AAMC MCAT test 5r

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MCAT
Practice Test 5R


Physical Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 1-77
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive
passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are
not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives.
Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is
provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.

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the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are any
questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line (202828-0690).


Periodic Table of the Elements

1

H

2

He
4.0
10

1.0
3

4

Li

Be

B

C

N

O

F

Ne

6.9

9.0

10.8

12.0

14.0

16.0

19.0

20.2

5

6

7

8

9

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

Na

Mg

Al

Si

P

S

Cl

Ar

23.0

24.3

27.0

28.1

31.0

32.1

35.5

39.9

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

K

Ca

Sc

Ti

V

Cr

Mn

Fe

Co

Ni

Cu

Zn

Ga

Ge

As

Se

Br

Kr

39.1
37

40.1
38

45.0
39

47.9
40

50.9
41

52.0
42

54.9
43

55.8
44

58.9
45

58.7
46

63.5
47

65.4
48

69.7
49

72.6
50

74.9
51

79.0
52

79.9
53

83.8
54

Rb

Sr

Y

Zr

Nb

Mo

Tc

Ru

Rh

Pd

Ag

Cd

In

Sn

Sb

Te

I

Xe

85.5
55

87.6
56

88.9
57

91.2
72

92.9
73

95.9
74

(98)
75

101.1
76

102.9
77

106.4
78

107.9
79

112.4
80

114.8
81

118.7
82

121.8
83

127.6
84

126.9
85

131.3
86

Cs

Ba

La*

Hf

Ta

W

Re

Os

Ir

Pt

Au

Hg

Tl

Pb

Bi

Po

At

Rn

132.9
87

137.3
88

138.9
89

178.5
104

180.9
105

183.9
106

186.2
107

190.2
108

192.2
109

195.1

197.0

200.6

204.4

207.2

209.0

(209)

(210)

(222)

Fr

Ra

Ac†

Unq†

Unp

Unh

Uns

Uno

Une

(223)

(226)

(227)

(261)

(262)
58

(263)
59

(262)
60

(265)
61

(267)

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

Ce

Pr

Nd

Pm

Sm

Eu

Gd

Tb

Dy

Ho

Er

Tm

Yb

Lu

140.1
90

140.9
91

144.2
92

(145)
93

150.4
94

152.0
95

157.3
96

158.9
97

162.5
98

164.9
99

167.3
100

168.9
101

173.0
102

175.0
103

*
†

Th

Pa

U

Np

Pu

Am

Cm

Bk

Cf

Es

Fm

Md

No

Lr

232.0

(231)

238.0

(237)

(244)

(243)

(247)

(247)

(251)

(252)

(257)

(258)

(259)

(260)

Passage I
Ammonia can be prepared by the reversible reaction
between H2 and N2 in the presence of a mixture of FeO
and Al2K2O4 (Reaction 1) under a variety of conditions
(Table 1).

Reaction 1
Table 1 Equilibrium Concentrations of NH3(g) at
Several Temperatures and Pressures
Equilibrium concentration of NH3(g)
Pressure
(% by volume)
(atm)
at 200°C at 400°C at 600°C at 800°C
1
15.3
0.44
0.05
0.01
100
80.6
25.1
4.47
1.15
200
85.8
36.3
8.25
2.24
1,000

98.3
80.0
31.5
—
NH3 can also be prepared by reacting a metal nitride,
such as Mg3N2, with H2O, as summarized by the
following unbalanced equation (Reaction 2).

1. Is Reaction 1 exothermic under standard
conditions?
A) Yes, because heat must be added to initiate the
reaction
B) Yes, because the standard enthalpy change is
negative
C) No, because the percent yield of NH3 is greatest at
high pressure
D) No, because the standard enthalpy change is
negative
2. Which of the following graphs best shows the effect
of pressure on the equilibrium percentage yield of
NH3(g) at 200°C?
A)

B)

→

Mg3N2(s) + H2O(l)
Mg(OH)2(s) + NH3(g)
Reaction 2

Ammonia and ammonium salts are used as commercial
fertilizers. Ammonium salts are prepared by reacting
NH3 with HX (an acid) as shown below (Reaction 3).

