đề thi thử tiếng anh lớp 11 chuyên (1)

SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC GIANG
TRƯỜNG THPT NGÔ SĨ LIÊN
Đề thi gồm 06 trang

ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 4
Năm học 2015 – 2016
Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
(Không kể thời gian phát đề)

Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………… Số báo danh:……………… Lớp: 11A…..

Mã đề: 498

(Học sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm 64 câu vào phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm
và phần tự luận vào giấy thi.)
SECTION A: FROM QUESTION 1 TO QUESTION 64 (8 points)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word(s) for each of the following blanks.
The 24th Southeast Asian Games was (1) ____ in Thailand from December 6 to December 16, 2007.
The Thai Olympic Committee was (2) ____ the event to coincide with the commemoration of 80th
birthday of King Bhumibol Adulyadej. Officials were studying the possibility of doing the events in
multiple venues (3) _____ what had been done in Vietnam and the Philippines. It was (4) ____ sixth time
Thailand hosted the SEA Games. Thailand hosted the 1959, 1967, 1975, 1985 and 1995 SEA Games.
On 24 February 2006, northeast Thailand's Province authorities met to (5) ____ the 2007 SEA Games
schedule, and progress on the province's under-construction US$65 million sports complex. The meeting
provided an overview of (6) _____, and ended with reassurances that everything would be ready (7) ____
SEA Games in 2007.
The sports (8) ____ included a 5,000-seater indoor stadium and 16 tennis court facilities among other
facilities scheduled to be finished on June 2007.
The 2007 SEA Games featured (9) ____ than 400 events in 45 sports. The 24th edition of the games

had the highest number of sporting events in the entire (10) ____ of the SEA Games, more events than the
Asian Games and the Olympic Games.
Question 1:
Question 2:
Question 3:
Question 4:
Question 5:
Question 6:
Question 7:
Question 8:
Question 9:
Question 10:

A. held
A. winning
A. such as
A. a
A. talk
A. facilities
A. at
A. places
A. rather
A. history

B. met
B. competing
B. as
B. an
B. discuss
B. tools

B. on
B. halls
B. more
B. ancient

C. seen
C. fighting
C. likely
C. the
C. tell
C. materials
C. with
C. venues
C. better
C. former

D. committed
D. planning
D. like
D. Ø
D. quarrel
D. furniture
D. for
D. homes
D. as
D. time

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined words in each of the following sentences.
Question 11: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the

island.
A. fruits and vegetables
B. flowers and trees
C. plants and animals
D. mountains and forests
Question 12: My other pursuits include listening to music, reading and gardening.
A. chases
B. occupations
C. specialties
D. hobbies
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Question 13: The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took
place.
A. organized
B. impressed
C. participated
D. defended
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined words in each of the following sentences.
Question 14: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about”
A. good behavior

B. behaving improperly

C. behaving nice

Question 15: There are number of things I like to do in my free time.
A. pleasure

B. precious
C. busy

D. behaving cleverly
D. idle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 16: Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are
going to have a date with each other later.
Laura: “Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime.”
Ken: “_______”
A. Nice to see back you.
B. Take it easy.
C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call.
D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.
Question 17: Had I studied harder, I________ better in the last exam.
A. would do

B. would have done

C. had done

D. wouldn’t have done

Question 18: I suggest the room _______ before Christmas.
A. be decorated

B. is decorated

C. were decorated

D. should decorate

Question 19: In beach volleyball, Indonesia defeated Thailand in straight sets to take men's gold _______.
A. present
B. award
C. medal
D. reward
Question 20: The salary of a computer programmer is _______ a teacher.
A. as twice much as
B. as much as twice of
C. twice as high as that
D. twice as high as that of
Question 21: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.”
– “I feel a little _______.”
A. out of the blue
B. under the weather C. out of order
D. under the impression
Question 22: With our senses, we perceive everything ________.
A. is around us
B. that is around us C. whom is around us D. whose is around us
Question 23: The primary causes of species extinction result ________habitat destruction, commercial
exploitation and pollution.
A. in
B. of
C. for
D. from
Question 24: Laws have been introduced to _________ the killing of endangered animals.
A. advise

B. decrease
C. prohibit
D. encourage
Question 25: Ann could not speak Chinese and ________ could John.
A. either
B. also
C. neither
D. so
Question 26: Near the park is a famous landmark ________ the Unification Palace.
A. whose name
B. called
C. is
D. is called
Question 27: It was on his birthday ______ he was presented this precious book by his father.
A. when
B. that
C. which
D. what
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Question 28: - "Who wrote the poem?"
- "It is said _______ written by one of the Bronte sisters"
A. to be
B. to being
C. to have been
D. to having been
Question 29: They don’t let anyone enter the area.
A. Nobody is let to enter the area
B. Nobody is allowed to enter the area.

C. Nobody is allowed entering the area.
D. The area is not allowed entering
Question 30: Not only my son but also I ________ tired from walking so far.
A. is
B. are
C. am
D. were
Question 31: We bought some __________
A. old lovely German glasses
B. German old lovely glasses
C. German lovely old glasses
D. lovely old German glasses
Question 32: Many species of plants and animals are in_________ of extinction.
A. dangerous

B. endangered

C. danger

D. dangerously

Question 33: The last person _________ the room must turn off the lights.
A. to leave

B. who leave

C. that leave

D. all are correct

Question 34: Today, Minh watches Mai playing badminton in Phu Dong Health Tournament. During the
break, he meets her and encourages her to play with flying colors.
Minh: “How well you are playing!”
Mai: “_______”
A. Say it again. I like to hear your words.
B. I think so. I am proud of myself.
C. Thank you too much.
D. Many thanks. That is a nice compliment.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 35: Children enjoy telling and listening to ghosts stories, especially on Halloween night.
A
B
C
D
Question 36: We had better to review this chapter carefully because we will have some questions on it on
our test tomorrow.
A
B
C
D
Question 37: Professor Jones said that a good way to improve your language are learning to practise it.
A
B
C
D
Question 38: The Southeast Asian Games, also knowing as the SEA Games, is a biennial multi-sport
A
B
event involving participants from the current eleven countries of Southeast Asia.

