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ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014
MÔN TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 109
Thời gian làm bài 90 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the
blanks.
Looking for an unforgettable way to celebrate that special occasion? Well, the (1)__of options open today’s
youngster – or even “ oldster” for that matter, is a far cry from the traditional party or restaurant visit. No longer is it
(2)__sufficient to invite your friends round , buy some food and get a barker to produce a cake. No, today’s birthday boy
or girl is looking for something out of the ordinary, ranging from the (3)__ expensive to the downright dangerous.
Anything goes, as long as it is unusual and impressive.
Top of this year ‘s popular (4)__are as follows: taking some friends rally driving , helicopter lessons, plane trip
and parachuting , and hot air ballooning . Then there is always group bungee jumping or taking your buddies on a stomach
– churning , while water rafting (5)__down rapids.
The desire of adventurous celebration is not restricted to the (6)__. I recently met an octogenarian who celebrated
(7)__the milestone of eighty by having a fly lesson.
Of course, if you have money the world is your oyster. A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of his friends to a
Caribbean island to mark the passing of his half century. Unfortunately I was only a (8)__relation.
Undoubtedly, the more traditional forms of celebration do continue to (9)__the less extravagant or less adventurous
among us. However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I would not say no to a weekend in Paris and a
meal at the Eiffel Tower. I can (10)__dream. Perhaps by the time I’m eighty I’ll be able to afford it.
Question 1: A. scale
B. degree
C. range
D. variance
Question 2: A. hoped
B. decided
C. marked
D. considered

Question 3: A. perfectly
B. dearly
C. outrageously
D. explicity
Question 4: A. experiments
B. extravagances.
C. exposures
D. expenses
Question 5: A. ride
B. travel
C. voyage
D. crossing
Question 6: A. adolescents
B. teenagers
C. youth
D. young
Question 7: A. attaining
B. arriving
C. reaching
D. getting
Question 8: A. distant
B. remote
C. faraway
D. slight
Question 9: A. pacify
B. satisfy
C. distract
D. absorb
Question 10:A. however
B. but

C. nevertheless
D. anyway
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 11: A. invalid
B. predict
C. pretend
D. preface
Question 12: A. mausoleum
B. conservative
C. disqualify
D. magnificant
Question 13: A. nuclear
B. province
C. construct
D. complex
Question 14: A. literacy
B. contingency
C. ceremony
D. sanctuary
Question 15: A. optimist
B. accuracy
C. continent
D. artificial
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that could best replace the underlined
part without changing the meaning of the sentence
Question 16: Hypertension is one of the most widespread and potential dangerous diseases
A. colossal
B. popular
C. common

D. scattered
Question17 : In the United States, a party can nominate a single candidate for office
A. refuse
B. keep
C. change
D. name
Question 18 : The sales of drugs is controlled by law in most of countries
A. permitted
B. restricted
C. illegal
D. binding
Question 19: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!
A. considerably
B. thoroughly
C. altogether
D. specificially
Question 20 : A brief outlined of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students at the first meeting
A. dispensed
B. dispered
C. distributed
D. contributed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and
prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C . Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes
it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks
covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the

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largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and
west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations
for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further
scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. . Many of the events
have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and
are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception.
Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
Question 21: What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foundation
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. The lines represent important events
D. A superior race of people built in
Question 22: Extraterrestrial beings are___.
A. very strong workers
B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology
D. living beings from other planets
Question 23: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
B. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
Question 24: The word feat in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ____.
A. accomplishment
B. Appendage
C. festivity
D. structure
Question 25: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?

A. Architects’plan for the hidden passages
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
Question 26 : In the second passage , the word ‘ prophesied’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. affiliated
B. precipitated
C. terminated
D. foretold
Question 27: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
Question 28: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement
D. knowledge of the earth’s surface
Question 29: Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory
B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh
D. as an engineering feat
Question 30: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A.it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops C. It was built by a super race D. It is very old
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question
Question 31 :Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that over two hundred people
___ away. A. would have turned
B. would turn C. had been turned

D. would have to be turned
Question 32: ___ he was good at physics in lower grade, he was terrible at it in grade 12
A. While
B. Although
C. When
D. Except that
Question 33: It is better to try to work ___ rather than against Nature
A. for
B. with
C. by
D. along
Question 34: In the years ___ all the trees will disappear if nothing is done to protect them
A. come
B. coming
C. to come
D. will come
Question 35: Large numbers of Americans watch and participate in sports activities, ___ a deeply in grained part of
American life. A. which is
B. which are
C. that is
D. that makes
Question 36: The accused ___ guilty to all charges.
A. pleaded
B. admitted
C. said
D. confessed
Question 37: Mrs. Archer is known ___ the finest collection of twentieth century art in private hands
A. as have
B. having
C. by having

D. to have
Question 38: Mark is nearsighted. He ___ glasses ever since he was ten years old
A. should have worn B. must wear
C. need wear
D. has had to wear
Question 39: I like your new car. What ___ is it?

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A. brand
B. name
C. label
D. make
Question 40: It___ able to finish it in an hour.
A. couldn’t be too hard if you are
B. can’t have been too hard if you were
C. can’t have been too hard if you had been
D. couldn’t be too hard if you had been
Question 41 : “ Let’s have supper now. “ -“______”
A. You aren’t eating
B. I won’t
C. There aren’t any
D. Bill isn’t here
Question 42: ___ an emergency arise, call 911
A. Should
B. Can
C. Does
D. Will
Question 43: ___ in business, one must be prepared to take risks

A. Succeeding
B. Success
C. To succeed
D. Succeed
Question 44: I don’t like this wine. I like ___.
A. some other
B. another
C. other
D. the other
Question 45: The house is found ___ down
A. to burn
B. burning
C. having burned
D. to have been burned
Question 46: Please look through these papers ___ your pleasure
A. on
B. in
C. for
D. at
Question 47: Only in the last few days ___ to repair the swimming pool
A. anything has been done B. has done anything C. has anything been done D. has there anything been done
Question 48: “Hello, I’d like to speak to Mr. Green, please “ – “______”
A. Sorry, can you say that again?
B. I’m sorry, I’ll call again later
C. I’m afraid I don’t know
D. Let’s wait
Question 49 : ___ percent in the population of Canada speak English?
A. How many
B. How much
C. What

D. Which
Question 50 : ‘’ Would you mind turning down your stereo ?’’ - “______”
A. I’m really sorry! I ‘m not paying attention
B. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that
C. No. I don’t
D. Yes, I do
Question 51: His job is ___. A. driving a bus B. a bus driver
C. bus driving
D. a driver of a bus
Question 52:” I locked myself out of my apartment. I didn’t know what to do”
-“ You ___ your roommate”
A. need have called
B. could have called C. would have called
D. must have called
Question 53:Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to ___ allowance for her
A. bring
B. take
C. make
D. find
Question 54: Those trousers are far too big. Why don’t you have them___?
A. taken on
B. taken in
C. taken over
D. taken out
Question 55: Lack of exercise and high-fat diets have ___ to be the factor in heart attack
A. known been long
B. long been known
C. long known been
D. been long known
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of

the following questions .
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders,
and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution. It was noted that troops played “baseball” in
their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond
shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers – you’re – out , batter out on a caught ball , three outs per inning
, a nine man team. “The New York Game” spread rapidly , replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball
was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was
it was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consists of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains who
would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers
often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging
admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it
was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine , and their” muffins “ (the gently
duffers who once ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in
1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National
Association of Professional baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in
1876, run by business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s
“Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly
periodical “ The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields, and the

