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MCAT
Practice Test 6R


Physical Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 1-77
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive
passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are
not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives.
Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is
provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.

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the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are any
questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line (202828-0690).


Periodic Table of the Elements

1

H

2

He
4.0
10

1.0
3

4

Li

Be

B

C

N

O

F

Ne

6.9

9.0

10.8

12.0

14.0

16.0

19.0

20.2

5

6

7

8

9

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

Na

Mg

Al

Si

P

S

Cl

Ar

23.0

24.3

27.0

28.1

31.0

32.1

35.5

39.9

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

K

Ca

Sc

Ti

V

Cr

Mn

Fe

Co

Ni

Cu

Zn

Ga

Ge

As

Se

Br

Kr

39.1
37

40.1
38

45.0
39

47.9
40

50.9
41

52.0
42

54.9
43

55.8
44

58.9
45

58.7
46

63.5
47

65.4
48

69.7
49

72.6
50

74.9
51

79.0
52

79.9
53

83.8
54

Rb

Sr

Y

Zr

Nb

Mo

Tc

Ru

Rh

Pd

Ag

Cd

In

Sn

Sb

Te

I

Xe

85.5
55

87.6
56

88.9
57

91.2
72

92.9
73

95.9
74

(98)
75

101.1
76

102.9
77

106.4
78

107.9
79

112.4
80

114.8
81

118.7
82

121.8
83

127.6
84

126.9
85

131.3
86

Cs

Ba

La*

Hf

Ta

W

Re

Os

Ir

Pt

Au

Hg

Tl

Pb

Bi

Po

At

Rn

132.9
87

137.3
88

138.9
89

178.5
104

180.9
105

183.9
106

186.2
107

190.2
108

192.2
109

195.1

197.0

200.6

204.4

207.2

209.0

(209)

(210)

(222)

Fr

Ra

Ac†

Unq†

Unp

Unh

Uns

Uno

Une

(223)

(226)

(227)

(261)

(262)
58

(263)
59

(262)
60

(265)
61

(267)

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

Ce

Pr

Nd

Pm

Sm

Eu

Gd

Tb

Dy

Ho

Er

Tm

Yb

Lu

140.1
90

140.9
91

144.2
92

(145)
93

150.4
94

152.0
95

157.3
96

158.9
97

162.5
98

164.9
99

167.3
100

168.9
101

173.0
102

175.0
103

*
†

Th

Pa

U

Np

Pu

Am

Cm

Bk

Cf

Es

Fm

Md

No

Lr

232.0

(231)

238.0

(237)

(244)

(243)

(247)

(247)

(251)

(252)

(257)

(258)

(259)

(260)

Passage I
Archaebacteria are often found in environments that
have extreme climatic conditions (e.g., in salt lakes or
in very acidic or alkaline hot springs). Most
archaebacteria are chemoautotrophs, bacteria that
obtain energy by a redox reaction. For example,
methanogens produce methane by metabolizing CO2.
The bond energy of C=O in CO2 is 803 kJ/mol, and the
C-H bond energy in CH4 is 414 kJ/mol.
Table 1 gives some of the chemical species that
scientists find in environments where archaebacteria
thrive.
Table 1 Chemicals
Name
Formula
Methane
CH4
Glycine
H2N-CH2-COOH
Potassium hydroxide KOH
Sulfuric acid
H2SO4
Carbon dioxide
CO2
Methanol
CH3OH
Sodium chloride
NaCl
Hydrogen sulfide
H2S

The methane found in swamp gas is a byproduct of
methanogens, which are also found in a symbiotic
association with a variety of cellulose-digesting
organisms, including cows and termites. Carbon-14
isotopic analysis even suggests that methane found
deep in the earth’s crust might have been produced by
archaebacteria.

1. Scientists are most likely to find which compound
listed in Table 1 in an alkaline lake?
A) NaCl
B) CH3OH
C) H2SO4
D) KOH

2. What pair of compounds found in Table 1 can form
extensive networks of intermolecular hydrogen
bonds with both participating?
A) Methane and methanol
B) Methane and glycine
C) Glycine and methanol
D) Methanol and carbon dioxide
3. How does an atom of carbon-14 differ from the
most abundant isotope of carbon?
A) By one proton
B) By two protons
C) By one neutron
D) By two neutrons
4. If an archaebacterial species lives in a pool that is
0.01 M HCl(aq), what is the pH of the water?

A) 12
B) 6
C) 2
D) 0.01
5. Which of the following compounds has the same
geometry as methane?
A) H2S
B) CO2
C) XeF4
D) SiCl4
6. Glycine passes through a very low pH membrane
channel in which form?
A) H2N-CH2-COOH
B) H3N+-CH2-COOH
C) H2N-CH2-COOD) H3N+-CH2-COO7. Like oxygen atoms in methanogens, which of the
following elements can act as an electron acceptor?
A) S
B) He
C) H2
D) Fe

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5


Passage II
The periodic table arranges the elements by atomic
number, aligning those with similar chemical
properties in columns. A primitive version of the

periodic table was created by a Russian chemist in
1869, long before the electronic configuration of the
elements was known. Dimitri Mendeleev grouped the
elements by their chemical properties and found that
the properties varied periodically with the atomic mass.
Mendeleev left empty spaces for undiscovered
elements. His genius was confirmed when the elements
that filled these blanks were isolated.
Henry Moseley showed that periodicity is a function
not of atomic mass but of atomic number, as stated by
today’s periodic law. The current periodic table
reflects this law. In 1985, an international committee
numbered the columns in the periodic table from 1 to
18 and abolished the A and B designations for maingroup and transition elements.

