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69 test bank for intermediate accounting 6th

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69 Test Bank for Intermediate Accounting 6th
Edition by Spiceland
Multiple Choice Questions
CPAs are licensed by:
1.

A. The AICPA.

2.

B. The SEC.

3.

C. The federal government.

4.

D. State governments.

GAAP is an abbreviation for:
1.

A. Generally authorized accounting procedures.

2.

B. Generally applied accounting procedures.

3.


C. Generally accepted auditing practices.

4.

D. Generally accepted accounting principles.

Pronouncements issued by the Committee on Accounting
Procedures:
1.

A. Dealt with specific accounting and reporting problems.

2.

B. Were based on exposure drafts and public comment letters.

3.

C. Originated from congressional studies and SEC directives.

4.

D. Were the outcome of research studies and a theoretical framework.

Which of the following is not a provision of the Public Company
Accounting Reform and Investor Protection Act of 2002?
1.

A. Corporate executive accountability.


2.

B. Auditor rotation.

3.

C. Retention of workpapers.


4.

D. All of the above are provisions of the Act.

The most recent example of the political process at work in
standard setting is the heated debate that occurred on the issue
of:
1.

A. Pension plan accounting.

2.

B. Accounting for posteretirement benefits other than pensions.

3.

C. Accounting for business combinations.

4.


D. Accounting for stock-based compensation.

Accounting standard setting has been characterized as:
1.

A. A political process.

2.

B. Using the scientific method.

3.

C. Pure deductive reasoning.

4.

D. Pure inductive reasoning.

The conceptual framework's qualitative characteristic of relevance
includes:
1.

A. Predictive value.

2.

B. Verifiability.

3.


C. Completeness.

4.

D. Neutrality.

The conceptual framework's qualitative characteristic of faithful
representation includes:
1.

A. Predictive value.

2.

B. Neutrality.

3.

C. Confirmatory value.

4.

D. Timeliness.


The recognition of which of the following expenses exemplifies
the application of the matching principle?
1.


A. President's salary.

2.

B. Research and development.

3.

C. Cost of goods sold.

4.

D. Advertising.

The most likely important flaw leading to the demise of the APB
was the perceived lack of:
1.

A. Confidence.

2.

B. Competence.

3.

C. Independence.

4.


D. Importance.

Which of the following does not apply to secondary markets?
1.

A. Transactions are important to the efficient allocation of resources in our
economy.

2.

B. New resources are provided when shares of stock are sold by the
corporation to the initial owners.

3.

C. Transactions help to establish market prices for additional shares that
may be issued in the future.

4.

D. Many investors might be unwilling to provide resources to corporations if
there is no available mechanism for the future sale of their stocks and bonds
to others.

In a recent annual report, Apple Computer reported the following
in one of its disclosure notes: "Warranty Expense: The Company
provides currently for the estimated cost for product warranties at
the time the related revenue is recognized." This note exemplifies
Apple's use of:
1.


A. Conservatism


2.

B. The matching principle

3.

C. Realization principle

4.

D. Economic entity

Which of the following groups is not among financial
intermediaries?
1.

A. Mutual fund managers

2.

B. Financial analysts

3.

C. CPAs


4.

D. Credit rating organizations

Which of the following has the authority to set accounting
standards in the United States?
1.

A. FASB

2.

B. IRS

3.

C. SEC

4.

D. AICPA

The conceptual framework's recognition and measurement
concepts recognize which of the following as an assumption,
rather than a principle?
1.

A. Going concern.

2.


B. Historical cost.

3.

C. Full disclosure.

4.

D. Realization.

The SEC issues accounting standards in the form of:
1.

A. Accounting Research Bulletins.

2.

B. Financial Reporting Releases.


3.

C. Financial Accounting Standards.

4.

D. Financial Technical Bulletins.

The most political issue in the FASB's most recent deliberations

and amendments to GAAP on business combinations was:
1.

A. The negative effects on subsequent earnings of amortizing goodwill if
firms were required to use the purchase method of accounting for the
combination.

2.

B. The negative effects on subsequent earnings of amortizing goodwill if
firms were required to use the pooling method of accounting for the
combination.

3.

