Testbank of fundamental of management 7e by robin ch 06

Fundamentals of Management, 7e (Robbins/DeCenzo/Coulter)
Chapter 6 Managing Human Resources
1) Human resource management involves training, motivating, and retaining competent
employees.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: HRM is defined as the function that identifies, selects, trains, motivates, and
retains employees who are competent and productive.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
2) Human resource management activities such as hiring and firing are the sole responsibility of
the human resource department.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Many small businesses function without HR departments. Many larger
organizations involve non-HR managers in human resource decisions, and in some cases these
managers are in charge of he process.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
3) Human resource management is about hiring and firing only.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: HRM is not just about hiring and firing. In addition to hiring and firing, HR
managers must train employees to become productive workers, assess and compensate
employees appropriately, and handle overall employment planning goals for an organization,
including assessing current needs and estimating future human resource needs.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
4) The most important environmental force that affects HRM is the legal environment.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Employment and discrimination laws play an enormous role in how HR managers

hire. HR managers must be fully versed in both federal and state laws to function effectively.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.1
5) A community fire department can legally deny employment to a firefighter applicant who is
confined to a wheelchair.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: This statement is true only if the job requires physical abilities that could not be
performed from a wheelchair. A fire department would not be allowed to deny employment to a
wheelchair-bound person for a desk job in the department, for example.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 156
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.1

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6) Employers cannot legally discriminate with regard to race, sex, or religion, but there are no
laws against denying employment because of age.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The Vocational Rehabilitation Act specifically prohibits denying employment
because of age.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 156
Objective: 6.1
7) Employees in Mexico are less likely to belong to a union than employees in the United States.
Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Union membership is more common in Mexico than it is in the United States
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 156
AACSB: Globalizations
Objective: 6.1
8) Western European countries differ from U.S. companies in that they have work councils that
must be consulted on personnel decisions.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Work councils in Germany and other European countries are part of a practice
called representative participation. Work councils confer with HR departments in matters that
involve hiring and firing, giving employees a voice in these critical decisions.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
AACSB: Globalizations
Objective: 6.1
9) Employment planning includes two steps: assessing current human resources needs and
developing a plan to meet those needs.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Employment planning involves evaluating whether the organization needs more or
fewer employees, then making a plan to meet those needs and reach an optimum employee level.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
Objective: 6.2
10) A job description states the minimum qualifications a person needs to perform a job
successfully.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A job specification, not a job description, states the minimum qualifications a
person needs to perform a job successfully. A job description is a written description of what the
job is and the duties it entails.
Diff: 2

Page Ref: 158
Objective: 6.2

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11) Increased demand for employees typically is associated with increased demand for the
products or services offered by an organization.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: When an organization sells more of its products, it typically requires more workers
to produce those products. Therefore demand for products usually creates a demand for human
resources.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
12) Advertisements have been shown to be the most effective method for identifying the best
applicants for jobs.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Employee referrals, not ads, have been shown to the most effective form of
recruiting.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2
13) Employee referrals are usually reliable.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Employees recognize that if they recommend an unqualified friend, their own
status and reputation in the organization is bound to suffer. For that reason employees tend to
take great care before making a recommendation and their referrals are generally reliable.

Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2
14) Firing, layoffs, furloughs, and early retirements are the only three downsizing options.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: In addition to firing, layoffs, and early retirement, managers can downsize using
attrition, transfers, and job sharing.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 161
Objective: 6.2
15) An accept error involves not hiring an employee who could have performed well in a job.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Failing to hire an employee who could have performed well in a job is termed a
reject error. An accept error involves hiring an employee who performs poorly in a job.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 161-162
Objective: 6.2
16) A selection device is valid if it can be proven to accurately measure the abilities of job
applicants.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Merely measuring abilities is not enough. To be valid, a selection device must be
able to predict successful performance of the job the person is applying for.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 162
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
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17) Written tests fell into disfavor in the late 1960s and are now rarely used in the selection
process.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Written tests did fall out of favor in the 1960s, but they are currently popular again,
though now they are largely administered on the Internet.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 163
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 6.2
18) Performance-simulation tests are thought to be one of the best methods for evaluating job
applicants in use today.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Performance-simulation tests assess applicants by having them solve problems and
perform tasks that are very similar to the ones they will face in the job itself. They therefore give
managers a look at how the applicant will perform after he or she is hired.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 163
Objective: 6.2
19) Behavioral interviews involve placing an applicant in stressful circumstances and seeing how
he or she deals with the situation.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Though very stressful for applicants, behavioral interviews are thought to give
employers valuable information about how an applicant will solve problems and respond to a
difficult situation. One study shows that behavioral interviews are eight times more effective than
traditional interviews for predicting successful job performance.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2
20) In a realistic job preview (RJP), an applicant might be told that the likelihood for promotion
for the job he is applying for is slim.

