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SỞ GD VÀ ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN
TRƯỜNG THPT
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG LẦN I NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Mã đề thi 130

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
Question 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. boot
B. good
C. book
D. foot
Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Instead of buying a new pair of shoes, I had my old ones ______.
A. repair
B. repairing
C. repaired
D. to repair
Question 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Don’t forget ______ me as soon as you arrive at the airport.
A. called
B. call
C. calling

D. to call
Question 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
After Mary finishes her “degree” , she intends to work in her father's company.
A. an institution for business studies
B. a university or college course
C. an amount or level of something
D. a unit for measuring angles
Question 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in the following question.
Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily.
A
B
C
D
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
The old houses were “knocked down” to make way for a new block of flats.
A. abolished
B. pulled apart
C. struck through
D. demolished
Question 7: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
The train drivers' strike made it hard for us to get to work.
A. We found it difficult to get to work because of the train drivers' strike.
B. When the train drivers were having a strike, we could get to work.
C. We were unable to get to work when the train drivers' strike happened.
D. The train drivers' strike made it impossible for us to get to work.
Question 8: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that

needs correction in the following question.
In the end of the party, Mary had to wash the dishes alone again, as usual .
A
B
C
D
Question 9: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligentthat he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
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D. So intelligent a student is hethat he can solve all the problems in no time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 10 to 16
Mandatory volunteering made many members of Maryland's high school class of 97 grumble with
indignation . They didn't like a new requirement that made them take part in the school's community
service program. Future seniors, however, probably won't be as resistant now that the program has
broken in. Some, like John Maloney, already have completed their required hours of approved
community service. The Bowie High School sophomore earned his hours in eighth grade by
volunteering two nights a week at the Larkin-Chase Nursing and Restorative Center in Bowie.
He played shuffle board, cards, and other games with the senior citizens. He also helped plan
parties for them and visited their rooms to keep them company.
John, fifteen, is not finished volunteering. Once a week he videotapes animals at the Prince
George's County animal shelter in Forestville. His footage is shown on the Bowie public access
television channel in hopes of finding homes for the animals.
"Volunteering is better than just sitting around," says John, "and I like animals; I don't want to see

them put to sleep."
He's not the only volunteer in his family. His sister, Melissa, an eighth grader, has completed her
hours also volunteering at Larkin-Chase.
"It is a good idea to have kids go out into the community, but it's frustrating to have to write essays
about the works," she said. It makes you feel like you're doing it for the requirement and not for
yourself."
The high school's service learning office, run by Beth Ansley, provides information on
organizations seeking volunteers so that students will have an easier time fulfilling their hours.
"It's ridiculous that people are opposing the requirements," said Amy Rouse, who this summer has
worked at the Ronald McDonald House and has helped to rebuild a church in Clinton.
"So many people won't do the service unless it's mandatory," Rouse said, "but once they start
doing it, they'll really like it and hopefully it will become a part of their lives - like it has become a
part of mine."
Question 10: The best title of the passage could be ______.
A. "Students Who Volunteer to Work with Senior Citizens"
B. "The High School Class of 1977"
C. "Students Who Earn Extra Money after School"
D. "A Volunteer Program at Bowie High School"
Question 11: The word "frustrating" in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. upset
B. happy
C. satisfying
D. interesting
Question 12: The word "it" in paragraph 7 refers to ______.
A. doing volunteer work
B. completing requirements
C. going out in the community
D. writing essays
Question 13: From paragraphs 6 and 7, we can infer that Melissa Maloney ______.
A. volunteers because it's a requirement

B. volunteers because it makes her feel good
C. is frustrated by her volunteer job
D. doesn't like to write essays about her volunteer work
Question 14: According to the last two paragraphs, Amy Rouse thinks that ______.
A. people should be able to choose whether they want to volunteer
B. the volunteer program shouldn't be mandatory
C. most people will discover they enjoy volunteering if they try it
D. most people don't like volunteering, so they don't want to do it
Question 15: Which of the following volunteer activities is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Videotaping animals in a shelter.
B. Tutoring children.
C. Rebuilding a church.
D. Visiting elderly people.
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Question 16: In the passage, the author gives the explanation of the concept of mandatory volunteer
programs by ______.
A. comparing two volunteer programs
B. describing one volunteer program
C. classifying different types of volunteer programs
D. arguing in favor of volunteer programs
Question 17: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. economics
B. photography
C. calculation
D. conservation
Question 18: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.

Mike: “Would you like a cup of coffee?”
Ann: “__________.”
A. Yes, please
B. No, I don’t like
C. No, I don’t
D. Yes, I do
Question 19: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
How ______ homework did the teacher assign?
A. much
B. plenty
C. little
D. many
Question 20: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
Peter has been studying for almost three years and he will have his degree and return to his country
in ______ six months.
A. others
B. another
C. other
D. the other
Question 21: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
The director ______ the men to turn to work immediately.
A. ordered
B. insisted
C. demanded
D. suggested
Question 22: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.