C. The unrealistic balance sheet assets that would be created if firms were
required to use the purchase method of accounting for the combination.

4.

D. The unrealistic balance sheet assets that would be created if firms were
required to use the pooling method of accounting for the combination.

A firm's comprehensive income always:
1.

A. Is the same as its net income.

2.


B. Is greater than its net income.

3.

C. Is less than its net income.

4.

D. Could be greater than or less than net income.

The primary professional organization for those accountants
working in industry is the:
1.

A. AAA

2.

B. AICPA

3.

C. IIA

4.

D. IMA

The FASB's conceptual framework's qualitative characteristics of
accounting information include:

1.

A. Full disclosure.


2.

B. Relevance.

3.

C. Going concern.

4.

D. Historical cost.

The full disclosure principle requires a balance between:
1.

A. Comparability and consistency.

2.

B. Relevance and cost effectiveness.

3.

C. Reliability and neutrality.


4.

D. Timeliness and predictive value.

Which of the following is not true about net operating cash flow?
1.

A. It is the difference between cash receipts and cash disbursements from
providing goods and services.

2.

B. It is a measure used in accrual accounting and is recognized as the best
predictor of future operating cash flows.

3.

C. Over short periods of time, it may not be indicative of long-run cashgenerating ability.

4.

D. It is easy to understand and all information required to measure it is
factual.

Which of the following is not a provision of the Public Company
Accounting Reform and Investor Protection Act of 2002
(Sarbanes-Oxley)? The Act:
1.

A. Changed the entity responsible for setting auditing standards.


2.

B. Increased corporate executive responsibility for financial statements.

3.

C. Limited nonaudit services that can be performed by auditors for audit
clients.

4.

D. Changed the entity responsible for setting accounting standards.

The conceptual framework's recognition and measurement
concepts recognize which of the following as a principle, rather
than an assumption?


1.

A. Periodicity.

2.

B. Monetary unit.

3.

C. Conservatism.


4.

D. Full disclosure.

A cause-and-effect relationship is implicit in the:
1.

A. Realization principle.

2.

B. Historical cost principle.

3.

C. Matching principle.

4.

D. Going concern assumption.

The primary historical reason for the FASB reversing its positions
when political pressures occur is:
1.

A. The cost of gathering data was prohibitive.

2.


B. The difficulties in measurement were too great.

3.

C. They have no authority in such situations.

4.

D. The SEC did not support the FASB position.

The International Accounting Standards Board:
1.

A. Was the predecessor to the IASC.

2.

B. Can overrule the FASB when their policies disagree.

3.

4.

C. Promotes the use of high-quality, understandable global accounting
standards.
D. Has its headquarters in Geneva.

Which of the following groups is not among the external users for
whom financial statements are prepared?
1.


A. Customers

2.

B. Suppliers


3.

C. Employees

4.

D. All of the above are external users of financial statements.

Which of the following was the first private sector entity that set
accounting standards in the United States?
1.

A. Accounting Principles Board

2.

B. Committee on Accounting Procedure

3.

C. Financial Accounting Standards Board


4.

D. AICPA

The FASB's conceptual framework's qualitative characteristics of
accounting information include:
1.

A. Historical cost.

2.

B. Realization.

3.

C. Faithful representation.

4.

D. Full disclosure.

Phase A of the new conceptual framework focuses on:
1.

A. Objective and qualitative characteristics.

2.

B. Presentation and disclosure.


3.

C. Recognition and measurement.

4.

D. Elements of financial statements.

External decision makers would not look primarily to financial
accounting information to assist them in making decisions on:
1.

A. Granting credit.

2.

B. Capital budgeting.

3.

C. Selecting stocks.

4.

D. Mergers and acquisitions.


When a registrant company submits its annual filing to the SEC, it
uses:

1.

A. Form 10-A.

2.

B. Form 10-K.

3.

C. Form 10-Q.

4.

D. Form S-1.

The FASB's standard-setting process includes, in the correct
order:
1.

A. Exposure draft, research, discussion paper, Accounting Standards
Update.

2.

B. Research, exposure draft, discussion paper, Accounting Standards
Update.

3.


C. Research, discussion paper, exposure draft, Accounting Standards
Update.

4.