→

NH3(g) + HX(aq)
NH4X(s)
Reaction 3

C)

The approximate electronegativities of several
elements are given in Table 2.
Table 2 Electronegativities of Several Elements
Element
Elecronegativity
H
2.20
I
2.66
N
3.04
O
3.44
F
3.98

D)

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5


3. The most likely role of the FeO/Al2K2O4 mixture
used in Reaction 1 is to:
A) increase the rate of the reaction.
B) increase the equilibrium constant.
C) provide energy to facilitate the reaction.
D) lower the pH of the reaction mixture.
4. If excess NH3(g) reacts with H2SO4(aq), which of
the following compounds can be produced?
A) NH4SO4
B) NH4H2SO4
C) NH4(SO4)2
D) (NH4)2SO4
5. What kind of interactions take place between
molecules of the product of Reaction 1?
A) Ionic only
B) Hydrogen bonding only
C) Dipole-dipole only
D) Both hydrogen bonding and dipole-dipole
6. Which of the following ions involved in Reaction 2
is the strongest base?
A) N3-(aq)
B) OH–(aq)
C) Mg2+(aq)
D) H+(aq)

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6


Passage II
A large amount of energy is released when the nucleus
of an atom disintegrates. Nuclear fission of 1 kg of
U produces approximately 8.0 × 1013 J, an amount of
energy equal to that produced by burning 2.3 × 106 kg
of coal. A simple model of nuclear disintegration can
be used to explain the source of this large amount of
energy.
The nucleus of a U atom contains 92 protons and
146 neutrons in a sphere with a radius of
approximately 7.6 × 10–15 m. There is a large repulsive
force between the positive charges in the nucleus. This
force is balanced by a short-range attractive force, the
strong nuclear force. By using a simple model,
calculations can be done to find the amount of energy
released when a uranium atom fissions. The model
assumes that the uranium nucleus disintegrates into
two spherical fragments, as shown in Figure 1.

The repulsive force between the two nuclei is kQ2/d2,
where k is Coulomb’s constant and d is the distance
between the centers of the nuclei. The potential energy
of the system of charged nuclear fragments is kQ2/(2r),
which is the energy available from this disintegration.
A value of 3.2 × 10–11 J per atom is obtained by

making a calculation for the model uranium atom. This
value is very close to the experimentally determined
value.

7. According to the passage, the energy released when
an atom splits comes from:
A) fast-moving electrons.
B) the short-range attraction of the nucleons.
C) mutual attraction of the fragments.
D) mutual repulsion of the fragments.
8. A nucleus splits into two fragments that have equal
charge but unequal mass. Which of the following is
equal for the two fragments as they move apart?
A) Magnitude of the force of one fragment on the
other
B) Magnitude of acceleration
C) Speed
D) Kinetic energy
9. Based on the passage, why are there no naturally
occurring elements that have more protons in their
nucleus than uranium does?

Figure 1 Nuclear disintegration model
The fragments each have radius r, mass m, and charge
Q. Immediately after separation, their centers are
separated by 2r. There is a large electrical repulsion
between these two fragments that causes them to move
apart and gain kinetic energy.

A) All of the heavier elements have radioactively

decayed.
B) All of the heavier elements are stable.
C) The range of the strong nuclear force is too short to
hold them together.
D) The heavier elements can be made only in nuclear
reactors.

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7


10. Which of the following graphs best illustrates how
the force between fragments from the fission of a
uranium nucleus varies as the fragments move
away from each other?
A)

B)

C)

D)

11. If they are given enough energy, nuclei of lighter
atoms can fuse together. Which of the following
best explains why this energy is required?
A) To overcome the mutual repulsion of the nuclei
B) To strip the electrons from the nuclei
C) To add electrons to the nuclei

D) To overcome the strong nuclear force
12. If a uranium nucleus undergoes fission as shown
in Figure 1, as one fragment moves away from the
other fragment, it has:
A) constant speed.
B) constant acceleration.
C) decreasing acceleration.
D) increasing acceleration.

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8


Passage III
Ozone (O3) is formed in the upper atmosphere by
reactions 1 and 2.

→ O+O
Reaction 2: O + O → O
Reaction 1: O2

2

13. A compound that significantly assists in ozone
depletion CANNOT be:
A) a gas.
B) a radical precursor.
C) inert in the lower atmosphere.
D) inert in the upper atmosphere.

3

Because reactions 1 and 2 are photochemically
reversible, ozone is removed at a rate that is equal to
the rate of its formation, and a steady state
concentration is reached. Table 1 summarizes the
thermodynamic data for the oxygen species involved in
ozone formation.
Table 1 Thermodynamic Properties of Oxygen
Oxygen
S
∆Hf
∆Gf
Species
(J/mol·K)
(kJ/mol)
(kJ/mol)
O
161.0
247.5
230.1
O2
205.0
0
0
O3
238.8
142
163.4

The ozone balance has recently been disturbed,
resulting in a net loss of ozone in the upper atmosphere.
Scientists believe this is due in part to reactions
involving chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) such as CF3Cl.
Although CFCs are typically inert, they can undergo
photolysis in the upper atmosphere and subsequently
assist in the decomposition of ozone according to
reactions 3–5.