Tom: “Hello, nice to see you again.”
Jerry: “___________.”
A. You shouldn’t be so
B. Neither am I
C. I don’t think you are
D. Me too
Question 23: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
Many of pictures ______ from outer space are presently on display in the public library.
A. that sent
B. to sending
C. sending
D. sent
Question 24: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
I like her, ______ she can be very annoying at times.
A. however
B. therefore
C. even though
D. despite
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 25 to 32
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders.
The most abundant particles - sand, silt, and clay - are the focus of examination in studies of soil
texture. Texture is the term used to describe the line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample,
typically several representative handfuls . To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are
sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the
sample weight.
In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp
soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; (2)

thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape
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formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral
characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all,
provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is
determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when
dampened , behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined
and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.
Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves,
screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with
a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category
can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger
particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately;
therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their
settling velocity when suspended in water. Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated
from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can
be weighed.
Question 25: The author mentions "several representative handfuls" in the passage in order to show
______.
A. the range of soil samples
B. the requirements for an adequate soil sam
C. the process by which soil is weighed
D. how small soil particles are
Question 26: It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2
reflect ______.
A. the way the soil is extracted
B. the need to check more than one handful
C. the difficulty of forming different shapes

D. the results of squeezing the soil
Question 27: The word "dampened" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. damaged
B. stretched
C. moistened
D. examined
Question 28: It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it ______.
A. does not have a durable shape
B. is not very heavy
C. may not hold its shape when molded
D. does not have a classifiable texture
Question 29: The word "they" in the passage refers to ______.
A. larger particles
B. sieves
C. categories
D. clay particles
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the
hand test in determining soil texture because ______.
A. the sieve allows for a more exact measure B. less training is required to use the sieve
C. using the sieve takes less time
D. the sieve can measure clay
Question 31: During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into
water they ______.
A. stick to the sides of the water container
B. dissolve quickly
C. take some time to sink to the bottom
D. separate into different sizes
Question 32: The word "fine" in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. many
B. excellent

C. tiny
D. various
Question 33: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. chocolate
B. chemistry
C. lunch
D. speech
Question 34: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
______number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know _____ exact number of
them.
A. The/an
B. The/the
C. A/the
D. A/an
Question 35: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
Do you have ______ minutes? I’d like to ask you some s.
A. little
B. a little
C. a few
D. few
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Question 36: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
He ______ for two weeks. He is trying to give it up.
A. hasn’t smoked

B. didn’t smoked
C. doesn’t smoke
D. isn’t smoking
Question 37: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
The boy wasn't allowed to have any friends, so he became an introvert.
A. someone who is active and confident, and who enjoys spending time with other people
B. someone who is quiet and shy, and does not enjoy being with other people
C. someone who believes that good things will never happen to him and other people
D. someone who wears funny clothes and does silly things to make people laugh
Question 38: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
The garage serviced my car last week.
A. I got my car serviced last week.
B. My car was to be serviced last week.
C. The garage’s service to my car was good.
D. Last week I went to the garage by car.
Question 39: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
The train should be here any minute now.
A. We know that the train is always here on time. B. The train has not arrived here yet.
C. The train is known to be here in a minute.
D. We are expecting the train to arrive soon.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 40 to 44
By the 1950s many American families owned television sets. During television's first 20 years,
deaf people missed most of the fun. They could not hear what was being said and had to (40) _____.
Deaf people who watched television liked sports and action shows, but they were disappointed
with other programs. If there was a lot of (41)_____, deaf viewers couldn't follow the plot. Even the
most skilled lip readers could only catch part of the talking. This frustrated many deaf people.

In the late 1960s, a man started experimenting. Malcom Norwood thought that deaf people could
enjoy television programs, too. He wanted to develop captions for the programs. Norwood worked
for the federal government's Media Services and Captioned Films Division at the Bureau of
Education of the Handicapped. Norwood surveyed many hearing Americans. He wanted to see how
they felt about seeing captions on the television screen. Too many people were against the (42)_____.
Norwood realized he had to develop another way of captioning - one that would not bother hearing
people.
In October of 1971, Norwood's (43)_____ signed a contract with WGBH-TV, a public television
station in Boston. WGBH was hired to experiment with captions. They agreed to make a captioned
television program for Norwood. That program was made. It was shown on television and at a special
convention. The type of captions made by WGBH could be seen on any television. No special
equipment was needed. These were called "open captions."
Later, a new machine was invented. This device was made to send signals on a special part of the
television picture. The signals could be captions. If a family had another kind of machine in their
home or in their TV set, then the captions (or signals) would appear on their television screen.
Without the machine, no captions would be seen. That special machine is called a decoder. It receives
the signals (44)_____from the television station. Captions that require a decoder are called "closed
captions".
Question 40: A. forecast
B. find
C. guess
D. wait
Question 41: A. scene
B. dialogue
C. talk
D. conversation
Question 42: A. law
B. questions
C. actors
D. idea

Question 43: A. students
B. channels
C. company
D. office
Question 44: A. moved
B. gone
C. transmitted
D. sent
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Question 45: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
He is a _______ boy. He is often kind and helpful to every classmate.
A. obedient
B. frank
C. caring
D. lovely
Question 46: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to the following question.
During his _____, he lived with his uncle’s family in the United States.
A. child
B. childlike
C. childish
D. childhood
Question 47: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
Simon admitted that his joke on his girlfriend’s clothes was deliberate.
A. unintentional
B. planned

C. unwanted
D. unknown
Question 48: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. consider
B. industry
C. eventual
D. adventure
Question 49: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in the following question.
The oceans,which cover two-thirds of earth’s surface , are the object of study for oceanographers.
A
B
C
D
Question 50: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
-----------------------------------------------

----------- THE END----------

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SỞ GD VÀ ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN

TRƯỜNG THPT
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG LẦN I NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Mã đề thi 134

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
Question 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. turn
B. culture
C. future
D. picture
Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
I can _____ with most things but I cannot stand noisy children.
A. put off
B. put on
C. put up

D. put aside

Question 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Neither the students nor their lecturer _____ English in the classroom.
A. use

B. are using
C. uses
D. have used
Question 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
Try to eliminate fatty foods from your diet.
A. limit
B. move
C. add
D. get rid of
Question 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in the following question.
They asked me how long did it take to get to Paris by train.
A
B
C
D
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
He’s really delighted with his success.
A. annoyed
B. pleased
C. angry
D. entertained
Question 7: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
It’s high time you started revising for the coming exam.
A. I think you should start revising for the coming exam right now.
B. Revising for the coming exam takes your time.
C. It’s time to come to the exam after revising.

