de on thi thpt quoc gia mon tieng anh

PHUOC BINH HIGH SCHOOL

MOCK TESTS FOR GRADE 12

MOCK TEST NO.1
I.
Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest
1. A. trained
B. proved
C. impressed
D. performed
2. A. organize
B. gold
C. game.
D. region
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
3. a. enthusiast
b. successfully
c. competitor d. participation
4. a. spirit
b. impress
c. event
d. perform
5. a. development
b. cooperation c. surprisingly d. facility
II.
Choose the underlined part among A , B , C or D that needs correcting
6. Can you look up the baby when I'm out ?
a. A
B
C

D
7. Everyone likes reading more better than usual when they like the subject.
i. A
B
C
D
8. Ha Anh can now speak English more fluent than the last time I met him
i. A
B
C
D
9. Water polo is played with a ball and people play it on a team.
i. A
B
C
D
10. One of the best ways to encourage your children to read are to provide interesting titles for them to
enjoy.
i. A
B
C
D
V. Read the following passage and choose correct answers below :
The 23rd Southeast Asian Games were held in the Philippines from November 27th to December 5th in
2005. The games were participated by the eleven nations of Southeast Asia. This was the first time that
the opening and closing ceremonies were held in a large open field, despite the fact that Manila has
many stadiums. The organization decided to hold the games at an open space to accommodate the large
number of participants and spectators. As a result, the 2005 SEA Games ranked as having the largest
audience - 200,000 people – during the opening and closing ceremonies. These games were also noted
for having the most number of delegates in the history of the SEA Games. In the end, all participating

countries received medals. Events in men's football actually started on November 20th, prior to the
opening ceremony. Water polo events began on November 21st, women's football on November 23rd,
sailing on November 26th, and tennis on November 26th;
The first gold medal of the games was awarded to Singapore on November 25th when their water polo
team came out undefeated during the round-robin tournament round. The Philippine team took the silver
medal in that event, and Malaysia brought home the bronze.The Games were also considered a valuable
opportunity for athletes to gain competition experience and preparation for the upcoming Asian Games
and Olympic Games. It was purposely created to strengthen friendship, solidarity and understanding
among neighboring countries in the region. This was the third SEA Games to be hosted by the
Philippines. The last two times the Philippines hosted the games were in 1981, and again in 1991. There
were 1,461 medals awarded, 444 of which were gold, 434 were silver, and 583 were bronze.
11. According to the first paragraph, _______.
A. only four of eleven participating countries got medals
B. the 23rd SEA Games had been over by the end of November, 2005
C. the number of audience in the 23rd SEA Games was about 200,000 people
D. the opening and closing ceremonies were hold in the stadiums of Manila
12. Which sport was first competed in the 23rd SEA Games?
A. Water polo
B. Men's football
C. Sailing
D. Tennis
13. Up to now, the Philippines has hosted the SEA Games _______ times.
A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
14. Which was not mentioned in the 23rd SEA Games?
A. Peace
B. Understanding
C. Solidarity

D. Friendship
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PHUOC BINH HIGH SCHOOL

MOCK TESTS FOR GRADE 12

15. Which country got the first gold medal in the 23rd SEA Games?
A. Malaysia
B. Vietnam
C. Singapore
D. The Philippines
IV . Choose the best answer to complete the sentences
16. _______ he drank, _______ he became.
A. More / more violent
B. The most / the most violent
C. The more / the more violent
D. The less / less violent
17. Cigarettes ________ at a bakery.
A. cannot buy
B. should not buy
C. may not buy
D. cannot be bought
18. Thanks to the progress of science and technology, our lives have become _______.
A. more and more good
B. gooder and gooder
C. the more and more good D. better and
better

19. Swimming is ________ integral part of almost all water-based activities.
a. a
b. an
c. the
d. Ø
20. It gets _______ when the winter is coming.
A. the coldest and coldest
B. more and more cold
C. cold and cold
D. colder and colder
21. He is a great sports _______. He rarely misses any sport games although he was busy.
A. energy
B. enthusiast
C. player
D. programmer
22. _______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do.
A. The more / the much
B. The harder / the better
C. The hardest / the best
D. The more hard / the more good
23. The museum is open to everybody. It ________ between 9.am and 5.pm.
A. can visit
B. visits
C. can be visited
D. visited
24. The room ________ once a day.
A. should be cleaned
B. should clean C. should be cleaning D. should have cleaned
25. They _______ at a hotel by the sea.
A. are being stayed

B. are stayed C. are staying
D. were stayed
26. The room is too dirty. It ________ now.
A. should have cleaned
B. should be cleaned
C. should clean
D. should be
cleaning
27. WHO has its _______ in GENEva , Switzerland.
A. shelters
B. houses
C. homes
D. headquarters
28. The next meeting ________ in May.
A. will be held
B. will have held
C. will be holding
D. will hold
29. The opening ceremonies of the 23rd Southeast Asian games ________ at the Quirino Grandstand in
Manila.
a. held
b. was held
c. was holding
d. had held
30. Robert does not have ----------- Peter does.
A. as much money as
B. more money as
C. as many money as
D.
money more than

31. The weather forecast says that it ________ tomorrow.
A. needs snowing B. must be snowed
C. will be snowed
D. will snow
32. John ____ his old house soon.
A. sells
B. will sell
C. is sold
D. will be sold
33. The Sears Tower is _______ building in Chicago.
A. taller
B. taller and taller
C. the tallest
D. the more tall
34. The exam results are being ...............on Thursday.
A. announce
B. announces
C. announced
D. to announce
35. Our country is aiming to ................the Asia Sports Games in ten years' time.
A. boss
B. manage
C. host
D. control
nd
36. In _______ 22 SEA Games, Vietnam won 158 _______ gold medals.
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PHUOC BINH HIGH SCHOOL

MOCK TESTS FOR GRADE 12

a. Ø / the
b. the / Ø
c. a / the
d. the / the
37. _______ logo of the 22nd SEA Games is the stylization of Lac bird, the ancient bird pictured of the face
of Ngoc Lu kettledrum, _______ most special and typical relic of the ancient Vietnamese culture.
a. A / the
b. The / the
c. Ø / Ø
d. The / Ø
38. _______ symbol of the SEA Games Federation is to emphasize the solidarity, friendship, and nobility.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. Ø
39. The host country, Laos, is expected to announce official sports for 25th SEA Games _______ November
2008.
a. on
b. in
c. during
d. from
40. Vietnam recommended archery, vovinam, billiards-snooker and canoeing _______ official sports at the
games.
a. at
b. with
c. as

d. in
41. The Party and State leaders, delegates, domestic arid international guests, and 11 sports delegations
_______ Southeast Asian countries to the 22nd SEA Games were warmly welcomed.
a. over
b. at
c. for
d. from
42. Johnny used to be one of the most _______ athletes in my country.
a. succeed
b. success
c. successful
d. successfully
43. _______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do.
a. The harder / the better
b. The more / the much
c. The hardest / the best
d. The more hard / the more good,
44. My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that _______ it is at night, _______ he plays his music!
a. the less / the more loud
b. the less / less
c. the more late / the more loudlier
d. the later / the louder
45. Thanks to the progress of science and technology, our lives have become _______.
a. more and more good
b. better arid better
c. the more and more good
d. gooder and gooder
46. The Sears Tower is _______ building in Chicago.
a. taller
b. the more tall