→ F C· + Cl·
Reaction 4: Cl· + O → ClO· + O
Reaction 5: ClO· + O → Cl· + O
Reaction 3: F3CCl

14. The chlorine atom in Reaction 4 is very reactive
because it has:
A) an unpaired electron.
B) an extra electron.
C) an expanded octet.
D) a partial negative charge.
15. Which of the following is the balanced net
reaction that is described by reactions 4 and 5?
A) O3 + O → O2
B) O3 + O → 2 O2
C) O3 + Cl· → Cl· + O + O2
D) O3 + ClO· → 2 O2 + Cl·
16. Based on Table 1, which of the following graphs
most accurately depicts the free energy changes
during the course of reactions 1 and 2?
A)

3

3

B)

2

2

This mechanism is supported by the fact that periodic
increases in ClO· in the upper atmosphere correlate
well with times of ozone depletion.

C)

D)

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9


17. According to Table 1, what is ∆S of the following
reaction?
2 O3

→3O

2

A) –33.8 J/(mol·K)
B) 33.8 J/(mol·K)
C) –137.4 J/(mol·K)
D) 137.4 J/(mol·K)
18. From reactions 3–5, what can be determined about
the relative concentrations of CFCs and O2?
A) One equivalent of CFC is required to produce one
equivalent of O2.
B) One equivalent of CFC is required to produce two
equivalents of O2.
C) A catalytic amount of CFC can produce much O2.
D) The CFC is produced by a catalytic amount of O2.

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10


Passage IV
Fertilizers are substances added to the soil to improve
plant growth and productivity. Commonly used
fertilizers contain ionic salts of N, P, and K. Because
of the complexity of soil chemistry, it is often difficult
to predict how soil pH will be affected by the addition
of a fertilizer.
Ionic salts used as fertilizers can generally be classified
chemically as either acidic or basic. Ammonium
dihydrogen phosphate (NH4H2PO4), a commonly used

fertilizer, can alter soil pH according to Equation 1.
2 NH4H2PO4(s)
2 NH4+(aq) + H2PO4–(aq) + HPO42–(aq) + H+(aq)

Equation 1
Alternatively, the fertilizer ammonium monohydrogen
phosphate [(NH4)2HPO4] can alter soil pH according to
Equation 2.
2 (NH4)2HPO4(s) + H2O(l)
4 NH4+(aq) + HPO42–(aq) + H2PO4–(aq) + OH–(aq)

Equation 2

If a fertilizer alters the original soil pH too drastically,
CaCO3, a standard “liming” material, can be used to
raise soil pH, and CaCl2 can be used to lower soil pH.
Ammonia is sometimes applied directly to the soil to
increase the ammonium ion content by its interaction
with water in the soil. The ammonium ions from all
these sources can further affect soil pH during the
nitrification process. In this process, soil microbes
convert ammonium ions to nitrate ions according to
Equation 3.
NH4+(aq) + 2 O2(g) → NO3–(aq) + H2O(l) + 2 H+(aq)

Equation 3
The nitrate ions are taken up by plants and converted
first to nitrite ions, NO2–, then to ammonia for amino
acid synthesis in the plant.

19. After adding the fertilizer shown in Equation 2 to
the soil, what will be the most likely effect of
excessively moist soil conditions?
A) The degree of ionization will be greater, releasing
more OH–.
B) The degree of ionization will be greater, consuming
more OH–.
C) The degree of ionization will be reduced, releasing
more OH–.
D) The degree of ionization will be reduced,
consuming more OH–.
20. Which of the following is the most likely reason
that plants CANNOT utilize nitrogen from the
atmosphere?
A) N2 is present in very low concentrations in the
atmosphere.
B) N2 is too polar.
C) N2 is very unreactive because it is a noble gas.
D) N2 is very unreactive because of the great strength
of the N≡N triple bond.
21. In Equation 1, HPO42– is the conjugate:
A) acid of NH4+.
B) base of NH4+.
C) acid of H2PO4–.
D) base of H2PO4–.
22. Which of the following equilibria best accounts
for the pH-raising effect of CaCO3?
Ca2+ + CO32–
A) CaCO3
B) CaCO3 + 2 H2O

CaH2 + H2CO32– + 2 OH–
2–
C) CO3 + H2O
HCO3– + OH–
D) Ca2+ + H2O
CaH2 + OH–
23. In the equilibrium constant expression for
Equation 2, [H2O] is omitted because the salt is:
A) only weakly basic, and [H2O] is nearly constant.
B) strongly basic, and [H2O] is nearly zero.
C) only weakly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly constant.
D) strongly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly zero.