D. The time is high because you started revising for the coming exam.
Question 8: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in the following question.
After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving
A
B
C
in the wrong direction.
D
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Question 9: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
The weather was very hot. They continued playing football.
A. Although the hot weather, they continued playing football.
B. In spite of the hot weather, they continued playing football.
C. In spite of the weather was hot, they continued playing football.
D. Despite the weather was hot, they continued playing football.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 10 to 16
American movies create myths about college life in the United States. These stories are
entertaining, but they are not true. You have to look beyond Hollywood movies to understand what
college is really like.
Thanks to the movies, many people believe that college students party and socialize more than
they study. Movies almost never show students working hard in class or in the library. Instead,
movies show them eating, talking, hanging out, or dancing to loud music at wild parties. While it is
true that American students have the freedom to participate in activities, they also have academic
responsibilities. In order to succeed, they have to attend classes and study hard.
Another movie myth is that athletics is the only important extracurricular activity. In fact, there is

a wide variety of nonacademic activities on campus such as special clubs, service organizations, art,
and theater programs. This variety allows students to choose what interests them. Even more
important, after graduation, students’ résumés look better to employers if they list a few
extracurricular activities.
Most students in the movies can easily afford higher education. If only this were true! While it is
true that some American college students are wealthy, most are from families with moderate
incomes. Up to 80% of them get some type of financial aid. Students from middle and lower-income
families often work part-time throughout their college years. There is one thing that many college
students have in common, but it is not something you will see in the movies. They have parents who
think higher education is a priority, a necessary and important part of their children's lives.
Movies about college life usually have characters that are extreme in some way: super athletic,
super intelligent, super wealthy, super glamorous, etc. Movies use these stereotypes, along with other
myths of romance and adventure because audiences like going to movies that include these elements.
Of course, real college students are not like movie characters at all.
So the next time you want a taste of the college experience, do not go to the movies. Look at some
college websites or brochures instead. Take a walk around your local college campus. Visit a few
classes. True, you may not be able to see the same people or exciting action you will see in the
movies, but you can be sure that there are plenty of academic adventures going on all around you !
Question 10: The stories about college life in American movies are not ____.
A. exciting
B. true
C. interesting
D. boring
Question 11: The phrase “academic responsibilities” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning
to “______”.
A. teaching methods B. training skills
C. caring professions D. learning duties
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Extracurricular activities are of no importance to employers.
B. Learning is only part of students’ college life.

C. Not all extracurricular activities are students’ academic responsibilities.
D. There is a wide choice of extracurricular activities for college students.
Question 13: The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to ______.
A. employers
B. colleges
C. activities
D. résumés
Question 14: The word “moderate” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
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A. sensible
B. not steady
C. unlimited
D. not high
Question 15: Many American students have to work part-time throughout their college years
because ______.
A. they are not allowed to work full-time
B. their parents force them to
C. they want to gain experience
D. they can earn money for their expenses
Question 16: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. American College Life and the Movies
B. Going to College: The Only Way to Succeed in Life
C. Hollywood Movies: The Best About College Life
D. Extracurricular Activities and Job Opportunities
Question 17: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. inflation
B. disease

C. habitat
D. remove
Question 18: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
- Lora
: “ Sorry, the manager is not here “
- Jane : “ _______ ? “.
A. Can I take a message then
B. Can I leave a message then.
C. Can I speak to the manager, please
D. Would you like to leave a message
Question 19: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
________ she can buy everything she likes.
A. So rich is she that
C. Such rich is she that

B. So rich she is that
D. All are right

Question 20: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
This is the second time____________.
A. you are losing your door key
C. you were losing your door key

B. you've lost your door key
D. your door key was lost by you

Question 21: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to

the following question.
The man ______ is very friendly.
A. that lives next door
C. which lives next door

B. who live next door
D. who lives the next door

Question 22: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
- Tim
: “ Let’s go to Fuji for our summer holiday ! “
- Tom
: “ _______ “.
A. OK. It sounds good B. Not at all
C. What’s the matter

D. How about you ?

Question 23: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
It is high time we _____ something to protect our environment .
A. do
B. have done
C. to do

D. did

Question 24: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.

His research has not been able to be ______ because of a financial difficulty.
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A. set up

B. put off

C. turned on

D. carried out

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 25 to 32
The need for a surgical operation, especially an emergency operation, almost always comes as
a severe shock to the patient and his family. Despite modern advances, most people still have an
irrational fear of hospitals and anaesthetics. Patients do not often believe they really need surgerycutting into a part of the body as opposed to treatment with drugs.
In the early year of the 20th century, there was little specialization in surgery. A good surgeon was
capable of performing almost every operation that had been advised up to that time. Today the
situation is different. Operations are now being carried out that were not even dreamed of fifty years
ago. The heart can be safely opened and its valves repaired. Clogged blood vessels can be clean out,
and broken ones mended and replaced. A lung, the whole stomach, or even part of the brain can be
removed and still permit the patient to live a comfortable and satisfactory life. However, not every
surgeon wants to, or is qualified to carry out every type of modern operation.
The scope of surgery has increase remarkably in the past decades. Its safety has increased, too.
Deaths from most operations are about 20% of what they were in 1910 and surgery has been extended
in many directions, for example, to certain types of birth defects in new born babies, and at the other
end of the scale, to life-saving operation for the octogenarian. The hospital stay after surgery has
been shortened to as little as a week for most major operations. Most patients are out of bed on the
day after an operation and may be back at work in two or three weeks.

