BỘ 10 ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QG TIẾNG ANH 2017 SÁT VỚI ĐỀ THAM KHẢO

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TRƯỜNG THPT LỘC NINH
2017

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM

ĐỀ THAM KHẢO

Môn: Tiếng Anh

ĐỀ SỐ 1

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
has its underlined part pronounced differently from the other three in each
of the following questions.
Question 1: A. apple
B. absent

C. applicant
D. any
Question 2: A. shifts
B. thinks
C. joins
D. soups
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of
the following questions.
Question 3: A. believe
B. attempt
C. garbage
D. discuss
Question 4: A. environment B. difficulty
C. community
D. inhabitant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 5: There is no alternative. The president must approve the bill if the
Congress passes it.
A. possible agreement B. amendment C. other choice
D. tome to think
Question 6: “It’s no use talking to me about metaphysics. It’s a closed book to
me.”
A. an object that I really love
B. a book that is never opened
C. a subject that I don’t understand
D. a theme that I like to discuss
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)

OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 7: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score
in the graduation exam.
A. criticize yourself
B. wear a backpack
C. praise yourself
D. check up your back
Question 8: The machine has been out of order since last month.
A. under repair
B. functioning well
C. sold out D. refusing orders
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined
part that need correction in each of the following sentences.
Question 9: I always look back on the time where I spent with my family on a farm in
California.
A

B

C

D

Question 10: A new school with more than 50 classrooms have just been built in our local
area.
A

B

C

D

Question 11: A finishing motion picture is the work of the collaboration of many
individuals.
A

B

C

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 12: - Student: “__________________.”
- Teacher: "No worries. Come in, please.”
A. I’m late
B. I want to come in.
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C. I'm sorry I'm late.
D. I've just arrived.
Question 13: - Trang: “Thank you very much for inviting me to your house."
- Susan: "__________________"
A. It’s my pleasure.
B. Take a seat.
C. The food is ready.

D.
Not
now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions.
Question 14: It was not until late 1960s____________ on the moon.
A. that Americans walked
B. did Americans walk
C. when Americans walked
D. when did Americans walk
Question 15: I hope this headache will____________ soon.
A. go out
B. put away
C. wear off
D. pass away
Question 16: Don’t touch that wire, ____________?
A. do you
B. won't you
C. will you
D. should you
Question 17: They live in a very____________ populated area of Italy.
A. sparsely
B. scarcely
C. hardly
D. barely
Question 18: The prices at the garage I use are very____________.
A. reasonable
B. logical
C. rational
D. acceptable

Question 19: I love this painting of an old man. He has such a beautiful______ smile.
A. childlike
B. childish
C. childhood
D. childless
Question 20: When I entered the room, I____________ my younger sister crying over the
broken vase.
A. was finding

B. find

C. founded

D. found

Question 21: Tuition fee must be paid____________ before or on the due date.
A. neither
B. either
C. also
D. not only
Question 22: We____________ won the game if we’d had a few more minutes.
A. have
B. will
C. had
D. could have
Question 23: Mr. Albert is intelligent but he____________ common sense.
A. fails
B. lacks
C. misses
D. wants

Question 24: We’ll play tennis and____________ we’ll have lunch.
A. after
B. then
C. so
D. immediately
Question 25: All the boys are good at cooking, but____________ is as good as the girls.
A. either
B. neither
C. every
D. none
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Mr. Brown bought this car five years ago.
A. Mr. Brown started to buy this car five years ago.
B. It has been five years when Mr. Brown bought this car
C. Mr. Brown has had this car for five years.
D. It is five years ago since Mr. Brown bought this car.
Question 27: “If I were you, I'd tell him the truth,” she said to me.
A. She said to me that if I were you, I'd tell him the truth.
B. She will tell him the truth if she is me.
C. She suggested to tell him the truth if she were me.
D. She advised me to tell him the truth.
Question 28: It is said that many people are homeless after the floods.
A. Many people say to be homeless after the floods.
B. Many people said are homeless after the floods.
C. Many people are said to be homeless after the floods.
D. Many people are said to have been homeless after the floods.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence

that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: This house was built years ago. It is still in very good shape.

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A. This house, which built years ago, is still in very good shape.
B. This house, built years ago, is still in very good shape.
C. This house, building years ago, is still in very good shape.
D. This house, which was built years ago is still in very good shape.
Question 30: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later.