11. What is the mass number of the isotope of
bromine that has 44 neutrons?
A) 35
B) 79
C) 80
D) 81
12. According to trends in electronegativity, which of
the following pairs of atoms is most likely to form
an ionic bond?
A) N and O
B) C and F
C) Ca and I
D) Si and Cl

8. Which of the following atoms has the largest atomic

radius?
A) Sodium
B) Aluminum
C) Sulfur
D) Chlorine
9. Which of the following atoms has the largest first
ionization energy?
A) Potassium
B) Zinc
C) Gallium
D) Krypton
10. What is the sum of the protons, neutrons, and
electrons in strontium-90?
A) 90
B) 126
C) 128
D) 218

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6


Passage III
The Global Positioning System or “GPS” is based on
satellite radio ranging. A transmitter aboard each of the
24 satellites sends out a radio signal that specifies the
precise position of the satellite and the precise time the
signal was sent. The position is known from accurate
tracking by ground stations and the laws of orbital

mechanics, while synchronized cesium clocks aboard
each GPS satellite provide very accurate timing. Each
satellite has a mass of 1000 kg and orbits Earth in a
circle = 1.8 x 107 m above the surface of Earth (2.4 x
107 m from the center of Earth). It takes 12.4 hours to
complete this orbit.
The atomic clock is powered with a 5-g radioactive Cs
source. The transmitter is powered by a 1.32-V nickelcadmium battery. A radio receiver on Earth can be
used to calculate the distance to the satellite by
measuring the time difference between the broadcast
and reception because the signal travels at the speed of
light (3.0 x 108 m/s). When the distances to several
different satellites have been measured–at least four
satellites are visible from anywhere on Earth at all
times–the receiver position can be determined by
triangulation. Timing corrections due to atmospheric
effects are usually accounted for by broadcasting the
GPS signals at two frequencies, one at 102.1 MHz and
another at 104.9 MHz.

o

13. For a GPS satellite that is at an angle of 40 from
Earth’s horizon, it takes 0.07 s for the radio signal
to reach a receiver. The distance between the
transmitter and the receiver is:
A) 2.1 x 107 sin 40° m.
B) 2.1 x 107 m.
C) 2.1 x 1011 cos 40° m.
D) 2.1 x 1011 m.

14. A high-altitude GPS satellite is kept in a circular
orbit because Earth’s gravitational force:
A) supplies the centrifugal force.
B) offsets the atmospheric drag force.
C) offsets the moon’s gravitational force.
D) supplies the centripetal force.

15. If a GPS satellite orbited at six times its present
distance from the center of Earth and was four
times more massive, by what factor would the
gravitational force between Earth and the satellite
change?
A) Decrease by a factor of 9
B) Increase by a factor of 9
C) Decrease by a factor of 2/3
D) Increase by a factor of 2/3
16. How much current from a Ni-Cd battery is drawn
by a radio transmitter that requires 3.96 W?
A) 1/9 A
B) 1/3 A
C) 3 A
D) 9 A
17. What beat frequency is detected in a receiver on
Earth from the two GPS radio signals used to
correct for atmospheric effects?
A) 0.7 x 106 Hz
B) 1.4 x 106 Hz
C) 2.8 x 106 Hz
D) 5.6 x 106 Hz
18. A GPS radio signal travels slower through Earth’s

atmosphere than it travels through the vacuum of
space primarily because:
A) the atmosphere is warmer than the vacuum of
space.
B) gravity is stronger in the atmosphere than in space.
C) the atmosphere steadily decreases the power in the
radio signal.
D) the atmosphere has a larger index of refraction than
does the vacuum of space.
19. How many years will pass before there are 0.625
grams of Cs remaining in the source, if Cs has a
half-life of 175 years?
A) 525 years
B) 650 years
C) 700 years
D) 1400 years

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7


Passage IV
Olestra, a sucrose polyester, is the brand name of an
approved dietary fat replacement. The large-scale
synthesis of Olestra starts with a base-catalyzed
cleavage in methanol of the naturally occurring fats
(triacylglycerols or triglycerides) found in cottonseed
or soybean oils. The reaction liberates glycerine and
converts the fatty acids into methyl esters (Figure 1).

about 4 Cal/g. (Note: For water, the heat of fusion is
1.4 kcal/mol, the specific heat is 4.185 J/g•oC or 1
cal/g•oC, and the density is 1.0 g/mL at 15oC. One kg
equals 2.2 pounds.)