c. the tallest
d. taller and taller
47. Petrol is _______ it used to.
a. twice as expensive as
b. twice expensive more than
c. twice more than expensive
d. more expensive than twice
48. Boy! _______ away all your toys and. go to bed right now.
a. Come
b. Lie
c. Put
d. Sit
49. She got _______ her car to pick _______ some wild flowers.
a. from / on
b. in / at
c. off / up
d. out / for
50. The customer had tried ____ some blouses but none of them suited her.
a. at
b. with
c. in
d. on
51. Everything is _______ you. I cannot make _______ my mind yet.
a. out off / on
b. up to / up
c. away from / for
d. on for / off
52. _______ is a situation in which large numbers of people have little or no food, and many of them die.
a. Disaster
b. Famine

c. Poverty
d. Flood.
Read the passage and choose the best answers.
World Wildlife Fund (WWF) safeguards hundreds of species around the world, but we focus species
attention on our flagship species: giant pandas, tigers, endangered whales and dolphins, rhinos,
elephant, marine turtles and great apes. These species not only need species measures and extra
protection in order to survive, they also serve as “umbrella” species: helping them helps numerous other
species that live in the same habitats.
In addition to our flagship animals, we work to protect numerous species in peril around the world that
live within our priority eco-regions. Laree predators like snow leopards and grizzly bears, migratory
species like whooping cranes and song birds, and a host of other species facing threats also benefit from
WWF’ s conservation efforts. Our wildlife trade experts at “traffic” work to ensure that trade wildlife
products, doesn’t harm a species, while also fighting against illegal and unsustainable trade.
3
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PHUOC BINH HIGH SCHOOL

MOCK TESTS FOR GRADE 12

WWF is known for acting sound science. Science leads and guides us strategies and approaches, from
the way to restore tigers in viable, breed population to decide which areas need protection the most.
53. What does WWF stand for?
A. World Wildlife Food.
B. World Wildlife Formation.
C. World Wildlife Fund.
D. World Website Fund.
54. How many species do we pay much attention to?
A. 5

B. 8
C. 7
D. 9
55. What is the meaning of the world habitats in paragraph 1?
A. The place where animals or plants are normally found.
B. The place where
animals or plants can drink and sleep.
C. The place where animals or plants can eat find their enemy.
D. The place where animals can find
and keep their body warm.
56. What can science help us in safeguarding endangered species?
A. Find the way to kill all species easily.
B. Lead and guide strategies and approaches.
C. Discover another habitat of animal.
D. Search for a food source for animals.
57. Which of the following is not stated in the passage?
A. WWF safeguards hundreds of species around the world.
B. WWF is known for
acting on sound science.
C. these above species need extra protection so as not to be extinct. D. All species are so fierce that
scientists can’t take care of them.
Read and choose the appropriate option:
Bouillon’s Problem
In the past, elephants in Thailand were taken from the wild when they were very young. They (41)
______ to work for the people cutting down the large trees of the forests. They became “work
machine’- they were not free, wild animals (42) ______ more.
Some of the elephants became depressed and some even cried. Elephants can be unhappy too.
Bouillon’s Future.
Bouillon was one of these (43) ______, but with the help of Thailand’s Royal Family and the World
Wildlife Fund, she is soon going back to her natural environment, the forest. First, she is going to live at

the Doi Pa Muang, Wildlife Sanctuary. There, she will (44) ______ learn to be free again, and she will
meet other free elephants for the first time.
If you would like information (45) ______ other areas of the work of the WWF, please write to the
address below.
58. .A. were sold
B. sold
C. is sold
D. sell
59. A. some
B. little
C. any
D. few.
60. A. zebras
B. elephants
C. donkeys
D. horses.
61. A. fast
B. quick
C. far
D. slowly.
62. A. in
B. about
C. at
D. on
Closet meaning
63. The bomb exploded in the garage; fortunately no one hurt.
a. put on
b. went off
c. got out
d. kept up

64. The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.
a. organized
b. impressed
c. participated d. defended
Rewrite the sentences
1. “ Why don’t you put better lock on the door,Barbara”? said John
--> John suggested..................................................................................................
2. I haven’t eaten this kind of food before.
--> This is the first............................................................................................
3. The architect has drawn plans for an extentionto the house.
-->Plans...............................................................................................................
4. It isn’t necessary for you to finish by Saturday
.-->You................................................................................................................
5. It was such rotten meat that it had to be thrown away.
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HOANG THI MY PHUONG


PHUOC BINH HIGH SCHOOL

MOCK TESTS FOR GRADE 12

=>The meat was.................................................................
My family
My family consists of four people. There are my parents, my brother and me. My father is an engineer . My
mother is a housewife. My brother is a student, and I am a police.
We get up at 6 o’clock every morning. After breakfast, I and my father go to work, my mother does the
housework and my brother goes to school.We have lunch at noon and dinner at 7 p.m. In the evening after
dinner, we sit together in the living-room talking or watching television for about an hour. Then my brother and
I go to our own rooms.

My family is a very happy one. We love each other very much and expect to live together under the same roof
forever.

MOCK TEST NO.2
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1.
A. sings
B. eats
C. signs
D. gains
2.
A. preferred
B. fetched
C. worked
D. fixed
3.
A. cheerful
B. chicken
C. character
D. choice
II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
4. A. important
B. difficult
C. discover
D. invention
5. A. academic
B. historic
C. terrific

D. fantastic
III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct one to complete each of the
following sentences.
6. His family ________ in the first row now.
A. is sitting
B. are
C. is
D. are sitting
7. A number of students ________ for a rise since last year
A. asked
B. has asked
C. ask
D. have asked
8. I have been fascinated by _________ since I was at secondary school.
A. photographic
B. photographer
C. photograph
D. photography
9. She has difficulty ________ and ________ English.
A. speak-writing
B. to speak- to write
C. speak-write
D. speaking-writing
10. Well- ___________child often behaves quite differently from one who did not get good schooling.
A. education
B. educated
C. educate
D. educating
11. When my grandfather was alive, he ________ morning exercises.
A. used to do

B. use to do
C. used to doing
D. wasn't used to do
12. There is no __________ explanation for what happened.
A. scientifically
B. scientist
C. science
D. scientific
13. –“I’ve passed my driving test.” –“_____________.”
A. It’s nice of you to say so.
B. Do you?
C. Congratulations!
D. That’s a good idea.
14. We ______ them before the reception yesterday
A. haven't met
B. hadn't met
C. didn't meet
D. wouldn't meet
15. In spite of______, we decided to go out.
A. tired
B. feeling tired
C. all of us felt tired
D. we felt very tired
16. “Do you mind if I borrow a chair?" “____ Do you need only one?”
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PHUOC BINH HIGH SCHOOL

MOCK TESTS FOR GRADE 12

A. Yes, I would.
B. Yes, I do.
C. Not at all.
D. I'm sorry.
17. My parents saw a ________ play last night.
A. three - act
B. three - acts
C. three acts
D. three act
18. Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t ______ as usual
A. get off
B. go off
C. ring off
D. take off
19. – “What would you like to drink? “ – “ __________.”
A. Yes, please
B. Milk, please
C. No, thanks
D. OK
20. The number of cars on the roads ______ increasing, so we need to build more roads.
A. is
B. was
C. were
D. are
21. ______ the class size is our school’s immediate aim.
A. Reduces
B. Reduce
C. Reducing