A. If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note.
B. We’d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later.
C. They’ll probably arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note.
D. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of
the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

In the 1960s the women's liberation movement (31) _____ suddenly into the public
consciousness and quickly grew into the largest social movement in the history of the United
States. Women's liberation movement was a continuation of the 19 th-century women's rights
movement. The movement's major (32) _____ has included not only legal, economic, and
political gains but also has changed the ways in which people live, dress, dream of their
future, and (33) ___ a living. About health, for example, many male physicians and hospital
have made major improvements in the treatment of women; more and more women have
become doctors and succeeded (34) _____ their medical research; and diseases such as breast
cancer, which affects many women, now receive better funding and treatment, thanks to

women's efforts. Feminists have insisted that violence against women become a political
issue. The women's liberation movement has also made changes in education: curricula and
(35) _____ have been written to promote equal opportunity for girls and women; more and
more female students are admitted to universities and professional schools.
The women's liberation movement brought about a radical change in society although it
took a decade for the movement to reach women's awareness.
Question 31: A. dated
burst

B. originated

C. introduced

Question 32: A. achievement

B. civilization

C. status

Question 33: A. put

B. make

C. get

Question 34: A. in

B. to

C. for

Question 35: A. textbooks
magazines

B. novels

C. picture books

D.
D. power
D. take

D. with
D.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from
36 to 42.

The New York Times is a daily newspaper published in New York City. For a long time, it has
been a newspaper of record in the United State and one of the world’s great newspapers. Its
strength is in its editorial excellence; it has never been the largest newspaper in terms of
circulation.
The Times was established in 1851 as a penny paper whose editors wanted to report the
news in a restrained and objective fashion. It enjoyed early success as its editors set a
pattern for the future by appealing to a cultured, intellectual readership instead of a mass
audience. However, in the late nineteenth century, it came into competition with more
popular, colorful, if not lurid, newspapers in New York City. Their publishers ran sensational
stories, not because they were true, but because they sold newspapers. Despite price
increases, the time was losing £1,000 a week when Adolph Simon Ochs bought it in 1896.

Ochs built the Times into an internationally respected daily. He hired Carr Van Anda as editor.
Van Anda placed greater stress than ever on full reporting of the news of the day, and his

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reporters maintained and emphasized existing good coverage of international news. The
management of the paper decided to eliminate fiction from the paper, added a Sunday
magazine section, and reduced the paper’s price back to a penny. In April 1912, the paper
took many risks to report every aspect of the sinking of the Titanic. This greatly enhanced its
prestige, and in its coverage of two world wars, the Times continued to enhance its
reputation for excellence in world news.
In 1971, the Times was given a copy of the so-called “Pentagon Papers,” a secret
government study of U.S. involvement in the Vietnam war. When it published the report, it
became involved in several lawsuits. The U.S. Supreme Court found that the publication was
protected by the freedom-of-the-press clause in the First Amendment of the U.S
Constitution. Later in the 1970s, the paper, under Adolph Ochs’s grandson, Arthur Ochs
Sulzberger, introduced sweeping changes in the organization of the newspaper and its staff
and brought out a national edition transmitted by satellite to regional printing plants.

Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The New York Times publishes the best fiction by American writers.
B. The New York Times became highly respected throughout the world.
C. The New York Times broadcasts its news to TV stations via satellite.
D. The New York Times lost its prestige after the Vietnam War.
Question 37: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “restrained” in
paragraph 2?
A. Put in prison.
B. In handcuffs. C. Without education.
D. With selfcontrol.

Question 38: What word or phrase does the word “his” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Van Anda.
B. Reporters.
C. News of the day.
D.
International news.
Question 39: Which word or phrase is closest in meaning to the word “enhanced”
in paragraph 3?
A. made the best of.
B. increased.
C. reduced.
D. made
worse.
Question 40: To improve its circulation, the management of the Times did all the
following EXCEPT:
A. emphasized good coverage of international news.
B. added a Sunday magazine section.
C. increased the number of lurid stories, even if they were not true.
D. eliminated fiction from the paper.
Question 41: The passage implies that the newspaper’s reputation
A. decreased when it lowered its price to a penny.
B. grew because Adolph Ochs bought it in 1896.
C. increased because of its coverage of the Titanic’s sinking.
D. decreased because it could not compete with other New York papers.
Question 42: According to the passage, the Times has a national edition that is……
A. protected by the Supreme Court
B. printed in the form of a Sunday magazine.
C. shipped by train and air transport daily.
D. transmitted by satellite to regional printing plants.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your

answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from
43 to 50.

Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the
country’s impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over
five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada’s population passed the 20 million mark. Most of his
surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930’s and the war had
held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom
continued through the decade of the 1950’s, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen
percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only

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once before settle. Undoubtedly, the good economic condition of the 1950’s supported a
growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier
marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate
stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world.
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued failing
until in 1966
it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births
during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society.
Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working; young married
couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards
were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step
with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since
the time of the Industrial Revolution. Although the growth in Canada’s population had slowed
down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960’s was only nine percent), another
large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children who
were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.

Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Educational changes in Canadian society.
B. Canada during the Second World war.
C. Population trends in postwar Canada.
D. Standards of living in Canada.