20. According to the passage, which of the following
compounds can the worker use to catalyze the
cleavage of a triglyceride?
A) HCl(aq)
B) NaCl(aq)
C) NaOH(aq)
D) Na2SO4(aq)
21. What is the energy content in kcal of one peanut,
if the temperature of 1 kg of water in a calorimeter
increases by 50oC upon the combustion of 10
peanuts?
A) 0.5 kcal
B) 1 kcal
C) 5 kcal
D) 10 kcal

Figure 1 Base-catalyzed cleavage of a triacylglycerol
(R = CH3(CH2)n-; n = 8, 10, 12, etc.)
As glycerine settles out, a plant worker draws it off and
separates the methyl esters from the remaining mixture
by distillation. A reaction between these esters and
sucrose, common table sugar, in the presence of a basic
catalyst and emulsifiers at a high temperature liberates
methanol and produces crude Olestra. The removal of

excess fatty acids and emulsifiers produces pure
Olestra.
Normal edible fats contain three fatty acid units,
whereas Olestra, also a true fat, contains six to eight
fatty acid units bonded to the sugar backbone. Olestra
is not metabolized because the additional fatty acid
units block the approach of digestive enzymes to the
cleavage sites.
Because a calorie (1 cal = 4.185 J) is a very small unit
of energy, food scientists use the Calorie (1 Cal =
4,185 J) with a capital C. A 1-ounce bag of potato
chips contains about 160 Cal. A normal fat contains 9
Cal/g, whereas carbohydrates and proteins provide

22. How many dietary calories does a 1-g sample of
Olestra contribute to a human consumer?
A) 0 Cal
B) 4 Cal
C) 5 Cal
D) 9 Cal
23. The boiling point of glycerine in comparison with
that of isopropyl alcohol, (CH3)2CHOH, is:
A) more than 10oC higher.
B) less than 10oC higher.
C) less than 10oC lower.
D) more than 10oC lower.
24. How many pounds (lb) of methanol does a worker
need if a reaction requires 20 moles of methanol?
A) 0.003 lb
B) 1.4 lb

C) 2.9 x 105 lb
D) 1.4 x 106 lb

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8


These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

25. Which of the following elements has the highest
electron affinity?
A) Carbon
B) Fluorine
C) Oxygen
D) Magnesium
26.

Ag+ + e- → Ag
Cu+ + e- → Cu
Pb2+ + 2 e- → Pb
Zn2+ + 2 e- → Zn

Eo = +0.80 V
Eo = +0.52 V
Eo = -0.13 V
Eo = -0.76 V

With which of the above metals can copper form a

galvanic cell in which copper is reduced?
A) With silver only
B) With lead only
C) With lead and zinc
D) With silver and zinc
27. Which of the following expressions correctly
describes the relationship between the frequency f
and the period T of a sinusoidal wave?
A) fT = 1
B) f/T = 1
C) f+ T = 1
D) f– T = 1
28. Suppose that a ball is thrown vertically upward
from earth with velocity v, and returns to its
original height in a timet. If the value of g were
reduced to g/6 (as on the moon), then t would:
A) increase by a factor of 6.
B) increase by a factor of 61/2.
C) decrease by a factor of 6.
D) decrease by a factor of 61/2.

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9


Passage V
In 1622, a Spanish ship carrying a cargo of silver
crashed on a coral reef near Cuba and sank. The ship
was laden with hardwood boxes of silver coins. The

boxes came to rest on the ocean floor and began to
decay. At first, aerobic microorganisms thrived but, as
the concentration of oxygen decreased, these
organisms died. Subsequently, sulfur-loving bacteria
began to flourish.
These sulfur bacteria consumed sulfate ions in
seawater and excreted the weak acid H2S, as shown in
Equation 1.
SO42-(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + 4 H2(g) → H2S(aq) + 4 H2O(l)

Equation 1

The excreted H2S then reacted with silver, which has a
standard reduction potential of +0.80 V. One of the
products was a black precipitate of Ag2S and the other
was hydrogen gas, as shown in Equation 2.
2 Ag(s) + H2S(aq) → Ag2S(s) + H2(g)

Equation 2
The hydrogen from this reaction provided additional
food for the sulfur microorganisms and accelerated the
corrosion of the silver coins. When the silver coins
were completely coated with Ag2S, the corrosive
reaction stopped.
Because the seawater contained small amounts of CO2
(the solubility of CO2 is 0.145 g/100 g H2O at 25oC and
1.00 atm), bicarbonate ions were formed by the
reaction shown in Equation 3.
H2O(l) + CO2(g)

H+(aq) + HCO3-(aq)

Equation 3
These bicarbonate ions combined with calcium to form
the insoluble CaCO3, which crystallized, encapsulating
the coins, sand, and decaying matter into rock-like
clumps. The explorers who discovered the treasure
found these rock-like structures.

29. The formation of Ag2S is an example of what kind
of reaction?
A) A combination reaction
B) A decomposition reaction
C) A single replacement reaction
D) A double replacement reaction
30. What is the maximum number of grams of H2S
that can be produced from 2 mol of sulfate ions by
the reaction of Equation 1?
A) 68 g
B) 34 g
C) 96 g
D) 192 g
31. To a first approximation, the ionization constant of
H2S is:
A) near zero.
B) much less than 1.
C) about 1.
D) much more than 1.
32. Sodium carbonate and calcium chloride are both
soluble in water. Which of the following equations

shows the net ionic reaction between these two
compounds?
A) 2 Na+(aq) + CO32-(aq) → Na2CO3(s)
B) Ca2+(aq) + CO32-(aq) → CaCO3(s)
C) Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → NaCl(s)
D) Ca2+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → CaCl2(s)
33. What species is the reducing agent in Equation 2?
A) S2B) H2S
C) H+
D) Ag