D. Reduced
22. The book would have been perfect ________ the ending.
A. had it not been for
B. it had not been for C. it hadn't been for D . hadn't it been for.
23. Only in the Civil War____________ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America were
B. so many American soldiers were
C. many in America were
D. were so many American soldiers
24. Frankly, I'd rather you _______ anything about it for the time being.
A. don't do
B. hadn't done
C. didn't do
D. haven't done
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased. The
frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the
bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make
schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as
the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to
age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened.
Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling
extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities
were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations,
unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of specific
populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young women so they

could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered
appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education gave
homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as
the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the
home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than
scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than
a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for
children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of
others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.
25. The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses _____.
A. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen century.
B. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century.
C. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the 19th century
D. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century.
26. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of education
in the United States was _____.
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HOANG THI MY PHUONG


PHUOC BINH HIGH SCHOOL

MOCK TESTS FOR GRADE 12

A. the increased urbanization of the entire country
B. the expanding economic problems of schools
C. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
D. an increase in the number of trained teachers
27. The word "means" in line 5 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. probability
B. qualifications
C. advantages
D. method
28. The phrase "coincided with" in line 7 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. ensured the success of
B. began to grow rapidly
C. happened at the same time as
D. was influenced by
29. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was that
_____.
A. most places required children to attend school
B. adults and children studied in the same classes
C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
D. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
30. “Vacation schools and extracurricular activities” are mentioned in line 9 to illustrate _____.
A. the importance of educational changes
B. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
C. the increased impact of public schools on students
D. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs.
Câu 31: According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that _____.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
C. more women should be involved in education and industry
D. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
Câu 32: The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. homemaking
B. consumption
C. education
D. production

Câu 33: Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _____.
A. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
Câu 34: The word “others” in paragraph 4 means_______.
A. other women
B. other homes
C. other children
D. other employees
V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question from 35 to 37.
Câu 35: He passed his exams with flying colours
A. badly
B. easily
C. successfully
D. difficult
Câu 36: Gradually more children were sent to the class as their parents realized that the young teacher was
trying her best to help their poor kids.
A. Progressively
B. Firstly
C. Weakly
D. Slowly
Câu 37: She harboured the thought of being a member in the Parliament to struggle for women’s rights.
A. determined
B. passed
C. took charge of
D. keep in mind
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question from 38 to 39.

Câu 38: Which ones do you think would be difficult for blind and deaf people?
A. easy
B. slight
C. soft
D. light
Câu 39: As a brilliant and mature student with a rare gift of concentration, Marie harbored the dream of a
scientific career which was impossible for a woman at that time.
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PHUOC BINH HIGH SCHOOL

A. dark

MOCK TESTS FOR GRADE 12

B. ugly

C. dull

D. dirty

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Câu 40: Before he retired last month, Mr. Smith has been working as a secretary in the House of Parliament.
A. has been working B. a secretary
C. Before
D. as
Câu 41: He was one of the first inventor to apply the principles of mass production to the process of invention.

A. mass production
B. to apply
C. the process of invention
D. one of the first inventor
Câu 42: Sometimes it is difficult to avoid to drink when we enjoy an informal party.
A. Sometimes
B. to drink
C. an informal party
D. it is difficult
Câu 43: Despite there is a lot of stress and pressure in my job, I have never thought of quitting it.
A. of quitting
B. have never thought C. there is
D. pressure
Câu 44: Education, whether it happens at school or anywhere else, is a important part in our life
A. or
B. a important part
C. Education
D. whether
VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.
READING WITH THE FINGERS
Blindness is one of the most difficult of human (45) ____. The fact that our eyes are so important (46) ____
our learning is one of the key problems. One thing making education (47) _____ and life more pleasant for the
blind is the development of a system by (48) ____ they are able to learn to read.
Since the blind cannot use their eyes, they are taught to use the (49) _____ of touch in their fingers. Reading
raised printed matters of the common type is very, very difficult. A special system now used was invented by a
Frenchman, Louis Braille. This reading device is called Braille, (50) ______ Louis Braille, who made it usable
for the blind. In the Braille plan, the letters are (51) ______ by raised dots. The Braille alphabet uses from one
to five dots. These dots are arranged upon a six-dot plan. Different patterns are used for (52) _____ letters.
Many thousands of books are now printed in Braille and sent to most countries in the world. A blind person

who has (53) ____ this system passes the ends of his fingers along the line of Braille print. At first his reading
may be painfully slow, but it becomes faster with (54) _____.
Câu 45:
Câu 46:
Câu 47:
Câu 48:
Câu 49:
Câu 50:
Câu 51:
Câu 52:
Câu 53:
Câu 54:

A. drawbacks
A. with
A. easy
A. what
A. sense
A. after
A. represented
A. another
A. mastered
A. training

B. handicaps
B. for
B. possible
B. whom
B. feeling
B. by

B. taken over
B. each
B. learned
B. use

C. sufferings
C. to
C. probable
C. which
C. sensitivity
C. on
C. made
C. all
C. taught
C. practice

D. shortcomings
D. on
D. enabled
D. that
D. sensation
D. for
D. symbolized
D. every
D. received
D. direction

IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.

According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious
parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic
parental expectations can cause great damage to children.
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PHUOC BINH HIGH SCHOOL

MOCK TESTS FOR GRADE 12

However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a
sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their
child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to
concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a
week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a
large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and
they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter
him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid
that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
Câu 55: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to ______.
A. help their child to become a genius
B. push their child into trying too much
C. make their child become a musician
D. neglect their child’s education
Câu 56: Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they ______.
A. force their children into achieving success B. arrange private lessons for their children
C. understand and help their children sensibly D. themselves have been very successful

Câu 57: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians.
B. Educational psychologists.
C. Their children.
D. Unrealistic parents.
Câu 58: Michael Collins is fortunate in that ______.
A. his parents are quite rich
B. his father is a musician
C. his mother knows little about music
D. his parents help him in a sensible way
Câu 59: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "confused about"
B. "surprised at"
C. "completely unaware of"
D. "extremely interested in"
Câu 60: Winston’s parents push their son so much and he ______.
A. has become a good musician
B. cannot learn much music from them
C. is afraid to disappoint them
D. has won a lot of piano competitions
Câu 61: The word "They" in the passage refers to ______.
A. concerts
B. parents in general C. Michael’s parents D. violin lessons
Câu 62: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT _____.
A. Winston’s mother B. Winston’s father
C. Michael’s father
D. Michael’s mother
Câu 63: The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. " not objecting to doing anything "
B. "eager to do something"

C. " not wanting to do something "
D. " getting ready to do something"
Câu 64: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that ______.
A. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
B. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
C. successful parents always have intelligent children
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (2 điểm)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one, beginning with the given
word.
1. It’s months since we decorated this room
We haven’t____________________________________________________________________________
2. I don’t think it’s a good idea for you to go out this evening
I’d rather______________________________________________________________________________
3. What a pity my brother fails the driving test
I wish_________________________________________________________________________________
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4. He can’t cook as well as his mother does
His mother ____________________________________________________________________________
5. The boy threw the ball through the window
The ball ______________________________________________________________________________
Write a paragraph (120 words) about measures to protect endangered species.
Nowadays, a lot of species in the world are in danger of extinction. Therefore, we should take some

measures to protect them from becoming extinct. First, we should organize different activities such as
international seminars or forums to raise people’s awareness of the need to protect rare and endangered
animals. Second, we should raise sufficient funds for projects to save endangered animals. Third, we should
keep water, air, and land clean to preserve natural habitats for wild and endangered animals. Next, we should
have a good policy to improve the life of people who live in or near endangered animals’ habitats have poor
living conditions and rely mostly on wildlife products for their livelihood. Furthermore, we should build more
wildlife habitat reserves to protect endangered animals. Finally, we shoud enact laws requiring some countries
to protect endangered animals and ban people to exploit and sell fashionable wildflife products.