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standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of
the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American League.
Question 56: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origin of baseball
B. the commercialization of baseball
C. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 57: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not
want to mix with other or become a “muffin”
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that develop
in baseball
C. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits
Question 58: The word “ inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. requirements
B. beginning
C. insistence
D. rules
Question 59: The word “ lavish “ in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.
A. prolonged
B. very generous
C. grand
D. extensive
Question 60: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception?
A. a team might consist of 40 members
B. the president would choose teams from among the members
C. they didn’t play on weekend
D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine
Question 61 : According to the second paragraph , all of the following are true except____.
A. commercialism became more prosperous
B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income
D. people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 62 : Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “ Golden Age”?
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
B. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed

D. profits soared
Question 63: The word” somewhat” in line 21 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. to a significant extent B. to a minor extent C. to not the same extent
D. to some extent
Question 64: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to____.
A. the Western League
B. growing cities
C. the Midwest
D. the American League
Question 65: Where in the passage does the author first mention payments to players?
A. lines 4-7
B. lines 8-10
C. lines 11-14
D. 15- 18
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part following that needs correcting
Question 66 : At the rate the clerks were processing the applications. Joe figured that it will take four hours for his to be
reviewed
A
B
C
D
Question 67: Professor Layton was equally fond of the two children, but he had to admit that he found the youngest an
easier child to handle
A B
C
D
Question 68: In order to become a law, a bill must be passed not only by the Senate but also the House of Representatives
A
B
C

D
Question 69: Automobile began to be equipped by built-in radios around 1930
A
B C
D
Question 70: The Oxford University Publisher has just published a new series of readers for students of English
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions
Question 71: Had he known more about the internet, he would have invested in some computer companies
A. Knowing about the internet help him invest in some computer company
B. He didn’t know much about the internet and he didn’t invest in any computer companies
C. Knowing about the internet , he would have invested in some computer companies
D. He would have invested in some computer companies without his knowledge of the internet
Question 72: You should have persuaded him to change his mind
A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t B. You should persuade him to change his mind
C. You persuade him to change his mind but he didn’t D. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind
Question 73: It would have been better if he had told us his new address
A. He might have told us his new address
B. He should have told us his new address
C. He should have told us his new address
D. It doesn’t matter that he didn’t tell us his new address
Question 74: Tom regrets to say that he has left his tickets at home
A. Tom regrets leaving the tickets at home
B. Tom was sorry that he has left the tickets at home

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C. Tom wishes he hadn’t left the ticket at home D. Tom regrets to leave the ticket at home
Question 75: It is such a wonderful opportunity that we mustn’t miss it
A. It is too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss
B. The opportunity is wonderful enough for us to miss
C. It is a wonderful opportunity so that we can’t miss it
D. The opportunity is so wonderful that we are not able to afford it
Question 76: “ Cigarette?” he asked . “ No, thanks.” I said
A. He asked for a cigarette and I immediately refused B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him
C. He offered me a cigarette and I promptly declined D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once
Question 77: “Can I see your ticket please””
A. The inspector asked to see my ticket
B. The inspector offered to see my ticket
C. The inspector expected to see my ticket
D. The inspector asked for my ticket
Question 78: Only customers with coupons may use the service
A. The service is available for coupons only
B. The service is restricted to customers in possession of coupons
C. Only rich customers can use the service with coupons
D. Only customers with coupons are service here
Question 79: Don’t let her treat you like that
A. You are not let be treated like that by her
B. Don’t allow you to be treated like that
C. Don’t let yourself be treated like that by her
D. She doesn’t treat you like that
Question 80: She has lost her appetite recently
A. She hasn’t had any food recently
B. Her appetite has been very good
C. She has gone off food recently

D. She hasn’t eaten a lot of food recently
------------THE END-----------

ĐỀ THI ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi : Tiếng Anh , khối MÃ A1- D 101
Thời gian làm bài : 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
(Đề thi gồm 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best completes each
unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one
Question 1: _____ be needed, the water basin would need to be dammed.
A. Hydroelectric power should
B. When hydroelectric power
C. Hydroelectric power
D. Should hydroelectric power
Question 2: The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes_____ the housewives with
insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave
B. have left
C. has left
D. to have left
Question 3: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to_____ what she missed while she was away.
A. catch up on
B. cut down on
C. put up with
D. take up with
Question 4: Jane: Thank you for a lovely evening.
Barbara: _____.
A. You are welcome
B. Have a good day
C. Thanks

D. Cheer!
Question 5: I have English classes _____ day - on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays.
A. all other
B. each other
C. every other
D. this and the other
Question 6: She was _____ she could not say anything.
A. so surprised at the news that
B. such surprised at the news that
C. so surprised of the news that
D. so that surprised for the news
Question 7: There is a huge amount of _____ associated with children’s TV shows nowadays.
A. produce
B. manufacturing
C. merchandising
D. sales
Question 8: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as
_____.
A. cats and dogs
B. chalk and cheese
C. salt and pepper
D. here and there
Question 9: It’s essential that every student _____ the exam before attending the course.
A. pass
B. passes
C. would pass
D. passed
Question 10: I decided to go to the library as soon as I_____.
A. finish what I did
B. would finish what I did

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C. finished what I did
D. finished what I was doing
Question 11: _____ in the street yesterday was very friendly.
A. The mounted police, who I saw
B. The mounted police I saw whom
C. Who is the mounted police I saw
D. The mounted police whom I saw
Question 12: A washing machine of this type will certainly_____ normal domestic use.
A. stand up for
B. come up with
C. get on to
D. take down with
Question 13: “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the
teacher said.
A. visible
B. audible
C. edible
D. eligible
Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified their dead through the use of chemicals, _____ ancient Peruvians
did through natural processes.
A. because
B. whereas
C. even though
D. whether or not
Question 15: It is very difficult to_____ the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language.
A. convert
B. convey

C. exchange
D. transfer
Question 16: Issues from price, place, promotion, and product are_____ of marketing strategies planning,
despite growing calls to expand the range of issues in today’s more complex world.
A. these that are among the most conventional concerns
B. among the most conventional concerns
C. they are among the most conventional concerns D. those are among the most conventional concerns
Question 17: Please cut my hair _____ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length as
B. the same length like C. the same long like
D. the same long as
Question 18: Carbon dioxide may be absorbed by trees or water bodies, or it may stay in the atmosphere
when_____ , while it is only in the atmosphere that chlorofluorocarbons find their home.
A. by releasing emissions from cars
B. released from car emissions
C. cars that release emissions
D. emissions are released by cars
Question 19: Half of the children were away from school last week because of_____ of influenza.
A. a break- out
B. a breakthrough
C. an outburst
D. an outbreak
Question 20: A: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
B: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
A. I couldn’t agree more.
B. I understand what you’re saying.
C. You’re right.
D. I don’t see in that way.
Question 21: So little_____ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me.
A. I have known