D. Discussion paper, research, exposure draft, Accounting Standards
Update.

69 Free Test Bank for Intermediate Accounting 6th
Edition by Spiceland Multiple Choice Questions - Page
2
Of the following, the most important objective for financial
reporting is to provide information useful for:
1.

A. Making decisions.

2.

B. Determining taxable income.

3.

C. Providing accountability.

4.

D. Increasing future profits.

One of the elements that many believe distinguishes a profession

from other occupations is the acceptance by its members of a


responsibility for the interests of those it serves, often articulated
in:
1.

A. Its conceptual framework.

2.

B. Its code of ethics.

3.

C. Federal laws.

4.

D. State laws.

Four different competent accountants independently agree on the
amount and method of reporting an economic event. The concept
demonstrated is:
1.

A. Reliability.

2.


B. Comparability.

3.

C. Completeness.

4.

D. Verifiability.

Maltec Corporation has started placing its quarterly financial
statements on its web page, thereby reducing by ten days the
time to get information to investors and creditors. The qualitative
concept improved is:
1.

A. Comparability.

2.

B. Consistency.

3.

C. Timeliness.

4.

D. Faithful representation.


If a company has gone bankrupt, its financial statements likely
violate:
1.

A. The matching principle.

2.

B. The realization principle.

3.

C. The stable monetary unit assumption.


4.

D. The going concern assumption.

Which of the following best demonstrates the full disclosure
principle?
1.

A. The multi-step income statement.

2.

B. The auditors' report.

3.


C. The company's tax return.

4.

D. Disclosure notes to financial statements.

When there is agreement between a measure or description and
the phenomenon it purports to represent, information possesses
which characteristic?
1.

A. Verifiability.

2.

B. Predictive value.

3.

C. Faithful representation.

4.

D. Timeliness.

Mega Loan Company has very stringent credit requirements and,
accordingly, has negligible losses from uncollectible accounts.
The company's independent accountants did not protest when,
contrary to GAAP, the company recorded bad debt expense only

when specific accounts were determined to be uncollectible,
rather than use an allowance for uncollectible accounts. The
concept demonstrated is:
1.

A. Comparability.

2.

B. Faithful representation.

3.

C. Cost effectiveness.

4.

D. Materiality.

Surefeet Corporation changed its inventory valuation method.
Which characteristic is jeopardized by this change?


1.

A. Comparability.

2.

B. Representational faithfulness.


3.

C. Consistency.

4.

D. Feedback value.

Recognizing expected losses immediately, but deferring expected
gains, is an example of:
1.

A. Materiality.

2.

B. Conservatism.

3.

C. Cost effectiveness.

4.

D. Timeliness.

Disclosure notes to a company's financial statements:
1.


A. Are relatively unimportant facts that don't belong in the basic financial
statements.

2.

B. Document the source of financial statement facts, like literary footnotes.

3.

C. Are an integral part of a company's financial statements.

4.

D. Are irrelevant facts that are immaterial in amount.

According to the conceptual framework, verifiability implies:
1.

A. Legal evidence.

2.

B. Logic.

3.

C. Consensus.

4.


D. Legal verdict.

An important argument in support of historical cost information is:
1.

A. Relevance.

2.

B. Predictive quality for future cash flows.


3.

C. Materiality.

4.

D. Verifiability.

The main issue in the debate over accounting for employee stock
options was:
1.

A. Which employees should receive options.

2.

B. The amount of compensation expense that a company should recognize.


3.

C. How many options should be granted to key executives.

4.

D. The tax consequences of employee stock options.

Primecoat Corporation could disseminate its annual financial
statements two days earlier if it shifted substantial human
resources from other operations to the annual report project.
Management decided the value of the earlier report was not worth
the added commitment of resources. The concept demonstrated
is:
1.

A. Timeliness.

2.

B. Materiality.

3.

C. Relevance.

4.

D. Cost effectiveness.


Land was acquired in 2011 for a future building site at a cost of
$40,000. The assessed valuation for tax purposes is $27,000, a
qualified appraiser placed its value at $48,000, and a recent firm
offer for the land was for a cash payment of $46,000. The land
should be reported in the financial statements at:
1.

A. $40,000.

2.

B. $27,000.

3.