Answer: TRUE
Explanation: An RJP tries to be more candid with job applicants than ordinary interviews,
informing applicants of both positive and negative aspects of the job they are seeking. The idea
behind RJPs is that employers can avoid having new hires quit their job prematurely because
they were not well suited for it in the first place.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2
21) Important goals of job orientation are to reduce anxiety and to familiarize the recruit with the
job and the organization.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Orientation seeks to make the recruit feel comfortable in his or her new position.
Orientation is also used to clarify the duties and responsibilities of the job, as well as to correct
any misconceptions the recruit has with regard to the job.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 166
Objective: 6.3

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22) Most job training does not take place on the job.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: On-the-job training is the simplest and most inexpensive way to train employees. It
is the most popular form of job training in the United States.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 167
Objective: 6.3
23) One car company claims that every dollar it spends on training ultimately results in $230 in

productivity gains.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Though it is not clear how applicable this data is in a general sense, it is clear that
training is cost-effective and can boost productivity in significant ways.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 167
Objective: 6.3
24) Job training never addresses trainee attitudes toward the job or the organization.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Job training involves teaching skills, imparting knowledge, or modifying the
attitudes and behavior of the trainee.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 167
Objective: 6.3
25) The best way to measure the effectiveness of job training is to find out how stressful the
process was for trainees.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Impressions of trainees are not very valuable as a measure of training
effectiveness. The best way to measure the effectiveness of training is to observe productivity of
trainees after they become regular employees.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 171
Objective: 6.4
26) The only goal of a performance management system is to assess training needs.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: In addition to assessing training needs, a performance management system
evaluates performance to determine possible compensation levels for employees.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 169
Objective: 6.4

27) A strength of a written essay as an employee appraisal device is that it allows the writing skill
of the evaluator to be a determining factor in the appraisal of performance.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The writing skill of the evaluator can be a weakness in the process rather than a
strength. An especially persuasive evaluator can have more influence in the final decision than he
or she merits otherwise, therefore introducing bias into the process.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 169
Objective: 6.4

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28) The most popular and effective employee appraisal device is the graphic rating scale
approach.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The graphic rating scale has evaluators create graphs that rate employees on
objective numeric scales. While valuable, the graphic rating scale is not as as popular or as
effective as the 360-degree appraisal, which gets performance feedback from a wide variety of
different sources, including the person being evaluated.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 170
Objective: 6.4
29) The 360-degree appraisal includes an evaluation from the person who is being evaluated.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: An assessment from the employee being appraised brings valuable perspective into
the evaluation process. Employee appraisal gives the person being evaluated a chance to explain
him- or herself.
Diff: 2

Page Ref: 170
Objective: 6.4
30) Using individual ranking as an employee appraisal device, two employees might be named
"best" in the group.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: No ties are allowed in individual ranking. That means that only one person can be
identified as "best" in the group.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 170
Objective: 6.4
31) A key goal of compensation administration is to create a fair system that will provide
incentive for employees.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Managers know that a sense of fairness is important to prospective employees.
An organization with a system that is perceived to be fair can attract and retain high-performing
employees better than an organization that is perceived to be unfair.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 172
Objective: 6.4
32) The primary determinant of an individual's pay is the type of job he or she performs.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The specific job a person has is the most important factor in determining pay. In
general, jobs that require greater skills, knowledge, and talent pay more than those that don't
require these capabilities. Jobs that require the person to assume greater responsibility and
authority also pay more.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 172
Objective: 6.4

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33) Most U.S. jobs use a variable pay system in which employee compensation is based on status
and seniority.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The variable pay system is based on performance, not status and seniority.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 173
Objective: 6.4
34) Most organizations are not legally required to provide benefits of any type for employees.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Most organizations are required to provide Social Security and unemployment
benefits for non-freelance employees.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 173
Objective: 6.4
35) Downsizing can be as stressful for the survivors as it is for the victims.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Evidence shows that survivors can suffer almost as much stress as victims of
downsizing. Feelings of anxiety, sadness, frustration, and anger are common in downsizing
survivors.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 174
Objective: 6.5
36) Job referrals are generally not a good method for improving workplace diversity.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Job referrals generally bring in employees who are similar to the people who
recommended them. Therefore, referrals tend to decrease, rather than increase workplace
diversity.