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10


Passage VI
The physics of stringed instruments has been studied
for almost as long as the instruments themselves have
been played. The most studied stringed instruments are
in the violin family. This family consists of four
instruments: the violin, the viola, the cello, and the
bass. Each of these instruments has four strings. The
fundamental tones of these strings are separated by a
perfect fifth, which means the fundamental frequency
of each string is 2/3 that of the next higher frequency
string. The tones are created when the bow is dragged
across the strings, a move called bowing.
The violin is the most popular instrument in the family.
Its strings are tuned with decreasing frequency to the

notes E, A, D, G, where A has a frequency of 440 Hz.
The strings of the viola are at A, D, G, C. The cello is
tuned one octave below the viola, which means the
frequencies of the cello strings are half that of the viola
strings. Finally, the bass is tuned two perfect fifths
below the cello.
The fundamental frequency f of a string is given by its
length L, tension T, and mass per unit length ρ as
f= (T/ρ)1/2/(2L).
Scientists have studied in great detail how violins
produce sound. The best violins produce loud tones
over the full frequency range of the instrument,
whereas poor instruments do not. Minor changes in the
thickness and density of the wood can produce
significant differences in an instrument’s sound.
Despite much research, scientists have not been able to
create violins that sound as pure and clear as those of
the great violinmaker Stradivarius. It seems that
despite all our scientific advances, there is still much to
learn about these musical instruments.

35. A way to make lower-toned instruments would be
to use:
A) heavier wood in the violin.
B) thicker wood in the violin.
C) heavier strings on the violin.
D) denser wood in the violin.
36. A good violin body is one that has good resonance
at the fundamental frequencies of:
A) the middle strings.

B) the highest frequency string.
C) the lowest frequency string.
D) all the strings.
37. The fundamental frequency of the A string on a
cello is:
A) 110 Hz.
B) 220 Hz.
C) 440 Hz.
D) 880 Hz.
38. The fundamental notes of a violin’s strings are at:
A) 98 Hz, 65 Hz, 43 Hz, 29 Hz.
B) 220 Hz, 147 Hz, 98 Hz, 65 Hz.
C) 440 Hz, 293 Hz, 196 Hz, 130 Hz.
D) 660 Hz, 440 Hz, 293 Hz, 196 Hz.

34. By what factor would a string’s tension need to be
changed to raise its fundamental frequency by a
perfect fifth?
A) 2/3
B) (2/3)1/2
C) 3/2
D) 9/4
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11


Passage VII
To model thermal motion of atoms in solids, let us
assume that each atom can oscillate about its

equilibrium position. Interactions with neighboring
atoms hold it in place allowing most motion in a single
preferred direction marked by x in Figure 1. The effect
of the neighboring atoms is described, for small
oscillations, by two springs of length l as shown. We
denote the atom’s mass by M. Each spring is
characterized by the spring constant K, so that the
restoring force it applies on the atom is K|x| in
magnitude, and is opposite in direction to the
displacement x.
The potential energy of each spring is given by Kx2/2.
An atom oscillates back and forth between its maximal
displacements x = –A and A, with frequency f, where A
is the amplitude of the motion. The time to complete
one oscillation is the period T. Experimentally, such
solids have internal energy nR(t + 273), where n is the
number of moles in the sample, R = 8.3 J/(mol·oC) is
the gas constant, and t is the temperature in oC. Usually,
A < l; the solid melts when the amplitude increases to l.
(Avogadro constant is N = 6 x 1023 per mole.)

41. The motion for small displacements x is
characterized by two dimensional constants, K and
M. Identify by dimensional argument the correct
formula from which the period T can be
calculated.
A) (T/π)2 = 4K/M
B) (T/π)2 = 4K·M
C) (T/π)2 = 4M/K
D) (T/π)2 = 4/(K·M)

42. In the oscillatory motion of an atom described by
the model, what quantity is conserved?
A) Total energy
B) Potential energy
C) Linear momentum
D) Angular momentum
43. The spring constant K can be computed from the
internal energy Eint and the amplitude A computed
by:
A) K = A2·Eint.
B) K = A·Eint.
C) K = Eint/A.
D) K = Eint/A2.
44. The specific heat of a solid has the SI units:

Figure 1 Model of an atom in a solid
39. What is the effective spring constant of the system
of two springs shown in Figure 1?
A) K
B) 2K
C) K/2
D) 0
40. The frequency and period of the oscillatory
motion:

A) J·kg ·K.
B) J/(kg·K).
C) J·kg/K.
D) kg·K/J.
45. The present model is limited to solids. Why can it

NOT describe monoatomic gases?
A) The atoms of a gas are not restricted to move near
fixed positions in space.
B) The spacing of atoms in a typical gas is much larger
than that in a typical solid.
C) Gases do not melt.
D) Most gases are transparent.

A) have the same units.
B) are proportional to each other.
C) are equal.
D) are the inverse of each other.

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12


Table 1 shows structural data for compounds 1 and 2.

Passage VIII
Inorganic compounds with ring systems that contain
alternating boron (B) and phosphorus (P) atoms can be
synthesized under anhydrous conditions. Figure 1
shows the structures of compounds 1 and 2.