C
D
Question 39: I high recommend this book for its beautiful language of description.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and
zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was
hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but
sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea around Us, which
provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology
and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000

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printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field.
However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved
how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison
the food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the
chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her
findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science
Advisory Committee.
Question 40: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work ______.
A. at college

B. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service
C. as a researcher
D. as a writer
Question 41: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. Zoology
B. Literature
C. History
D. Oceanography
Question 42: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ______.
A. 29
B. 26
C. 34
D. 45
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind ______.
A. became more popular than her other books
B. was outdated
C. was praised by critics
D. sold many copies
Question 44: Which of the following was not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The
Sea Around Us?
A. printed matter
B. talks with experts
C. letters from scientists
D. a research expedition
Question 45: Which of the following words or phrases is least accurate in describing The Sea Around Us?
A. poetic
B. fascinating
C. highly technical
D. well researched
Question 46: The word reckless is closest in meaning to ______.

A. irresponsible
B. unnecessary
C. continuous
D. limited
Question 47: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily ______.
A. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry
B. a discussion of hazards insects pose to the food supply
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
D. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
Question 48: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word flawed?
A. offensive
B. logical
C. deceptive
D. faulty
Question 49: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory
Committee?
A. To validate the chemical industry’s claims
B. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment
C. To support Carson’s ideas
D. To provide an example of government propaganda
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Bears spend much of their time looking for food, and they are not choosy, gorging on insects,
berries, nuts, small mammals, ham sandwiches, and garbage with equal relish. Despite this, the chief
natural factor limiting a bear population is the food supply. Dr. Lynn Rogers has found that, contrary to
popular belief, so-called garbage bears – those that visit town dumps or campsites – do not lose their
ability to forage successfully for wild foods but are simply supplementing their diets with easy pickings.
In fact, these enterprising bears grow faster, mature sooner, and reproduce earlier than those that depend
only on wild foraging. Rogers has also found that dump-fed bears are the strongest and largest in the
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population. He and his crew once captured a male bear that weighed in at 611 pounds. But easy living for
the bears carries a price: those that stalk garbage dumps are easier targets for hunters and those that visit
camps – if not injure – visitors. Some state wildlife agencies capture “nuisance” bears that have become
too chummy with people and cast them off to less populated parts of the forest. The removal programmes
do not always work; bears released 100 miles or more from their place of capture have reappeared in their
old haunts.
Question 50: The passage suggests that Dr. Lynn Rogers is a _________.
A. writer who has published books about bears’ feeding habits.
B. naturalist whose concern is preserving bears’ wild habitats.
C. scientist who has studied dump-fed bears.
D. rapper who captures live bears for zoos.
Question 51: The author states that which of the following assumptions about bears has been proved to
be wrong?
A. Some would rather eat wild foods than garbage.
B. They devote a lot of time to searching for food.
C. Some do not fear campers and approach campsites readily.
D. They lose their foraging ability after feeding at garbage dumps.
Question 52: Which of the following is NOT true of bears that feed at garbage dumps and campsites?
A. They grow at a relatively slow rate
B. They can be easily shot
C. They reproduce at an early age
D. They are sometimes relocated
Question 53: It can be concluded from the passage that garbage bears are the strongest of the bear
population because ________.
A. their natural predators are not found near garbage dumps
B. they can get more food by combining wild food and food from dumps
C. they have been known to travel 100 miles or more
D. they get a lot of exercise climbing in and out of garbage cans

Question 54: The term “those” refers to _________.
A. visitors
B. dumps
C. hunters
D. bears
Question 55: It can be inferred from the passage that bears’ contact with humans resulted in _________.
A. bears’ preference for life in the wild
B. both benefits and disadvantages to bears
C. an increase likelihood of the extinction of bears D. bears’ susceptibility to a variety of diseases
Question 56: According to the passage, the purpose of removal programme is to _________.
A. clean out the dumps
B. shoot “nuisance” bears
C. settle bears in less populated areas
D. reduce the bears’ food supply
Question 57: The word “choosy” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. funny
B. fussy
C. progressive
D. risky
Question 58: The word “captured” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. hold
B. caught
C. produced
D. released
Question 59: The word “removal” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. taking
B. processing
C. moving
D. interfering
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation

in each of the following questions.
Question 60: A. events
B. spirit
C. Asian
D. silver
Question 61: A. wanted
B. looked
C. needed
D. crooked
Question 62: A. southern
B. athlete
C. both
D. enthusiasm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 63: A. father
B. decide
C. certain
D. couple
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Question 64: A. documentary

B. occupation

C. competitive

D. individual

SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (0.5 points)
Question 1: Joanna enjoys listening to rock music, so does her brother.
Both______________________________________________________________________________
Question 2: We bought two bicycles. Neither of them worked well.
We bought _________________________________________________________________________
Question 3: The couples who live in the house next door are both college professors.
The couples living ___________________________________________________________________
Question 4: “You didn’t pay attention to what I said,” the teacher said to him
The teacher accused _________________________________________________________________
Question 5: Tom arrived late and started complaining.
Not only
___________________________________________________________________________
II. Write a paragraph of 140 words about one of your hobbies, following these guidelines. (1.5 points)
• What your hobby is
• When you started it
• How you enjoy it
• How much time you spend on it
• Why you enjoy it
• How long you think you will continue with your hobby/your plan in the
future.

--------- THE END -------Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

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