B. I knew
C. do I know
D. did I know
Question 22: It’s a formal occasion so we’ll have to_____ to the nines- no jeans and pullovers this time!
A. hitch up
B. put on
C. wear in
D. get dressed up
Question 23: _____ so aggressive, we’d get on much better.
A. She was not
B. Had she not
C. Weren’t she
D. If she weren’t
Question 24: On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. Upon reflection
B. After discussing with my wife
C. For this time only
D. For the second time
Question 25: A: _____.
B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
Question 26: I studied English for four years in high school. _____ had trouble talking with people when I was
traveling in the US.
A. Therefore, I
B. Otherwise, I
C. Although I
D. However, I

Question 27: _____ in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing.
A. Frost is produced
B. Frost produces
C. What produces frost
D. What is frost produced
Question 28: All_____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed
B. for our needs
C. the thing needed
D. that is needed
Question 29: He said that the plane had already left and that I_____ an hour earlier.
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A. Must have arrived
B. had to arrive
C. should have arrived
D. was supposed to arrive
Question 30: There seems to be a large _____ between the number of people employed in service industries,
and those employed in the primary sectors.
A. discriminate
B. discretion
C. discrepancy
D. distinguish
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase for each of the blanks from 31- 40
COULD COMPUTER GAMES BE GOOD FOR YOU AFTER ALL
In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to the
cinema or renting videos. But is this 31 necessarily a bad thing? For years, newspaper reports have been 32
saying that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, bad- tempered,

even violent as a 33 result. But new research, 34 carried out in both Europe and the USA, suggests that the
opposite may be true.
Indeed, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve certain skills.
Researchers claim that this is because the games 35 make the brain work harder in certain ways, like 36 noticing
sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact that people play the games repeatedly 37
means that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to become highly developed.
Social skills may benefit, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first- person shooter games (38 such as)
“Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and co-operation, and that this (39
helps )them to make good friendships and become strong members of their communities. So rather than (40
giving) up computer games, perhaps young people need to spend more time on them?
Question 31. A. necessarily
B. certainly
C. fully
D. nearly
Question 32. A. speaking
B. informing
C. telling
D. saying
Question 33. A. product
B. result
C. reason
D. conclusion
Question 34. A. worked
B. thought
C. turned
D. carried
Question 35. A. make
B. force
C. push
D. keep

Question 36. A. realizing
B. noticing
C. imagining
D. solving
Question 37. A. means
B. asks
C. brings
D. causes
Question 38. A. in order to
B. such as
C. due to
D. as well as
Question 39. A. supports
B. helps
C. shows
D. serves
Question 40. A. giving
B. ending
C. taking
D. stopping
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 41 to 50
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting (truyền đạt) information by use
of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through
performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant
or unpleasant, gentle or harsh (chua, chói), by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by
speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the
utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm.
At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie

them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive (trực giác) sympathy or
antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually
discernible (nhận rõ) by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly
specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from
the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability
to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic (sư phạm) communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health.
Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or
exuberant (cới mở), to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask
of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the
7


listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically (mạnh mẽ) alter the tone
of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free
and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted (hẹp hòi) and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and
lethargic (thờ ơ) qualities of the depressed.
Question 41. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The function of the voice in performance
B. Communication styles
C. The connection between voice and personality
D. The production of speech
Question 42. What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and
feelings over and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express
than ideas.
Question 43. The word "Here" in line 9 refers to_____.

A. interpersonal interactions
B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings
D. words chosen
Question 44. The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. discussed
B. prepared
C. registered
D. obtained
Question 45. Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15?
A. As examples of public performance
B. As examples of basic styles of communication
C. To contrast them to singing
D. To introduce the idea of self-image
Question 46. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's____.
A. general physical health
B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
Question 47. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide_____.
A. hostility
B. shyness
C. friendliness
D. strength
Question 48. The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. frequently
B. exactly
C. severely
D. easily
Question 49. The word "evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. questioned

B. repeated
C. indicated
D. exaggerated
Question 50. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy
B. Depression
C. Boredom
D. Anger
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest ones
Question 51:
A. merchant
B. sergeant
C. commercial
D. term
Question 52:
A. colonel
B. journal
C. touring
D. adjourn
Question 53:
A. obstacle
B. obscure
C. obsession
D. oblivious
Question 54:
A. amuses
B. purses
C. blouses
D. pleases

Question 55:
A. Valentine
B. imagine
C. discipline
D. determine
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 56 - 64
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the world's
species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining
patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general
public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues
such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking
difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he
mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the
British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of
tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
8


A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and
tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and
plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather
man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin,
tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In other
words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation
phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are
made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the

evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because
they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and
incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 56: The word "consequence" in line 2 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. result
B. explanation
C. analysis
D. requirement
Question 57: The word "striking" in line 7 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. physical
B. confusing
C. noticeable
D. successful
Question 58: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because
they_____.
A. are simple in structure
B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people
D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 59: The word “exceed” in line 10 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. locate
B. allow
C. go beyond
D. come close to
Question 60: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
Question 61: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity

EXCEPT_____.
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 62: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics
B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names
D. Their variety
Question 63: The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 16-17 as an example of a location where_____.
A. butterfly behavior varies with climate
B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
C. butterflies are affected by human populations
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 64: The word "generated" in line 24 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. requested
B. caused
C. assisted
D. estimated
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 65: All of the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly among the friendly to human
A
B
C
D
Question 66: Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is
A
B
C
wood pulp, which is used in paper-making.

D
Question 67: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and
A
B
9


the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment.
C
D
Question 68: Chicago's Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the
A
B
C
ground to the top of it antenna.
D
Question 69: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting
A
B
C
to pass the exam.
D
Question 70: In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what
A
B
C
he won a Newberry Caldecot award.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions

Question 71: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work. B. If her were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
Question 72: The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and drinks they wanted.
A. The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drinks. B. The hostess tried hard to please her guests.
C. The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess.
D. Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks.
Question 73: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time.
A. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early.
B. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure.
C. The meeting lasted much longer than usual. D. There was not enough time to hold the meeting.
Question 74: Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.
A. More men than women have insurance. B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.
D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.
Question 75: Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter.
A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer.
B. More people have summer colds than winter colds.
C. People get colder in the summer than in the
winter.
D. The winter is much colder than the summer.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that expresses the best meaning
formed by the given words
Question 76:. No/ doubt/ Alison/ promote
A. It’s no doubt Alison will be promoting. B. There’s no doubt that Alison will be promoted.
C. There’s no doubt Alison will promote. D. It’s no doubt that Alison is promoted.
Question 77: your organization/ possible/ conference/ place
A. Your organization made it possible to take place this conference.
B. Your organization made possible for this conference to take place.
C. Your organization made it possible this conference to take place.

D. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.
Question 78: when/ you/ make/ mind/ university/ attend?
A. When are you going to make up your mind about which university to attend?
B. When will you make up your mind which university to attend?
C. When are you going to make your mind about which university to attend?
D. When are you making up your mind about university to attend?
10


Question 79: I/ not see/ point/ rule/ we/ not/ cycle/ school
A. I can’t see the point of this rule which we don’t cycle to school.
B. I can’t see the point of this rule which says we can’t cycle to school.
C. I don’t see the point of this rule which we are not allowed to cycle to school.
D. I can’t see the point of rule which says we can’t cycle to school.
Question 80: despite / short day/ we/ complain/ much/ do
A. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain about having too much to do.
B. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain having too much to do.
C. Despite a short day, we tend to complain about too much to do.
D. Despite such short day, we tend to complain about having too much do.
-------------HẾT-----------

ĐỀ THI ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi : Tiếng Anh , khối MÃ A1- D102
Thời gian làm bài : 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Choose the word which has different stress pattern:
1. A primitive
B particular
C continuous
D connected
2. A intensify

B summary
C philosophers
D instruction
3. A pressure
B medical
C immortal
D lightning
4. A language
B lyrical
C evidence
D disadvantage
5. A sedentary
B available
C additional
D majority
Choose the best option:
6. _____ is a time that is supported to be free from worries.
A. Child
B. Childlike
C. Childish
D. Childhood
7. Within a couple of hours, a very important _____ on the new tax policy will be made.
A. announce
B. announcement
C. announcer
D. announcing
8. One _____ of public transport is its unreliability.
A. benefit
B. disadvantage
C. harm

D. drawback
9. _____ accepting your job offer, I'd like to know a bit more about the company.
A. In advance
B. In order
C. Until
D. Before
10. Let's have a _____ of tennis after lunch if you're not tired, shall we?
A. match
B. play
C. game
D. party
11. He played a very important ______ in politics until he was well over 80.
A. scene
B. job
C. position
D. part
12. The noise from the traffic outside stopped me from _____ to sleep.
A. falling
B. starting
C. beginning
D. going
13. She _____ down completely on hearing of her friend's death.
A. broke
B. turned.
C. put
D. fell
14. Jack can speak two languages. One is English. _____ is Vietnamese.
A. Other
B. The other
C. Another

D. Others
15. The manager did not offer her the job because of her untidy _____.
A. sight
B. view
C. appearance
D. presence
16. "Is that a new coat?" "Yes, what _____ it?”
A. are you thinking of
B. do you think of
C. is your idea about D. did you think about
17. How do you do? ______.
A I'm very fine, thanks
B. Thanks to my mother C. How do you do?
D. With my brother.
18. The girl _____ is my neighbor.
A. talks to the lady over there.
B. is talking to the lady over there
11


C. was talking to the lady over there
D. talking to the lady over there
19. ______ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn't want to answer his phone call.
A. Having quarreled
B. Because having quarreled
C. Because-of she quarreled
D. Had quarreled
20. My daughter often says that she won't get married until she _____ 25 years old.
A. is
B. will be

C. will have been
D. has been
21. My father asked me _____ of the film.
A. what did I think B. what I think
C. what I thought
D. what I did thought
22. Everyone in both cars _____ injured in the accident last night, ______?
A were / weren't they B. was / weren't they C. was / wasn't he? D. were / were they
23. The more he tried to explain, ______ we got
A. the much confused
B. the many confusing
C. the more confusing
D. the more
confused
24. Not only _____ us light, but it also gives us heat.
A. the sun gives
B. the sun has given C. has the sun given D. does the sun give
25. If you hadn't stayed up so late last night, you ______ sleepy now.
A. wouldn't have felt B. wouldn't feel
C. wouldn't fell
D. wouldn't have fallen
Read the passage and choose the best answer:
Within the last century the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (26) ____ dramatically,
largely (27) ____ people burn vast amounts of fossil fuels - coal and petroleum and its derivatives.
Average global temperature also has increased - by about 0.6 Celsius degree within (28) ____ past
century.
Atmospheric scientists (29) ____ found that at least half of that temperature increase (30) ____
attributed to human activity. They predict that (31) ____ dramatic action is taken, global temperature
will continue (32) ____ by 1 A to 5.8 Celsius degrees over the next century. Although (33) ____
increase may not seem like a great difference, during the last ice age the global temperature (34) ____

only 2.2 Celsius degrees cooler than it (35) ____ presently.
26. A. has risen
B. rose
C. has raised
D. raised
27. A. because of
B. although
C. despite
D. because
28. A. a
B. some
C. the
D. any
29. A. had
B. have
C. are
D. ought to
30. A. should be
B. is being
C. had been
D. can be
31. A. unless
B. if
C. provided
D. as long as
32. A. be rising
B. to rise
C. to be risen
D. to be rising
33. A. so much

B. so
C. such an
D. such
34. A. had been
B. has been
C. is
D. was
35. A. is
B. has been
C. was
D. will be
Read the passage and choose the best answer:
Clean freshwater resources are essential for drinking, bathing, cooking, irrigation, industry, and for
plant and animal (36) ____. Unfortunately, the global supply of freshwater is (37) ____ unevenly. Chronic
water shortages (38) ____ in most of Africa and drought is common over much of the globe. The (39) ____
of most freshwater supplies - groundwater (water located below the soil surface), reservoirs, and rivers - are
under severe and (40) ____ environmental stress because of overuse, water pollution, and ecosystem
degradation. Over 95 percent of urban sewage in (41) ____ countries is (42) ____ untreated into surface
waters such as rivers and harbors;
About 65 percent of the global freshwater supply is used in (43) ____ and 25 percent is used in
industry. Freshwater (44) ____ therefore requires a reduction in wasteful practices like (45) ____ irrigation,
reforms in agriculture and. industry, and strict pollution controls worldwide.
36. A. survive
B. survived
C. surviving
D. survival
12


37. A. delivered

38. A. exist
39. A. resources
40. A. increasing
41. A. growing
42. A. recharged
43. A. farming
44. A. reservation
45. A. ineffective

B. distributed
B. lie
B. springs
B. growing
B. miserable
B. discharged
B. planting
B. conservation
B. illogical

C. provided
D. given
C. show
D. l:itay
C. sources
D. starting
C. climbing
D. ascending
C. poverty
D. developing
C. charged

D. discharging
C. agriculture
D. growing
C. preservation
D. retention
C. irrational
D. inefficient

Identify one mistake in the following sentences:
46. (A) Mined over 2,000 years (B) ago, copper is one of (C) the earliest (D) know metals.
47. (A) The average adult (B) has got from two (C) to five (D) colds each year.
48. Computers (A) have made (B) access to information (C) instantly available just (D) by push a few
buttons.
49. Some gorillas (A) beat their chests (B) as an (C) express of (D) high spirits.
50. Because vitamins (A) contained (B) in a wide (C) variety of foods, people seldom (D) lack most of
them.
Choose the best option:
51. Simon physics at all.
A. was hardly not interested in
B. was hardly interested in
C. was hardly not interesting on
D. was not hardly interested in
52. If a student ____ it is very unlikely that he will receive a good education.
A. behaves badly arid who is lazy,
B. who behaves badly and was lazy,
C. who behaves badly and is lazy,
D. behaves badly and is lazy,
53. The audience, ____ enjoyed the performance.
A. most of them were students,
B. most of whom were students,

