B. It’s none of your business.
C. You don't enter at all.

D. Look after your own affairs.
16. Eating, together with chatting, ______ among the most popular activities at recess at school in
America.
A. are
B. is
C. has been
D. have been
17. Ba and his family had ______ to their home village.
A. a two-days trip
B. a two-day trips
C. a two-day trip
D. two-day trips
18. He devoted a lifetime ______with disabled children.
A. to work
B. work
C. to working
D. working
19. Advice is given ______ students can choose the best course.
A. so as
B. for
C. in order that
D. in order to
20. It is strongly recommended that the machines ______every year.
A. check
B. checked
C. are checked
D. be checked
II. Each of the following sentences has ONE mistake. Underline the mistake and write the
correction in the provided blank on the right. (0) is an example. (0.5 p)
Questions

6. She is taking trip with her friends.
7. However cheap it is, poor quality products never appeal to customers.
8. So far, Linda has been writing five novels on the problems teenagers
have to cope with in the new world.
9. The mother was pleasant surprised when her daughter came to visit her.
10. My cousin composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the
major Broadway musicals.
11. They thought that it had been a very satisfied dinner.

Correction
a trip

III. Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. Write your answers on the numbered
blanks. (0) is an example. (1.0 p)
Have you ever got really caught in the excitement and emotion of good action film, and
wondered in (0. AMAZE) amazement how film stars manage to perform dangerous acts like
jumping off buildings or driving at great speed? Of course, it is only a ( 1.MOMENT)
____________________ feeling as it is no secret that the real ( 2.PERFORM)
____________________ are almost invariably stunt men or women, who can earn a very good
(3.LIVE) ____________________ by standing in for the stars when necessary. The work is
incredibly demanding, and before qualifying for this job they have to undergo a rigorous training
program and (4.PROOF) ____________________ their ability in a number of sports (5.INCLUDE)
____________________ skiing, riding and gymnastics.
(6.NATURE) ____________________, the safety of the stunt performer is of the utmost
importance. Much depends on the performer getting time exactly right so everything is planned
down to the (7.TINY) ____________________ detail. In a scene which involves a complicated
series of actions, there is no time for careless mistakes. A stunt man or woman often has only one
chance of getting things right, (8.LIKE) ____________________ film stars, who can if necessary,

film a scene (9.REPEAT) ____________________ until it gains the director’s (10.APPROVE)
____________________.
IV. Fill in each gap with an appropriate preposition or particle. (0) is an example. (0.5 p)
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.

Could you look
after
the baby while I was going out?
You can't rely ______________ the post. It’s always late.
Don't blame me ______________ what happened. It wasn't my fault.
Keep away ______________ those electrical wires.
I'm rather anxious ______________ her, I haven't received a letter from her.
He promised her an Oxford dictionary, but disappointingly he went ______________ on his word.

PART C. READING (3.0 points)
I. The reading passage ‘Hire me’ has 6 sections I-VI. Choose the most suitable heading for each
section from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate letters (A-H) in the space provided
next to each section. There are two extra headings which you will not need. Section I has been
done as an example. (1.0 p)
I. Learning from the experienced
J. Networking on the bus
K. Finding out about your interests
L. Meeting more people
M. Talking to friends and family
N. Checking help wanted ads

O. Attending job fairs
P. Using telephone directory
HIRE ME
Section I. ………E……………
Many of the leads on new jobs will come from people that know you the best. To increase
referrals from this group, make sure they know the types of jobs you are seeking. You also need to
be looking out for them, so know their interests. Remember, networking is a two-way street.
Section II. ……………………
You name it and there is an association or group for it. Associations are groups of people
that have at least one thing in common. You can start by using the yellow pages under
associations to find one that may appeal to you. They usually meet once a month to network and
share ideas that are related to their interests. This is a great way to build your networking contacts
with people that share some of your goals.
Section III. ……………………
We use it every day to find doctor, dentist, plumber or anything else in town. Why not use
the yellow pages to find a job? Before you open the yellow pages, write down what you want to
find out so that you won’t waste either your time or the employer’s time. The best times to call most
businesses are from 9:30 a.m to 11:00 a.m and 1:30 p.m to 3:00 p.m. All you are asking is, “How
do I obtain employment with your company?” Some companies now have voicemail called “job
lines” to tell you of the procedures. Be ready to write down the information. I recommend that you
purchase a street map book of the city. The book will help you pinpoint the location of the
business. The book will also prevent you from asking the question, “Can you give the directions?”
Always thank them for their time. Remember – you interrupt their day.
Section IV. ……………………
Every Sunday thousands of employers place job openings in the major papers and smaller
local community papers throughout the city to attract needed personnel to service their customers.
Before you seek the information, you will need to ask the following three questions: 1) Where do I
want to work? 2) Which fields interest me? 3) Do I have the required skills to apply for this
position? For the best results, respond to the ad within 48 hours of printing. Many ads only want
you to fax or apply in person – so follow the rules.

