Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 tỉnh Hải Dương năm 2017

UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 10 THPT
NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
(Đề thi có 08 trang)

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi
Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án A, hoặc B, C, D
Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì.)
A. LISTENING:

Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe:
Bài Nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài.
I. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0 points):

e.g. Where did the man leave his camera?

1. Which sport will the woman learn on her holiday?

2. What did the man forget to buy?

A

B

C
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3. Which musical instrument is the girl learning to play?

4. What should the girl avoid eating?

A

B

C

5. What does the boy decide to buy for his grandmother?

II. Listen to the recording and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0 points):
6. Toby got a job with Atkins Engineering ________.
A. when he was a university student
B. as soon as he finished university
C. six months after he finished university
7. What is Toby working on at the moment?
A. a new motorway

B. houses and flats

C. a new airport

8. When Toby began working, he was surprised to spend so much time ________.
A. talking to other people

B. sitting in an office

C. designing buildings

9. Young people often don’t choose engineering because they think ________.
A. it’s hard to get a job

B. it’s probably boring

10. What is a disadvantage of the job for Toby?
A. He finds it difficult to take holidays
B. He can’t organize his spare time
C. He works too many hours.

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C. it’s not very well-paid


III. Listen to the recording and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS (6.0 points):

HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHTS
Children (11) ________must be with an adult.
All passengers need to be fit.
Balloon flights are the best when there are (12) ________, no rain and a clear sky.
Passengers need to wear (13) ________and boots.
Flights travel between (14) ________kilometers

Passengers return to the (15) ________ in a minibus.
Flights are available from the month of March each year.
For booking and information, phone (16)________or visit www.hotairballoons.com
IV. Listen to the recording and state whether the statements are true (T) or false (F) (4.0 points):
T
17. Mr. John hasn’t been feeling very well because of a stomach ache.
18. Doctor Benson advises Mr. John to drink a lot of water.
19. Doctor Benson asks Miss Davies to take the painkillers 4 times a day.
20. Doctor Benson also advises Miss Davies not to put ice on the ankle for too long at a time.
B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (8.0 points):
21. “Jack, could you please ________ for the night? It’s too late now to go home,” said Peter.
A. let me off

B. turn me down

C. put me up

D. bring me up

22. Jane: “Kathy is really upset about losing her job.”
David: “Well, ________ twice myself, I can understand.”
A. firing

B. having been fired

C. having fired

D. having been firing

23. It was essential that the President ________ immediate action to help the victims of the earthquake.
A. take

B. took

C. must take

D. should be taken

24. ________, they would have got lost in the jungle.
A. If the villagers didn’t help the explorers

B. If only the villagers had helped the explorers

C. Had it not been for the villagers’ help

D. If the explorers didn’t get help from the villagers

25. We all hope the Earth will be a place where human beings, animals and plants live in peaceful ________.
A. coordination

B. cooperation

C. corporation

26. Mary: “Do you work in a bank, Henry?”

D. coexistence

Henry: “________”

A. Not anymore. I have my own business now.
B. Yes, I am. But I hate it
C. No, I am going to change my major
D. Yeah, but I’m out of work now
27. What an excellent student! Sarah almost had no ________ the test.
A. difficult finishing

B. difficulty to finish

C. difficult to finish

D. difficulty in finishing

28. Laura: “Hi, Bob! How are you now? Have you got over your flu?”
Bob: “Thanks, Laura. I am as right as ________.”
A. wind

B. rain

C. snow

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D. cloud

F


II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points):

29. It is undeniable that the (DIAGNOSE) ________ of the local incompetent healer was responsible for Mr.
Johnson’s sudden death.
30. The UN is launching a campaign to help severely (NOURISH) ________ children in Ethiopia.
31. All the committee members are (HEART) ________ in favor of the scheme to renovate the city management
system.
32. Teachers should never (DIFFERENT) ________ between their students on the basis of their background or
ethnic origin.
33. Scientists claim that the (ADD)________ the producers put in food are sometimes bad for our health.
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (3.0 points):
34. The various parts of the body require so different surgical skills that many surgical specialties have developed
A

B

C

D

35. The Prime Minister, accompanied by his assistants and bodyguards, are present at the press conference.
A

B

C

D

36. Computers are often used to control, adjustment, and connect complex industrial operations.
A

B

C

D

IV. Choose the word / phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word / phrase in the
following questions (2.0 points):
37. For reasons of personal safety, the informant wished to remain anonymous.
A. publicized

B. identified

C. revealed

D. unknown

38. Sally was asked to account for her absence from class last week.
A. explain

B. apologize

C. arrange

D. complain

V. Choose the word / phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following
questions (2.0 points):
39. Medical techniques are becoming more sophisticated all the time.
A. simple and easy

B. complicated

C. expensive

D. difficult

40. Many people were taken to court because they defaulted on hire-purchase payments.
A. failed to pay

B. paid much money

C. paid in full

D. refused to get

C. READING:
I. Study the following pieces of information and choose the option that is SIMILAR in meaning to the
given one (10 points):
41.