Question 44: According to the passage, when did Canada’s baby born begin?
A. In the decade after 1911

B. After 1945

C. During the depression of the 1930’s

D. In 1966

Question 45: The word “five” refers to____.
A. Canadians

B. years

C. decades

D. marriages

Question 46: The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950’s____.
A. the urban population decreased rapidly

B. fewer people married.

C. economic conditions were poor.

D. the birth rate was very high.

Question 47: The word “trend” is closest in meaning to____.
A. tendency

B. aim

C. growth

D. directive

Question 48: The word “peak” is closest in meaning to____.
A. pointed

B. dismal

C. mountain

D. maximum.

Question 49: When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest population level?
A. 1966

B. 1957

C. 1956

D. 1951

Question 50: The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population
growth after 1957
EXCEPT____.
A. people being better educated

B. people getting married earlier.

C. better standards of living.

D. couples buying houses.

== THE END ==

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SỐ CÂU ĐÚNG
…./50
ĐIỂM:

……………..

CẦN ÔN NHỮNG YẾU TỐ
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...................................................................
...................................................................
...................................................................
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...................................................................
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...................................................................

QUYẾT TÂM CẢI THIỆN
....../50

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TRƯỜNG THPT LỘC NINH

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017

ĐỀ THAM KHẢO
ĐỀ SỐ 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions.
Question 1: A. arrives

B. laughs

C. likes

Question 2: A. feature

B. contain

C. picture

D. helps
D. culture

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A. bamboo

B. nuclear

Question 4: A. overwhelming

B. intellectual

C. swallow

D. cherish

C. incredible

D. optimistic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Some of the land in that region is so wet and hot and covered with
jungle that a few
A
B
C
D
people live there.
Question 6: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to
attend the
A
B
C
D
festivities.
Question 7: The first night I spent alone in the castle was the most terrified night of
my life.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: Shaking hands is the ________ way of greeting business counterparts in Europe.
A. convenient

B. absolute

C. practical

D. customary

Question 9: His parents object strongly _______ his playing too much computer games.
A. at

B. to

C. in

D. against

Question 10: Chaplin was a comedian __________ was best known for his work in
silent movies.
A. who

B. which

C. whose

D. what

Question 11: The pop star __________ when the lights __________.
A. was singing/went out

B. sang/were going out

C. was singing/were going out

D. sang/went out

Question 12: The ground is wet. It _______last night.

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A. must rain

B. must have rain

C. had to rain

D. must have rained

Question 13: Everyone loves little John because he is always _______.
A. obey

B. obedient

C. obediently

D. Obedience

Question 14: It was found that he lacked the ______ to pursue a difficult task to the very end.
A. persuasion
B. engagement
C. commitment D. obligation
Question 15: New ways have to be found to _______ of waste materials and poisonous gases
so that we can have cleaner surroundings.
A. deal

B. remove

C. do

D. dispose

Question 16: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, ______.
A. the more heat it retains

B. the heat it retains more

C. it retains the more heat

D. more heat it retains

Question 17: I must go to the dentist and _________ .
A. get my teeth to take care of
C. my teeth be taken care of

B. take care of my teeth

D. get my teeth taken care of

Question 18: I’m sure when you’ve stopped looking for your keys, they’ll____ up somewhere.
A. take
pull

B. turn

C. look

D.

Question 19: You have to move this box to ______ the new television set.
A. lose touch with

B. pay attention to

C. make room for

D.

take notice of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.
- Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”
- Linda: “______.”
A. Nothing more to say.

B. You can say that again.

C. Yes, I hope so.

D. No, dogs are very good, too.

Question 21: David is talking about Mr. West’s early retirement.
- David: “Mr. West is going to retire next month.”
- Kathy: “______.”

A. Oh, I have no idea.

B. Right, you’d probably be the next.

C. You don’t say!

D. Congratulations!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 22: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain
arrange

B. exchange

C. explain

D.

Question 23: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the
examination.

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A. hints

B. symptoms

C. effects

D.

demonstrations

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the
country.
A. soak
B. permanent
C. complicated
Question 25: Experts hope that the vaccine will be mass-produced soon.
A. produced in great numbers

D. guess

B. produced in small numbers

C. produced cheaply

D. produced with high cost

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I'd rather stay at home than go out with him.
A. I'd prefer to stay at home to going out with him
B. I'd better stay at home than go out with him
C. I don't want to go out with him so I choose to stay at home.