Table 1 Structural Data for Compounds 1 and 2
Average Average
B-P
B-N

Geometry Geometry
bond
bond
length length
Ring
of
of
Compound (pm)
(pm) geometry boron phosphorus
193
138
Planar Trigonal Trigonal
1
planar
pyramidal
194

2

Figure 1 Compounds 1 and 2
(R = isopropyl = iso-C3H7)
Equations 1a and 1b show the synthesis of Compound
1, which contains a four-membered ring, and Equation
2 shows the synthesis of Compound 2, which contains
a six-membered ring.
2 R2NBCl2+ 5 LiPH → 4 LiCl + 3 PH3+ Intermediate

139

Puckered Trigonal

planar

Trigonal
pyramidal

Table 2 shows how bond length varies with bond order
for both boron-phosphorus (B-P) and boron-nitrogen
(B-N) bonds. The data come from experimental studies,
as well as theoretical calculations on the hypothetical
molecules H2BPH2 and HBPH.
Table 2 Bond Order versus Bond Length
B-P
Bond order
1.0
2.0
3.0

B-P
Bond length
(pm)
190
181
165

B-N
Bond order
1.0
2.0
–

B-N
Bond length
(pm)
142
130
–

Equation 1a
Intermediate + HCl → LiCl + Compound 1

Equation 1b
3 R2NBCl2+ 6 LiPH2→ 6 LiCl + 3 PH3+ Compound 2

Equation 2

46. What formula is the same for compounds 1 and 2?
A) Valence-bond
B) Empirical
C) Molecular
D) Structural
47. What is the maximum volume of PH3(g) that a
chemist can obtain from the reaction shown by
Equation 1a, if 0.005 mol LiPH2 reacts with 0.002
mol R2NBCl2 at 0oC and 1 atm?
A) 0.672 mL
B) 6.72 mL
C) 67.2 mL
D) 67.2 L

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13


48. Phosphine (PH3) has which of the following Lewis
structures?
A)
B)
C)
D)

49.

The above plot shows how the volume of a 1.0-g
sample of Compound 1 in the gaseous state varies
with temperature at constant pressure. Where on
the graphic would a similar plot of a 1.0-g sample
of Compound 2 appear?
A) Below the plot for Compound 1
B) Above the plot for Compound 1
C) Precisely on top of the plot for Compound 1
D) Intersecting the plot for Compound 1 at its
midpoint with an opposite slope.

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14


These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other.

53. A reaction is designed to produce ammonia from
the gas phase equilibrium of nitrogen and
hydrogen.
N2(g) + 3 H2(g)

50. Which of the following chemical species is NOT
isoelectronic with a neon atom?
A) He
B) FC) Mg2+
D) Na+
51. A mass is lifted from the ground to an altitude h1,
requiring work W1. The work to lift an identical
mass to an altitude h2 is W2. If h2 is twice h1, what
is the ratio of W2 to W1? (Note: Assume that the
force of gravity does not change between h1 and
h2.)
A) 1:2
B)
C)
D) 2:1

2 NH3(g)

Introducing a catalyst into the system will cause
the amount of ammonia at equilibrium:
A) to increase.
B) to remain the same.
C) to decrease.

D) to change in a manner which depends on the value
of the equilibrium constant.
54. A solid body can be in rotational equilibrium only
when:
A) it has zero angular momentum.
B) it is in free fall.
C) its external forces sum to zero.
D) its external torques sum to zero.

52. Gas X has a density of 1.44 g/L and gas Y has a
density of 1.54 g/L. Which gas diffuses faster?
A) Gas X, because it has a lower molar mass than gas
Y
B) Gas X, because it has a higher molar mass than gas
Y
C) Gas Y, because it has a lower molar mass than gas
X
D) Gas Y, because it has a higher molar mass than gas
X

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15


Passage IX
The head of a comet in orbit around the sun consists of
a solid nucleus, typically of radius 10–100 km,
surrounded by a tenuous cloud of dust particles and gas.
This cloud, or “coma,” conceals the interior of the

nucleus so that its size and nature can only be inferred.
There are two models of cometary nuclei: (1) a rubble
pile, a loose agglomeration of rocks and gravel, or (2)
a dirty snowball, bits of rock held in a matrix of frozen
H2O, CH4, and NH3, called ices.
Calculations based on Newton’s law of gravity do not
predict cometary orbits precisely. There are
unanticipated slight deviations in their orbits. These
deviations imply that nongravitational forces are also
involved. The dirty-snowball model nicely explains
these effects: Sunlight warms the surface of the
nucleus, causing the various frozen solids to sublimate,
i.e., go directly from the solid phase to the vapor phase
without passing through the liquid phase. As the gases
leave, they exert perturbing forces on the cometary
nucleus–much as an attached rocket engine would.
The rubble-pile model does not explain the orbital
deviations; therefore it has generally been abandoned.
However, when Comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 struck
Jupiter in July 1994, the theory was revived. The
cometary fragments exploded considerably higher in
the atmosphere of the planet than predicted by the
dirty-snowball model, suggesting that the nucleus of
the comet was not very cohesive.
Comets become visible to the unaided eye when, under
the influence of radiation and the steady outstreaming
of ionized hydrogen from the sun (the solar wind), the
coma forms and extends into a vast, long tail of gas
and dust. However, nearly all of the mass of the comet
remains concentrated in the nucleus.

55. The perturbing force resulting from sublimation in
the dirty-snowball model is accounted for directly
by which of Newton’s laws?
A) The law of inertia (Newton’s 1st law)
B) The law relating force, mass and acceleration
(Newton’s 2nd law)
C) The law relating action and reaction (Newton’s 3rd
law)
D) The law of gravitation (Newton’s inverse-square
law)
56. In the dirty-snowball model, does the perturbing
force on the comet due to sublimation act in any
preferred direction?
A) No, because the nucleus tends to have a roughly
spherical surface
B) No, because the sun radiates with equal intensity in
all directions
C) Yes, more or less outward from the sun because of
shadowing effects
D) Yes, more or less toward the sun because of the
temperature gradient
57. In space, frozen H2O, CH4, and NH3 undergo
sublimation because:
A) this is characteristic of hydrogen compounds.
B) the pressure in space is extremely low.
C) of the effectively zero-gravity environment.
D) of bombardment by solar-wind particles.
58. A dirty-snowball cometary nucleus would be
expected to disintegrate less readily in the

atmosphere of Jupiter than a rubble-pile nucleus of
the same mass would because:
A) a rubble-pile nucleus has only gravitational forces
to hold it together.
B) a rubble-pile nucleus would be incapable of
inelastic collisions.
C) a dirty-snowball nucleus initially would have a
lower temperature.
D) a dirty-snowball nucleus would be incapable of
inelastic collisions.