A. This glass will break in a fire.
IN CASE OF FIRE

BREAK GLASS!
42.

NOTICE!
Discount Day next Sunday!
Hundreds of our most popular

products will be reduced for one
day only! Don’t miss it!

B. Anyone who breaks the glass will be fired.
C. Break this glass if there is a fire.
D. This is the case of a fired glass.
A. The shop’s most popular products will cost less after Sunday.
B. Everything in this shop will be cheaper on Sunday.
C. The shop will reduce the price of all products for one day.
D. There will be a discount on many items on Sunday.

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SECURITY

43.

A. You must show your security card at all times.

ALL EMPLOYEES MUST CARRY

B. The company insists you always have your identity card with you.

THEIR IDENTITY CARDS WITH

C. You can get your identity card from security.

THEM AT ALL TIMES

D. The company will collect your identity card.

44.
A. Work will be finished soon.
B. People are doing their job well.
C. Work hard if you want to make progress .
D. People are working here at the moment.

45.

STUDENTS WITHOUT MEAL
TICKETS FOR TODAY MUST PAY
FOR ALL FOODS, SNACKS AND
DRINKS

46.

A. You can use a ticket to pay for your meal today.
B. If you need a meal ticket, you can pay for it here.
C. You have to pay for meals if you don’t have a ticket.
D. You haven’t to pay for meals if you don’t have a ticket.

To: Jenny
From: Sam

47
.

48.

Re: Lecture notes

A. Bad weather prevented Sam from going to the lecture.

Hi Jenny, can you email me the
history notes from Monday
afternoon’s lecture? I was under
the weather and missed it.
See you at the theatre Saturday.
Sam

B. Sam went to the theatre instead of the lecture.

WARNING
Road works starting next month.
Please use other routes where
possible

CITY BUS SERVICE

C. Sam wants Jenny to give him the lecture notes on Saturday.
D. Sam was too ill to go to the lecture.

A. There will be delays for the next four weeks.
B. You should stop using this road from next month.
C. You should start planning to travel a different way.
D. There are traffic problems in this route today.

A. All City Bus journeys cost the same.

PLEASE HAVE THE EXACT FARE

B. You must have the correct money when you get on the bus.

READY FOR YOUR JOURNEY AS

C. You must keep your ticket ready for checking.

THE DRIVER IS UNABLE TO GIVE

D. Your journeys cost a lot of money

ANY CHANGE!
49.

RESERVED
FOR

A. Please give up your seat for elderly or handicapped people.
B. Elderly or handicapped people must leave their seats.

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ELDERLY
OR HANDICAPPED!
SPORTS HALL

50.

C. This seat is not for elderly or handicapped people.
D. You can reserve seats for elderly or handicapped people.
A. You must remove your clothes from the lockers by the end of the day.

Do not leave clothes in lockers

B. You mustn’t leave keys in the lockers after taking your clothes out.

overnight.

C. Any clothes left overnight can be collected from the reception desk.

Keys

for

lockers

available at reception desk.

D. You can leave your clothes in lockers if you have keys.

II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points):
Can you (51) ________what it would be like working at night? You would start your day when everyone
else was going to bed, and you would go to bed when everyone else was getting up. Is that really a (52)
________way to live?
These days more and more jobs need (53)________at night. Most big hotels offer 24-hour room service,
and need staff at reception and working in the bars. Many companies have 24-hour call centers to cope (54)
________ emergency enquiries. There are 24-hour supermarkets, and of course, there are the workers for the
emergency services such as fire fighters, the police and hospital workers.

(55) ________, few people can work well at night. This is partly because we cannot easily change our
sleeping habits. Some people can manage on as little as three hours' sleep while others need as many as eleven
hours - you are (56) ________ a “short sleeper” or a “long sleeper”. If working at night stops you from getting
(57) ________of sleep you need, you will damage your health.
The best part of the day for everyone is around lunchtime and the worst point is between 2 a.m. and 4
a.m. So if you are driving home at this time or doing something (58) ________ at work, things are far more likely
to go wrong!
Humans (59) ________sleeping at night and being awake during the day, and they will never be able to
do things the other way round. The problem is that today's 24-hour society is not going to slow down, (60)
________ means that night-workers will remain.
51.