C. they were mostly students,
D. they themselves were students,
54. The tests .in this. book are arranged ____
A. in order of difficult
B. in order of difficulty
C. in orderly difficult
D. in the order of difficulty
55. The success of the play was due to ____
A. the actors and how it was produced
B. the acting and the production
C. the actors and its production
D. how they acted and the production
Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one:
56. It is a pity you didn't tell us about this.
A. I wish you have told us about this.
B. I wish you would tell us about this.
C. I wish you had told us about this
D. I wish you would have told us about this.
57. I've never gone to the car wash before.
A. This is the first time I have had my car washed. B. This is the first time I have washed my car.
C. Never have I washed my car before.
D. Never has my car been washed.
58. After he had finished the report, he submitted it to the director.
A. Finishing the report, it was submitted to the director.
B. Having finished the report, it was submitted to the director.
C. Having finished the report, he submitted to the director.
D. Having finished the report, he submitted it to the director.
59. Jean could not help weeping when she heard the bad news.
A. Jean could not stop herself from weeping at the bad news.
B. Jean could not allow herself to weep at the bad news.

C. Jean could not help herself and so she wept at the bad news.
D. Jean could not help herself because she was weeping.
13


60. The best solution was thought of by the monitor.
A. The monitor came up with the best solution.
B. The monitor was good with the best solution.
C. No one could solve the problem except the monitor.
D. The best solution was monitored by the thought.
Read the passage and choose the best answer:
In the United States, presidential elections are held in years evenly divisible by four (1888, 1900,
1964, etc.). Since 1840, American presidents elected in years ending with zero have died in office, with
one exception. William H. Harrison, the man who served the shortest term, died of pneumonia only
several weeks after his inauguration.
Abraham Lincoln was one of four presidents who were assassinated. He was elected in 1860,
and his untimely death came just five years later. James A. Garfield, a former Union army general from
Ohio, was shot during his first year in office (1881) by a man to whom he wouldn't give a job. While in
his second term of office (1901), William McKinley, another Ohioan, attended the Pan-American
Exposition in Buffalo, New York. During the reception, he was assassinated while shaking hands with
some of the guests. John F. Kennedy was assassinated in 1963 in Dallas only three years after his
election.
Three years after his election in 1920, Warren G, Harding died in office. Although it was never
proved, many believe he was poisoned. Franklin D. Roosevelt was elected four times (1932, 1936, 1940
and 1944), the only man to serve so long a term. He had contracted polio in 1921 and eventually died of
the illness in 1945.
Ronald Reagan, who was elected in 1980 and reelected four years later, suffered an assassination
attempt but did not succumb to the assassin's bullets. He was the first to break the long chain of
unfortunate events. Will the candidate in the election of 2020 also be as lucky?
61. All of the following were election years EXCEPT ____

A. 1960
B. 1930
C.1888
D.1824
62. Which president served the shortest term in office?
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. Warren G. Harding
C. William McKinley
D. William H. Harrison
63. Which of the following is true?
A. All presidents elected in years ending in zero have died in office.
B. Only presidents from Ohio have died in office.
C. Franklin D. Roosevelt completed four terms as president.
D. Four American presidents have been assassinated.
64. How many presidents elected in years ending in zero since 1840 have died in office?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
65. The word "inauguration" in the first paragraph means most nearly the same as
A. election
B. acceptance speech
C. swearing-in ceremony
D. campaign
66. All of the following presidents were assassinated EXCEPT ____
A. John F. Kennedy
B. Franklin D. Roosevelt
C. Abraham Lincoln
D. James A. Garfield
67. The word "whom" in the second paragraph refers to ____

A. Garfield
B. Garfield's assassin C. a Union army general D. McKinley
68. The word "assassinated" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. murdered
B. decorated
C. honored
D. sickened
69. In the third paragraph, "contracted" is closest in meaning to ____
A. communicated about B. developed
C. agree about
D. notified
70. How long did Warren G, Harding work as a president?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 4 years
14


Read the passage and choose the best answer:
After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he
foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of
dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death·, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to
people who had made worthwhile contributions to humanity. Originally there were five awards: literature,
physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first
awards ceremony.
Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for
the awards which vary from $30,000 to $125,000.
Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards (gold medal, illuminated
diploma, and money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges'

decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes.
No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War 11. Some people have
won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.
71. The word "foresaw" in the first paragraph is nearest in meaning to __
A. prevailed
B. postponed
C. prevented
D. predicted
72. The Nobel prize was established in order to ___
A recognize worthwhile contributions to humanity B. resolve political differences
C. honor the inventor of dynamite
D. spend money
73. In which area have Americans received the most awards?
A Literature
B. Peace
C. Economics
D. Science
74. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
A. Awards vary in monetary value
B. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention
C. Politics plays an important role in selecting the winners
D. A few individuals have won two awards
75. In how many fields are prizes bestowed?
A. 2
B. 5
C.6
D. 10
76. It is implied that Nobel's profession was in ____
A economics
B. medicine

C. literature
D. science
77. In the first paragraph, "worthwhile" is closest in meaning to ___
A. economic
B. prestigious
C. trivial
D. valuable
78. How much money did Nobel leaves for the prizes?
A. $30,000
B. $125,000
C. $155,000
D. $9,000,000
79. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite.
B. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity.
C. Alfred Nobel left all of his money to science
D. Alfred Nobel made a lasting contribution to humanity
80. The word "legacy" in the second paragraph means most nearly the same as ____
A. legend
B. bequest
C. prize
D. debt
----- The end ----KEY:

1. A

21. C

41. D

61. B

2. B

22. B

42. B

62. D

15


3. C

23. D

43. A

63. D

4. D

24. D

44. B

64. A

5. A

25. B

45. D

65. C

6. D

26. A

46. D

66. B

7. B

27. D

47. B

67. B

8. B

28. C

48. D

68. A

9. D

29. B

49. C

69. B

10. C

30. D

50. A

70. B

11. D

31. A

51. B

71. C

12. D

32. B

52. D

72. A

13. A

33. C

53. B

73. A

14. B

34. D

54. D

74. B

15. C

35. A

55. C

75. B

16. B

36. D

56. C

76. A

17. C

37. B

57. A

77. D

18. D

38. A

58. D

78. C

19. A

39. C

59. A

79. A

20. A

40. A

60. A

80. B

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
* ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC *
Môn thi : Tiếng Anh , khối MÃ A1- D 103
Thời gian làm bài : 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
I. Phonetics:
A/ Choose the word with different pronunciation of the underlined part:
1. A dozen
B glove
C love
D stove
2. A kites
B catches
C oranges
D buzzes
3. A wood
B good
C food
D childhood
4. A whistled
B laughed
C lodged
D received

