Đề cương ôn thi và đề thi khảo sát môn tiếng anh lớp 12 năm 2018 2019

1. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
Do you want to take part in the battle to save the world’s wildlife? “Animal Watch” is a book which will
( 24)_________ you in the fight for survival that faces many of our endangered animals and show how they
struggle on the ( 25)_________ of extinction. As you enjoy the book’s 250 pages and over 150 coloured
photographs, you will have the ( 26)_________ of knowing that part of your purchase money is being used to help
animals (27)_________ From the comfort of your armchair, you will be able to observe the world's animals closeup and explore their habitats. You will also discover the terrible results of human greed for land, flesh and
skins.
“Animal Watch” is packed with fascinating facts. Did you know that polar bears cover their black
noses.( 28)_________ their paws so they can hunt their prey in the snow without being seen, for example? Or that
for each orangutan which is captured, one has to die?
Question 24: A. involve
B. bring
C. lead
D. combine
Question 25: A. end
B. edge
C. start
D. limit
Question 26: A. enjoyment
B. virtue
C. satisfaction
D. value
Question 27: A. conserve
B. revive
C. survive
D. preserve
Question 28: A. by
B. from
C. with
D. for
2. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to

Over the next 20 to 50 years, it will become harder to tell the (26)________ between the human and the
machine. All, body part will be replaceable. Computers will function like the human brain with the ability to
recognize feelings and respond in a feeling way. They will then produce fake people. We will then be able to
create a machine duplicate of ourselves (27)________ we will appear to be alive long after we are dead. Maybe a
few decades later, a way will be found to transfer our spirit, including our memories and thoughts, to the new
body. Then we can choose to live for as long as we want. It might be expensive. When it becomes possible to do
a spirit transfer, they will find (28)________ to do them automatically. So we will be able to reside within
whichever duplicate we want, whenever we want.
Miniature robots will be built (29)________ through your blood stream and repair damage. Also, larger
robots will be used when you are sick. When you have an upset stomach, you will swallow a very small cherry
tasting robot which will travel through your stomach taking video of the mess. It will be set up like a video
game, so you can control the exploring and the selection of images. Then you can replay the video to help a
doctor (30)________ your illness, or to prove to your employer that you really, were sick.
Question 26:
A. change
B. difference
C. appearance
D. variety
Question 27:
A. because
B. soon
C. but
D. so
Question 28:
A. over
B. out
C. down
D. up
Question 29:
A. travelling

B. to be travelled
C. to travel
D. travel
Question 30:
A. watch
B. observe
C. notice
D. diagnose
3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (01)________. Many species of
animals are threatened, and could easily become (02)________ if we do not make an effort to protect them. In
some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as
parrots, are caught (03)________ and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat the place where they live - is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are
fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better crops,
but these chemicals pollute the environment and (4)________ wildlife. The most successful animals on earth human beings - will soon be the only ones (5)________, unless we can solve this problem.
Question 01:
A. threat
B. problem
C. danger
D. vanishing
Question 02:
A. disappeared
B. vanished
C. extinct
D. empty
Question 03:
A. for life
B. alive
C. lively
D. for living

Question 04:
A. spoil
B. wound
C. wrong
D. harm
Question 05:
A. left
B. over
C. staying
D. survive
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (27)_______ human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the
world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the
lonely resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (28)_______ built
on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover
completely. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a
(29)_______ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers
and consumption are making increasingly heavy demands on it.