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11


These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

24.

Na2CO3 + HCl

→ CO

2

+ H2O + NaCl

Consider the above unbalanced equation. For this
reaction, how many mL of a 2 M solution of
Na2CO3 are required to produce 11.2 L of CO2 at
STP?
A) 125 mL
B) 250 mL
C) 375 mL
D) 500 mL
25. By how much does the oxidation number of
manganese in MnO4– differ from that of Mn2+?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 6
26. If ocean waves strike the shore every 3.0 s and the
horizontal distance between adjacent crests and
troughs is 1.0 m, what is the average speed of the
waves?
A) 0.33 m/s
B) 0.67 m/s
C) 1.5 m/s
D) 3.0 m/s
27. A particle is moving on a circular path, whose
radius is 4 cm, with a frequency of 4 Hz. How
long will it take for the particle to move through a
distance of 16π cm along the circle?
A) 1/4 s
B) 1/2 s
C) 1 s

D) 4 s

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12


Passage V
A chemist is studying the catalytic effect of the
enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase (PNP) on the
polymerization of cytosine 3',5'-diphosphate (CDP).
PNP cleaves nucleoside diphosphates with the release
of a phosphate species, and the addition of a trace
amount of magnesium ion ensures that the catalyst is
active. Equation 1 shows a polymerization reaction in
which a single polymer macromolecule is made from
CDP.

Equation 1
In practice, the reaction shown in Equation 1 occurs
many times, yielding a product composed of many
polymeric strands.
Experiment 1
The chemist dissolves 16 mmol CDP in 1 L of an
aqueous solution containing PNP and Mg2+ and buffers
the solution at pH 8.7. The chemist monitors the
reaction by measuring the amount of inorganic
phosphate produced. No reaction is detected for 30
min, then the reaction appears to proceed at a constant
rate until it stops with a final HPO42– concentration of

8 mM. The recovered polymer contains 7.5 mmol of
cytosine.

28. What mass of CDP (403 g mol–1) is in 10 mL of
the buffered solution at the beginning of
Experiment 1?
A) 6.4 x 10–4 g
B) 6.4 x 10–3 g
C) 6.4 x 10–2 g
D) 6.4 x 10–1 g
29. As an alternative to Experiment 2, the chemist also
can improve the yield of the polymer obtained in
Experiment 1 by increasing the amount of:
A) H2O.
B) PNP.
C) Mg2+.
D) CDP.
30. Which of the following expressions gives the
equilibrium constant (Keq) for the reaction shown
in Equation 1?
A)
B)
C)
D)

[(CP)n] [HPO42–]n
[CDP]n
[(CP)n] [HPO42–]
[CDP]n
[(CP)n] [HPO42–]n

[CDP]
[CP] [HPO42–]n
[CDP]n

Experiment 2

31. According to Equation 1, the concentration of the
polymer with respect to [HPO42–] is:

The chemist repeats Experiment 1 but adds enough
manganese sulfate to precipitate the slightly soluble
manganese hydrogen phosphate as it forms. The
recovered polymer contains 11.4 mmol of cytosine.

A) n[HPO42–].
B) n2[HPO42–].
C) (1/n)[HPO42–].
D) (1/n2)[HPO42–].
32. The pKa for the dissociation of H2PO4– to HPO42–
is 6.7. What is the initial ratio of
[HPO42–]:[H2PO4–] in the buffer solution of
Experiment 1?
A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 100:1
D) 200:1

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13

Passage VI
Carbon dating is a common method for estimating the
age of artifacts found by archaeologists. The principle
of radioactive dating is based on knowledge of the
characteristics of the 14C isotope, which is commonly
found in most handmade objects. This isotope is
unstable and experiences spontaneous beta decay with
a half-life of approximately 6000 years. Archaeologists
need only a single radioactive measurement from a
found object to estimate the age of the object.
Scintillation detectors are often used for measurement
of radioactive decay. A scintillator is a substance that
produces light as a result of the de-excitation of atoms.
The excitation is caused by the absorption of energy, in
this case from incident beta radiation. A scintillating
material is attached to a photomultiplier tube that
collects the light and converts it into electrical pulses,
which are measured and counted. The electrical pulses
indicate the energy of the radiation produced by the
object being measured and the rate at which the decay
occurs.
The mass of the beta particle is 9 × 10–31 kg. The
velocity of electromagnetic radiation in vacuum is 3 ×
108 m/s. Planck’s constant is 6.6 × 10–34 J·s.