MOCK TEST NO.3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A killed
B. crashed
C. waved
D. cured
Question 2: A. vulnerable
B. survive
C. cup.
D. unnoticed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. wildlife
B. digest
C. habitat
D. sociable
Question 4: A. swallow
B. derive
C. eject
D. enact

Question 5: A. personality
B. deforestation
C. environmental
D. urbanization
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
Question 6: The manager had his brother ______ the report for him.
A. to typed
B. typing
C. type
D. typed
Question 7: My uncle ______ a very beautiful house in town last year.
A. buy
B. bought
C. will buy
D. is building
Question 8: Where is he? He should __________ at home hours ago.
A. were
B. had been
C. be
D. have been
Question 9: Fruits ________ in a freezer.
A. should not put
B. should not be put C. must put D. must be putting
Question 10: If the weather ______ worse, we won’t go to the beach.
A. got
B. will get
C. would get
D. gets
Question 11: ______ arrived earlier, we could have finished the task.
A Had we

B If we hadn’t
C Unless we had
D If we have
Question 12: Ann: “Do you need any help?”
Kate: “______.”
A. I haven’t got a clue
B. That’s fine by me C. No, thanks. I can manage D. That’s all for now
Question 13: These birds are in danger of becoming ________ as their forest home disappears.
A. extinct
B. rare
C. endangered
D. dead
Question 14: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep ________ with rapidly
changing technology
A. pace
B. fast
C. time
D. speed
Question 15: John asked me ______ interested in.
A. what kind of sports I was
B. what kind of sports was I
C. what kind of sports I am
D. what kind of sports am I
Question 16: You can _____ the meaning of the new words in the dictionary.
A. look after
B look at
C. look up
D. look for
Question 17: Suddenly, Julia jumped out of the car and sprinted for the front door.
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A. move slightly
B. walked hurriedly
C. ran slowly
D. ran very fast
Question 18: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” –“__________”
A. What a lovely toy! Thanks.
B. Have a nice day!
C. The same to you!
D. What a pity!
Question 19: Never before _______ such a wonderful child.
A. I saw
B. have I seen
C. I had seen
D. I have seen
Question 20: Children are_______ in watching cartoon films.
A. interested
B. keen
C. fond
D. concerned
Question 21: He agreed to sign the contract _______.
A. so he didn’t know much about that company
B. in spite he knew much about that company
C. although he didn’t know much about that company.

D. because he didn’t know much about that company’s director.
Question 22: We have plenty of time for doing the work. We _______ be hurried.
A. needn't
B. shouldn't
C. mustn't
D. mayn't
Question 23: Tom: ……………………………….? Mary: He is brave, intelligent and generous.
A. What does your close friend like?
B. Is your close friend brave, intelligent and generous?
C. What does your close friend look like?
D. What is your close friend like?
Question 24: I never read ________ newspapers during the week, but I buy ______Observer every Sunday
and I read it in ________bed.
A. the / a / the
B. the / the / no article C. no article / the / no article
D. a / a / the
Question 25: The girls and flowers __________ he painted were vivid.
A. that
B. who
C. which
D. whose
Question 26: __________he missed the first bus, he came ten minutes late.
A. Although B. Because C. However
D. Therefore
Question 27: English has become the main language of__________.
A. communicant
B. communicate
C. communication
D. communicative
Question 28: I said that I had met her ______.

A. yesterday
B. the day
C. the before day.
D. the previous day
Question 29: In water polo, a player is ejected after committing five personal fouls.
A. punished
B. criticized
C. thrown out
D. defeated
30. The boy ______ eyes are brown is my friend.
A. which
B. whose
C. whom
D. who
31. She'll be a billionaire by the time she ______ forty.
A. is
B. is going to be
C. was
D. will be
32. Mai is my closest friend. We are always willing to _______feelings to each other.
A. tear
B. cut
C. share
D. shake
33. My family is the base from which we can go into the world with _______.
A. confide
B. confidence
C. confident
D. confiding
34. My responsibility is to _______my little brothers.

A. take care of
B. join hands
C. take over
D. work together
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 35: Professor Jones said that a good way to improve your language are learning to practise it.
A
B
C
D
Question 36: She said that the books in the library would be available tomorrow.
A
B
C
D
Question 37: He studied very hard, so he passed the exam easy.
A
B C
D
Question 38: I asked him how far was it to the station if I went there by taxi.
A
B
C
D
Question 39: Have you ever read any novels writing by Jack London?
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A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined
words in each of the following sentences.
Question 40: The 1923 earthquake in Japan killed about 200,000 people and left countless wounded and
homeless.
A. suffered
B. injured
C. imprisoned
D. poor
Question 41: Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.
A. irritations
B. risks
C. annoyances
D. fears
Question 42: The organization was established in 1950 in the USA.
A come around
B made out C put on
D set up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following sentences
Question 43: Question 28: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the
same region.
A. remain unstable
B. stay unchanged

C. restrain
D. fluctuate
Question 44: An optimistic person always sees things on the bright sides.
A. intelligent
B. pesimistic
C. comfortable
D. difficult
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks from 40 to 49
British families started going on holiday to the seaside around the middle of the 19 th century. The
invention of the railways (40)____ this possible. The first holidaymakers were quite rich and went for their
health and education. The seaside was a place to be (41)____ of illness, and doctors recommended bathing in
the sea and drinking sea water. Also to (42)____ their knowledge, families attended concerts and read books
from the library.
At that time, ordinary working people had very little time (43)____ work. However, in 1871, the
government introduced four ‘Banking Holiday’ - national holiday days. This (44)____ people to have a day or
two out, which now and then gave them a taste for leisure and the seaside. At first, they went on day-trips,
taking (45)____ of special cheap tickets on the railways. By the 1880s, rising incomes (46)____ that many
ordinary workers and their families could have a week’s holiday at the seaside. Rail fares were reduced and
cheap hotels were built to (47)____ them. Holidaymakers enjoyed being idle, sitting on the beach, bathing in
the sea, and eating ice-cream. Cheap entertainment was (48)____ offer and holidaymakers went to have fun.
Today the English seaside (49)____ popular, with more than 18 million holidays taken there each year.
Question 45: A. got
B. had
C. let
D. made
Question 46: A. recovered
B. improved
C. cured
D. remedied

Question 47: A. add
B. increase
C. raise
D. spread
Question 48: A. from
B. out
C. off
D. away
Question 49: A. allowed
B. provided
C. opened
D. offered
Question 50: A. opportunity
B. advantage
C. profit
D. benefit
Question 51: A. meant
B. resulted
C. produced
D. caused
Question 52: A. board
B. accommodate
C. lodge
D. cater
Question 53: A. on
B. to
C. in
D. for
Question 54: A. stays
B. continues