A. think

B. imagine

C. understand

D. dream

52.

A. natural

B. naturally

C. naturalist

D. nature

53.

A. to be doing

B. to be made

C. to be done

D. to be making

54.

A. at

B. for

C. about

D. with

55.

A. Therefore

B. Moreover

C. Furthermore

D. However

56.

A. both

B. either

C. neither

D. not only

57.

A. the amount

B. the number

C. a number

D. a great deal of

58.

A. simple

B. severe

C. important

D. superior

59.

A. used to

B. are used to

C. were familiar with

D. got accustomed to

60.

A. it

B. this

C. whichever

D. which

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (10 points):
Sea otters dwell in the North Pacific. They are the largest mustelids, a group that also includes freshwater
otters, weasels and badgers. They are from 4 to 5 feet long and most weigh from 60 to 85 pounds. Large males may
weigh 100 pounds or more.
Unlike most marine mammals, such as seals or dolphins, sea otters lack a layer of blubber, and therefore
have to eat up to 30% percent of their body weight a day in clams, crabs, fish, octopus, squids, and other
delicacies to maintain body heat. Their voracious appetites do not create food shortages, though, because they are
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picky eaters, each animal preferring only a few food types. Thus no single type of food source is exhausted. Sea
otters play an important environmental role by protecting forests of seaweed called kelp, which provide shelter and
nutrients for many species. Certain sea otters feast on invertebrates like sea urchins and abalones that destroy
kelp.
Sea otters eat and sleep while floating on their backs, often on masses of kelp. They seldom come on
shore. Sea otters keep warm by means of their luxuriant double-layered fur, the densest among animals. The soft
outer fur forms a protective cover that keeps the fine underfur dry. One square inch of underfur contains up to 1
million hairs. Unfortunately, this essential feature almost led to the extinction, as commercial hunters drastically
reduced their numbers.
Under government protection, the sea otter population has recovered. While elated by the otters return,
scientists are concerned about the California sea otter population growth of 5 percent a year, lagging behind the 18
percent a year rate among Alaska otters. Sea otters are extremely sensitive to pollution. In 1989, up to 5,000 sea
otters perished when the Exxon Valdez spilled oil in Prince William Sound, Alaska.
61. According to the passage, mustelids are ________.
A. a family of marine mammals that have blubber
B. a type of sea otter
C. a kind of sea animals that includes clams, crabs, and many other creatures
D. a group of mammals that contains sea otters
62. It can be inferred from the passage that if a large male sea otter weighs 100 pounds, it must eat
approximately how many pounds of food a day to maintain its body heat?
A. 5 pounds
B. 15 pounds
C. 30 pounds
D. 60 pounds
63. The author refers to sea otter as “picky eaters” because ________.
A. all sea otters eat many types of foods
B. each sea otter eats only one type of food
C. all sea otters have voracious appetites
D. each sea otter eats only a few kinds of food
64. The word “exhausted” in paragraphs 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.

A. needed
B. used up
C. desired
D. tired out
65. According to the passage, which of the followings best describes the sea otters’ relationship with kelp forests?
A. The otters protect the kelp by eating animals that destroy it.
B. The kelp serves as a food for otters.
C. The otters eliminate the kelp’s source of nutrients.
D. The kelp is destroyed when otters build shelters.
66. Which of the followings could best replace the word “ luxuriant” in paragraph 3?
A. expensive
B. soft
C. abundant
D. attractive
67. According to the passage, the otter fur of sea otters ________.
A. keeps the underfur from getting wet
B. seems finer than the underfur
C. is more desirable to hunters than the underfur
D. is not as soft as the underfur
68. The word “elated” in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.
A. disappointed
B. shocked
C. concerned
D. overjoyed
69. According to the passage, scientists are concerned about the population of California sea otters because
________.
A. it has been growing at too fast a rate