35. The average velocity of a beta particle ejected
from 14C is 3 x 107 m/s. What is the average
kinetic energy of this beta particle?

A) 1.5 x 10–8 J
B) 2.3 x 10–16 J
C) 4.0 x 10–16 J
D) 1.5 x 10–23 J
36. The best materials to use as scintillators are nearly
transparent to the wavelengths of the light that
they emit. This characteristic is important because:
A) it minimizes the reabsorption of the light.
B) it maximizes the reabsorption of the light.
C) it maximizes the amount of light produced.
D) it increases the wavelength of the light produced.
37. When the wavelength for maximum light emission
of a given scintillator is 450 nm, what is the
energy of the light photon?
A) 4.4 x 10–19 J
B) 1.4 x 10–25 J
C) 4.4 x 10–28 J
D) 2.9 x 10–42 J

33. The 14C atom undergoes beta decay to 14N. What
particle is being emitted from the carbon nucleus?
A) Electron
B) Alpha
C) Neutron
D) Positron
34. Archaeologists find an object that is known to be
created 18,000 years ago. Measurements indicate
that 1000 atoms of 14C are present in the
object. How many atoms of 14C were present
when the object was made?

A) 1000
B) 3000
C) 3375
D) 8000

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14


Passage VII
A group of students performed two experiments to
study several transition metals.
Experiment 1
The students reacted four transition metals with
nonmetals and observed the products formed (Table 1).
Table 1 Products of Reacting Transition Metals with
Nonmetals
Transition
Metal
Ni
Cu

O2(g)
NiO
Cu2O,
CuO
ZnO
Ag2O

Zn
Ag

S(s)
NiS
Cu2S
ZnS
Ag2S

Nonmetal
Cl2(g)
Br2(l)
NiCl2
NiBr2
CuCl2
CuBr2
ZnCl2
AgCl

ZnBr2
AgBr

I2(s)
NiI2
CuI
ZnI2
AgI

Experiment 2
The students prepared solutions of 0.1 M X(NO3)n(aq),

where X represents a transition metal. Then they
prepared the following three reagents.
•
•
•

0.1 M NaCl(aq)
0.1 M (NH4)2C2O4(aq)
0.1 M Na2CO3(aq)

The students put 2.0 mL of X(NO3)n(aq) into each of
three test tubes. They added 2.0 mL of NaCl(aq) to the
first tube, 2.0 mL of (NH4)2C2O4(aq) to the next tube,
and 2.0 mL of Na2CO3(aq) to the third tube. They
observed whether a precipitate formed and noted its
color (Table 2).
Table 2 Results of Adding Reagents to Transition
Metal Solutions
Transition
Color of precipitate
Metal
NaCl(aq) (NH4)2C2O4(aq) Na2CO3(aq)
Ni(NO3)2(aq)
*
*
green
Cu(NO3)2(aq)
*
aqua
blue

Zn(NO3)2(aq)
*
white
white
Cd(NO3)2(aq)
white
white
white
AgNO3(aq)
white
colorless
yellow

Note: * indicates that no precipitate formed.
Finally, the students added 2.0 mL of 1.0 M HNO3(aq)
to each tube containing a precipitate. In all but two
cases, the precipitate disappeared when HNO3(aq) was
added. The precipitate remained in the tube that
contained AgNO3(aq) and NaCl(aq) and in the tube
that contained AgNO3(aq) and (NH4)2C2O4(aq).

38. Cu attains a different oxidation state when it reacts
with Cl2(g) than when it reacts with I2(s) because
Cl2(g):
A) has a higher boiling point than does I2(s).
B) has a lower boiling point than does I2(s).
C) attracts electrons more strongly than does I2(s).
D) attracts electrons less strongly than does I2(s).
39. What was the most likely identity of the
precipitate that formed when NaCl(aq) was added

to Cd(NO3)2(aq)?
A) Cd2Cl(s)
B) CdCl(s)
C) CdCl2(s)
D) CdCl3(s)

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15


40. If Cd is reacted with S, what is the most likely
oxidation state of Cd in the product?
A) +1
B) +2
C) +4
D) +6
41. When a strip of Cu is placed into H2O(l), no
change is observed. However, when a strip of Cu
is placed into a solution of HNO3(aq), a gas
evolves. What is the most likely identity of the
gas?
A) NO(g)
B) CO2(g)
C) H2(g)
D) O3(g)
42. In Experiment 2, is the boiling point of
Zn(NO3)2(aq) higher than that of AgNO3(aq)?
A) Yes, because the solute in Zn(NO3)2(aq) is ionic,
whereas the solute in AgNO3(aq) is not