5. A prayer
B player
C mayor
D flare
B/ Choose the word with different stress pattern:
6. A luggage
B increase
C benefit
D argument
7. A satisfaction
B disappointed
C ancestry
D reassure
8. A democracy
B committee
C. proficiency
D television
9. A energy
B primary
C facilities
D pleasure
10. A contemporary
B geometry
C trigonometry
D succession
II. Vocabulary:
A/ Choose the word that best fits each gap of the passage:
To many people, smoking is not just a pleasure, it is an (11) -----------. They need it, depend on it and
can’t stop it. If they haven’t smoked for some hours, they feel a (12) ---------- for a cigarette. They often (13) ---------- which means they light another cigarette immediately after they have (14) ---------- out the one before.
16

Smoking is often considered (15) ------------, since many people don’t like the (16) -------- of cigarettes
or the sight of the smoker’s (17) ----------- fingers or ashtray full of cigarette – ends. Above all, smoking is
harmful to health and in many countries a (18) ---------- is printed on every (19) ---------- of cigarettes. Scientists
have proved that there is a link between smoking and a disease which can be (20) -------------, cancer.
11. A attraction
B addition
C addiction
D admiration
12. A likeness
B craving
C like
D desire
13. A over-smoke
B self-smoke
C chain-smoke
D non-smoke
14. A thought
B made
C put
D given
15. A militant
B antisocial
C illegal
D anti-pollutant
16. A odour
B smell
C taste
D flavour

17. A stained
B dirty
C dusty
D spotted
18. A saying
B signal
C sign
D warning
19. A pack
B packing
C packet
D backpack
20. A fatal
B hard
C immoral
D perilous
B/ Choose the word that best fits each gap of the sentence:
21. Latin music is very --------- in countries where people speak Spanish and Portuguese.
A common
B usual
C often
D frequent
22. This sort of behaviour will not be ----------.
A tolerate
B tolerated
C tolerance
D tolerant
23. Farmers can enrich the soil by using ------------ .
A fertile
B fertilize

C fertility
D fertilizers
24. ------------ for government posts are always thoroughly investigated before being admitted.
A apply
B applying
C applied
D applications
25. Nowadays, chemicals are ----------- into some fruits to reduce decay.
A injection
B injecting
C inject
D injected
26. The most important thing is to keep yourself ------------.
A occupation
B occupied
C occupant
D occupational
27. The soil must be kept damp at all times or the plant will die.
A moist
B wet
C dry
D arid
28. Our grandfather is buried in that graveyard.
A morgue
B churchyard
C cemetery
D both B & C
29. A great --------- of people in this country nowadays own a TV set.
A part
B majority

C unit
D mass
30. My sister is an expert in wildlife and its ------------.
A conversation
B preparation
C reservation
D conservation
III. Grammar:
Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the sentence:
31. My brother -------- trouble with her motorbike, so he has to take the bus to work these days.
A have
B had
C was having
D is having
32. A fortune–teller predicted ----------- inherit a lot of money before the end of the year.
A that I would
B that I
C that I will
D that I did
33. Ben and his brother are ------------ hard – working carpenters that I am sure they will ------------- a
success of their business.
A so/ do
B so/ make
C such/ do
D such/ make
34. I wouldn’t feel better now if you ---------- to me about it last night.
A hadn’t told
B hadn’t talked
C didn’t tell
D didn’t talk

35. No sooner ----------- recovered from flu than he had a stomachache.
A had he
B he
C he was
D was he
36. It is difficult to tell identical twins ---------------.
A on
B out
C apart
D over
37. I’d rather you --------- something more formal to work.
17


A wore
B wear
C should
D worn
38. When Peter first went abroad to study, he ----------- in a dormitory before.
A had never lived
B have never lived C never lived
D never lives
39. John’s mother has more than two ---------- workers under ----------.
A hundreds/ her
B hundreds/ hers
C hundred/ hers
D hundred/ her
40. My sister claimed never to ---------- so hard in her life.
A work
B working

C having worked
D have worked
41. They discussed ---------- with him all afternoon but couldn’t make a decision.
A problem
B of the problem
C the problem
D about the problem
42. He applied for training as a pilot, but they turned him ----------- because of his poor eyesight.
A up
B back
C down
D over
43. Peter quit his job at the advertising agency, ---------- surprised everyone.
A which
B that
C who
D when
44. I can’t help ----------- him in spite of his faults.
A admire
B admired
C to admire
D admiring
45. “What instructions did your boss give you?” “He required that Alice ---------- the meeting.”
A would attend
B attends
C attended
D attend
46. We intend to do ----------- with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A up
B away

C down
D in
47. In China an ancient medical treatment ---------- as a acupuncture is sometimes used during surgery.
A to know
B knowing
C known
D knows
48. It’s imperative that this letter ----------- immediately.
A is sent
B will be sent
C send
D be sent
49. The effects of anaesthetic used for the operation take quite a time to ------------- off.
A wear
B turn
C give
D move
50. John lost the ------------ bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because
of his carelessness.
A beautiful Japanese blue new
B beautiful new blue Japanese
C new beautiful blue Japanese
D Japanese beautiful new blue
IV. Use of English:
A/ Choose the underlined word or phrase in each of the sentences that needs correcting:
51. A farmer’s tractor is like a powerful horse as it plows field, pulls trailers and moves heavy loads.
A
B
C
D

52. Harvey seldom pays his bills on time, and his brother does, too.
A
B
C
D
53. The officials object to them wearing long dresses for the inaugural dance at the country club.
A
B
C
D
54. The pilot and the crew divided the life preservers between the twenty frantic passengers.
A
B
C
D
55. The instructor advised the students for the procedures to follow in writing the term paper.
A
B
C
D
B/ Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one in italics:
56. Would you like to go out for a drink?
A. Do you feel like going out for a drink?
C. Is going out for a drink to your liking?
B. Do you like going for a drink?
D. Would you mind going out for a drink?
57. Anyone who misses more than fifty percent of the classes deserves to fail.
A. More than fifty percent is too much for one class.
B. Fifty percent of the classes have failed the exams.
C. People who fail must make up fifty percent of the classwork.

D. These who are absent more than half the time should fail.
58. She’s bound to see Harry at the meeting.
18


A. She’s obliged to see Harry at the meeting.
C. She’s on her way to see Harry at the meeting.
B. It’s certain that she will see Harry at the meeting. D. She’s too busy to see Harry at the meeting.
59. According to some people, the sinking of the Titanic was the captain’s fault.
A. According to some people, the captain was to blame for the sinking of the Titanic.
B. According to some people, the captain blamed for the sinking of the Titanic.
C. According to some people, the sinking of the Titanic made the captain blameful.
D. According to some people, it was the sinking of the Titanic that the captain was blamed.
60. Had the announcement been made earlier, more people would have attended the lecture.
A. The lecture was held so late that few people attended it.
B. More people came late to the lecture because of the late announcement.
C. The late announcement helped make the lecture well – attended.
D. Few people came to the lecture because the announcement was not made earlier.
V. Reading comprehension:
1. Read the passage and choose the best answer:
The planet Earth is 4,600 million years old. It is difficult for us to think about such an enormous
length of time because it has little meaning for us. We can, however, simplify the idea to make it more
understandable. We can compare the planet Earth to a person of forty six years of age.
Nothing is known about the first seven years of this person’s life. Very little information exists
about the middle period either. It was only at the age of forty – two that the Earth began to flower.
Dinosaurs and great reptiles did not appear until one year ago, when the planet was forty five. Mammals
only arrived eight months ago. In the middle of last week, man – like apes became ape – like men and
began to communicate with each other. Last weekend, the Ice Age covered the Earth.
Modern man has only been around for four hours. During the last hour man discovered
agriculture. The industrial Revolution and the rise of large cities began just six seconds ago. During the