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B. its growth rate has been steadily decreasing
C. Its growth rate is not as fast as that of the Alaska sea otters
D. it has been greatly reduced by oil spills and other forms of pollution
70. The tone of the author is ________.
A. humorous
B. serious
C. sarcastic
D. suspicious
D. WRITING:
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before (5.0 points):
71. Immediately after his resignation from the board of directors, Mr. Adamson fell seriously ill.
 No sooner………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
72. You can try to persuade Mike to take part in the competition, but you won’t succeed.
There’s no ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……..
73. These measures have been taken in order to increase the company’s profits.
With a ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……….
74. We were impressed by the great richness of detail in the picture, but we couldn’t afford it.
 No matter …………………………………………………….………………………………………………………………………………………….
75. Why didn’t you pay attention to the safety instructions?
 You should………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
II. Imagine that you have just bought an item from an online shop. However, you find that it is not as
good as it was advertised. In about 80 - 100 words, write a letter of complaint to the shop owner,
beginning and ending your letter as followed (10 points):

Dear Sir / Madam,
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Yours faithfully,
Tran Lam
III. That many students are far too dependent on computers for their study may have some negative
effects. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? In about 180 - 220 words write
an essay to support your opinion (15 points).
=== THE END ===

Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………………. Số báo danh:……………………
Họ và tên giám thị 1:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:………………………….
Họ và tên giám thị 2:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:………………………….

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UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 10 THPT
NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC

A. LISTENING:
I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
1. C
2. B

3. A
4. B
5. A
II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. B
III. (6.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
11. under 12 / twelve
12. light winds
13. casual outdoor clothes
14. 5 / five and 30 / thirty 15. airfield
16. 0125288492
IV. (4.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
17. F
18. T
19. F
20. T
B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. (8.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. C
25. D
26. A
27. D
28. B

II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
29. DIAGNOSIS
30. UNDERNOURISHED / MALNOURISHED
31. WHOLEHEARTEDLY
32. DIFFERENTIATE
33. ADDICTIVES
III. (3.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
34. B
35. C
36. B
IV. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
37. D
38. A
V. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
39. A
40. C
C. READING:
I. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
41. C
42. D
43. B
44. D
45. C
46. D
47. B
48. B
49. A
50. A
II. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
51. B

52. A
53. C
54. D
55. D
56. B
57. A
58. C
59. B
60. D
III. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
61. D
62. C
63. D
64. B
65. A
66. C
67. A
68. D
69. C
70. B
D. WRITING:
I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
71. No sooner had Mr. Adamson / he resigned from the board of directors than he / Mr. Adamson fell seriously ill.
72. There’s no point (in) persuading Mike to take part in the competition.
73. With a view to increasing the company’s profits, these measures have been taken.
74. No matter how impressed we were by the great richness of detail in the picture, we couldn’t afford it.
75. You should have paid attention to the safety instructions
II. II. (10 points):
1. Form:

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- Correct form of a formal letter (1.0 point)
2. Task fulfillment:
- Task completed with relevant information (2.0 points)
- Well-organized (1.0 point)
3. Language:
- Accurate grammar (2.0 points)
- Appropriate vocabulary (2.0 points)
- Correct spelling and punctuation (1.0 point)
III. (15 points):
Score of 14-15: An essay at this level:
• shows very effective writing skills
• is very well organized and well developed
• uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas
• displays consistent ability in the use of language
• demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice
Score of 11 - 13: An essay at this level:
• shows effective writing skills
• is well organized and well developed
• uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas
• displays consistent ability in the use of language
• demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice
Score of 9 - 10: An essay at this level:
• may address some parts of the task more effectively than others
• is generally well organized and developed
• uses details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea
• displays ability in the use of the language
• shows some variety in sentence structure and range of vocabulary

Score of 7 - 8: An essay at this level:
• addresses the writing topic adequately but does not meet all of the goals of the task
• is adequately organized and developed
• uses some details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea
• shows adequate but possibly inconsistent ability with sentence structure
• may contain some usage errors that make the meaning unclear
Score of 5 - 6: An essay at this level may reveal one or more of the following weaknesses:
• inadequate organization or development
• poor choice of details or does not provide enough details to support or illustrate generalizations
• a noticeably improper choice of words or word forms
• numerous errors in sentence structure and/or usage
Score of 3 - 4: An essay at this level is seriously flawed by one or more of the following weaknesses:
• serious disorganization or underdevelopment
• little or no detail, or irrelevant specifics
• serious and frequent errors in sentence structure or usage
• serious problems with focus
Score of 1- 2: An essay at this level:
• may be incoherent
• may be undeveloped
• may contain severe and persistent writing errors
Score of 0: An essay will be rated 0 if it:
• contains no response
• merely copies the topic
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•

is off-topic, written in a foreign language or consists only of keystroke characters

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