C. lasts
D. remains
Read the following passage adapted from Pre-Essence Reading 1 by Rachel Lee, and mark the letter
A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 40.
The most usual way to entertain friends at home is to invite them for a meal, either in the evening or at
lunchtime on a Sunday. In smaller communities, for example a country village, people also invite each other for
a drink before a meal, for morning coffee or afternoon tea.
When guests are invited for a meal, they often sit and chat while they have a drink before the meal,
and coffee is usually served afterwards. Several friends are sometimes invited at once to make a small party.
These parties are almost always informal. Formal occasions, when written invitations are sent out and people
dress formally, rarely take place in people’s homes, although they did in the past.
Larger parties are arranged to celebrate a particular event. Children’s birthdays are often celebrated
with a tea party for the child’s friends. The meal will often be followed by party games.
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Parties are held to celebrate a person’s coming of age (formerly at 21 but now at 18), a couple’s silver
wedding anniversary (after 25 years of marriage), a couple’s engagement and New Year’s Eve. In the USA a
person’s 40th birthday is often marked with a special celebration. A house-warming party is sometimes held to
invite friends to one’s new home.
In summer, if the weather is fine, people may hold a barbecue in the garden. A much grander, more
formal occasion is a garden party, held in the afternoon, when tea is served.
55. When are written invitations sent out?
A. On formal occasions.
B. On a Sunday morning.

C. On informal occasions.
D. On a Sunday evening.
56. Nowadays, parties are held to celebrate a person’s coming of age when they are______.
A. 40
B. 18
C. 21
D. 25
57. What is the purpose of a house-warming party?
A. To mark a person’s 40th birthday.
B. To celebrate a couple’s wedding anniversary.
C. To entertain the child’s friends.
D. To invite friends to one’s new home.
58. The word “grander” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. more pleasant
B. more important
C. more convenient
D. more exciting
59. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. People don’t invite each other for a drink before a meal in a country village.
B. People often hold garden parties on informal occasions.
C. People often sit and chat before a meal they are invited for.
D. People don’t hold any parties to celebrate a particular event.
Read the passage carefully, then answer the following questions from 60 to 64
There is very little documentation about the origins of water polo. It is known, however, that the sport
originated in the rivers and lakes of mid-19th century England as an aquatic version of rugby. Early games used
an inflated rubber ball that came from India known as a "pulu" (the single Indian word for all "balls").
Pronounced "polo" by the English, both the game and the ball became known as "water polo." To attract more
spectators to swimming exhibitions, the London Swimming Association designed a set of water polo rules for
indoor swimming pools in 1870. At first, players scored by planting the ball on the end of the pool with both
hands. A favorite trick of the players was to place the five-to-nine inch rubber ball inside their swimming suit

and dive under the murky water, they would then appear again as close to the goal as possible. The introduction
of the rules by Scottish players changed the nature of water polo. It became a game that emphasized swimming,
speed and passing. Scottish rules moved from a rugby variant to a soccer style of play. Goals became a cage of
10x 3 feet and a goal could be scored by being thrown. Players could only be tackled when they "held" the ball
and the ball could no longer be taken under water. The small rubber ball was replaced by a leather soccer ball.
If the player came up too near the goal, he was promptly jumped on by the goalie, who was permitted to stand
on the pool deck. Games were often nothing more than gang fights in the water as players ignored the ball,
preferring underwater wrestling matches that usually ended with one man floating to the surface unconscious.
Water polo was first played in the USA in 1888. The game featured the old rugby style of play which resembled
American football in the water. "American style" water polo became very popular and by the late 1890's was
played in such venues as Madison Square Garden and Boston's Mechanics Hall, attracting 14,000 spectators to
national championship games.
Question 60: According to the text, _______.
A. people have played water polo since the early 19th century.
B. water polo first appeared somewhere outside England
C. the origins of water polo are written thoroughly in a lot of documents
D. water polo is an aquatic version of rugby
Question 61: The present rules of water polo were invented _______.
A. in 1870
B. by Scottish players C. the London Swimming Association D. by Indian players
Question 62: In water polo, the players score a goal by _______.
A. swimming
B. catching
C. throwing
D. passing
Question 63: The present water polo ball is made of _______.
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A. rubber
B. bone
C. wood
D. leather
Question 64: Water polo became popular in America in _______.
A. by the late 1890's
B. the middle of the 19th century
C. in 1888
D. in 1870
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that the original meaning is exactly the same as the
provided one.
Question 1. “How many survivors are there?” asked the journalist.
→ The journalist wanted to know.................................................................
Question 2. It was such rotten meat that it had to be thrown away.
→ The meat was....................................................................................................
Question 3. It is essential that Professor JoanalynEstioco is met at the airport.
→ Professor Joanalyn Estioco.........................................................................
Question 4. You can’t visit the USA unless you have a visa.
→ If you......................................................................................................................
Question 5. “Can I borrow your typewriter, Janet?” asked Peter.
→ Peter asked if.... ................................................................................................
Topic 4: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the kind of job you would like to do after you
finish your education.
Having a job nowadays is very important to everyone. By the end of this month, I will have left my high
school, so I also would like to choose a suitable job for myself.
Unlike other students, I live in a poor village in the remote and mountainous area where there is always the

lack of everything such as schools, teachers, electricity and water, the living conditions are low and children do
not go to school regularly. Now I am a student and I am going to leave my school to attend a university, so I
hope to make my home village more developed and bring knowledge to the children. Besides, I love teaching
and I love children and want to give comfort and care to them. Therefore, I would like to work as a teacher.
Working as a teacher would be a fascinating and challenging job because I would have a chance to bring
education to difficult places with poor children and living conditions. That’s the reason why I have applied to
Hanoi National University of Education to meet my dream.

MOCK TEST NO.4
A. SECTION A (8 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. supported
Question 2: A. teach

B. finished
B. break

C. noticed
C. deal

D. approached
D. clean

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following question.
Question 3: A. oceanic
B. advantageous
C. compulsory
D. influential

Question 4: A. instrument
B. recipe
C commitment
D. candidate
Question 5: A. contain
B. conquer
C conserve
D. conceal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: The receptionist, ______ answered the phone, told me that the director was out.
A. who
B. whose
C. that
D. whom
Question 7: Students will not be allowed into the exam room if they ______their student cards.
A. don’t produce
B. didn’t produce
C. produced
D. hadn’t produced
Question 8:______the salesman promised to exchange the detective CD player for a new one, they insisted on
getting a refund.
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A. And
B. But
C. Although
D. Despite
Question 9: Changes have been made in our schooling program. As a result, young children______
do homework any more.
A. couldn’t
B. needn’t
C. oughtn’t
D. haven’t
Question 10: Although MERS (Middle East Respiratory Syndrome) spreads through close contact with sick
people, not through the air, many people still avoid _____to crowded places.
A. having gone
B. going
C. to go
D. gone
Question 11: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made _____accident.
A. in
B. by
C. at
D. on
Question 12: The headmaster has decided that three lecture halls ______in our school next semester.
A. will be building
B. will build
C. are being built
D. will be built
Question 13: After the new technique had been introduced, the factory produced ______cars in 2014 as the
year before.
A. twice as many
B. twice many as

C. as many twice
D. as twice many
Question 14: It is _____of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.
A. familiar
B. ordinary
C. common
D. typical
Question 15: John has finally found a new job after being _____for three months.
A. out of reach
B. out of order
C. out of work
D. out of mind
Question 16: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien performed so well the 28 th Sea Games Women’s 200m butterfly that none
of her rivals could _____her.
A. look up to
B. come up to
C. catch up with
D. put up with
Question 17: A molecule of water is _______ of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen.
A. created
B. included
C. consisted
D. composed
Question 18: Jane really loves the______, jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. wooden brown nice
B. nice wooden brown
C. brown wooden nice
D. nice brown wooden
Question 19: When asked about their preference for movies, many young people say that they are in favour
______science fiction.