D. I decide to stay at home instead going out with him
Question 27: “This man spoke to me on the road” said the woman.
A. The woman said that man had spoken to me on the road.
B. The woman said that man has spoken to me on the road.
C. The woman said that man spoke to me on the road.
D. The woman said that man had spoken to her on the road.
Question 28: The woman was too weak to lift the basket.
A. Although she was weak, she could lift the basket.
B. The woman shouldn't have lifted the basket because she was so weak.
C. She was so weak that she couldn't lift the basket.
D. The woman lifted the basket, so she wasn't very weak.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: You need not have washed the sheets. The hotel staff does the cleaning.
A. It is good that you washed the sheets.
B. It was not necessary to wash the sheets, even though you did.
C. It was necessary to wash the sheets, but you did not do it.
D. It was necessary to wash the sheets, and you did not do it.
Question 30: Soon after they sold their house, they were offered a better price for it.
A. No sooner they sold their house were they offered a better price for it.
B. They were offered a better price for their house, and they sold it.
C. They had no sooner sold their house than they were offered a better price for it.
D. No sooner had they sold their house and they were offered a better price for it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 31 to 35.

Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As
recently as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all.

The (31)______ of public school libraries increased dramatically when the federal government
passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, (32)______ provided funds for

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school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries.
Nevertheless, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending
has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising cost of new library technologies such as
computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual
school districts rely on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public
school expenses. Therefore, the libraries public schools tend to reflect the (33)______
capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often
have fully staffed libraries with abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and
instructional support. In (34)______, school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in
ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by
volunteers, who organize and (35)______ books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or
damaged.
Question 31: A. digit

B. amount

C. numeral

D. number

Question 32: A. that

B. who

Question 33. A. economical
political

B. financial

C. educational

Question 34. A. contrast

B. converse

C. contrary

D. conflict

Question 35. A. maintain

B. obtain

C. contain

D. attain

C. which

D. this
D.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet

to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a
hindrance, and may even cause harm. These studies have disclosed that the judgments of
interviewers differ markedly and bear little or no relationship to the adequacy of the job
applicants. Of the many reasons why this should be the case, three in particular stand out.
The first reason is related to an error of judgment known as the halo effect. If a person
has one noticeable good trait, their other characteristics will be judged as better than they
really are. Thus, an individual who dresses smartly and shows self-confidence is likely to be
judged capable of doing a job well regardless of his or her real ability.
Interviewers are also prejudiced by an effect called the primacy effect. This error occurs
when interpretation of later information is distorted by earlier connected information. Hence,
in an interview situation, the interviewer spends most of the interview trying to confirm the
impression given by the candidate in the first few moments. Studies have repeatedly
demonstrated that such an impression is unrelated to the aptitude of the applicant.
The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers.
A suitable candidate may be underestimated because he or she contrasts with a previous one
who appears exceptionally intelligent. Likewise, an average candidate who is preceded by
one who gives a weak showing may be judged as more suitable than he or she really is.
Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be inadequate,
other selection procedures have been devised which more accurately predict candidate
suitability. Of the various tests devised, the predictor which appears to do this most
successfully is cognitive ability as measured by a variety of verbal and spatial tests.

Question 36. The word “they” in line 6 refers to _______.
A. applicants
characteristics

B. judgments

C. interviewers

D.

Question 37. The word “this” in line 20 refers to _______.

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A. measure cognitive ability

B. devise personnel selection

C. predict candidate suitability

D. devise accurate tests

Question 38. This passage mainly discusses the _______.
A. Judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants.
B. Inadequacy of interviewing job applicants.
C. Effects of interviewing on job applicants.
D. Techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants.

Question 39. This According to the passage, the hallo effect _______.
A. exemplifies how one good characteristic color perceptions
B. takes effect only when a candidate is well –dressed
C. stands out as the worst judgmental error
D. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
Question 40. The word “hindrance” in line 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assistance

B. encouragement

C. procedure

D. interference

Question 41. According to the passage the first impression _______.
A. can easily be altered
prejudices

B. is unrelated to the interviewer’s

C. is the one that stays with the interviewer
the applicant

D. has been repeatedly demonstrated to

Question 42. The author mentions all of the following reasons why interviewing is not an
accurate way to predict candidate suitability EXCEPT the _______.
A. primacy effect
effect

B. halo effect

C. contrast effect

D. cognitive

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet

to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering
in the natural environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s
provision is the oldest known subsistence strategy and has been practised for at least the last
two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and
the domestication of wild animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago. Because huntergatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have
dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and
arctic wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the
availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and
on fishing along the coasts and waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower
latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a
variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have
limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.
Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We
know from the observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a
society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community
camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance

P a g e 13 | 80


from the camp. When the food in the area has become exhausted, the community moves on
to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns evolving for most huntergatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns of behavior
may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.
Question 43: The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means_____.
A. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
B. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
D. making wild animals get used to living with and working for humans

Question 44: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on_____.
A. hunter-gatherers’ tools

B. farming methods

C. nature’s provision

D. agricultural products

Question 45: The word “marginal” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to “_____”.
A. suburban
disadvantaged

B. forgotten

C. abandoned

D.