B) Yes, because the solute in Zn(NO3)2(aq) dissociates
into three ions, and the solute in AgNO3(aq)
dissociates into two ions
C) No, because the solute in Zn(NO3)2(aq) has a
higher molecular weight than does the solute in
AgNO3(aq)
D) No, because Zn(NO3)2(aq) contains fewer grams of
solute than does AgNO3(aq)
43. When a strip of Cu is placed in AgNO3(aq), a new
metal forms on the surface of the Cu strip. This
occurs because Cu is:
A) reduced and Ag is oxidized.
B) reduced and Ag+ is oxidized.
C) oxidized and Ag is reduced.
D) oxidized and Ag+ is reduced.

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16


Passage VIII
A student performed an experiment to investigate
thermal and electrical properties of an iron wire. At
room temperature the wire had a length (L) of 4 m, a
diameter (D) of 4 × 10–4 m, and a mass (M) of 4 × 10–3
kg. The wire was connected in series with an ammeter,
a power supply, and a switch.
The student selected a voltage (V) and closed the
switch so current (I) flowed through the circuit, raising

the wire’s temperature (T). The values in Table 1 were
measured in five trials with different wire temperatures.
(Note: The initial value of R, the circuit’s resistance,
was measured at a temperature of 293 K with an
ohmmeter. The other values of R were calculated from
the values of V and I.)
Table 1 Data for Thermal and Electrical Properties of
Iron Wire
R
T
L
I
V
Trial
(K)
(m)
(A)
(V)
(Ω)
1
293
4.000
4.0
0
0
2
373
4.004
6.1
0.75

4.6
3
473
4.009
8.7
1.18
10
4
573
4.014
11.3
1.60
18
5
673
4.019
13.9
2.00
28
The change in wire length (∆L) is related to the change
in temperature (∆T) by the relationship ∆L = αL∆T,
where α , the coefficient of thermal expansion, is a
constant. A similar relationship, ∆D = αD∆T, describes
how the diameter of a wire changes when it is heated.
The constant has the same value in both equations.
The energy radiated from a heated wire each second is
AσT 4, where A is the surface area of the wire, and σ =
5.67 × 10–8 J/m2·s·K4 is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant.

44. What is the electrical power through the wire

when T is 673 K?
A) 24 W
B) 40 W
C) 56 W
D) 72 W
45. What is the approximate density of the wire at 473
K? (Note: The volume of the wire is 5 x 10–7 m3.)
A) 2,000 kg/m3
B) 3,600 kg/m3
C) 6,400 kg/m3
D) 8,000 kg/m3
46. Which of the following graphs best illustrates the
relationship between T and R?
A)

B)

C)

D)

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17


47. The ratio of T in Trial 5 to T in Trial 3 is
approximately
. What is the ratio of the
energy radiated each second for Trial 5 to that of

Trial 3?
A)
B) 2:1
C) 2
D) 4:1
48. What is the minimum amount of heat energy
required to increase T from 373 K to 573 K?
(Note: The heat capacity of iron is 460 J/kg·K.)
A) 368 J
B) 550 J
C) 1,840 J
D) 3,680 J
49. During Trial 5, the wire was heated from 293 K to
673 K while V was held constant at 28 V. How did
the current through the circuit change during this
time?
A) It remained constant at 2 A.
B) It remained constant at 7 A.
C) It increased from 2 A to 7 A.
D) It decreased from 7 A to 2 A.

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18


These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

53. Below is a phase diagram for water.

50. The initial decay activity of a given quantity of a
radioactive element is 240 counts/min. After 24
min, the activity is 60 counts/min. What is the
half-life of the element?
A) 4 min
B) 12 min
C) 24 min
D) 48 min
51. Which of the following describes the entropy
change for the sublimation of iodine I2(s) → I2(g)?
A) ∆S < 0
B) ∆S = 0
C) ∆S > 0
D) Cannot be determined from the given information.
52. When a sound source moves away from an
observer, the observer has the impression that the
sound source is:
A) rotating.
B) louder than it actually is.
C) lower in frequency than it actually is.
D) higher in frequency than it actually is.

As the pressure applied to a sample of water at –
0.1°C is increased from 1.0 torr to 200 atm at
constant temperature, the:
A) vapor will become a solid and then a liquid.
B) vapor will become a liquid and then a solid.
C) vapor will become and remain a solid.
D) solid will become a liquid.