short time, modern man has made a rubbish tip of the Earth. In one minute, he has increased his numbers
to terrible proportions, and has caused the death of hundreds of species of animals. He has robbed and
destroyed the planet in his search for fuels. Now he stands, like a violent, spoilt child, delighted at the
speed of his rise to power, on the edge of the final mass destruction and of killing all the life which
exists in the solar system.
61. The passage tells us that
A. A great deal is known about how the Earth was created.
B. life on Earth began relatively recently.
C. more is kown about the first part of the Earth’s life than the middle part.
D. scientists are well–informed about the middle part of the Earth’s life.
62. We are informed by the author that
A. the dinosaurs appeared during the middle period
B. mammals and great reptiles both appeared at the same time
C. there were more than forty – five kinds of great reptiles
D. ape -like man appeared before the last Ice Age.
63. The author is mainly interested in
A. the time when man first evolved from apes.
C. the effects of farming.
B. what has happened since the Industrial Revolution D. the period before the last Ice Earth
64. It would appear that the main danger ahead is that
A. man will destroy everything on earth
C. there will be a population explosion
B. man will use up all the fuels
D. more species of animal may die out
65. The author’s general view of man seems to be that
A. he has no right to be so destructive.
C. he will be able to control the environment
B. he has been the most successful animal
D. he has learnt a lot from past mistakes
2. Read the passage and choose the best answer:

Most people think of deserts as dry, flat areas with little or no rainfall, but this is hardly true.
Many deserts have varied geographical formations ranging from soft, rolling hills to stark, jagged cliffs,
19


and most deserts have a permanent source of water. Although deserts do not receive a high amount of
rainfall – to be classified as a desert, an area must get less than twenty five centimeters of rainfall per
year – there are many plants that thrive on only small amounts of water, and deserts are often full of
such plant life.
Desert plants have a variety of mechanisms for obtaining the water needed for survival. Some
plants, such as cactus, are able to store large amounts of water in their leaves or stems; after a rainfall
these plants absorb a large supply of water to last until the next rainfall. Other plants, such as the
mesquite, have extraordinarily deep root systems that allow them to obtain water from far below the
desert’s arid surface.
66. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Deserts are dry, flat areas with few plant.
C. Many kinds of vegetation can survive with little water.
B. There is little rainfall in the desert.
D. Deserts are not really flat areas with little plant life.
67. The passage implies that
A. the typical conception of a desert is incorrect.
B. All deserts are dry, flat areas.
C. Most people are well – informed about deserts.
D. The lack of rainfall in deserts causes the lack of vegetation.
68. According to the passage, what causes an area to be classified as a desert?
A. The type of plants
C. The amount of precipitation
B. The geographical formations
D. The source of water
69. The word “source” in bold in the passage means

A . supply
B storage space
C need
D lack
65. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage about cacti?
A. They have deep root systems.
B. They retain water from one rainfall to the next.
C. They survive in the desert because they do not need water.
D. They get water from deep below the surface of the desert.
70. What is the main topic of the passage?
C. Deserts are dry, flat areas with few plants.
C. Many kinds of vegetation can survive with little
water.
D. There is little rainfall in the desert.
D. Deserts are not really flat areas with little plant
life.
71. The passage implies that
A. the typical conception of a desert is incorrect.
B. All deserts are dry, flat areas.
C. Most people are well – informed about deserts.
D. The lack of rainfall in deserts causes the lack of vegetation.
72. According to the passage, what causes an area to be classified as a desert?
A. The type of plants
C. The amount of precipitation
B. The geographical formations
D. The source of water
73. The word “source” in bold in the passage means
A . supply
B storage space
C need

D lack
70. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage about cacti?
A. They have deep root systems.
B. They retain water from one rainfall to the next.
C. They survive in the desert because they do not need water.
D. They get water from deep below the surface of the desert.
-------------- the end -------------

20


KEYS
Câu

Câu

1

d

36

c

2

a

37

a

3

c

38

a

4

b

39

d

5

b

40

d

6

b

41

c

7

c

42

c

8

d

43

a

9

c

44

d

10

c

45

d

11

c

46

b

12

b

47

c

13

c

48

d

14

c

49

a

15

b

50

b

16

b

51

d

17

a

52

d

18

d

53

a

19

c

54

c

20

a

55

d

21

a

56

a

22

b

57

d

23

d

58

b

24

d

59

a

25

d

60

d

26

b

61

b

27

a

62

d

28

d

63

b

29

b

64

a

30

d

65

a

31

d

66

d

32

a

67

a

33

d

68

c

34

b

69

a

35

a

70

b
21


ĐỀ THI ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
*

Môn thi : Tiếng Anh , khối MÃ A1- D 104
Thời gian làm bài : 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has its underlined part
pronounced differently from the other three words in each question.
Question 1. A. language
B. aviation
C. attraction
D. applicant
Question 2. A. nervous
B. birthday
C. worry
D. third
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. accomplish B. establish
C. abolish
D. acronym
Question 4. A. companion B. comfortable
C. compliment
D. competence
Question 5. A. mechanic
B. memorial
C. mechanism
D. machine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting.
Question 6. Children’s games, which are amusements involve more than one individual,
A
appear to be culturally universal.
B
C

D
Question 7. When I came back I realized that my camera had been disappeared
A
B
C
D
Question 8. If either of you take a vacation now, we won’t be able to finish this work.
A
B
C
D
Question 9. Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few buttons.
A
B
C
D
Question 10. Among the world’s 44 richest countries, there has been not war since 1945.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11.________ poor results but also may cause accidents.
A. Haste does not only produce
B. Haste had not only produced
C. Haste not only produces
D. Haste produces not only.
Question 12. It is important that ________.
A. an exact record should be kept

B. an exact record to be kept
C. to keep an exact record
D. keeping an exact record
Question 13. Jill has received several scholarships ________ .
A. not only because of his artistic but his academic ability B. for both his academic ability as well as his
artistic
C. because of his academic and artistic ability
D. as resulting of his ability in the art and the
academy
Question 14. The moon is not a planet______.
A. resembling the planets in many respects.
B. which resembles the planets in many respects.
C. but resemblance to the planets in many respects. D. although it resembles the planets in many respects.
Question 15. ______, they would have had what they wanted.
A. Had they arrived at the fair early
B. Supposing they were arriving at the fair early
C. Unless they arrived at the fair early enough.
D. If they arrived at the fair early
Question 16. Because they made too many mistakes, they fail in the exam.
A. They made very many mistakes that they fail in the exam.
B. They made too many mistakes for them to fail in the exam.
C. They made so many mistakes that they fail in the exam.
D. They made such many mistakes that they fail in the exam.
Question 17. She locked the door so as not to be disturbed
22