A. with
B. of
C. in
D. for
Question 20: Global warming will result ______crop failures and famine.
A. in
B. from
C. of
D. to
Question 21:______at school yesterday when we were informed that there was no class due to a sudden power
cut.
A. We have hardly arrived
B. We had arrived hardly
C. Hardly we had arrived
D. Hardly had we arrived
Question 22: Such characters as fairies or witches in Walt Disney animated cartoons are purely______.
A. imaginary
B. imaginative
C. imagining
D. imaginable
Question 23: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.
Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Ken: "Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?" Tom: “………..”
A. Studying in a group is great fun.
B. We are too busy on weekdays.
C. Why don’t you look at the atlas?
D. The library would be best.
Question 24: Mike and Lane are university students. They are talking about Lane's upcoming high-school
reunion. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike: "So, you have your fifth high-school reunion coming up?” Lane: “………..”

A. Oh, the school reunion was wonderful.
B. No. You're in no mood for the event
C. The food at the reunion was excellent.
D. Yeah. I'm really looking forward to it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: When Susan invited us to dinner, she really showed off her culinary talents. She prepared a feast
– a huge selection of dishes that were simply mouth-watering.
A. relating to medical knowledge
B. involving hygienic conditions and diseases
C. concerning nutrition and health
D. having to do with food and cooking
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Question 26: “It’s no use talking to me about metaphysics. It’s a closed book to me.”
A. a book that is never opened
B. an object that I really love
C. a subject that I don’t understand
D. a theme that I like to discuss
Question 27: Suddenly, it began to rain heavily, so all the summer hikers got drenched all over.
A. very tired
B. completely wet
C. refreshed
D. cleansed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 28 to 37.
Library is a collection of books and other informational materials made available to people for reading,
study, or reference. The word library comes (28)______liber, the Latin word for "book”. (29)______, library
collections have almost always contained a variety of materials. Contemporary libraries maintain collections
that include not only printed materials such as manuscripts, books, newspapers, and magazines, (30)______
audio-visual and online databases. In addition (31)______maintaining collections within library buildings,
modern libraries often feature tele-communications links that provide users with access to information at
remote sites.
The central mission of a library (32)______
to collect, organize, preserve, and provide access to
knowledge and information. In fulfilling this mission, libraries preserve a valuable record of culture that can be
passed down to (33)______generations. Libraries are an essential link in this communication between the past,
present, and future. Whether the cultural record is contained in books or in electronic formats, libraries ensure
(34)______the record is preserved and made available for later use.
People use library resources to gain information about personal (35)______or to obtain recreational
materials such as films and novels. Students use libraries to supplement and enhance their classroom
experiences, to learn (36)_____ in locating sources of informatfon, and to develop good reading and study
habits. Public officials use libraries to research legislation and pubic policy issues. One of the most valued of all
cultural institutions, the library (37)_____information and services that are essential to learning and progress.
From “Library (institution)” by Richard S. Halsey et al.
Question 28: A. to
B. in
C. from
D.out
Question 29: A. Therefore
B. Instead
C. However
D. Despite
Question 30: A. but also

B. as well
C. only if
D. or else
Question 31: A. in
B. on
C. from
D. to
Question 32: A. has
B. are
C. is
D. have
Question 33: A. success
B. succeeding
C. succeed
D. successful
Question 34: A. that
B. which
C. what
D. who
Question 35: A. appeals
B. interests
C. profits
D. attractions
Question 36: A. skills
B. talents
C. capabilities
D. abilities
Question 37: A. relates
B. digests
C. supplies

D. applies
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 38 to 47.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global warming.
Scientist have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming
earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their
annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward
higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too
warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or
farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as
those found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not
possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea
ice but have nowhere farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have
estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of
further warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals.
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Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly
enough and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global warming.
Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the
coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching

and death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean
and increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.
Question 38: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to_____
A. bloom earlier
B. lose color
C. die instantly
D. become lighter
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move_____
A. south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward tower elevations
B. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
C. towards the North Pole and down mountainsides toward tower elevations.
D. towards the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
Question 40: The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to_____
A. species
B. ecosystems
C. habitats
D. areas
Question 41: The phrase "dwindling sea ice" in paragraph 2 refers to_____
A. the frozen water in the Arctic
B. the cold ice in the Arctic
C. the violent Arctic Ocean
D. the melting ice in the Arctic
Question 42: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees_____
A. water supply would decrease by 50 percent
B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters
C. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct
D. half of the earth's surface would be flooded
Question 43: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer
temperatures,____.
A. they may be endangered

B. they move to tropical forests.
C. they will certainly need water
D.
they
can
begin
to
develop.
Question 44: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. very large
B. pretty hard
C. easily damaged
D. rather strong
Question 45: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates _______.
A. the slow death of coral reefs.
B. the quick growth of marine mammals.
C. the blooming phase of sea weeds
D. the water absorption of coral reefs
Question
46:
The
level
of
acidity
in
the
ocean
is
increased
by_______.

A. the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean
B. the extinction of species in coastal areas.
C. the loss of acidity in the atmosphere around the earth
D. the decrease of acidity of the pole waters
Question 47: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Effects of global warming on animals and plants
B. Global warming and species migration
C. Global warming and possible solutions
D. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 48: The number of homeless people in Nepal have increased sharply due to the recent
A
B
C
severe earthquake.
D
Question 49: Since poaching is becoming more seriously, the government has imposed stricter laws
to prevent it.
A
B
C
D
Question 50: It is common knowledge that solar heating for a large office building is technically
A
B
C
different from a single-family home.
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D
Question 51: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regarding of their age, sex, or
nationality.
A
B
C
D
Question 52: Reminding not to miss the 15:20 train, the manager set out for the station in a hurry.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 53: "Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!"
A. hobbyist
B. optimist
C. activist
D. feminist
Question 54: "Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight. "
A. turn down
B. slow down
C. look up
D. put forward

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little
space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of
resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain
number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food and
other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple farming,
gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers of people
because these labor – intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe,
overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities
of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large – scale irrigation, and
agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high densities of people in
metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147persons
per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low – productivity manual farming, which
contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe,
such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice
mechanized farming and are involved in high – tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of
living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub – Saharan Africa have population densities of
less than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these
countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a
consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density and high
agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many
poor families because the provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies
commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide
little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families

small have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population
growth.
Question 55: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraph I?
A. Poverty
B. Simple farming
C. Overpopulation
D. Population density
Question 56: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
A. Farming methods
B. Skilled labor
C. Land area
D. Available resources
Question 57: The phrase "that number" in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ____
A. densities
B. countries
C. people
D. resources
Question 58: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because______.
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A. there is an abundance of resources
B. there is no shortage of
skilled labor
C. there is a lack of mechanization D. there are small numbers of laborers