One of the most revolutionary areas of modern surgery is that of organ transplants. Until a few
decades ago, no person, except an identical twins, was able to accept into his body the tissues of
another person without reacting against them and eventually killing them. Recently, however, it has
been discovered that with the use of X-rays and special drugs, it is possible to graft tissues from one
person to another which will survive for periods of a year or more. Kidneys have been successfully
transplanted between non-identical twins. Heart and lung transplants have also been reasonably
successful.
“Spare parts” surgery, the simple routine replacement of all worn-out organs by new ones, is still a
dream of the future but surgery is ready for such miracles. In the meantime, you can be happy if the
doctors say to you: “Yes, I think it is possible to operate on you for this condition.”
Question 25: Most people are afraid of being operated on _______.
A. in spite of improvements in modern surgery
B. because they think modern drugs are dangerous
C. because they do not believe they need anesthetics
D. unless it is an emergency operation
Question 26: Surgeons in the early 20th century compared with modern ones _____ .
A. were more trusted by their patients
B. needed more knowledge
C. had less to learn about surgery
D. could perform every operation known today
Question 27: A patient can still live a comfortable life even after the removal of _____.
A. his brain
B. a major organ such as the stomach or one lung
C. his lungs
D. part of the stomach or the whole liver
Question 28: The word “clogged” is most likely to correspond to _____.
A. clean
B. blocked
C. covered
D. unwashed

Question 29: Today, compared with 1910 _________.
A. 20% fewer of all operation patients die
B. 20% of all operation patients recover
C. operation deaths have increased by 20%
D. five times fewer patients die after being operated on
Question 30: What is the similar meaning to the word “octogenarian ” ?
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A. eighteen-year-old
B. person in his eighties
C. person having eighth operation
D. eye specialist
Question 31: The main difficulty with organ transplants is _____.
A. it is difficult to find organs of the same size
B. only identical twins can give permission for their organs to be exchanged
C. the body’s tendency to reject alien tissues
D. the patient is not allowed to use drugs after them
Question 32: You can be happy if your surgeon can operate because it means ______.
A. he is a good doctor
B. he thinks your condition may be curable
C. he knows you will survive
D. you are getting better already.
Question 33: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. engineer
B. educate
C. department
D. acceptable
Question 34: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to

the following question.
Universities send letters of ______ to successful candidates by post.
A. accept
B. acceptably
C. acceptance

D. acceptable

Question 35: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
The more _____ you are, the easier it is for you to make friends.
A. sociable
B. reserved
C. social

D. funny

Question 36: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
In Vietnam, application forms for the National Entrance Examinations must be ___before the
deadline, often in April.
A. signed
B. submitted
C. filed
D. issued
Question 37: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
She is a very generous woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity organization.
A. mean
B. amicable

C. kind
D. hospitable
Question 38: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
People say that he gets a high salary.
A. He is said that he gets a high salary.
C. It is said that he gets a high salary.

B. It is said for him to get high salary.
D. That he gets a high salary is said.

Question 39: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
This film is interesting but the film we saw last week was more interesting.
A. The film we saw last week was as interesting as this one.
B. The film we saw last week was less interesting than this one.
C. The film we saw last week was more interesting as this one.
D. The film we saw last week was more interesting than this one.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 40 to 44
Singapore has a highly developed market-based economy, (40)_____ historically revolves
around extended trade. Along with Hong Kong, South Korea and Taiwan, Singapore is one (41) ___
The Four Asian Tigers. The economy depends heavily on exports , refining, imported goods,
especially in manufacturing. Manufacturing constituted 26 (42) _____ of Singapore’s GDP in 2005.
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The manufacturing industry is well-diversified into electronics, petroleum refining, chemicals,
(43)_______engineering and biomedical sciences manufacturing. In 2006, Singapore produced about
10 percent of the world’s foundry water output. Singapore is the busiest port in the world in terms of

tonnage shipped. Singapore is the world’s fourth largest foreign exchange trading centre after
London, New York City (44)_____ Tokyo.
Question 40: A. who
B. whom
C. why
D. which
Question 41: A. of
B. in
C. for
D. at
Question 42: A. percentage
B. persuasion
C. perception
D. percent
Question 43: A. machine
B. mechanical
C. mechanically
D. mechanic
Question 44: A. and
B. but
C. or
D. so
Question 45: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
He walked ____ I could not catch up with him.
A. faster than
B. as fast as
C. so fast that

D. fast

Question 46: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
If you do not learn seriously, ________ to understand the subject well.
A. will never you be able
B. never you will be able
C. you will never be able
D. will you never be able
Question 47: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
Those clothes are inappropriate for this morning.
A. attractive
B. improper
C. available
D. suitable
Question 48: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. common
B. complete
C. community
D. command
Question 49: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in the following question.
Because the Red Cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurses will not let
A
B
you

give blood if you have just had a cold.
C

D
Question 50: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her.
A. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t have continued with the project.
B. Unless we had her contribution, we couldn’t have continued with the project.
C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project.
D. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.
-----------------------------------------------