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16


59. Because comets shine predominantly by reflected
sunlight, what one sees when viewing a comet is:
A) the coma gas.
B) the coma dust.
C) the tail gas.
D) the ices.
60. What new information would help decide between
the two models discussed in the passage?
A) Laboratory measurement of the melting points of
the ices
B) Spectroscopic studies of the coma
C) Spectroscopic studies of the nucleus
D) More precise observations of a comet orbit

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17


Passage X
A student conducts an experiment to determine the
solubility product constant, Ksp, for lead(II) iodide,
PbI2. The student adds an excess of PbI2(s) to a known
amount of water, heats the slurry to 50oC, stirs it for 10
min, and then allows the mixture to cool and
equilibrate at 25oC. Equation 1 shows the equilibrium
that exists between the undissolved solid and the ions
in solution.
PbI2(s)

Pb2+(aq) + 2 I-(aq)
Equation 1

The student carefully transfers a known volume of the
supernatant solution to a flask containing an aqueous
mixture of nitric acid and potassium nitrite. These
reagents convert the iodide in the solution into the redbrown molecular iodine (Equation 2).
2 I-(aq) + 2 NO2-(aq) + 4 H+(aq)
I2(aq) + 2 NO(g) + 2 H2O(ℓ)
(Keq = 5 x 1015)
Equation 2
The student determines the absorbance of the iodine
solution at 525 nm and finds the corresponding iodide
concentration from a calibration curve that relates the

absorbance of iodine to the iodide concentration. The
student averages the iodide concentrations of three
trials and determines the molar solubility, S, of PbI2(s)
in water to be 1.89 x 10-3 at 25oC.

62. Will lead(II) bromide precipitate if the student
mixes a 0.0001 M solution of Pb2+(aq) with a
0.00005 M solution of Br-(aq)?
A) Yes, because the ion product exceeds the Ksp
B) Yes, because the Ksp exceeds the ion product
C) No, because the ion product exceeds the Ksp
D) No, because the Ksp exceeds the ion product
63. How many grams of lead(II) iodide are present in
100 mL of a saturated aqueous solution?
A) 0.0410 g
B) 0.0871 g
C) 2.470 g
D) 8.71 g
64. According to the Keq for Equation 2, about what
percentage of I-(aq) is converted into I2(aq)?
A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 25%
65. What expression equals the Ksp of lead(II)
bromide?
A) 1/[Pb2+][Br-]
B) [Pb2+][Br-]
C) [Pb2+]2[Br-]
D) [Pb2+][Br-]2

In a similar experiment, the student determines the Ksp
of lead(II) bromide to be 4.6 x 10-6 at 25oC.

61. What equation shows the correct Ksp of lead(II)
iodide as a function of its molar solubility, S?
A) Ksp = S
B) Ksp = S2
C) Ksp = 4S3
D) Ksp = S1/3/4

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18


Passage XI
A scientist uses an apparatus as sketched in Figure 1 to
measure the relative amounts of different nuclear
isotopes in a sample. Atoms are ionized by removing
electrons. A short pulse of ionized atoms is injected
into the region between two accelerating plates. The
plates are separated by a distance d, and have a voltage
V between them. When an ion of charge Q and mass M
is accelerated in this region, it acquires a kinetic
energy equal to the product of its charge and the
accelerating voltage
Mv2/2 = QV

The ion then travels a distance to the end of the

apparatus where a detector records its arrival time
relative to the injection time. Isotopes of an element
have different velocities and consequently arrive at the
detector at different times.
A sample of lithium atoms was measured. Figure 2
shows a spectrum of the number of ions detected
versus their time of flight. The location of each peak
depends on the mass and charge of the ion. Peaks 3
and 4 are the peaks expected for the two, singlyionized isotopes of lithium, 6Li+ and 7Li+, respectively.

with v being the ion velocity.

Figure 1 Isotope spectrometer

Figure 2 Time-of-flight spectrum

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19


66. In order to accelerate the ions in the correct
direction, the electric field in the region between
the two plates of the device in Figure 1 should be
directed toward:

71. Peak 5 in Figure 2 originates from a different
atomic species. Given where the peak appears, and
assuming that it corresponds to singly ionized
atoms, we can say that atoms of this species

probably have:

A) the top of the figure.
B) the bottom of the figure.
C) the left of the figure.
D) the right of the figure.

A) more protons and more neutrons than 7Li.
B) more protons and fewer neutrons than 7Li.
C) fewer protons and more neutrons than 7Li.
D) fewer protons and fewer neutrons than 7Li.