The Earth's (30)_______ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines,
warmth, shelter and minerals to (31)_______ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how
we use the resources, they will go indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon
run out and everyone will suffer.
Question 27: A. Although
B. Yet
C. Still
D. Despite
Question 28: A. neither

B. sooner
C. rather
D. either
Question 29: A. result
B. reaction
C. development
D. product
Question 30: A. living
B. real
C. natural
D. genuine
Question 31: A. maintain
B. stay
C. hold
D. keep
4. Importance of Punctuality in school life
Being punctual will really help you to succeed in your studies. First and foremost, punctuality
(29)_________ that you will arrive on time to classes and so will not (29)_________ any part of the lesson.
Punctuality during school life will also help to prepare you for your working life. If you get into good habits of
punctuality during your school years, you will find it easier to always turn (30)_________ to your work on time
and thus to get ahead in your career as well.
(31)_________, punctuality is, quite simply, a polite skill to cultivate. Your teachers will have put a lot of
effort into preparing their classes and so it is important that you turn up on time so that you do not mess up
their plans.What about if you have an (32)_________ emergency, or an appointment that cannot be moved, that
means that you will need to miss a portion of the school day? In these cases, it is crucial to tell your teachers
well in advance.
Question 28: A. insures
B. assures
C. ensures
D. reassures

Question 29: A. lost
B. miss
C. lack
D. need
Question 30: A. out
B. on
C. up
D. in
Question 31: A. Moreover B. Finally
C. However
D. Therefore
Question 32: A. avoiding
B. unavoidable
C. avoided
D. avoidable

5. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Family, a group of
persons united by the ties of marriage, blood, or adoption, constituting a single household and (26)_________
with each other in their respective social positions, usually those of spouses, parents, children, and siblings.
The family group should be distinguished from a (27)_________, which may include boarders and roomers
sharing a common residence. It should also be differentiated from a kindred (which also concerns blood lines),
because a kindred may be divided (28)_________ several households. Frequently the family is not differentiated
from the marriage pair, but the essence of the family group is the parent-child relationship, which may be
absent from many marriage pairs.

At its most basic, then, a family consists of an adult and his or her offspring. Most commonly, it consists
of two married adults, usually a man and a woman (almost always from different lineages and not related by
blood) along with their offspring, usually living in a private and separate dwelling. This type of unit, more
specifically known as a (29)______ family, is believed to be the oldest of the various types of families in
existence. Sometimes the family includes not only the parents and their unmarried children living at home but

also children that have married, their spouses, and their offspring, and possibly elderly dependents
(30)_________; such an arrangement is called an extended family.
Question 26: A. interacting

B. sharing

C. cooperating D. relating

Question 28: A. from

B. for

C. into

Question 27: A. housework
Question 29: A. joint

Question 30: A. such as

B. housewife

B. also

B. nuclear

C. housewarming

D. household

C. extended

D. single-parent

C. as well

D. within

D. as long

6. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

English is the (39)_________ important language in the world today. A very large number of people
understand and use English in all parts of the world. Indeed, English is very useful language. If we know


English, we can go to any place or country we like. We shall not find it hard to (40)_________ people understand
what we wish to say.

English also helps us to learn all kinds of subjects. Hundreds of books are written in English everyday
in all (41)_________ to teach people many useful things. The English language has therefore helped to spread
ideas and knowledge to all the corners of the world. There is no subject that cannot be learned in the English
language.
As English is used so much everywhere in the world, it has helped to make the countries of the world
become more (42)_________ with one another. The leaders of the world use English to understand one another.
The English language has therefore also helped to spread better understanding and friendship among
countries of the world. Lastly, a person (43)_________ knows English is respected by people. It is for all these
reasons that I want to learn English.
Question 39: A. most
Question 40: A. get

Question 41: A. places
Question 42: A. friend
Question 43: A. what

B. mostly

B. sites

B. let

B. friendly

C. chiefly

C. countries

B. whom

D. best

C. persuade

C. friendship

D. scenes

C. who

D. make

D. friendliness

7. 21st CENTURY TEACHERS: INEVITABLE CHANGES

D. whose

21st century teachers need to serve as a guide or mentor for their students, not as the all- knowing sage
providing them with everything they need. Nowadays, with so much access (21)________ resources of all kinds,
children invariably know more than teachers on different topics, step ahead of the technology. Teachers need
to be empowered as facilitators for learning, so that they can empower their students in (22)________. This shift
is great news for teachers. Instead of struggling to give kids all the information in areas (23)________ they know
little about, teachers can support students as they make their own steps into different fields. It’s about
preparing them to go beyond their seniors, ensuring they have the skills to do it, and assisting them along the
way.