----------- THE END----------

Trang 12/26 - Mã đề thi 130

SỞ GD VÀ ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN
TRƯỜNG THPT
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG LẦN I NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Mã đề thi 140

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
Question 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
John asked Julie to marry him but she ____________ him down

A. looked
B. turned
C. pushed
D. broke
Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
You needn’t take the course if you don’t want to do.
A. You shouldn’t take this course if it is not necessary.
B. You are under no obligation to take this course
C. You’d better not take the course if you don’t like.
D. You don’t have to take any course you don’t like.
Question 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Mary was ill. She’s still feeling a bit under the __________
A. weather
B. climate
C. temperature
D. rain
Question 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in the following question.
Poland and Japan have very little common, but what they do share is national pride.
A
B
C
D
Question 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in the following question.
I would have written to you long time ago had I known of your new address.
A
B

C
D
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. knowledge
B. comic
C. swallow
D. unnoticed
Question 7: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
The __________ source of power in 1970 was from natural gas, with almost 25%.
A. second important most
B. second most important
C. most important second
D. most second important
Question 8: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
She clearly joined the firm with a(n) _______ to improving herself professionally.
A. view
B. aim
C. plan
D. ambition
Question 9: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in the following question.
I am wondering how the outdoor activities in the school organized as well.
A
B
C
D

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Question 10: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. essential
B. habitat
C. protection
D. priority
Question 11: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
It is imperative that this letter _________ immediately.
A. were sent
B. sent
C. was sent
D. be sent
Question 12: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
________ on the bus the other day, I bumped into Alice.
A. Travelling
B. Having travelled
C. I was travelling
D. When I travelled
Question 13: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
The policemen told Marie not to look back. She couldn’t help it.
A. The policemen told Marie not to look back. Although she could not help it.
B. The policemen told Marie not to look back. So she could not help it.
C. The policemen told Marie not to look back. However, she could not help it.
D. The policemen told Marie not to look back. Even she could not help it.

Question 14: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
You ___________ late for school too many times. I will talk to your parents about this.
A. were
B. have been
C. has been
D. was
Question 15: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Peter. “Don’t forget to drop me a line when you settle down”
Susan. “Trust me. ____________”
A. I will. I’ll keep you in touch
B. I won’t. I’ll keep you posted
C. I don’t. I’ll keep you in touch
D. I drop you a line when I settle down
Question 16: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
“Will you do me a favour?” “__________”
A. No, thanks anyway. I have enough favour. B. What’s a favour? I don’t have any
C. Sure. What can I do for you?
D. Absolutely, but I’m busy now
Question 17: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Why don’t we go on the coach? It is _________ cheaper than the train.
A. a quite bit
B. a bit quite
C. quite a bit
D. quite
Question 18: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.

With what my parents prepare for me in terms of education, I am _________ about my future.
A. confident
B. confidence
C. confide
D. confidential
Question 19: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
The point at which pain becomes intolerable is known as the pain perception threshold.
A. altered
B. intensified
C. elusive
D. bearable
Question 20: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
She still has an awful lot to learn.
A. a terrible thing
B. a large amount
C. a great desire
D. a great pleasure

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 21 to 28
Psychologist have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to
do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply
something a person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can
be develop. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a

child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing
and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and
fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins
that were separated shortly birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement
was based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment.
One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal
upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive
parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out
with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better.
This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the
environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link
between intelligence and socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not matter
how poor or how rich a family is, as this does not affect the intelligence.
Gifted people can not be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One
professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than
ordinary performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then
needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of
attaining.
People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice:
- Marry an intelligent person.
- Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
- Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instrument is essential for a child
who wants to become an outstanding musician.
Question 21: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that ______.
A. different twins generally have different levels of ability
B. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
C. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
D. ability depends both on intelligence and environment

Question 22: Scientists chose twins for their study because ______.
A. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. each twin has the same environment as his/ her twin
Question 23: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. They practice playing their instruments for many years
B. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas
D. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured
Question 24: The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow ______.
A. only their interests in computer games
B. only their interests in musical instruments
C. their own interests
D. their parents’ interests

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Question 25: The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel” in the passage
means that in order to become a genius, ______.
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently.
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
Question 26: The word “favorable” in the passage mostly mean ______.
A. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
B. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”
C. “good for someone and making him/ her likely to be successful”
D. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to the other people”

Question 27: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ______.
A. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
B. studying different twins is useful scientific procedure
C. educational development depends completely on economic well-being
D. to become successful, a child need both native intelligence and development
Question 28: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires ______.
A. parental support and encouragement
B. an expensive education
C. wealthy and loving parents
D. good musical instruments
Question 29: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
He had to make a great _________ so that his child could have a good education.
A. sacrifice
B. contract
C. loss
D. offer
Question 30: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
This shouldn’t be too taxing for you.
A. comfortable
B. demanding
C. easy
D. relaxing
Question 31: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
Paris is the ideal place to learn French; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with Institutions for high
quality linguistic teaching.
A. affectionate
B. natural

C. noticeable
D. friendly
Question 32: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
Nam was not at home either. Perhaps he went out with his girlfriend.
A. Nam must go out with his girlfriend
B. Nam might have gone out with his girlfriend
C. It’s sure that Nam went out with his girlfriend
D. Nam probably goes out with his girlfriend
Question 33: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
Using a computer is a piece of cake.
A. Using a computer is something very easy
B. It is very funny to use a computer
C. A computer is just like a piece of cake.
D. Using a computer is like eating a piece of cake.
Question 34: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
I was on the point of leaving the house when he came.
A. No sooner had I left the house than he came
Trang 16/26 - Mã đề thi 130