67. The 6 in 6Li refers to:
A) the number of protons.
B) the number of neutrons.
C) the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.
D) the number of protons minus the number of
neutrons.
68. A decrease in the voltage between the two plates
in the device would cause what change in the
measured times-of-flight?
A) Measured times would increase for each peak.
B) Measured times would decrease for each peak.
C) Times for some peaks would increase, times for
others would decrease.
D) Measured times would not change.
69. Assuming equal masses, how would the detection
times of 3H+ and 3He+ compare?
A) 3H would have a longer flight time than 3He.
B) 3H would have a shorter flight time than 3He.

C) 3H would have the same flight time as 3He.
D) The radioactive 3H would always decay before
detection.
70. Which peaks in Figure 2 correspond to the doublyionized lithium isotopes?
A) 2, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2

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20


These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

72. Which of the following substances is most likely
to be more soluble in 1.0 M HCl than in 1.0 M
NaOH?
A) AgCl
B) Pb(OH)2
C) CaF2
D) HI
73. Which of the following statements best explains
why the intensity of sound heard is less when a
wall is placed between a source of sound and the
listener?
A) Sound travels more slowly in a solid than in air.
B) The frequency of sound is lower in a solid than in

air.
C) Part of the sound energy is reflected by the solid.
D) The wavelength of sound is shorter in a solid than
in air.

76. In a healthy person standing at rest, a comparison
of arterial blood pressure measured in the arm with
that measured in the leg shows that the pressure in
the leg is:
A) lower, because the blood flow rate is less.
B) lower, because viscous flow resistance causes
pressure loss.
C) the same, because viscous pressure loss precisely
compensates the hydrostatic pressure increase.
D) greater, because the column of blood between the
arm and the leg has a hydrostatic pressure.
77. Electric power for transmission over long
distances is “stepped up” to a very high voltage in
order:
A) to produce currents of higher density.
B) to produce higher currents in the transmission
wires.
C) to make less insulation necessary.
D) to cut down the heat loss in the transmission wires.

74. Hooke’s law relates stress (force/unit area) and
strain (elongation/unit length) with Young’s
modulus Y by the expression, F/A= Y∆L/L.
Suppose a mass M suspended by a wire of length L
and radius R stretches the wire by an amount ∆L.

By how much will M stretch a wire of the same
material with double the length and double the
radius?
A) ∆L/4
B) ∆L/2
C) 2∆L
D) 4∆L
75. An electrochemical cell is designed to produce
pure copper from CuSO4. An increase in which of
the following cell conditions will most effectively
increase the rate at which pure copper is
produced?
A) The concentration of SO42+(aq)
B) The current of electricity
C) The size of the cathode
D) The size of the anode
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21


Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137
There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.

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Passage I
In the years before the turn of the century, the
Mediterranean fleet, the cream of the navy, reached a
peak of Victorian splendor. The great ships would
silently appear from over the horizon to manifest the
majesty and power of England. Gold-encrusted
admirals came ashore to call on local dignitaries,
officers to attend balls, play polo, or hunt snipe. Fierce
competition in sail drill gave way to equally passionate
competition among ships in races at fleet regattas or
timed coaling contests.
The fiercest competition of all was in polishing the
ships. Every metal surface in the Mediterranean fleet
blazed like the sun. Battleship and cruiser crews
devoted enormous energy to burnishing the great guns.
Massive armored watertight doors were taken off their
hinges and filed and rubbed until they gleamed–and
were no longer watertight. On some ships, even the
ring bolts on deck were polished and fitted with little
flannel nightcaps to protect them from salt air between
inspections.
This cult of brightwork originated in the need to keep
the men busy. When sails gave way to steam, the time
given to tending the rigging, furling and mending sails,
straightening and coiling ropes was given instead to

polishing. The process made men’s hands and clothes
filthy with metal polish, and as soon as salt spray hit
the gleaming metal, copper turned green again and
brass blue. A sparkling ship reflected well on the
captain and his second in command, and commanders
spent large sums out of their private pockets, often far
more than they could afford. “It was customary,” wrote
Sir Percy Scott, “for a commander to spend half his
pay in buying paint to adorn Her Majesty’s ships, as it
was the only road to promotion.”
Appearances were often deceiving. “When I went to
sea in 1895,” wrote Vice Admiral K. G. B. Dewar, “an
air of spic and span smartness became the criterion by
which ships were judged. In my first ship . . . the
basins in the gunroom latrine had to be polished till
they shone like mirrors, the doors being locked to
prevent them being used. . . . . The Hawke glistened . . .
but she was infested with rats which contaminated the
food, ran over the hammocks, and swarmed into the
gunroom at night.”

One aspect of shipboard life that no one worried much
about was gunnery; the few officers who did worry
were ridiculed as fanatics. The most persuasive reason
was that firing the guns spread dirt and grime. Wrote
Scott acidly, “the powder then used had a most
deleterious effect on the paintwork, and one
commander who had his whole ship enameled told me
that it cost him a hundred pounds to repaint her after
target practice.”

Gunnery could not be wholly avoided, as admiralty
orders decreed that target practice be held once every
three months. “No one except the gunnery lieutenant
took much interest in the results,” recalled Admiral Sir
Reginald Tyrwhitt. “Polo and pony racing were much
more important than gun drill.” Nevertheless, the
ammunition had to be disposed of. On the designated
day, the flagship hoisted the signal. Ships then steamed
off in all directions and did as they liked. Many simply
loaded the guns and pumped three months’ allowance
of ammunition at the horizon. A few ships quietly
dumped the shells overboard. There was little risk;
admirals understood the nasty way the gun smoke
dirtied a ship. Indeed, when flagships engaged in target
practice, their admirals often remained ashore to
escape the din.
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
following source:
R. K. Massie, Dreadnought: Britain, Germany, and the Coming of
the Great War. ©1991 by R. K. Massie.