A. She locked the door in order that she wouldn’t be disturbed B. She locked the door to be not disturbed
C. She locked the door for her not to be disturbed. D. She locked the door so that not to be disturbed.
Question 18. When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high

A. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
D. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate
Question 19. Mary would rather see more historic sights than go dancing.
A. Mary would like to see historic sights and go dancing.
B. Mary likes historic sights when she can not go dancing.
C. Mary would prefer to see more historic sights rather than go dancing.
D. Mary had better see more historic sights
Question 20. Many people argue that most UFO sightings are caused by unusual weather conditions.
A. According to many people, unusual weather conditions cause most UFO sightings.
B. Many people argue that most UFO sightings are forecast by unusual weathermen
C. Many people argue that most UFO sightings resulted in unusual weather forecast.
D. Many people argue that most UFO sightings resulted unusual weather forecast.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 21. It seemed an impossible task at times, but we carried on_____.
A. regardless
B. despite
C. in spite
D. in spite of
Question 22. He thought the talk was fascinating. His friend, _______, fell asleep halfway through it.
A. although
B. nevertheless
C. however
D. B or C
Question 23. Have you really got no money_______ the fact that you've had a part-time job this term?
A. although
B. in spite of
C. because of

D. in case
Question 24. The doctor gave the patient_____ examination to discover the cause of his collapse.
A. a thorough
B. a whole
C. an exact
D. a universal
Question 25. Her book is about the_______ between women and men.
A. unequality
B. disequality
C. inequality
D. non-equality
Question 26. This section of the car park is_______ for visitors.
A. private
B. reserved
C. given
D. put
Question 27. The role of women in society has been greatly _______in the last few years.
A. overlooked
B. overtaken
C. overcome
D. overcast
Question 28. Only 40 % of 5-year-olds have_______ to pre-school children.
A. access
B. approach
C. denial
D. recognition
Question 29. He has been_______ from running a political office for five years.
A. missed
B. avoided
C. made

D. barred
Question 30. Delegates will meet with_______ from industry and the government.
A. represented
B. representative
C. representatives
D. representers
Question 31 Sports drinks have caught _______ as consumers have become more health- conscious.
A. in
B. at
C. out
D. on
Question 32. The order_______ him to appear as a witness.
A. compelled
B. made
C. let
D. discouraged
Question 33. It's a program that give some insight into the _______ life of the Victorians.
A. household
B. inner
C. house
D. domestic
Question 34. _______having a good salary, he also has a private income.
A. What's more
B. Furthermore
C. Apart from
D. From
Question 35. - Are you going to John’s wedding ? - I do not know, it ______. I might take the exams that
weekend.
A. is all depended
B. all is depending

C. all depends
D. all depend
Question 36. The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids.
23


A. removed quickly B. cleaned well
C. changed completely
D. destroyed
completely
Question 37. - Did your brother go to France ? - No, our parents suggested that we_____ there at night.
A. not go
B. not going
C. not to go
D. won’t go
Question 38. - Why not open the windows to let _______ clean air in ?
- I’d rather you didn’t . _______ air in our town is quite polluted ?
A. 0 (nothing)- 0
B. 0- The
C. a- The
D. The- 0
Question 39. _______ at his lessons, still he couldn’t catch up with his classmates.
A. Hardly as he worked B. Hard as he worked C. Hard as he does
D. Hard as he was
Question 40. “ How long is the seminar ?”
“______ knowledge, it takes about three hours.”
A. To my best
B. To the best of my C. In my best of
D. In my best
Question 41.My daughter saw an elephant this morning but she ______ one before.

A. had never seen
B. has never seen
C. never sees
D. never had seen
Question 42. Last week, my professor promised that he ______ today.
A. would come
B. will come
C. comes
D. coming
Question 43. He fell over while skiing and my sister had to______ a doctor.
A. bring
B. take
C. fetch
D. carry
Question 44. I am reading this novel. By the time you come back from work I______.
A. shall finish
B. will finish
C. shall have finished D. have finished
Question 45. Not until ______ home ______ that he had taken someone else's bike.
A. he got/ he realized B. he got/ did he realize C. did he get/ he realized
D. he got/ he did realize
Question 46. He was ______ teacher!
A. how good a
B. so good a
C. so a good
D. what a good
Question 47. “This is not a good essay”, said the lecturer. “I find your arguments ______.”
A. convincing
B. convincingly
C. unconvincing

D. unconvincingly
Question 48. There are many ways______ to Rome
A. is leading
B. are leading
C. leading
D. led
Question 49. What chemical is this ? It is ______ a horrible smell .
A. giving down
B. giving off
C. giving up
D. giving out .
Question 50. I got impatient waiting for my turn to _________.
A. go out
B. set out
C. come out
D. work out
Put a suitable word in the blank by marking the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet.
Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know that an “intranet” is? It is this: just as the Internet
connects people around the world, intranets connect people within a (51)____ company. In fact, intranets make
use of the same software programs as the Internet to (52)____ computers and people. This (53)____ that you do
not have to buy a lot of additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your intranet is working properly, it
can link together a huge amount of (54)____ which is stored in different places in the company. In this way,
people can get the information they need, regardless (55)____ where it comes from. A company intranet can , of
course, be used for unimportant information like office memos or canteen menus. But an intranet should
(56)____ important information which people need to make decision about new products, costs and so on. The
intranet is (57)____ to share their information with other people. (58)____, many departments don’t want to
share their specialist knowledge with others. Another problem which often occurs is (59)____ top managers like
to use the intranet to “ communicate down” rather than to “ communicate across”. That is, they use the intranet
to give orders, not to (60)____ information between themselves and others working in the same organization.
Question 51. A. large

B. jointed
C. single
D. branch
Question 52. A. contact
B. introduce
C. distinguish
D. compare
Question 53. A. is
B. is said
C. indicates
D. means
Question 54. A. parts
B. information
C. elements
D. properties
Question 55. A. on
B. with
C. of
D. to
Question 56. A. bring
B. provide
C. give
D. take
Question 57. A. likely
B. willing
C. going
D. happened
24

Question 58. A. Luckily
B. Consequently
C. However
D.
Unfortunately
Question 59. A. that
B. what
C. which
D. it
Question 60. A. change
B. exchange
C. transform
D. transit
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a
greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily available,
renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two such resources are solar power and
geothermal power. Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the
needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use
of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are
equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of the
world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal
power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are
trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which is produces
electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel
resources. And as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A
prime example of effective geothermal use is in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where over 80
percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power. Solar and geothermal energy are just two of

promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the
development and use of alternative energy on global scale.
Question 61. What is the main topic of this passage ?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 62. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources ?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
Question 63. Which of the following words could best replace the word “ harnessing”
A. Capturing
B. Harassing
C. Depleting
D. Exporting
Question 64. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries. C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 65. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy production
?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 66. Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence:
“ Although the US is not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a similar capacity to
generate geothermal power”

A. after the phrase ” earth-friendly”
B. after the phrase “ growing steadily”
C. after the phrase “ by geothermal power”
D. after the phrase “ global scale”
Question 67. According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power ?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.
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