B. I had hardly left the house when he came
C. When he came, I had just left the house
D. I was just about to leave the house when he came.
Question 35: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. disaster
B. prisoner

C. president
D. researcher
Question 36: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
“We have been receiving reports of an alarming rate of malnutrition in southern Somali regions,
where thousands of children are _______ death,” said Health Minister Isse Weheliye.
A. in terms of
B. in relation to
C. on the verge of
D. with respect to
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 41
The sea has been (37)____ for at least 100 years, geologists say. During that same period, the
Atlantic Coast has eroded an average of 2 to 3 feet per year, the Gulf Coast even faster. Many
engineers maintain that seawalls and replenished beaches are necessary to protect (38)_______. Too
many people live or vacation in Miami Beach, Atlantic City, or Martha’s Vineyard to allow their
roads and building to (39)________.
The problem with seawalls is that they simple don’t work. One study has shown that, in fact,
seawalls accelerate the erosion of beaches.
(40) ____________ the loss of their beaches, other communities have tried a simple but
expensive solution: replace the loss sand. These replenishment programs, however, are costly and
(41) _________. Another study has shown that only 10 percent of replenished beaches lasted more
than five years.
Question 37: A. risen to land B. rising to land
Question 38: A. national shoreline
C. nation’s shoreline
Question 39: A. fall simply in to the sea
C. simply fall into the sea
Question 40: A. Faced with
C. Facing with

Question 41: A. in dubious value
C. of dubious value

C. rising the land
D. to rise to land
B. the nation shoreline
D. the nation’s shoreline
B. fall in simply to the sea
D. fall into the sea simply
B. To have faced with
D. Being facing
B. with dubitation value
D. for dubious value

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 42 to 48
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe,
recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be
sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The motto
of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle ".
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes
and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of
packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try
to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils ̣. Another way to reduce waste is
to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away
and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example. If a customer buys a
high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In
the same way. if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important
message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.
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The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After
customers. Empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect
the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is
saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places,
the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.
The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and
used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one
aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle
aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world's precious resources.
Question 42: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. how to reduce garbage disposal
B. what people often understand about the term 'recycle'
C. what is involved in the recycling movement
D. how to live sensitively to the environment.
Question 43: Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
A. Europe
B. Asia
C. Middle East
D. South America
Question 44: What does the word 'sensitive' in the phrase 'sensitive to the environment' mean?
A. cautious
B. logical
C. friendly
D. responding
Question 45: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT
A. buy high-quality product
B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups

D. buy fewer hamburgers
Question 46: Why is it a waste and customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because people will soon throw them away.
B. Because they have to be repaired many times.
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time.
D. Because they produce less energy.
Question 47: The word 'motto' is closest in meaning to_________
A. meaning
B. belief
C. value
D. reference
Question 48: What best describes the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. he bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.
Question 49: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. establish
B. endanger
C. protection
D. volunteer
Question 50: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
The soldiers attacked the town _______ the danger of causing large numbers of civilian casualties
there.
A. in addition to
B. for fear of
C. despite
D. besides

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----------- THE END----------

Trang 18/26 - Mã đề thi 130

SỞ GD VÀ ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN
TRƯỜNG THPT
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG LẦN I NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Mã đề thi 143

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
Question 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. applicant
B. employment
C. uniform
D. yesterday
Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in the following question.
Please help me tidy the room by throwing these invaluable things away.
A
B

C
D
Question 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
“Let’s go to the movie now.” – “Oh, ________”
A. Good idea
B. I don’t
C. Why's that?
D. I need it
Question 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
There is an important difference between humans and chimpanzees. Chimpanzees walk on four
legs.
A. An important difference between humans and chimpanzees is that chimpanzees walk on four
legs.
B. There are important differences between humans and chimpanzees one of which is that
chimpanzees walk on four legs.
C. Chimpanzees walk on four legs, so they are importantly different from humans.
D. There is an important difference between humans and chimpanzees that walk on four legs.
Question 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
The film _______ wasn't very good, but I liked the actors and actresses.
A. itself
B. its
C. it's
D. it
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
I'll let you borrow the book but you must promise to return it next week.
A. If you promise to return the book, I let you borrow it.

B. If you promised to return the book, I'll let you borrow it.
C. If you promise to return the book next week, I'll let you borrow it.
D. If you promise to return the book next week, I won't let you borrow it.
Question 7: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
- "What can I do for you?" - “___________”
A. No. You can't
B. Thanks. I'll do it
C. Thank you. I'm just looking
D. Yes. Do it please.
Question 8: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in the following question.
After she had sold her bicycle, she bought himself a new automobile.
A
B
C
D
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Question 9: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
On the whole, this story is about____________.
A. joint families
B. families in China
C. families found in India and Africa
D. all types of family
Question 10: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. attractive

B. different
C. important
D. impressive
Question 11: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Non-renewable energy sources are running ______.
A. up
B. on
C. to
D. out
Question 12: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
I kept them in the ___________
A. black metal small box
B. small black metal box
C. small metal black box.
D. metal black small box
Question 13: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
If gasoline vapour _______ with air, combustion will occur.
A. mixed
B. had mixed
C. mixes
D. mixture
Question 14: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Columbia University's School of Public Health is______a handful of schools of public health in
the United States.
A. one that
B. one of