Question 46: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers_____.
A. can free themselves from hunting
nature

B. have better food gathering from

C. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing

D. harvest shorter seasonal crops

Question 47: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can

provide a_____.
A. further understanding of prehistoric times
B. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments
C. further understanding of modern subsistence societies
D. deeper insight into the dry-land farming
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.
B. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken
up.
C. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.
D. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.
Question 49: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers
share_____
A. some methods of production
C. some restricted daily rules

B. some patterns of behavior
D. only the way of duty division

Question 50: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods
B. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies
C. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming
D. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move

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== THE END ==

SỐ CÂU ĐÚNG
…./50
ĐIỂM:

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CẦN ÔN NHỮNG YẾU TỐ
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QUYẾT TÂM CẢI THIỆN
....../50

P a g e 15 | 80


TRƯỜNG THPT LỘC NINH
2017

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM

ĐỀ THAM KHẢO

ĐỀ SỐ 3

Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. believed
controlled
Question 2: A. intellectual
potential

B. considered
B. natural

C. advocated
C. righteous

D.
D.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A. willing
B. offer
C. offer
D. explain
Question 4: A. parallel
primary

B. dependent

C. educate

D.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 5: The professor together with his three students have been called to court.
A
B
C
D
Question 6: Although I didn’t personally see who was responsible for this mess, but I think I
can make a guess.
A
B
C
D
Question 7: When the chemicals inside a cell no longer produce ions, the cell stops to
function.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: That’s the trouble with the night shift. It _______ your private life too much
A. breaks through

B. breaks up
C. breaks into
D. breaks in
Question 9: The more you practise your English, ________
A. you will learn faster
B. the faster will you learn
C. the faster you will learn
D. faster you will learn

Question 10: It______ that many people are homeless after the floods.
A. reported
B. is reported C. reports
D. is reporting

Question 11: He will be very upset if you _______ his offer of help.
A. turn from
B. turn against
C. turn down
D.
turn away
Question 12: She has just bought _______.
A. a Swiss beautiful brand-new watch
B. a Swiss brand-new beautiful
watch
C. a brand-new beautiful Swiss watch
D. a beautiful brand-new Swiss watch
Question 13: _________ it with my own eyes, I would never have believed it.
A. Had I not seen
B. Unless I had not seen
C. If I had seen

D. Provided I had seen
Question 14: The pioneer thinkers of the 18th century advocated that women should not be
discriminated against ________ the basis of their sex.
A. on
B. in
C. to
D. at
Question 15: It was _________ furniture that I didn’t buy it.
A. so expensive
B. such expensive
C. such an expensive
D.
a so expensive

P a g e 16 | 80


Question 16: Marie Curie was the first and only woman_________ two Nobel prizes.
A. that win
B. to be won
C. who win
D. to have won

Question 17: He was the only _________ that was offered the job.
A. apply
applying

B. application

C. applicant

D.

Question 18: The people who_________ the survey said that they had examined over
1,000 accidents.
A. gave

B. proceed

C. set

D. conducted

Question 19: Education _________ to be the most important element to develop a country.
A. often be considered
B. can often consider
C. can often considered
D. can often be considered
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Mike and Lane are neighbors. They are talking about Lane’s party.
- Mike: “Thank you for a lovely evening”
- Lane: “________”
A. It depends on you
B. Thank you very much indeed.
C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it
D. You are welcome
Question 21: Mai and Lan are friends. Lan asks Mai about Mai’s plan. Select the most suitable
response to fill in the blank.

- Lan: “Are you going to see the live show by Son Tung today?”
- Mai: “_________”.
A. Yes, I enjoyed it very much
B. Maybe I’ll be out
C. Yes, I’m going to stay in
D. I think so

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: According to Freud, dreams can be interpreted as the fulfillment of wishes
A. attainment
B. completion
C. performance
D. conclusion
Question 23: She was a devoted teacher. She spent most of her time teaching and taking
care of her students.
A. intelligent
B. dedicated
C. polite
D. honest

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: There have been significant changes in women’s lives since the women’s
liberation movement
A. unimportant
B. controlled
C. political
D. disagreeable
Question 25: In 1989, a ban was given on all international trade in ivory

A. a destruction
B. an allowance
C. an exploitation D. a prohibition

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Scarcely had he got out of the house when it started raining.
A. He got out of the house after it started raining.
B. He had no sooner got out of the house when it started raining.
C. He was getting out of the house when it started raining.
D. It started raining right after he got out of the house.
Question 27: There’s no point in persuading Jane to change her mind.

P a g e 17 | 80


A. It’s possible for us to persuade Jane to change her mind.
B. Jane will change her mind though she doesn’t want to.
C. It’s useless to persuade Jane to change her mind.
D. No one wants Jane to change her mind because it’s pointless.
Question 28: People say that Vietnamese students are not well-prepared for their future jobs.
A. Vietnamese students are said not to be well-prepared for their future jobs.
B. Vietnamese students are said to be not well-prepared for their future jobs.
C. Vietnamese students say not to be well-prepared for their future jobs.
D. Vietnamese students say to be not well-prepared for their future jobs.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The blouse is a little too loose. You’d better ask your tailor to take it in.
A. Your tailor is asked to take your blouse in a little.