78. Which of the following items of passage
information provides the LEAST support for the
author’s thesis?
A) Hatch doors were not always waterproof.
B) Unused ammunition was dropped overboard.
C) Crews competed in the loading of coal.
D) Areas of a ship were sometimes inaccessible to the
crew.

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23


79. Before the wooden-hulled sailing ships were
completely replaced by metal-hulled steamships,
the British fleet included hybrid ships with both
sails and steam engines. The most reasonable
expectation on the basis of passage information is
that officers on these ships avoided using:
A) the engines because of respect for the British
sailing tradition.
B) the engines because of concern about the effect of
smoke on the sails.
C) the sails because of the sailors’ lack of training in
handling the rigging.
D) the sails because of enthusiasm for the efficiency of
the new technology.
80. In 1904, a recently appointed first lord of the
admiralty attempted to improve the preparedness
of the navy despite strong opposition. One could
infer from the passage that the reform proposals
focused on:
I.
II.
III.

the establishment of strict gunnery
practice.

an emphasis on practicality over
appearance.
the elimination of busywork chores and
ceremony.

82. The author’s apparent point in referring to the
polishing of the ring bolts is that:
A) absurd measures were taken to preserve
appearances.
B) innovative methods were developed to meet
distinctive challenges.
C) beautification measures could interfere with
function.
D) naval standards were meticulous in the smallest
details.
83. If the passage information is correct, what
inference is justified by the fact that British
warships functioned well in World War I, fifteen
years after the period described?
A) The expertise of naval officers at the turn of the
century compensated for the inadequate training of
their crews.
B) The battle conditions for which the navy had
prepared at the turn of the century were those it
encountered in the war.
C) The complaints of gunnery officers about the
preparation of their crews had been heeded.
D) The navy of the German invaders had been trained
by the methods described in the passage.

A) II only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
81. Which of the following underlying reasons for the
practices described in the passage is the most
reasonable?
A) A gleaming, majestic Mediterranean fleet had an
important political value.
B) The naval officers were following the misguided
demands of the queen.
C) The admiralty wanted to avoid expenditures on
ammunition and repainting after gunnery practice.
D) The British navy was so superior to any other that
military drills were unnecessary.

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24


Passage II
Party identification in the United States is a relatively
uncomplicated measure determined by responses to the
following questions:
Generally speaking, do you usually think of
yourself as a Republican, a Democrat, an
independent, or what?
(If R or D) Would you call yourself a strong (R),
(D) or a not very strong (R), (D)?

(If independent) Do you think of yourself as closer
to the Republican party or to the Democratic party?
As this self-identification measure of party loyalty is
the best indicator of partisanship, political analysts
commonly refer to partisanship and party identification
interchangeably. Partisanship is the most important
influence on political opinions and voting behavior.
Many other influences are at work on voters in U.S.
society, and partisanship varies in its importance in
different types of election and in different time periods;
nevertheless, no single factor compares in significance
with partisanship.
Partisanship represents the feeling of sympathy for and
loyalty to a political party that an individual acquires
(probably) during childhood and holds (often) with
increasing intensity throughout life. This self-image as
a Democrat or a Republican is useful to the individual
in a special way. For example, individuals who think
of themselves as Republicans or Democrats respond to
political information partially by using party
identification to orient themselves, reacting to new
information in such a way that it fits in with the ideals
and feelings they already have. A Republican who
hears a Republican party leader advocate a policy has a
basis in party loyalty for supporting that policy, quite
apart from other considerations. A Democrat may feel
favorably inclined toward a candidate for office
because that candidate bears the Democrat label.
Partisanship may orient individuals in their political
environment, but it may also distort their picture of

reality.
An underlying partisanship is also of interest to
political analysts because it provides a base against
which to measure deviations in particular elections. In
other words, the individual voter’s longstanding
loyalty to one party means that, “other things being

equal,” or in the absence of disrupting forces, he or she
can be expected to vote for that party. However, voters
are responsive to a great variety of other influences
that can either strengthen or weaken their tendency to
vote for their usual party. Obvious variations occur
from election to election in such factors as the
attractiveness of the candidates, the impact of foreign
and domestic policy issues, and purely local
circumstances. These current factors, often called
“short-term forces,” may move voters away from their
normal party choices.
These ideas can also be used in understanding the
behavior of the electorate as a whole. If one added up
the political predispositions of all the individuals in the
electorate, one would have an “expected vote” or
“normal vote.” This is the electoral outcome to be
expected if all voters voted their party identification.
Departures from this expected vote in actual elections
represent the impact of short-term forces, such as
issues or candidates.
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
following source:
W.H. Flanigan and N.H. Zingale, Political behavior of the

American electorate. ©1991 by Congressional Quarterly.

84. According to the passage, one drawback of
partisanship is that it can:
A) cause voters to react to political information on the
basis of their personal feelings.
B) distort voters’ views of reality.
C) orient voters in their political environment.
D) make voters vulnerable to short-term forces.
85. According to the passage, partisanship is of
interest to political analysts because:
A) it provides a base against which electoral
fluctuations can be measured.
B) it helps identify the short-term forces that affect
voters’ decisions.
C) it represents a relatively complex measure of party
identification.
D) it reveals the political climate in which an
individual voter was reared.

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25