Diff: 2
Page Ref: 175
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.5
37) Although most sexual harassment complaints are filed by women, a significant number of
complaints are filed by men.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: About 15 percent of all harassment complaints are filed by males.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 175
Objective: 6.5
38) Sexual harassment is defined as any unwanted activity of a sexual nature that affects an
individual's employment.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Affecting employment can be broadly interpreted. Activities that intimidate,
interfere with work, or limit opportunities can all be considered sexual harassment.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 176
Objective: 6.5

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39) One major way that an organization can protect itself against sexual harassment cases is to
make sure that all employees are well-educated on the topic.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The more employees know about harassment and the trouble it causes, the less
likely they will be to engage in the behavior.
Diff: 2

Page Ref: 177
Objective: 6.5
40) Workplace spirituality exclusively involves religion in the workplace.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Workplace spirituality is not just about religion. It also involves questions of
ethics, values, and a serious consideration of the inner lives of employees.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 177
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 6.5
41) Historically, spirituality has always had a place in management theory.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Until recently, workplace spirituality has been almost completely ignored by
management theorists.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 177
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 6.5
42) The first three activities of the human resource management (HRM) process are about
________.
A) recruiting
B) planning
C) training
D) downsizing
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The first three steps of the HRM process are about planning, making that the
correct response for this question. Managers first determine needs for workers. Then, depending
on the situation, they either recruit or downsize. Training comes after selection and hiring so that
is an incorrect response for this question.
Diff: 2

Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1

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43) Human resource management is concerned with ________ competent employees.
A) obtaining
B) obtaining, training, motivating, and keeping
C) obtaining, training, and motivating
D) training and keeping
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The correct choice identifies all four functions of HRM. HRM is concerned not
only with getting employees, but also training and motivating them after they are hired so they
are likely to be high performers and stay with the organization. The other choices all leave out at
least one primary function of HRM so they are incorrect choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
44) For the most part, ________ are involved in HR decisions within their own department or
unit.
A) very few managers
B) some managers
C) most managers
D) all managers are
Answer: D
Explanation: D) To some degree, all managers participate in hiring, firing, and other HR
decisions at least within their own units or departments, making "all managers" the correct
response. Managers tend to participate in the hiring process, for example, because they have a lot

at stake—they are the ones who are going to deal directly with the employees that get hired. The
other choices all refer to quantities that are fewer than "all managers," so they are incorrect
answers for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
45) Separate HRM specialists are least common in these types of organizations.
A) small
B) large
C) multinational corporations
D) non-profit
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Having no HRM staff support is most common in small organizations that don't
have the resources for individuals or departments to devote time exclusively to HRM, making
"small" the correct response. In these organizations, managers themselves typically take on HR
tasks. Large organizations and multinational corporations typically possess the size and
manpower to have HRM specialists, so large and multinational corporations are incorrect. Nonprofit organizations may be large or small, so non-profit cannot be the best answer for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1

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46) Employment planning involves ________.
A) addition of staff only
B) addition of staff and reduction of staff only
C) addition of staff, reduction of staff, and selection only

D) addition of staff, reduction of staff, motivation of staff, and selection
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The correct choice correctly identifies all of the activities involved in
employment planning. The choices indicating addition of staff only and addition of staff and
reduction of staff only leave out one or more of the activities so they are incorrect. The
remaining choice adds motivation of staff, an activity that is not included in employment
planning, so it is an incorrect choice.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
47) This is the goal of employment planning.
A) selecting competent employees
B) obtaining competent employees with up-to-date skills
C) obtaining competent and high-performing employees
D) selecting high-performing employees only
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The goal of employment planning is modest: to identify and select competent
employees only. Providing the employees who are selected with up-to-date skills or the ability to
perform at a high level are goals of the orientation and training process, so they are not correct
responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
48) The last steps of the HRM process all deal with ________.
A) performance and compensation
B) training and compensation
C) compensation only
D) skills
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The last steps in the HRM process identify performance goals, performance

problems, and compensation. This makes "performance and compensation" the correct response
and eliminates the choices indicating training and compensation and skills because training and
skills come earlier in the HRM process. "Compensation only" is not a correct response because
the last two steps not only deal with compensation, they also deal with performance.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1

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49) The most important environmental factor in the HRM process is ________.
A) the business environment
B) the natural environment
C) the legal environment
D) the scientific community
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Though the business environment may affect the HRM process, a far more
important factor for influencing the activities of HRM is the legal environment. The laws, for the
most part, largely determine how HR managers do their job, making the legal environment the
correct response. Both the natural environment and the scientific community can be ruled out
because neither has a direct effect on hiring, firing, or any other HR activities.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
50) The ________ prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, national origin, or sex.
A) Privacy Act
B) Civil Rights Act, Title VII
C) Equal Pay Act

D) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act is probably the most important antidiscrimination law ever passed, prohibiting unfair treatment based on race, color, religion,
national origin, or sex. This makes the Civil Rights Act, Title VII the correct response. The Equal
Pay Act prohibits pay discrimination based on sex. The Privacy Act gives employees a right to
see their reference letters. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act establishes financial recordkeeping standards.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 156
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.1
51) It is against the law to discriminate on the basis of sexual orientation ________.
A) in all 50 states
B) only in California
C) nowhere in the United States
D) in many states
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation is not a federal law, but it is
illegal in many states, making that the correct response and eliminating the other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 156
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.1

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52) A wheelchair-bound applicant may be denied a job ________.
A) under no circumstances
B) if the job is strenuous or physically tiring in some way

C) if the job requires complete physical mobility
D) in some states
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A person in a wheelchair may be denied a job only if the job requires running,
walking, or some other action that the person cannot perform. This makes the choice indicating
"complete physical mobility" the correct response and eliminates "under no circumstances." The
choice regarding a strenuous job is incorrect because a person in a wheelchair could cope with a
strenuous or tiring job just as well as a person without a disability. The remaining choice is
incorrect because discrimination based on a disability is prohibited by federal, not state law.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.1
53) Affirmative action programs seek to make sure that employers ________ minority groups.
A) pay equal wages to
B) enhance employment opportunities for
C) provide unemployment benefits for
D) establish training programs for
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Affirmative action programs seek to make sure that minorities and other
protected groups get a fair chance at opportunity, making "enhancing employment opportunities"
the correct response. Affirmative action is not an equal wage program, a benefits program, or a
training program, making all of these choices incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 156
Objective: 6.1
54) Which U.S. law gives you the legal right to see your professor's letter of recommendation?
A) Civil Rights Act of 1991
B) Privacy Act of 1974
C) Polygraph Protection Act of 1988

D) Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The Privacy Act of 1974 gives employees the right to check up on reference
letters. None of the other choices is concerned with reference letters, so they are incorrect
responses for this question.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 156
Objective: 6.1

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55) Which of the following countries' laws pertaining to HRM practices most closely parallel
those in the United States?
A) Canada
B) Mexico
C) Australia
D) Germany
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Of the countries listed, Canada's HRM practices are most similar to those in the
United States. Canada's HRM laws are less federalized than those in the United States, meaning
that individual Canadian provinces may have their own interpretation of basic antidiscrimination laws. Taken together, these factors make Canada the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 157
AACSB: Globalizations
Objective: 6.1
56) ________ in Germany give employees the right to participate in personnel decisions.
A) Collective bargaining
B) Unionization

C) Board representatives
D) Work councils
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In most of Western Europe work councils by law must be consulted when
decisions involving personnel changes are made, including hiring and firing. This makes work
councils the correct answer and eliminates the other three responses. Note that work councils are
part of a larger practice called representative participation, which empowers workers and gives
them a say in how companies are run.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
AACSB: Globalizations
Objective: 6.1
57) The first step in any employment planning process involves making a ________.
A) job description
B) human resource inventory
C) product evaluation
D) job specification
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Before an HR manager can decide whether to hire or fire, she must first take
stock of who currently works for the organization in what is termed a human resource inventory.
The inventory identifies all company employees and lists any characteristics that the manager
deems relevant. A job description and job specification are steps that come later in the process so
they are incorrect choices. A product evaluation is not part of the employment planning process
so it is an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
Objective: 6.2

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58) The lengthy process by which a job is examined in detail in order to identify the skills,
knowledge and behaviors necessary to perform the job is known as a ________.
A) job description
B) job specification
C) job definition
D) job analysis
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A job analysis identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities that are required to
perform any given job. A job analysis for a firefighter, for example, might determine that the
applicant be physically fit, know emergency medical procedures, and be able to haul heavy
firefighting equipment a specific distance. A job description, a written description of a job, and a
job specification, a list of qualifications required for the job, are incorrect because neither is an
analysis or a lengthy process. In fact, a job analysis is used to create job descriptions and job
specifications. A job definition is incorrect because it is not a recognized term for employment
planning.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
Objective: 6.2
59) As one of his first tasks in a new job, Steve's boss asks him to develop a database that lists
the educational level, special capabilities, and specialized skills of all the employees in his firm.
This is known as a ________.
A) job description
B) human resource inventory
C) lengthy process
D) job analysis
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Employment planning requires HRM to first determine who actually works for
the organization. This is accomplished in a human resource inventory. Job analysis and job

description can be eliminated for consideration as correct answers because they both address an
individual job rather than a survey of all jobs in a firm. A lengthy process can be ruled out
because the human resource inventory is usually not a lengthy process—data can be collected
quickly and easily using employee questionnaires.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2