B. You’d better have the blouse taken in as it is too loose.
C. The blouse is lost as you didn’t ask your tailor to take it in.
D. The blouse is little as you asked your tailor to take it in.
Question 30: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake.
A. The coffee was very strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake.
B. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
C. We were kept awake because the coffee was strong.
D. The coffee was so strong that it didn’t keep us awake.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the blanks from 31 to 35.
All relationships go through difficult times. In the past, when married couples had
problems they usually didn’t (31) _________. They had to either get on with each other or
continue to live together in an unhappy relationship. Getting divorced wasn’t an option for
most people due to economic and social reasons. Some people believe that this wasn’t such a
bad thing. They say that relationships require hard work and (32)_________ . “If a relationship
is going to last a lifetime, you have to keep working at it,” says Doreen, who is celebrating her
fiftieth wedding anniversary this year. “It isn’t all roses and romance. (33)_________ perfect all
of the time.
These days young people give up when there’s the smallest
argument. Experts agree
that communication is key. The most important thing is to (34) _________talking. How many
times have you heard yourself say to somebody, “If only you’d listen!” or “I wish you wouldn’t
do that!” The truth is, the (35)_________ couples talk, the better their relationship can be.
Question 31:
Question 32:
commitment
Question 33:
Question 34:
Question 35:

A. grow up
A. agreement

B. split up
B. argument

C. chat up
C. achievement

D. make up
D.

A. No one
A. raise
A. more

B. Someone
B. control
B. fewer

C. Anyone
C. stop
C. less

D. Everyone
D. keep
D. least

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Let children learn to judge their own work. A child learning to talk does not learn by
being corrected all the time. If corrected too much, he will stop talking. He notices a thousand
times a day the difference between the language he uses and the language those around him
use. Bit by bit, he makes the necessary changes to make his language like other people’s. In
the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do without being taught – to
talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their own performances with those of more
skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes. But in school we never give a child a
chance to find out his mistakes for himself, let alone correct them. We do it all for him. We act
as if we thought that he would never notice a mistake unless it was pointed out to him, or

P a g e 18 | 80


correct it unless he was made to. Soon he becomes dependent on the teacher. Let him do it
himself. Let him work out, with the help of other children if he wants it, what this word says,
what the answer is to that problem, whether this is a good way of saying or doing this or not.
If it is a matter of right answers, as it may be in mathematics or science, give him the
answer book. Let him correct his own papers. Why should we teachers waste time on such
routine work? Our job should be to help the child when he tells us that he can’t find the way to
get the right answer. Let’s end all this nonsense of grades, exams, and marks. Let us throw
them all out, and let the children learn what all educated persons must someday learn, how to
measure their own understanding, how to know what they know or do not know.
Let them get on with this job in the way that seems most sensible to them, with our
help as school teachers if they ask for it. The idea that there is a body of knowledge to be
learnt at school and used for the rest of one’s life is nonsense in a world as complicated and
rapidly changing as ours. Anxious parents and teachers say, “But suppose they fail to learn
something essential, something they will need to get on in the world?” Don’t worry! If it is
essential, they will go out into the world and learn it.
Question 36: What does the author think is the best way for children to learn things?
A. By listening to explanations from skilled people

B. By making mistakes and having them corrected
C. By asking a great many questions
D. By copying what other people do
Question 37: The word “he” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. other people
B. their own work
C. children
D. a child
Question 38: What does the author think teachers do which they should not do?
A. They encourage children to copy from one another
B. They point out children’s mistakes to them
C. They allow children to mark their own work
D. They give children correct answers
Question 39: According to the first paragraph, what basic skills do children learn to do
without being taught?
A. Talking, climbing and whistling
B. Reading, talking and hearing
C. Running, walking and playing
D. Talking, running and skiing
Question 40: Exams, grades and marks should be abolished because children’s progress
should only be estimated by__________.
A. parents
B. the children themselves
C. teachers
D. educated
persons
Question 41: The word “complicated” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
________.
A. comfortable
B. competitive

C. complex
D. compliment
Question 42: The author fears that children will grow up into adults who are_________.
A. unable to think for themselves
B. too independent of others
C. unable to use basic skills
D. too critical of themselves
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Telecommunicating is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes
and offices. For employees whose jobs involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering
data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine
can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the
office computer from a distant site and transmit the material to their employers. A recent
survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8.7 million telecommuters. But
although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as
predicted when Business Week published "The Portable Executive" as its cover story a few
years ago. Why hasn't telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on
the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a
large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for
managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager's responsibilities.

P a g e 19 | 80


It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are often
reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a
group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for
advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even

when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the
office.