C. $46,000.

4.

D. $48,000.


Enhancing qualitative characteristics of accounting information
include:
1.

A. Relevance and comparability.

2.


B. Comparability and timeliness.

3.

C. Understandability and relevance.

4.

D. Neutrality and consistency.

The enhancing qualitative characteristic of understandability
means that information should be understood by:
1.
2.

A. Those who are experts in the interpretation of financial information.
B. Those who have a reasonable understanding of business and economic
activities.

3.

C. Financial analysts.

4.

D. CPAs.

The matching principle is:
1.


A. A valuation method.

2.

B. An expense recognition accounting principle.

3.

C. A cash basis reporting principle.

4.

D. An asset classification procedure.

The possibility that the capital markets' focus on periodic profits
may tempt a company's management to bend or even break
accounting rules to inflate reported net income is an example of:
1.

A. An ethical dilemma.

2.

B. An accounting theory issue.

3.

C. A technical accounting issue.

4.


D. None of the above is correct.


Fundamental qualitative characteristics of accounting information
are:
1.

A. Relevance and comparability.

2.

B. Comparability and consistency.

3.

C. Faithful representation and relevance.

4.

D. Neutrality and consistency.

Net income equals:
1.

A. Assets minus liabilities.

2.

B. Revenues minus cost of goods sold.


3.

C. Revenues minus expenses.

4.

D. Cash receipts minus cash payments.

Change in equity from nonowner sources is:
1.

A. Comprehensive income.

2.

B. Revenues.

3.

C. Expenses.

4.

D. Gains and losses.

To meet the needs of full disclosure, companies use
supplemental information, including:
1.


A. Parenthetical comments or modifying comments placed on the face of
the financial statements.

2.

B. Disclosure notes conveying additional insights about company
operations, accounting principles, contractual agreements, and pending
litigation.

3.

C. Supplemental financial statements that report more detailed information
than is shown in the primary financial statements.

4.

D. All of the above are correct.


Revenue should not be recognized until:
1.

A. The earnings process is complete and collection is reasonably assured.

2.

B. Contracts have been signed and payment has been received.

3.


C. Work has been performed and customer has been billed.

4.

D. Collection has been made and warrantees have expired.

Which of the following Statements of Financial Accounting
Concepts defines the 10 elements of financial statements?
1.

A. SFAC 4

2.

B. SFAC 3

3.

C. SFAC 5

4.

D. SFAC 6

Enhancing qualitative characteristics of accounting information
include each of the following except:
1.

A. Timeliness.


2.

B. Materiality.

3.

C. Comparability.

4.

D. Verifiability.

Which of the following is not an identified valuation technique in
GAAP regarding fair value measurement?
1.

A. Cost approach.

2.

B. Market approach.

3.

C. Cost-benefit approach.

4.

D. Income approach.


The primary objective of financial accounting information is to
provide useful information to:


1.

A. Management.

2.

B. Capital providers.

3.

C. Regulators.

4.

D. None of the above.

Constraints on qualitative characteristics of accounting
information include:
1.

A. Timeliness.

2.

B. Going concern.


3.

C. Neutrality.

4.

D. Materiality.

Gains are:
1.
2.

A. Inflows from selling a product or service to a customer.
B. Increases in equity resulting from transfers of assets to the company
from owners.

3.

C. Increases in equity from peripheral transactions of an entity.

4.

D. None of the above.

The assumption that in the absence of contrary information a
business entity will continue indefinitely is the:
1.

A. Periodicity assumption.


2.

B. Entity assumption.

3.

C. Going concern assumption.

4.

D. Historical cost assumption.

SFAC No.5 focuses on:
1.

A. Objectives of financial reporting.

2.

B. Qualitative characteristics of accounting information.


3.

C. Recognition and measurement concepts in accounting.

4.

D. Elements of financial statements.


Elements of financial statements do not include:
1.

A. Monetary unit.

2.

B. Investments by owners.

3.

C. Comprehensive income.

4.

D. Losses.

Independent auditors express an opinion on the:
1.

A. Fairness of financial statements.

2.

B. Accuracy of financial statements.

3.

C. Soundness of a company's future.


4.

D. Quality of a company's management.



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