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60) A job description is ________.
A) not a written document
B) a written document used to describe a job to job candidates
C) something that employers keep secret from job candidates
D) the official title for the job
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A job description identifies what the person who has the job does, where and
how she does it, and why she does it. A job description is a written document (which rules out
the choice indicating that it is not a written document) that employers use to describe the job to
applicants, making that the correct response. The choice indicating secrecy is ruled out because a
job description is a public document that is never concealed from job candidates. A job
description is an actual description, not simply a title, so the official title for the job is an
incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
Objective: 6.2
61) A job specification is ________

A) a list of job qualifications only
B) a detailed description of the job
C) the description of a job that is used by an employment agency
D) usually several pages in length
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A job specification is limited to listing job qualifications only. A job
specification is not a long or detailed description of the job that is used by an employment
agency, making all three of these choices incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
Objective: 6.2
62) HR managers can estimate human resource needs by evaluating which of the following?
A) employment and unemployment statistics
B) the general state of the economy
C) demand for the organization's product
D) how competitors are performing
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The only accurate way to estimate human resource needs is for managers to
measure the demand for their product. Generally, the greater the demand, the more workers the
organization will need to keep up with that demand. Employment statistics, the state of the
economy, and the activities of rivals may give managers a very crude gauge of their needs, but
the actual output of product is a much better measure of future human resource requirements
than any of those things, so they are incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2

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63) A written statement of what a job holder does in his job, how it is done, and why it is done is
known as a ________.
A) job specification
B) job qualifications
C) job definition
D) job description
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The process of defining a job starts with a detailed job analysis. The job
analysis gives rise to a written job description that identifies exactly what a person who holds a
job does, how he does it, and why he does it, making job description the correct response. The
job description may then be used to generate a job specification, or list of job qualifications,
which rules out both job specification and job qualifications as correct responses. A job
definition is not a recognized term in this process so it is an incorrect response.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 159
Objective: 6.2
64) To find out more about a job with a title of "assistant media buyer," you would find this to be
most helpful.
A) job title
B) job specification
C) job listing
D) job description
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A job description that tells you what the job is, how the job is done, and what
the job's purpose is would clearly be most helpful here, so job description is the correct response.
A job specification would tell you only about the qualifications needed for the job, while a job
title or job listing would feature only minimal information about the job.
Diff: 2

Page Ref: 159
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
65) Recruitment is the process of ________.
A) hiring from outside the organization
B) locating, identifying, and attracting potential employees
C) assessing the national, international, and local labor market
D) hiring from inside the organization
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Recruitment is the process of finding people who are qualified and well-suited
for the job you are offering. To recruit successfully, you must locate where likely applicants are,
identify individuals who are well-suited to the job, and attract them to the job by making them
aware of its features and advantages. This makes that choice the correct response. Hiring from
outside or inside the organization can be eliminated because recruiting finds applicants both
inside and outside of the organization. The choice regarding assessment can be ruled out because
assessing the labor market does nothing to get applicants to actually apply for a job.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
Objective: 6.2

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66) This is a key disadvantage to recruiting through employee referrals.
A) limited to entry-level positions
B) high cost
C) no diversity increase
D) lower-skilled candidates
Answer: C

Explanation: C) Personal employee referrals cost nothing to generate and can be used to identify
any position in the organization from top to bottom at a wide variety of skill levels. This means
that the choices regarding entry-level positions, high cost, and lower-skilled candidates are all
advantages so they are incorrect choices. The disadvantage of referrals is that they tend to
generate new employees who are very similar to the people they were referred by, thus not
increasing the diversity of the organization. This makes "no diversity increase" the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2
67) While ________ can reach the greatest number of applicants for a job, many of those
candidates may be unqualified for the job itself.
A) an internal search
B) advertising
C) a temporary help service
D) school placement
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Advertising can produce an enormous volume of applicants. Unfortunately,
advertising also tends to attract applicants who are unqualified or highly unsuited for the job
advertised. This leaves human resource managers with the tedious task of sifting through all of
the applicants, looking for ones that are well-suited. None of the other choices given here
produce as many applicants as advertising, so that is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2
68) Which of the following is an advantage of using private employment agencies for recruiting?
A) low cost
B) candidates who are familiar with the organization
C) improves employee morale
D) careful screening of applicants