Question 43: With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?
A. A definition of telecommuting
telecommuting

B. The advantages of

C. The failure of telecommuting

D. An overview of telecommuting

Question 44: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week
C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.

B. More than 8 million.
D. Fewer than last year.

Question 45: The phrase “of no consequence” in paragraph 1 means ___________
A. of no use

B. of no good

C. unimportant

D. irrelevant

Question 46: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting EXCEPT

__________
A. the different system of supervision

B. the opportunities for advancement

C. the lack of interaction with a group

D. The work place is in the home

Question 47: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to___________
A. systems
responsibilities

B. telecommuters C. executives

D.

Question 48: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees
A. need regular interaction with their families
B. are ignorant of telecommuting
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
Question 49: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is ___________
A. a telecommuter

B. the manager

C. a statistician

D. a reporter

Question 50: When Business Week published “The Portable Executive”, it implied that
A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective
B. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic
C. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting
D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work

== THE END ==

SỐ CÂU ĐÚNG
…./50

CẦN ÔN NHỮNG YẾU TỐ
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QUYẾT TÂM CẢI THIỆN
....../50
P a g e 20 | 80


ĐIỂM:

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P a g e 21 | 80


HUYCOMF’S
NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THAM KHẢO
Đề số: 04

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. games
B. teams
C. medals
D. events
Question 2: A. organize B. spirit
C. title
D. surprising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. afternoon B. whenever
C. obedient
D. solution

Question 4: A. certain B. couple
C. decide
D. equal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show that the underlined part needs correction in
each
of
the
following
questions.
Question 5: The Nelsons asked us look over their plants for them while they were away on
vacation.
A
B
C
D
Question 6: Some diseases can be prevent by exercising regularly.
A
B
C
D

Question 7: We are working, that means that we are contributing goods and services
to our society
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: Not only a dog but also two cats_________________ at home in his garage.

A. was
B. are
C. been
D. is
Question 9: This is the key. You _________________forget to take it with you when going out.
A. should
B. have to
C. mustn’t
D. needn’t
Question 10: Somebody has left these socks on the bathroom floor, _________________?
A. have they
B. haven’t they
C. has he
D. hasn’t he
Question 11: I turned on the fan _________________the room was hot.
A. because of
B. despite
C. although
D. because
Question 12: If you had tried your best, you _________________disappointed about the result
now.
A. won’t be
B. wouldn’t be C. wouldn’t have
D. wouldn’t have been
Question 13: Many Vietnamese people_________________their lives for the revolutionary cause
of the nation
A. sacrifice
B. sacrificed
C. sacrificial
D. sacrificially

Question 14: Did you have to fill_________________a form when you applied for the job?
A. at
B. to
C. in
D. from
Question 15: Please_________________attention to what I am saying because it’s very
important to your upcoming exam.
A. make
B. take
C. share
D. pay
Question 16: Qualifications and_________________are two most important factors that help you
get a good job.
A. politeness
B. experience
C. attention
D. impression
Question 17: They are conducting a survey to______________students’ attitudes towards love
and marriage.
A. determine
B. demand
C. suppose
D. respond
Question 18: The organization was_________________in 1980.
A. put on
B. set up
C. look up
D. get off
Question 19: Nowadays elephants are one of the____________species in the world. They
need protecting.

A. enlightened
B. expensive
C. endangered
D. enlarged

P a g e 22 | 80


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - Nam: “Would you mind giving me a hand with this heavy box?
- Lam: “_________________’
A. Yes, I’ll help you
B. Yes, I would
C. No, I don’t give it
D. No, not at all .I’ll help you.
Question 21: - Anne: “You look really charming in the red sweater!”
- Maria: “_________________”
A. Thank you. That’s a nice compliment.
C. Thanks! same to you.
annoying.

B. Thank you, I’m afraid so
D. Oh, that’s

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 22: Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent
action is taken.

A. vanishing
B. damaging
C. polluting
D. destroying
Question 23: If there hadn’t been your assistance, I would have failed.
A. effort
B.aid
C. approval
D. agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: We really appreciate your help, without which we couldn’t have got our task
done in time
A. feel thankful for
B. are ungrateful for
C. are proud of
D. are contented
with
Question 25: In the spring, this place is crowded with visitors.
A. observed
B. startled
C. deserted

D. signified

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: He offered to help her with the heavy suitcase, which was kind.
A. The suitcase which he offered to help her with was kind.