C. one
D. the one
Question 15: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Martin Luther King Jr, after his father's assassination, the _____ mission of his father to fight
for the rights of blacks in America and achieved some notable success in the 1970s.
A. continued
B. is continuing
C. and continues
D. continuing
Question 16: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
______ a hotel, we looked for somewhere to have dinner.
A. Finding
B. We found
C. Found
D. Having found
Question 17: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
Since it is to be a surprise, don’t let the cat out of the bag.
A. let the bag away from the cat
B. reveal the true story
C. keep the cat inside the bag
D. hide the secret
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22
Joanne Rowling became famous almost overnight. She is the (18)_______ of a highly successful
series of book for young people.
Joanne has (19)_______of being a writer for as long as she can remember. In fact, she has been
(20)_______stories and characters ever since she was a schoolgirl. When she was still quite young,

the family moved to a town called Chepstow. A family who lived (21)_______ were called Potter, and
she used their name for the hero of her books. She and her sister, Di, attended a state school in the
town. At school, she was hard-working and rather reserved. She was particularly good at English and
languages. Her talent for telling stories made her a popular figure in the school. During breaks between
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(22)_______ , she was often surrounded by a crowd of friends, anxious to hear the latest story she had
written. She often included her classmates in her stories, although they were not always aware of this!
Question 18: A. author
B. composer
C. novelist
D. artist
Question 19: A. intended
B. wanted
C. liked
D. dreamt
Question 20: A. making up
B. taking up
C. putting up
D. doing up
Question 21: A. next
B. near
C. across
D. nearby
Question 22: A. lectures
B. sessions
C. tutorials
D. lessons
Question 23: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)

OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
I feel under the weather today. I 'm tired and don't want to do anything.
A. happy
B. sad
C. sick
D. healthy
Question 24: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Increasing deforestation accounts ________ the severe soil erosion.
A. of
B. in
C. on
D. for
Question 25: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
The unmanned U.S. space probe Mariner 9 sent back over 7,000photos of Mars.
A. conveyed
B. circulated
C. submitted
D. transmitted
Question 26: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
New Zealand has relatively few species of animals because of its long isolation from other
landmasses.
A. respectively
B. approximately
C. considerably
D. comparatively
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 27 to 34

Iron production was revolutionized in the early eighteenth century when coke was first used
instead of charcoal for refining iron ore. Previously the poor quality of the iron had restricted its use
in architecture to items such as chains and tie bars for supporting arches, vaults, and walls. With the
improvement in refining ore, it was now possible to make cast-iron beams, columns, and girders.
During the nineteenth century further advances were made, notably Bessemer's process for converting
iron into steel, which made the material more commercially viable. Iron was rapidly adopted for the
construction of bridges, because its strength was far greater than that of stone or timber, but its use in
the architecture of buildings developed more slowly. By 1800 a complete internal iron skeleton for
buildings had been developed in industrial architecture replacing traditional timber beams, but it
generally remained concealed. Apart from its low cost, the appeal of iron as a building material lay in
its strength, its resistance to fire, and its potential to span vast areas. As a result, iron became
increasingly popular as a structural material for more traditional styles of architecture during the
nineteenth century, but it was invariably concealed. Significantly, the use of exposed iron occurred
mainly in the new building types spawned by the Industrial Revolution: in factories, warehouses,
commercial offices, exhibition halls, and railroad stations, where its practical advantages far
outweighed its lack of status. Designers of the railroad stations of the new age explored the potential
of iron, covering huge areas with spans that surpassed the great vaults of medieval churches and
cathedrals. Paxton's Crystal Palace, designed to house the Great Exhibition of 1851, covered an area
of 1848 feet by 408 feet in prefabricated units of glass set in iron frames. The Paris Exhibition of
1889 included both the widest span and the greatest height achieved so far with the Halle does
Machines, spanning 362 feet, and the Eiffel Tower 1,000 feet high. However, these achievements
were mocked by the artistic elite of Paris as expensive and ugly follies. Iron, despite its structural
advantages, had little aesthetic status. The use of an exposed iron structure in the more traditional
styles of architecture was slower to develop.
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Question 27: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Advances in iron processing in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries
B. Advantages of stone and timber over steel as a building material

C. The effects of t he Industrial Revolution on traditional architectural styles
D. The evolution of the use of iron in architecture during the 1800's
Question 28: The word "revolutionized" in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. carefully examined
B. gradually opened
C. quickly started
D. dramatically changed
Question 29: According to the passage, iron was NOT used for beams, columns, and girders prior to
the early eighteenth century because
A. all available iron was needed for other purposes
B. iron was considered too valuable for use in public buildings
C. the use of charcoal for refining ore produced poor quality iron
D. limited mining capability made iron too expensive
Question 30: Iron replaced stone and timber in the building of bridges because iron was considered
A. new and modern
B. easier to transport C. much stronger
D. more beautiful
Question 31: The word "appeal" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. attraction
B. assignment
C. attempt
D. adjustment
Question 32: The word "spawned" in the passage is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. Created
B. maintained
C. exposed
D. rejected
Question 33: According to the passage, the architectural significance of the Halle des Machines was
its
A. great height