(24)________, teachers need to be forward-thinking, curious and flexible. They must be learners: learning
new teaching methods, and learning alongside their students. Simply asking questions like “What will my
students need dozens of years from now?” or “How can I help give them those skills?” can change teachers'
(25)________, make them a leader, and bring about changes in the classroom, school and community.
Question 21:
A. to
B. with
C. for
D. in
Question 22:
A. sight
B. use
C. line
D. turn
Question 23:

A. what
B. that
C. where
D. whom
Question 24:
A. For instance
B. Therefore
C. In practice
D. Otherwise
Question 25:
A. knowledge
B. prejudice
C. mindset
D. judgement
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

The warming ot the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, factories and power
(23)_________. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it form a kind of screen that keeps or allows the
sunshine in but stop the Earth heat (24)_________ getting out. It works like a greenhouse, that’s why we call
(25)_________ the Green House effect.
Because ot this effect, the Earth is getting warmer alt the time. This (26)_________ in temperature will
cause big changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (27)_________ the poles will melt.
Question 23: A. companies
Question 24: A. from

B. factories
B. up

C. sites

C. against

D. stations
D. away


Question 25: A. is

Question 26: A. raise

B. be

C. it

B. rise

C. drop

D. them
D. fall

Question 27: A. covering
B. covers
C. covered
D. cover
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the blanks.
When you read something in a foreign language, you often (21)_________ across words you do not fully
understand. Sometimes you check the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you guess. The strategy you
adopt depends very much (22)_________ the degree of accuracy you require and the time at your disposal.

If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is worth remembering that
every dictionary has its advantages. Each definition is only an approximation and one builds up an accurate
picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting it in a (23)_________ of contexts. It is also important to
recognize the special dangers of dictionaries that translate from English into your native language and vice
versa. If you must use a dictionary, it is usually (24)_________ safer to consult an English-English dictionary.
In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (25)_________ you are allowed to use one, it is very
time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are, therefore, forced to guess the
meaning of unfamiliar words.
Question 21. A. see

B. put

C. come

D. drop

Question 23. A. variation

B. lots

C. variety

D. diverse

Question 22. A. for

Question 24. A. too

Question 25. A. Although

B. about

C. upon

B. very

C. no

B. Even if

C. Provided

D. in

D. far

D. Or else

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
AFTERNOON TEA

In far too many places in England today, the agreeable habit of taking afternoon tea has vanished. 'Such
a shocking waste of time,' says one. 'Quite unnecessary, if one has had lunch or (24)________ to eat in the
evening,' says another.

All very true, (25)________ but what a lot of innocent pleasure these strong-minded people are missing!
The very ritual of tea-making, warming the pot, making sure that the water is just boiling, inhaling the fragrant
steam, arranging the tea-cosy to fit snugly around the container, all the preliminaries (26)________ up to the

exquisite pleasure of sipping the brew from thin porcelain, and helping oneself to hot buttered scones and
strawberry jam, a slice of feather-light sponge cake or home-made shortbread.

Taking tea is a highly civilized pastime, and fortunately is still in favour in Thrush Green, where the
inhabitants have got it down to a (27)________ art. It is common (28)________ in that pleasant village to invite
friends to tea rather than lunch or dinner.
Question 24: A. views

B. designs

C. proposes

D. minds

Question 26: A. run

B. come

C. draw

D. lead

Question 25: A. no wonder

B. no way

C. no doubt

D. no matter

Question 27: A. sheer

Question 28: A. custom

B. rare

C. fine

B. procedure

D. pure

C. habit

D. practice

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 01 to 05.
BRITISH FOOD

Bacon and eggs is a traditional breakfast in the UK, but it isn’t (01)_________ now. Some people
have a cooked breakfast at the weekend but most people don’t have time in the week. Toast, cereal
and fruit are popular.