54. A small negatively charged particle is placed near
a fixed positively charged particle (Q). Which of
the following describes the motion of the
negatively charged particle?
A) It accelerates away from Q.
B) It accelerates toward Q.
C) It moves with constant speed away from Q.
D) It moves with constant speed toward Q.

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19


Passage IX
A chemist reacted Substance X with various quantities
of Ti and then performed two experiments to study the
properties of the resulting samples. The samples
contained 0%, 1%, 3%, and 5% Ti (and were referred
to as XT-0, XT-1, XT-3, and XT-5, respectively.)
Experiment 1
The solubilities of the XTs were determined by adding
a fixed amount of each to two different solvents,
tetrahydrofuran (THF) and toluene (Figure 1). The
results are shown in Table 1.

Table 2 Effects of Temperature Change on the Mass of
XT Samples
Temperature
Mass of Sample (g)

(°C)
XT-0
XT-1, 3, & 5*
20°
1.0
1.0
700°
0.8
0.8
1,200°
0.8
0.8
1,500°
0.8
1.1
20°
0.8
0.8
1,200°
0.8
0.8
1,500°
0.8
1.1
* XT-1, 3, and 5 responded the same way.

55. Which of the following conclusions about XT
solubility is most consistent with the data in Table
1?
A) The solubility of XTs in THF decreases as the

percentage of Ti increases.
B) The solubility of XTs in toluene decreases as the
percentage of Ti increases.
C) XTs are more soluble in THF than in toluene.
D) XTs are more soluble in toluene than in THF.
Figure 1 Chemical structures of the solvents
Table 1 Percent Solubility of XT Samples
Amount of sample
that dissolves (%)
Compound
THF
Toluene
XT-0
32
35
XT-1
35
38
XT-3
50
53
XT-5
60
65
Experiment 2
The XTs were placed under N2(g), then heated to
1,500°C, cooled, and reheated. The mass of each
sample was recorded at various temperatures during
the process (Table 2).

56. The loss in weight as XTs are heated from 20°C to
700°C most likely occurs because:
A) hydrogen bonds are formed.
B) XTs are ionized.
C) nuclei emit protons.
D) volatile components are released.
57. Electrons in which of the following orbitals of Ti
can form bonds with Substance X?
A) 2s
B) 3d
C) 4p
D) 5f

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20


58. Which of the following elements, if reacted with
Substance X, will most likely yield compounds
with the same properties as the XTs described in
the passage?
A) Sc
B) Cu
C) Zr
D) Nb
59. Which of the following is the orbital hybridization
of O in THF?
A) sp2
B) sp3

C) sp3d2
D) s2p2
60. Which of the two solvents in Figure 1 is most
soluble in H2O?
A) THF, because THF forms hydrogen bonds with
H2O but toluene does not
B) THF, because THF forms stronger hydrogen bonds
with water than does toluene
C) Toluene, because toluene contains double bonds but
THF does not
D) Toluene, because toluene has a higher molecular
weight than does THF

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21


Passage X
A 47-kg child with a 3-kg sled and a 54-kg child with a
6-kg toboggan slide down the ice-covered hill
illustrated in the figure below. Points A and B are at
the top and bottom of the hill, respectively, and are a
distance l apart along the slope. Between points A and
B the sled and rider slide free of friction, but the
toboggan and rider are opposed by a constant 60-N
frictional force. To the right of Point B the sled and
rider are opposed by a 50-N frictional force, and the
toboggan and rider are opposed by a 120-N frictional
force. (Note: Assume that air resistance is negligible.

Use g = 10 m/s2.)

63. The sled and rider are traveling at 10 m/s when
they have a completely inelastic collision with the
stationary toboggan and rider. How fast do the
sled and toboggan travel immediately after the
collision?
A) 4.6 m/s
B) 5.0 m/s
C) 8.3 m/s
D) 10 m/s
64. What is the coefficient of friction between the sled
and the ground when the sled and rider are to the
right of Point B?
A) 0.1
B) 0.2
C) 0.5
D) 1.0
65. From ground level, a person at Point A throws a
snowball horizontally to the right at 25
m/s. Where does the snowball land?

61. Which of the following best describes the energy
conversion that is taking place when the toboggan
is sliding from Point A to Point B?
A) Kinetic to potential and thermal
B) Kinetic and potential to thermal
C) Potential to kinetic and thermal
D) Potential and kinetic to thermal
62. Which of the following expressions gives the

amount of energy lost to friction by the toboggan
and rider between points A and B?
A) (60 N)(20 m)
B) (60 N)(l)
C) (60 kg)(g)(20 m)
D) (60 kg)(g)(l)

A) 10 m to the left of Point B
B) At Point B
C) 12.5 m to the right of Point B
D) 50 m to the right of Point B
66. The sled and rider start from a location on the hill
that is 10 m lower than Point A. How does the
speed of the sled and rider at Point B, starting
from this location, compare to the speed of the
sled and rider at Point B when starting from the
top of the hill?
A) It is slower by a factor of 4.
B) It is slower by a factor of 2 .
C) It is slower by a factor of 2.
D) It is slower by a factor of
.