Section V. ……………………
Hidden behind all those voicemail boxes is a real person. Job fairs enable you to meet
them face to face. Plan on attending at least four job fairs per year. At each job fair, meet at least 6
to 10 people. Follow up with the people you meet with a thank-you card or letter. Job fairs can be a
great opportunity to find out what skills you need to learn to get into a specific field. Job fairs are
like a wedding reception line. Shake hands, talk for one or two minutes and move on to the next in
line. Your goal is to get a contact inside the company.
Section VI. ……………………


Every working day we get in our cars and line up like cattle to move down the roadways,
each of us alone in our cars. Try taking the bus and use this time to network. Think of the bus as a
small informational meeting of 40 people. Start your approach with a friendly “Hello”. Some people
may not say it back to you. In time you may meet some contacts through taking the bus. If
networking on the bus doesn’t work for you, at least you can take advantage of the other benefits
of riding the bus – using the time to organize your day, read the paper or a good book, saving over
200 gallons of gas per year, paying no parking fees – and you can wave at your friends stuck in
the slow lane.
II. Fill in each numbered blank from 1-10 with one suitable word. Write the words in the spaces
provided. (0) is an example. (1.0 p)
Hawaii is famous (0)
all
over the world for its stable climate. The temperature
(1) __________________ changes that much and ocean currents keep it cool, even (2)
__________________ the area lies within the tropics. The western sides of the islands are dry,
while further to the north, (3) __________________ the island is more mountainous, there is a
high level of rainfall, in some places higher than (4) __________________ else in the world.
The stable climate and the fertile soil are the reasons (5) __________________ agriculture
being an important source of income. Pineapples and sugar (6) __________________ grown all
year round. Tourism is also important, although it is banned on (7) __________________ few of

the islands.
Hawaii is covered with flowers the (8) __________________ year round. There are more
than 1700 species of flowering plants and trees and many of them (9) __________________ been
imported from around the world. You will never forget a visit (10) ___________________ this
island paradise in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.
III. Read the passage and circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for each of the questions below.
(1.0 p)
It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an
(1)
education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to
school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no
bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or
(5)
on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe
of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people
debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a
certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a
stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged
(10)
in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong
process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral
part of one's entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern
varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at
(15)
approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks,
do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are
the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the
boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not

likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the
(20)
newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the
formalized process of schooling.
12. What’s the best title for the passage?
A. Getting an education
B. The difference between schooling and education
C. Education is much more open-ended than schooling
D. It’s never late to get an education
13. What does the author probably mean by using the expression "children interrupt their education
to go to school" (lines 2-3)?
A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.
B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.
C. Summer school makes the school year too long.
D. All of life is an education.
14. The word "bounds" in line 5 is closest in meaning to


A. rules
B. experiences
C. limits
D. exceptions
15. What does the word “it” in line 6 refer to?
A. school
B. schooling
C. education
D. job
16. All of the following are true about education EXCEPT ______
A. It is a bigger term than schooling.
B. Its agents vary greatly.

C. It consists of both formal and informal learning.
D. It takes places almost everywhere except the schools.
17. The word "chance" in line 10 is closest in meaning to ______
A. unplanned
B. unusual
C. lengthy
D. lively
18. The word "they" in line 18 refers to
A. slices of reality
B. similar textbooks
C. boundaries
D. seats
19. The phrase "For example," line 19, introduces a sentence that gives examples of
A. similar textbooks
B. the results of schooling
C. the workings of a government
D. the boundaries of classroom subjects
20. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.
B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.
C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
D. Education involves many years of professional training.
21. The passage is organized by
A. listing and discussing several educational problems
B. contrasting the meanings of two related words
C. narrating a story about excellent teachers
D. giving examples of different kinds of Schools

PART D. WRITING (3.0 points)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the

word given in capital letters at the end. Do not change the word given. There is an example at the
beginning (0). (1.0 p)
1. It’s a pity I can’t come to your birthday party. COULD
 I wish I could come to your birthday party.
11. Please don’t tell my mum the truth. RATHER
 I’d ………………………………………………………my mum the truth.
12. “Why don’t we meet to discuss the pay order?” John to me. SUGGESTED
John …………………………………..….…………….………the pay order.
13. Tim’s brother thought that somebody had killed him with a gun. BEEN
 Tim………………………………………….………………………………..………………… with a gun.
14. I couldn’t concentrate because of the noise coming from the next room. HARD
 The noise coming from the next room…………………….…………...………………..to concentrate.
15. That contestant didn’t succeed in getting to the final round of the quiz show. TO
 That contestant didn’t ……………………………..…………to the final round of the quiz show.
16. Since we’ve run out of tea, I’d better go and buy some. LEFT
 Since there……………..……………………..…….……I’d better go and buy some.
17. The police asked the woman to describe the thief in detail. FULL
 The police asked the woman to give them…………………………….……..………………the thief.
18. The flooding led to the road being closed. RESULT
 The road had to ……………………………………………………… the flooding.
19. It’s a pity I have to go to my cousin’s wedding today. ONLY
 If……………..……………………..………………………..… to my cousin’s wedding today.
20. “You’d better not go out for a walk,” said my father. ADVISED
 My father……………..……..………………………….…………going for a walk.
II. Use suggestions to make complete sentences. Make any changes necessary. You can
add more words but cannot omit the given words. Write your answers in the spaces
provided. (0) is an example. (1.0 p)
1. She/ usually take/ bus/ school.
She usually takes a bus to school.
6. Mr.Brown/ teach English/ six years now.

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7. The recent earthquake/ cause/ serious damage/ Japan’s economy.
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8. If/ I/ you/ I/ take/ public transport/ school/ avoid traffic jams/ save energy.
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9. It/ essential that/ the boy/ have/ good command/ English.
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10. We/ having/ very good/ time/ together/ help us/ strengthen/ friendship.
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III. Writing an argument. (1.0 p)
Pollution is becoming more and more serious, not only in developed countries but also in
developing and underdeveloped ones all over the world. It is said that “Pollution comes from
human activities”. What’s your opinion?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
Your argument must be between 120 and 150 words.
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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9
THANH OAI
Năm học: 2015 – 2016

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 07 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 07.
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.
Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:……………..

………………………………………...

- Bằng chữ:……………
………………………...

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2:
………………………………………...

I. PHONETICS:

Số phách
(Do Chủ tịch hội
đồng chấm thi ghi)
…………………..