B. wide span
C. prefabricated units of glass
D. unequaled beauty
Question 34: How did the artistic elite mentioned in the passage react to the buildings at the Paris
Exhibition?
A. They tried to copy them.
B. They praised them.
C. They ridiculed them.
D. They refused to pay to see them.
Question 35: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
“Well done, Jerry, you’ve passed the driving test!”
A. I told that Jerry had passed her driving test
B. I told Jerry that she had done well in her driving test
C. I congratulated Jerry for passing her driving test
D. I congratulated Jerry on passing her driving test
Question 36: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. feat
B. seat
C. beat
D. great
Question 37: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question
We have to be careful with the technology we develop, ________ we could find ourselves facing
serious environmental problems.
A. however
B. otherwise
C. although
D. whereas

Question 38: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to the following question.
He is not flexible in his work; that is why he doesn't have many friends .
A. He is not popular with many people although he is flexible in his work.
B. Such in his inflexible in his work that he doesn't have many friends.
C. Having almost no friends makes him inflexible in his work.
D. Inflexible in his work is not why he doesn't have many friends.
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Question 39: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
Small solar ______ systems in villages would help surgeons save people's lives at night.
A. lighten
B. lighting
C. light
D. lights
Question 40: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. unit
B. unity
C. umbrella
D. university
Question 41: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
the following question.
______ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar system.
A. The Earth is
B. The Earth being
C. Being the Earth
D. That the Earth is

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 42 to 48
Robert Capa is a name that has for many years been synonymous with war photography.
Born in Hungary in 1913 as a Fricdmann lindrc Erno, Capa was forced to leave his native country
after his involvement in anti-government protests. Capa had originally wanted to become a writer, but
after his arrival in Berlin had first found work as a photographer. He later left Germany and moved to
France due to the rise in Nazism. He tried to find work as a freelance journalist and it was here that he
changed his name to Robert Capa, mainly because the thought it would sound more American.
In 1936 after the breakout of the Spanish Civil war Capa went to Spain and it was here over the
next three years that he built his reputation as a war photographer. It was here too in 1936 that he took
one of the most famous pictures, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier. One of Capa's most famous quotes
was "If your pictures aren't good enough, you're not close enough." And he took his attitude of getting
close to the action to an extreme. His photograph, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier is a prime
example of this as Capa captures the very moment the soldier falls. Though many have questioned the
authenticity of this photograph, claiming that it was staged.
When World War II broke out, Capa was in New York, but he was soon back in Europe covering
the war for Life magazine. Some of his most famous work was created on 6th June 1944 when he
swam ashore with the first assault on Omaha Beach in the D-Day invasion of Normandy. Capa,
armed only with two cameras, took more than one hundred photographs in the first hour of the
landing, but a mistake in the darkroom during the drying of the film destroyed all but eight frames. It
was the images from these frames however that inspired the visual style of Steven Spielberg's Oscar
winning movie 'Saving Private Ryan'. When Life magazine published the photographs, they claimed
that they were slightly out of focus, and Capa later used this as the title of his autobiographical
account of the war.
Capa's private life was no less dramatic. He was friend to many of Hollywood's directors, actors
and actresses. In 1943 he feel in love with the wife or actor John Austin. His affair with her lasted
until the end of the war and became the subject of his war memoirs. He was al one time lover to
actress Ingrid Bergman. Their relationship finally ended in 1946 when he refused to settle in
Hollywood and went off to Turkey.
In 1947 Capa was among a group of photojournalists who founded Magnum Photos. This was a

co-operative organization set up to support photographers and help them to retain ownership of the
copyright to their work.
Capa went on to document many other wars. He never attempted to glamorize war though, but to
record the horror. He once said, "The desire of any war photographer is to put out of business."
Question 42: Why did Capa change his name?
A. To hide his identity.
B. Because he had been involved in protests.
C. To sound more American.
D. Because he had to leave Hungary.
Question 43: Capa originally wanted to be ____________.
A. a photojournalist
B. a writer
C. an American
D. a protestor
Question 44: Capa's famous picture The Death of a Loyalist Soldier _______________.
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A. was taken by someone else
B. was definitely genuine
C. wasn't even taken in Spain
D. cannot be proven genuine or staged
Question 45: Capa's private life was ______________.
A. less dramatic than his professional life
B. spent most in Hollywood
C. very glamorous
D. spent in Turkey
Question 46: Capa wanted his work to ________.
A. be very famous
B. show how glamorous war can be

C. show the true horror of war
D. make lost of money
Question 47: Which sentence best summarizes paragraph 4?
A. Capa never tried to avoid danger. He risked his life to take photographs of the D-Day invasion,
but then destroyed most of them.
B. Capa took some of his most famous photographs during the D-Day invasion, but most were
tragically destroyed in an accident.
C. Capa only kept the best eight D-Day photographs as the others were out of focus. These
inspired the visual style of a Hollywood film.
D. Capa left Europe when the war broke out and went to take his most famous photographs of the
D-Day invasion.
Question 48: Which sentence best summarizes paragraph 5?
A. Capa had a tragic private life and was never able to settle down and find happiness.
B. Despite having many good friends and lovers, Capa always put his work first.
C. Capa wanted to make friends with important people in Hollywood so that he could move into
the movie industry.
D. Capa's private life was very complicated. He could not choose between the two women he
loved, so he went off to work in Turkey.
Question 49: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in the following question.
To begin with I did advertisements for TV and film, that was fine but not serious acting.
A
B
C
D
Question 50: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
It says RSVP. I'm not sure what that means.
A. I don't know for sure about RSVP.
B. I don't know what RSVP stands for.

C. RSVP is not ensured as I know.
D. What is RSVP means?
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ANSWER KEYS
130
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A
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