Question 59: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on_____
A. population density in metropolitan areas
B. its population density only
C. its high agricultural productivity
D. both population density and agricultural productivity
Question 60: The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. look into
B. give up
C. escape from
D.
participate
in
Question 61: The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. impossible
B. unproductive
C. inaccessible
D.
disused
Question 62: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
B. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
C. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
D. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
Question 63: Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?
A. High birth rates
B. Economic resources
C. Sufficient financial support
D.
High-tech
facilities

Question 64: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem
B. High Birth Rate and its Consequences
C. Poverty in Developing Countries
D. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
B. SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1: If John does not change his working style, he will be sacked soon.
Unless___________________________________________________________.
Question 2: “Would you like to come to my 18th birthday party?” he asked me.
He invited _________________________________________________________.
Question 3: People believe that this new teaching method is more effective than the old one.
This new teaching method_____________________________________________________.
Question 4: He did not realize how difficult the task was until he was halfway through it.
Not until_____________________________________________.
Question 5: It was wrong of you to leave the class without asking for your teacher’s permission.
You should not________________________________________________________________.
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of reading books. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet.
The following prompts might be helpful to you.
- Widening knowledge
- Improving language
- Relaxing.
WRITING SAMPLE 1
It is said that reading books is important in our life. Firstly , books are an endless source of knowledge. In fact,
if you are a student , your teacher's explanations aren't enough for you.You should read books to grasp the
lessons more clearly and do exercises better. Not only students but also doctors, scientists , businessmen etc
need to read more books to update their knowledge . Reading books is also vital for learning new languages, as
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non-native speakers gain exposure to words used in context, which will ameliorate their own speaking and
writing fluency. Thirdly, books bring us joy and encouragments.You have been in bad mood in your life,
haven't you? Why don't you derive a lot of pleasure from reading humorous stories ? In conclusion, reading
books not only broadens our knowledge about the world but also refresh our mind.

MOCK TEST NO.5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
1. A. proofs
B. books
C. points
D. days
2. A. packed
B. added
C. worked
D. pronounced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. confidence
B. mischievous
C. obedient
D. reference
4. A. pressure

B. attempt
C. result
D. secure
5. A. preference
B. mechanic
C. convenience
D. official
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct one to complete each of the
following sentences.
6. My father is very helpful. He is always _______give a hand with cleaning the house.
A. will to
B. will
C. willing
D. willing to
7. I’m going to have my house ______ this weekend.
A. redecorates
B. redecorated
C. redecorate
D. redecorating
8. If I had the map now, I ______ a short-cut across the desert.
A. could take
B. could have taken C. take
D. can take
9. He went back to work in his country after he ______ his course on Advanced Engineering in London.
A. finishes
B. had finished
C. was finishing
D. has finished
10. If I were you, I would advise her ______ the new teaching method.
A. trying

B. try
C. tries
D. to try
11. I first met her two years ago when we ______ at Oxford University.
A. had been studying
B. were studying
C. have been studying
D. are studying
12. Endangered species ______ by the World Wildlife Fund.
A. be protected
B. are protected
C. would protect
D. will protect
13. They are not ______ to take part in this program of the World Health Organization.
A. old enough
B. enough old
C. as old
D. so old
14. The World Health Organization ______ in 1948 in order to carry out medical research
and improve international health care.
A. was established
B. established
C. had been established
D. had established
15. Mr. Minh ______ wearing a crash helmet when he goes somewhere on his motorbike.
A. is used to
B. is using
C. used to
D. used
16. Unless we can find new sources of energy, our life will certainly ______.

A. affected
B. be affecting
C. affect
D. be affected
17. Many people ______ homeless after the earthquake in Haiti a few months ago.
A. become
B. will become
C. became
D. are becoming
18. My grandmother takes ______ for keeping house.
A. probability
B. ability
C. possibility
D. responsibility
19. My younger sister is not ______ to study overseas.
A. old enough
B. so old
C. enough old
D. very old
20. Robert ______ in three important water polo games so far.
A. had played
B. is playing
C. has played
D. played
21. We are talking about the writer ______ latest book is one of the best-sellers this year.
A. who
B. whom
C. which
D. whose
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22. Many young people want to work for a humanitarian organization, ______?
A. doesn’t it
B. didn’t they
C. don’t they
D. does it
23. Yesterday I met your brother, ______ had taken us to the Headquarters of the United Nations in New York
before.
A. that
B. whom
C. whose
D. who
24. Hung: "Thank you very much for the lovely party.
" - Hoa: "________."
A. You are welcome
B. Cheers
C. Have a good time D. Thanks
25. Some animals are on the ________ of becoming extinct.
A. verge
B. side
C. tip
D. edge
26. People are watching the __________ of gymnastics competitors.
A. performance

B. perform
C. performer
D. performing
27. The new employees will be __________ right after the contracts are signed.
A. demonstrated
B. taught
C. instructed
D. trained
28. It is not ______ that Vietnam won the first place in the 22nd SEA Games.
A. surprised
B. a surprise
C. surprisingly
D. so surprised
29. The Red Cross is a ________ organization whose purpose is to help people in wartime and disasters
A. commercial
B. political
C. humanitarian
D. military
30. Remember to __________ your shoes when you come to a Japanese house.
A. take off
B. put in
C. take after
D. put on
31. __________ we move into the new house, we will have a party
A. During the time B. While
C. As soon as
D. Until
32. I hate Mondays. They really __________.
A. get down me
B. get me down

C. get over me
D. get me over
33. Let's go out for a drink, __________?
A. will we
B. won't we
C. shall we
D. do we
34. The sooner, the ___________.
A. better
B. best
C. good
D. more
35. “Jane doesn’t seem to be interested in learning to swim.”
- “You’re right. Betty is the __________ of the two.”
A. most enthusiastic
B. enthusiastic than
C. enthusiastic
D. more enthusiastic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
36. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. acceptable
B. pretty highs
C. wonderful
D. reasonable
37. Let's wait here for her; I'm sure she'll turn up before long.
A. enter
B. visit
C. arrive
D. return

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
38. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.
A. uncomfortable
B. warm
C. dirty
D. lazy
39. Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional.
A. voluntary
B. free
C. pressure
D. mandatory
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
40. Today the number of people whom enjoy winter sports is almost double that of twenty years ago
A
B
C
D
41. Mr. Smith is going to buy a new Japanese car, doesn’t he?
A
B
C
D
42. He has made a lot of mistakes in his writing because his carelessness.
A
B
C
D
43. He never goes home before he will finish his work.
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A
B
C
D
44. Before the 1920s, no women have voted in national elections in the US.
A
B
C
D
IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology
at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the US
Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales
were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea around Us, which provided a
fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine
biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources.
She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always
realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how
much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food
supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the chemical industry

mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed.
However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
45. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work
A. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service
B. at college
C. as a researcher
D. as a writer
46. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. Zoology
B. History
C. Oceanography
D. Literature
47. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
A. 29
B. 45
C. 34
D. 26
48. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
A. was outdated
B. became more popular than her other books
C. was praised by critics
D. sold many copies
49. Which of the following was not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea around
Us?
A. A research expedition
B. Printed matter
C. Letters from scientists
D. Talks with experts
50. Which of the following words or phrases is least accurate in describing The Sea around Us?
A. Poetic