Breakfast is between 7 and 9 a.m. and lunch is between 12 and 1.30 p.m. The British tradition
of ‘afternoon tea’ - tea, sandwiches and cakes - at 4 o’clock is (02)_________ now. The main meal of the
day is dinner in the evening, usually between 6 and 8 p.m.
There are lots of traditional kinds of food in the UK - roast beef, turkey at Christmas, pies, fish
and chips and, of course, English breakfasts. People choice many different cultures live in the UK so

British people also love food from other countries. The country’s favourite dish is… curry!
Eating out isn’t cheap, but there’s a fantastic (03)_________ of different restaurants. Indian,
Chinese, Italian and Thai restaurants are common. Fast food and snacks are always popular with
children in the UK. Teenagers eat over 3,000 million packets of crisps each year! Sandwiches, a British
invention, are very common for lunch, especially in the ‘packed lunches’ that children (04)_________ to
school.

There are now many coffee bars in British towns. Caffé latte, cappuccino and espresso are all
popular, but tea is (05)_________ the UK’s favourite drink. That’s tea with milk, of course. British people
drink over 200 million cups of tea every day!
Question 01: A. general

B. similar

C. common

D. the same

Question 03: A. from

B. in

C. with

D. of

Question 02: A. outdated
Question 04: A. carry

Question 05: A. always

B. unusual
B. take

B. ever

C. irregular
C. bring
C. yet

D. ancient
D. get

D. still

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
There's no place in the world quite as famous for its culture as the island kingdom of Great Britain.
With over two thousand years of culture from which to draw, the nation and its people celebrate weddings
with a uniquely elegant sense of poise and class.
A bride's wedding day is often touted as "the happiest day of her life", but in all honesty it's often a very
stressful experience as there are lots of conventions surrounding the whole thing and you can get caught up in
family rows, and trying to please everyone. Still it's a good test of a couple's courage.


When the guests arrive for a wedding the ushers' duty is to hand out the correct books, flowers and the
order of service, they also ensure the guests are seated in the correct places. Traditionally, the side on which
people sit depends on whether they are friends or family of the bride or of the groom. The front rows are
generally reserved for close family or friends, with the very first seats reserved for the bridal party. However,
in many ceremonies the bridal party will remain standing at the altar during the ceremony along with the

bride and groom.

During the ceremony the bride and groom make their marriage vows. Marriage vows are promises a
couple makes to each other during a wedding ceremony. In Western culture, these promises have traditionally
included the notions of affection, faithfulness, unconditionality, and permanence.
Most wedding vows are taken from traditional religious ceremonies, but nowadays in the UK many
couples choose touching love poems or lyrics from a love song revised as wedding vows and some couples
even choose to write their own vows, rather than relying on standard ones spoken by the celebrant.
After the vows have been spoken the couple exchange rings. The wedding ring is placed on the third
finger of the left hand, also called the "ring" finger. The wedding ring is usually a plain gold ring. After the
wedding ceremony, the bride, groom, officiant, and two witnesses generally go off to a side room to sign the
wedding register. Without this the marriage is not legal and a wedding certificate cannot be issued.
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The bride’s and groom’s vows in Great Britain.

B. Traditional wedding ceremony in the United Kingdom.

C. Some types of wedding ceremonies in the United Kingdom.
D. Typical features of British cultures

Question 37: According paragraph 2, the couple can get stressed on their wedding day___________.
A. as there are lots of conventions between the bride and the groom.

B. due to traditional customs during and after the wedding ceromony.
C. because the newly-wedded couple have to take a test of courage.
D. since the surroundings discourage the couple.