B. He offered to help her but the suitcase was too heavy.
C. It was kind of him to offer to help her with the suitcase.
D. It was kind of her to have him help with the suitcase.
Question 27: No one in the team can play better than John.
A. John plays well but the others play better.
B. John as well as other players of the team plays very well.
C. Everyone in the team, but John, plays very well.
D. John is the best player of the team.
Question 28: We didn’t go on holiday because we did not have enough money.
A. If we had enough money, we would go on holiday.
B. If we didn’t have enough money, we wouldn’t not go on holiday.
C. If we had had enough money, we would not have gone on holiday.
D. If we had had enough money, we would have gone on holiday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: We preserve natural resources. We can use them in the future
A. We preserve natural resources so that we could use them in the future

P a g e 23 | 80


B. In order to use natural resources in the future, we preserve them
C. In order for us to use natural resources in the future, we preserve them
D We preserve natural resources so that to use them in the future
Question 30: The weather was very cold. They couldn’t go out.
A. The weather was very cold and that they couldn’t go out.
B. The weather was so cold that they couldn’t go out
C. The weather was not so cold they couldn’t go out.
D. The weather was very cold they couldn’t go out.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet

to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 31 to 35.
In our modern world we often look for quick solutions to our problems. We expect to be
able to achieve a great deal with little effort. But I don't believe we can apply this (31)
_________________to our diet and still remain healthy. Preparing a healthy meal can (32)
_________________a lot of time. First you need to have fresh ingredients. Pre-packaged foods
can contain a lot of unhealthy additives and so they are not as nutritious as fresh food. You
also need to make sure to include a variety of foods to make sure that you receive all of the
vitamins and minerals that are vital to a healthy diet. It is not surprising then that some
people want to find a simple solution to this in the form of a pill.
Fast foods are very high in fat, sugar and salt and so we (33) _________________to eat
them in small amounts. For some people, however, these foods have become their staple diet
and as a result they are overweight. If we want to prevent this from becoming an even bigger
problem in the future then we need to address this situation now. (34)
_________________vitamin tablets may be of some benefits, they are unlikely to be effective in
the fight against obesity. Health authorities need to increase public awareness of these
issues, but we also need to be realistic. Fast food is popular not only because it is convenient
but also because it is tasty. Perhaps we should strongly advise that people who eat fast food
every day should at least alternate fast food with fresh food. Finally, we eat for pleasure as
well as (35) _________________and for this reason I believe that pills will never replace wellcooked food.
Question 31: A. knowledge
standard

B. notion

C. understanding

Question 32: A. spend
keep

B. use

C. take

Question 33: A. ought
better

B. should

C. could

D. had

Question 34: A. However

B. When

C. Despite

D. While

Question 35: A. nutrition

B. balance

C. appetite

D.
D.

D. intake

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are
just as important to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so
intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of
your emotions, and is something that you can use to improve or change your
emotions. The color that you choose to wear either reflects your current state of
being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people
around you. Of course they also affect anyone who comes in contract with you, but
you are the one saturated with the color all day!. I even choose items around me
P a g e 24 | 80


based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the color or
emotion that I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the
emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion;
they are meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to
get your energy in motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your
body. So, the fastest way to be healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the
fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions.
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
B. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.

C. Colors can help you become healthy.
D. Colors are one of the most exciting.
Question 37: Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills.
B. Your friend’s feelings.
C. Your appetite.
D. Your mood.
Question 38: According to the passage, what do color, sound, and emotion all have
in common?
A. They all affect the cells of the body.
B. They are all forms of motion.
C. They are all related to health.
D. They are all vibrations
Question39: According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. Wearing the color black.
B. Exposing yourself to bright colors.
C. Being open to your emotions.
D. Ignoring your emotions.
Question40: The term 'they” in paragraph 3 refers to_________________
A. emotion
B. People
C. colors
D. none of the
above
Question41: Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both
vibrations?
A. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
B. Because they both affect how we feel.
C. To prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. Because vibrations make you healthy.

Question42: The phrase "saturated with" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning
to_________________
A. bored with

B. in need of

C. covered with

D. lacking in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
In the mid-nineteenth century, the United States had tremendous natural resources
that could be exploited in order to develop heavy industry. Most of the raw materials that are
valuable in the manufacture of machinery, transportation facilities, and consumer goods lay
ready to be worked into wealth. Iron, coal, and oil ― the basic ingredients of industrial
growth ― were plentiful and needed only the application of technical expertise, organizational
skill, and labor.One crucial development in this movement toward industrialization was the
growth of the railroads. The railway network expanded rapidly until the railroad map of the
United States looked like a spider's web, with the steel filaments connecting all important
sources of raw materials, their places of manufacture, and their centers of distribution.
The railroads contributed to the industrial growth not only by connecting these major
centers, but also by themselves consuming enormous amounts of fuel, iron, and coal. Many
factors influenced emerging modes of production. For example, machine tools, the tools used
to make goods, were steadily improved in the latter part of the nineteenth century ― always
with an eye to speedier production and lower unit costs. The products of the factories were
rapidly absorbed by the growing cities that sheltered the workers and the distributors. The
increased urban population was nourished by the increased farm production that, in turn, was
made more productive by the use of the new farm machinery. American agricultural

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