B. Highly technical
C. Well-researched
D. Fascinating
51. The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to
A. limited
B. continuous
C. irresponsible
D. unnecessary
52. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily
A. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry
B. a discussion of hazards insects pose to the food supply
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
D. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
53. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “flawed”?
A. Offensive
B. Logical
C. Faulty
D. Deceptive
54. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee?
A. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment
B. To support Carson’s ideas
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C. To validate the chemical industry’s claims

D. To provide an example of government propaganda
Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer
The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Hanoi, Vietnam from 5 December to 13 December, 2003. The
Games were opened by Vietnamese Prime Minister Phan Van Khai in the newly constructed My Dinh National
Stadium in Hanoi. The Games torch was lit by Nguyen Thuy Hien of Wushu. It was the first time in the SEA
Games history that the Games venues were assigned into two cities namely Hanoi and Ho Chi Minh City.
The 22nd SEA Games logo designed by painter Nguyen Chi Long is based on a legendary bird named
“Chim Lac”. The bird decorated the Ngoc Lu bronze drum, a typical antiquity of the ancient Dong Son
Vietnamese culture. The Emblem is composed of harmonious and vigorous curves, creating a feeling of
movement and strength which conforms to the Olympic Spirit: “Faster, Higher and Stronger”. The colorful
whirls represent the tough competitiveness in sports
The Games’ hymn was “For the World of Tomorrow”, composed by Nguyen Quang VInh. Painter Nguyen
Thai Hung chose “Trau Vang”, the golden water buffalo as the mascot for the 22nd SEA Games. With a gentle
and harmonious nature, the clever Buffalo has become synonymous with the water and rice civilization that is
so important in Vietnam as well as in other Southeast Asian countries. To Vietnamese people, the Golden
Buffalo symbolizes a golden harvest, prosperity, happiness, power and the Vietnamese martial spirit.
55. In which cities in Vietnam were the 22nd SEA Games held?
A. in Hanoi and HCM City

B. in Ho Chi Minh City

C. in Hanoi

D. in Hue

56. What is the 22nd SEA Games logo based on?
A. the Ngoc Lu bronze drum

B. the ancient Dong Son Vietnamese culture

C. a legendary bird named “Chim Lac”

D. the Olympic Spirit

57. What is the effect of harmonious and vigorous curves of the emblem?
A. to create a feeling of movement and strength

B. to encourage the spirit of fair play

C. to create a feeling of self-confidence

D. All are correct.

58. What has the mascot for the 22nd SEA Games been associated with?
A. the prosperity

B. the water and rice civilization

C. Vietnamese agriculture

D. Vietnamese farmers

59. To Vietnamese people, what does the Golden Buffalo symbolize?
A. a golden harvest

B. prosperity, happiness, and power

C. the Vietnamese martial spirit

D. All are correct

Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the following passage:
In 1945, leaders from 51 countries met in San Francisco, California, and organized The United Nations.
World War II had just (30)
People hoped they could (31)

. Millions of people had died, and there was destruction everywhere.
a future of world peace through this new organization.

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The main United Nations Organization is in New York City, but the United Nations has a “family” of its
(32)

organizations all over the world. These organizations try to provide a better life for everyone.

One example is UNICEF, an organization which provides food, (33)
services to poor children (34)

care and many other

they live. Another example is the World Health Organization,

which provides medical programs all over the world.

60. A. finished
B. ended
C. terminated
D. stopped
61. A. produce
B. construct
C. design
D. build
62. A. united
B. connected
C. related
D. attached
63. A. medical
B. medicinal
C. healthy
D. hygiene
64. A. any place
B. anywhere
C. wherever
D. everywhere
WRITING
PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentences
printed before it.
Question 65: Helen didn’t have enough money for that camera.
→ If Helen...............................................................................................................................
Question 66: It was such a boring documentary film that she fell asleep.
→ The documentary film.......................................................................................................
Question 67: That girl's father used to work with mine.
→ That's the girl......................................................................................................................
Question 68: If she doesn’t work harder, she’ll lose her job

Unless_________________________________________________________________________________
Question 69: "You didn't do what I said," the mother said to her son
→ The mother accused..........................................................................................................
In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the importance of examinations.
Life today has become so complex that examinations have come to play an important part in one's educational
career. Examinations are considered so important that most students are afraid of them. The ability to pass an
examination is indeed a valuable quality. It shows that the student is able to express his thought and ideas to a
manner others can understand. It also shows that the student has acquired a certain amount of knowledge in
some branches of study. Besides, the mind of a student, even if he is dull, receives good exercise when he
prepares for an examination. A student's success in an examination, therefore, helps employers and others to
assess his mental or general ability. Some people, however, argue that examinations test only a certain kind of
skill. They say that many people have a good memory and a special ability to pass examinations.

MOCK TEST NO.6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
following questions.
Question 1: The economic conditions today are ______ they were in the past.
A. much more good B. much better than C. much better
D. the best than
Question 2:Old people are often looked ________ by their children when they get older.
A. for
B. up
C.after
D. into
Question 3:Women workers wear hats in _______ their hair gets caught in the machinery.
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A. occasion
B. case
C. event
D. course
Question 4:You are going to come to the party, ________?
A. aren’t you
B. do you
C. will you
D. won’t you
Question 5: In Britain it is ________ for children to attend school between the ages of five and sixteen.
A. enforced
B. obliged
C. compulsory
D. made
Question 6:He went back to the town ______ he was born.
A.what
B. where
C. which
D. that
Question 7:The student took that course ______ he could improve his English.
A. though
B. in order to
C. unless
D.so that
Question 8: Rosemary Dare is a wildlife photographer. She _____ in Uganda for many years.
A. lives
B. is living

C. has been living
D. will live
Question 9:Nadine: “__________”.
Monica: “Good luck”
A. I’m taking a test this afternoon.
B. I don’t like rock music.
C. Have a nice day!
D. How do you do!
Question 10:Peter _________football when he was younger.
A. used to playing
B. is used to playing
C.is used to play
D. used to play
Question 11: ______ poor always need the help from all people in the society.
A. The
B.An
C.
D.A
Question 12:It was not until she had arrived home ______ remembered her appointment with the doctor.
A.and she
B. that she
C. she
D. when she had
Question 13:Neither Tom nor his brothers ______ willing to help their mother with the housework.
A. are
B. was
C. has been
D. is
Question 14: Today many species of plant and animal are in ________ of extinction.
A.endangered

B.danger
C. endanger
D. dangerous
Question 15:I don’t mind _________ much homework.
A. did
B. to do
C. doing
D. do
Question 16:Yuri Gagarin was the first person ________into space.
A. travelling
B. has travelled
C.travelled
D. to travel
Question 17: You ______ wash those apples. They have already been washed.
A. mustn’t
B. need
C. needn’t
D. must
Question 18: Harry Potter books, which ______ by J.K. Rowling, are very popular with children around
the world.
A.were written
B. wrote
C. will write
D. will be written
Question 19: George: “______.”
Michelle: “Thank you for your compliment.”
A. You’ve done your work
B. This is a present for you
C. You look pretty in this dress
D. I’m glad that you’re well again

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word(s) for each of the blanks from 20 to 29.
In the United States and Canada, it is very important to (20)______ a person directly in the eyes when
you are having a conversation (21)______ him or her. If you look down or to the side when the (22)______
25
HOANG THI MY PHUONG