Answer: D
Explanation: D) Recruiting through a private employment agency is expensive so low cost is an
incorrect response. Private agency recruiting does not boost employee morale and does not
typically offer candidates who are familiar with the organization so improving employee morale
and candidates familiar with the organization are incorrect responses. What private agencies do
offer are candidates who are carefully screened to be well-qualified and well-suited to the job,
making "careful screening" the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2

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69) If employment planning shows a large surplus of employees, management may want to
________.
A) recruit
B) downsize
C) expand
D) continue with current employment levels
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The mathematics of an HRM department is in some respects fairly simple. If
there is too much work and not enough employees, the organization must recruit employees,
making "recruiting" the correct response. If there is not enough work for the existing employees
to stay productive and busy, the organization must consider the option of downsizing. The goal
of employment planning is to obtain a workforce that has an appropriate size for the amount of
work that needs to be done. Clearly recruiting and expanding would not decrease the surplus of
employees so those choices can be eliminated. Similarly, staying at current levels would not
decrease the surplus, so continuing with current employment levels is also incorrect.

Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2
70) The difference between firing and layoffs is that ________.
A) layoffs are not permanent
B) layoffs are permanent
C) firing is not permanent
D) firing is not voluntary
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Both firing and layoffs are involuntary, so firing as not voluntary cannot be the
correct answer here. Firing is a permanent state while layoffs are not permanent. This means that
the choices indicating that layoffs are permanent and firing is not permanent are both inaccurate,
making both choices incorrect as answers to this question. The only accurate choice is that
layoffs are not permanent which correctly identifies the key difference between firing and
layoffs: firing is permanent; layoffs are temporary.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 161
Objective: 6.2
71) Which of the following is NOT a voluntary form of downsizing?
A) attrition
B) early retirement
C) job sharing
D) layoffs
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Attrition, early retirement, and job sharing can all be voluntary forms of
downsizing in which workers choose the option rather than have it forced upon them so they are
incorrect choices. For example, many employees volunteer to take early retirement if a company
offers it to them. The only choice here that employees can never exercise any control over is
layoffs, which are implemented entirely by management. This makes layoffs the correct
response.

Diff: 2
Page Ref: 161
Objective: 6.2

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72) Which of the following downsizing methods can "happen on its own" if management
suspends hiring practices?
A) firing
B) reduced workweeks
C) attrition
D) transfers
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Over time, as employees retire and are not replaced by new hiring, the total
number of workers decreases, which effectively downsizes the organization. This form of
downsizing, attrition, is said to happen "on its own" because management does not need to issue
any termination or job-change orders to reduce the number of workers it employs. The other
choices, firing, reduced workweeks, and transfers are all incorrect because they all require
management to issue orders to employees, and therefore don't happen "on their own."
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 161
Objective: 6.2
73) In the selection process there are ________ possible outcomes.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) dozens of
Answer: C

Explanation: C) In the selection process, there are four possible outcomes, making that the
correct response. The organization can make the correct decision in two different ways: if it hires
the "right" person for the job, or if it fails to hire the "wrong" person for the job. The
organization can make two kinds of errors: hiring the "wrong" person or failing to hire the "right"
person. Since there are two correct decisions and incorrect decisions, there are four total
outcomes.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160-162
Objective: 6.2
74) An accept error occurs when an applicant ________.
A) who is hired performs poorly on the job
B) who is not hired would have performed well on the job
C) who is not hired is hired by another firm
D) who is hired performs adequately on the job
Answer: A
Explanation: A) An accept error occurs when the person who is accepted for the job performs
poorly, making that the correct choice for this question. The choice indicating an applicant who
is not hired but would have performed well on the job is incorrect because it describes a reject
error, not an accept error. The choice regarding being hired by another firm is incorrect because it
does not match one of the four outcomes of the selection process. The choice regarding adequate
performance is incorrect because it describes a correct decision in the selection process.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160-162
Objective: 6.2

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75) A reject error occurs when an applicant ________.