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22


Passage XI
Lasers produce extremely coherent light due to the

long-term stability of the standing-wave pattern
established within a laser cavity. A standing-wave
pattern in a laser cavity is illustrated in the figure
below.

Standing-wave patterns are characterized by nodes and
antinodes. There are five nodes in the figure with three
of them labeled. Antinodes are located midway
between adjacent nodes. The amplitude is always zero
at a node, but the wave amplitude oscillates
sinusoidally at an antinode. A typical laser cavity may
contain millions of cavity nodes.
A number used to describe standing waves is the mode
number, m, which is equal to one less than the number
of nodes in the standing-wave pattern. Laser cavities
have mode numbers that are related to the allowed
cavity wavelength, λm, through the equation mλm = 2L,
where L is the length of the laser cavity. For a gas laser,
the atomic properties of the lasing medium may limit
the number of possible frequencies of oscillation to
two or three. These allowed frequencies, fm, are
determined by the equation fm = c/λm, where c = 3
× 108 m/s, the speed of light.

67. What is the spacing between adjacent nodes in a
standing-wave pattern?
A) 2λ
B) 3λ
2
C) λ

D) λ
2

68. For a given laser-cavity mode, the standing-wave
pattern within a laser cavity can be viewed as a
superposition of two traveling waves. Their
amplitudes and directions are described by which
of the following?
A) Equal amplitudes; opposite directions
B) Equal amplitudes; same direction
C) Different amplitudes; same direction
D) Different amplitudes; opposite directions
69. A certain laser has only one mode of oscillation.
Which of the following are properties of the light
it emits?
I.
II.
III.

It is monochromatic.
It is coherent.
It is diffuse.

A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
70. A gas laser has a cavity length of ⅓ m and a
single oscillation frequency of 9.0 x 1014 Hz. What
is the cavity mode number?

A) 1.5 x 106
B) 2.0 x 106
C) 3.0 x 106
D) 6.0 x 106
71. A gas laser can oscillate simultaneously in two
adjacent cavity modes. This oscillation produces
beats; the beat frequency is ƒb = (fm+1 – fm) where
ƒm+1 and ƒm are the frequencies of the two cavity
modes. Which of the following is an expression
for the beat wavelength?
A)

(fm+1 – fm)
c
B) c(fm+1 – fm)
C)
1
c(fm+1 – fm)
D)
c
(fm+1 – fm)

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23


These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

72. An object that is totally immersed in benzene
(specific gravity = 0.7) is subject to a buoyancy
force of 5 N. When the same object is totally
immersed in an unknown liquid, the buoyancy
force is 12 N. What is the approximate specific
gravity of the unknown liquid?
A) 0.3
B) 0.9
C) 1.7
D) 2.3
73. A 1.0-kg object slides along a frictionless surface
at 8.0 m/s until it strikes a stationary 3.0-kg block.
If the blocks stick together, what is their speed
immediately after the collision?

76. The principal quantum number is a measure of
which of the following?
A) Approximate radial size of an electron cloud
B) Approximate shape of an electron cloud
C) Number of valence electrons that orbit a nucleus
D) Number of protons and neutrons found in the
nucleus of an atom
77. An unknown solid weighs 31.6 N. When
submerged in water, its apparent weight is 19.8 N.
What is the specific gravity of the unknown
sample?
A) 2.96
B) 2.68
C) 2.02
D) 1.68

A) 1.0 m/s
B) 2.0 m/s
C) 4.0 m/s
D) 8.0 m/s
74. Which of the following will occur if the acidity of
a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is increased?
A) The Ksp will decrease and additional Ca(OH)2 will
dissolve.
B) The Ksp will be unchanged and additional Ca(OH)2
will dissolve.
C) The Ksp will decrease and additional Ca(OH)2 will
precipitate.
D) The Ksp will be unchanged and additional Ca(OH)2
will precipitate.
75. In a nearsighted individual, the image of a distant
object is focused:
A) in front of the retina, requiring divergent lens
correction.
B) in front of the retina, requiring convergent lens
correction.
C) behind the retina, requiring divergent lens
correction.
D) behind the retina, requiring convergent lens
correction.
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24

Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137
There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.

This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section for
the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
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