A) who is hired performs poorly on the job
B) who is not hired would have performed well on the job
C) who is hired performs the job at a high level
D) who is not hired would have performed poorly on the job
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A reject error occurs when the organization fails to hire an applicant who would
have performed well in the job he or she applied for, making that the correct choice. The choice
regarding poor performance is incorrect because it describes an accept error, not a reject error.
The remaining two choices are incorrect because both of them identify correct decisions in the
selection process.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160-162
Objective: 6.2
76) Today, selection techniques that result in reject errors can open the organization to ________.
A) decreased productivity and efficiency
B) charges of employee discrimination
C) reduced morale
D) a weakened workforce
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A reject error involves failing to hire an applicant who would have done well in
the job he applied to. If the applicant asserts that he was not offered the job because he was
discriminated against, he can initiate a lawsuit against the company whether the charge is true or
not. This makes charges of employee discrimination the correct response and rules out decreased
productivity, morale, or a weaker workforce as correct responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160-162
Objective: 6.2
77) ________ indicates how consistently a selection device measures a criterion.
A) Operational scoring
B) Qualification

C) Reliability
D) Validity
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A selection device must be consistent from situation to situation or it should not
be used. For example, if the same individual gets wildly different scores after taking the same
test, it is likely that either the test (or the individual) is flawed, or in some way not reliable. This
makes reliability the correct response and rules out the other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 162
Objective: 6.2

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78) Which of the following is an example of selection device reliability?
A) An applicant was given very different interview scores by five independent interviewers.
B) An applicant was given the same interview score by all five independent interviewers.
C) An applicant took a test a second time and her score improved markedly.
D) An applicant took a test once and scored higher than any other applicant.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Reliability requires that a selection device be consistent. Being given different
interview scores and taking a test a second time were not examples of reliability because the
outcomes were not consistent with one another. Scoring higher than any other applicant is not an
example of reliability because it involved only one sample. Being given the same interview score
by all five independent interviewers is an example of reliability because it showed consistency
within the five interviewers, so it is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 162
Objective: 6.2

79) A(n) ________ selection device shows a clear link between test performance and job
performance.
A) reliable
B) invalid
C) unreliable
D) valid
Answer: D
Explanation: D) If a selection device shows a clear link between test results and job performance
it is said to be valid. Reliability and unreliability are concerned with consistency of test results,
not the quality of the test itself so they are incorrect choices. This makes "valid" the correct
response and rules out "invalid."
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 162
Objective: 6.2
80) To use a physical test as a selection device, a company must demonstrate that ________.
A) physical ability is related to job performance
B) the test is fair
C) the test is reliable
D) the test does not discriminate against people with physical disabilities
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A physical test may be used as a valid selection device if it can be shown that
job performance requires physical ability. This makes physical ability the correct response.
Whether or not the test is fair, reliable, or discriminatory is not relevant in this situation. Validity
comes before all other concerns: first the test must be shown to affect job performance, and then,
and only then should it be judged on other criteria.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 162
Objective: 6.2

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81) Asking a candidate for an automotive mechanic's position to deconstruct and reconstruct part
of an engine motor would be an example of what kind of selection device?
A) spatial ability test
B) performance-simulation test
C) mechanical ability test
D) perceptual accuracy test
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Putting an applicant in an actual job situation and allowing her to solve
problems that might be directly involved in the job itself is an example of performancesimulation. Though spatial and mechanical ability, along with perceptual accuracy might be
related to a mechanic job, actually carrying out job duties clearly makes this a performancesimulation test and not any of the other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 163
Objective: 6.2
82) In an assessment center, an applicant for an engineering job might ________.
A) be interviewed by her prospective boss
B) take technical written tests
C) be interviewed by fellow employees
D) be given an engineering problem to solve
Answer: D
Explanation: D) An assessment center simulates real problems that applicants may be faced with
on the job. This makes "being given an engineering problem to solve" the correct response, and
eliminates interviews and written tests as correct responses to the question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 163
Objective: 6.2
83) The most important reason for why managers are increasingly using performance-simulation
tests is that they have been found to be ________.

A) valid predictors of job performance
B) non-discriminatory
C) a good way to test an applicant's character
D) easy to administer
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The key to any selection device is that it be related to job performance. If
managers find that a test predicts how well applicants will do on the job, they can ultimately end
up with better candidates and eliminate hiring errors. Performance-simulation tests may or may
not be easy to administer, a good measure of character, or non-discriminatory, but their chief
virtue is that they are good predictors of success on the job. That is why managers are
increasingly turning to them and that is why valid predictors of job performance is the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 163
Objective: 6.2

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84) Few people are ever selected for a job without this.
A) taking a written test
B) undergoing an interview
C) taking a performance-simulation test
D) taking a physical test
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though written and physical tests are common, the most universal feature of the
selection process is the interview, making that the correct choice. Taking a performancesimulation test is not as common as any of the other choices, so it is an incorrect response for this
question.
Diff: 1

Page Ref: 163
Objective: 6.2
85) Interviews are valid predictors of success in the workplace if ________.
A) questions are short
B) questions are unstructured
C) questions are structured
D) the interview lasts only a few minutes
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An interview that is carefully structured has been shown to be the best predictor
of workplace success. The key to a structured interview is that the interviewer has prepared
carefully for the interview and has mapped out questions to ask and strategies to employ. A
structured interview does have room for the interviewer to ask unplanned questions and explore
unanticipated paths, but only within the structure that was planned ahead of time. With that said,
none of the other factors are good predictors of interview success, so they are all incorrect
responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2
86) Which of the following is NOT a source of bias in a typical interview?
A) prior knowledge of the applicant
B) how articulate the interviewer is
C) the order in which applicants are interviewed
D) an applicant who shares the attitudes of the interviewer
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Bias can creep into the interview process in a number of ways. Prior knowledge
of a candidate can make an interviewer draw erroneous conclusions about who the candidate is
and what her values are. Interview order can favor candidates who come (for example) first or
last in the process. Having a world-view in common with an applicant may put both parties at
ease, but the interviewer should not let this shared outlook color his or her impression of the
applicants skills, abilities, and suitability for the job. This leaves how articulate the interviewer is

as the only response that is not a source of bias—how well-spoken the interviewer is would not
unduly influence the impression the interviewer gets of the applicant.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2

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87) During an interview, an applicant for a managerial job is confronted with role players who
make the claim that they have been "harassed on the job." The applicant is then asked to deal
with the complaints. What kind of selection device is being used?
A) performance-simulation test
B) structured interview
C) behavioral interview
D) high-stress interview
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The applicant is asked to deal with a difficult situation that involves role
playing in a behavioral or situation interview. This is not a performance-simulation test since it is
clearly part of an interview, not a test. Requiring the applicant to engage in role playing goes
beyond the structured interview, and though the interview is stressful, a high-stress interview is
not a recognized term used in the interview process.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 164
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
88) How effective are behavioral interviews?
A) no more effective than other interviews
B) less effective than other interviews

C) eight times as effective as ordinary interviews
D) twice as effective as ordinary interviews
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A study shows that behavioral interviews are eight times as effective as ordinary
interviews in predicting job success. That makes "eight times as effective" the correct response
and rules out the other three choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2
89) A realistic job preview (RJP) includes ________ a job.
A) only factual information about
B) only positive aspects of
C) only negative aspects of
D) both positive and negative aspects of
Answer: D
Explanation: D) An RJP provides both positive and negative information about the job the
applicant is applying for, resulting ultimately in employees who are better suited to the job, less
likely to resign, and who harbor fewer illusions about the job or the organization than they would
otherwise have. This makes "both positive and negative aspects" the correct response and
eliminates the other three choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2

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90) All of the following are goals of the orientation process EXCEPT ________.
A) reduce anxiety

B) familiarize the employee with job
C) introduce the employee to his coworkers
D) discuss payments and benefits
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The major goals of orientation are to reduce anxiety and familiarize the
employee with his new job, making those choices incorrect responses. In addition, orientation
allows the new employee to meet the members of his work unit, eliminating introduction of the
employee to his coworkers as a correct choice. Orientation is not a time in which compensation
is discussed—that is usually taken care of during the hiring process. This means that discussing
payments and benefits is the only choice that is not a goal of the orientation process so it is the
correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 166
Objective: 6.3
91) Organizational orientation informs a new employee about ________.
A) her responsibilities for the job
B) the history and philosophy of the organization
C) what expectations she has about the job are unrealistic
D) how she will be evaluated on the job
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Organizational orientation focuses entirely on the organization—its goals, rules,
customs, philosophy, history, and so on. This makes history and philosophy the correct response.
Organizational orientation does not focus on informing the new employee about her
responsibilities, her expectations, or how she will be evaluated on the job. This makes those three
choices incorrect responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 166
Objective: 6.3
92) Which of the following is NOT a sign to look for in a successful orientation process?
A) The new employee feels comfortable.

B) The new employee clearly exceeds all productivity goals for her work unit.
C) The new employee is less likely to resign.
D) The new employee understands her duties and responsibilities
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The goals of orientation are to familiarize the new employee with her duties, to
make her feel comfortable in her new position, and to increase the likelihood that she will
ultimately be retained in the job. Orientation goals do not include performance requirements—
those will be assessed later on, when the employee has become more accustomed to the job. This
makes the choice regarding exceeding productivity goals the only choice that is not a sign of a
successful orientation, so it is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 166
Objective: 6.3

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