Question 38: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. ushers

B. guests

A. promises

B. agreements

C. books

Question 39: The word “vows” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________.
C. compromises

D. married couples

D. arguments

Question 40: In a British traditional wedding, the places where the guests sit___________.
A. are conditional on their relationship to the couple
B. are seated by the couple

C. depend on whether their friends or family are standing

D. at the altar during the ceremony along with the bride and groom.


Question 41: According the passage, nowadays what can be replaced traditional wedding vows EXCEPT?
A. touching love poems

C. the couple’s own wows

Question 42: The wedding certificate will be issued___________.

B. love song lyrics

D. the celebrant’s wows

A. until the bride and groom go off to a side room

B. as soon as the couple legalize their wedding register.

C. after the bride and groom exchange their wedding rings.
D. right after the signs of marriage are not legal.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
The difference between the nuclear family and the extended family is that a nuclear family refers to a
single basic family unit of parents and their children, whereas the extended family refers to their relatives, as
well – such as grandparents, in-laws, aunts and uncles, etc. In many cultures, and particularly indigenous
societies, the extended family unit rather than the nuclear family unit is the most common basic form of social
organization.
A nuclear family is limited, according to Kristy Jackson of Colorado State University, to one or two
parents (e.g. a father and mother) and their own child, or children, living together in a single house or other
dwelling. In anthropology, they only must be related in this fashion; there is no upper or lower limit on the
number of children in a nuclear family.

The extended family is a much more nebulous term, but in essence refers to kin or relations not
covered by the above definition. In historical Europe and Asia as well as in Middle Eastern, African, and
American Aboriginal cultures, extended family groups were typically the most basic unit of social organization.
The term can differ in specific cultural settings, but generally includes people related in age or by lineage.
Anthropologically, the term “extended family” refers to such a group living together in a household, often with
three generations living together (grandparents, parents, and children) and headed in patriarchal societies by

the eldest man or by some other chosen leadership figure. However, in common parlance, the term “extended
family” is often used by people simply to refer to their cousins, aunts, uncles, and so on, even though they are
not living together in a single group.

Historically, most people in the world have lived in extended family groupings rather than in nuclear
families. This was even true in Europe and in the early United States, where multiple generations often lived
together for economic reasons. During the 20th century, average income rose high enough that living apart as
nuclear families became a viable option for the vast majority of the American population. In contrast, many
indigenous societies and residents of developing countries continue to have multiple generations living in the
same household. The rise of the nuclear family in the modern West does not necessarily mean that family
arrangements have stabilized, either. The rapid growth in single-parent households, for instance, also
represents a substantial change to the traditional nuclear family. More couples are also choosing not to have
children at all.
Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Two types of household and their dissimilarity

B. Traditional nuclear families and their and their advantages
C. The extended family and its basic definition

D. History of the nuclear family and the extended family


Question 44: The word “dwelling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. town

B. home

C. city D. roof

Question 45: The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. family members

B. eldest men

C. young generations D. cultures

A. number

B. size

C. length

D. width

A. males

B. females

C. parents

D. eldest members

Question 46: According to the passage, the great difference between the nuclear family and the extended
family is the family___________.
Question 47: According to anthropologists, in patriarchal societies extended families were mostly controlled
by___________.
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. American people have lived in nuclear families since the 20th century .

B. In developing countries, there are multiple generations living in the same roof.
C. Nowadays there is an increasing number of childless couples.

D. There are more nuclear families than extended ones before the 20th century

Question 49: The word “viable” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. portable

B. acceptable

C. possible

D. responsible

Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Extended families may include three or four generations living in the same house.
B. The rise of the nuclear family has stablized for a long time.

C. More married couples will choose to live with their children in nuclear families.

D. The definition of nuclear family will be different in the future.
2. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES
Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a “housewife”.
She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the family. He was usually
out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And he did not see
the children very much, except on weekends.
These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the
children all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening cooking

dinner and cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is going to do
the housework now? Who is going to take care of the children?
Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife
agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband
always cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and the
husband cooks dinner on other nights.
Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from
grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far away to


help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. The help may be a babysitter or a
day-care center. The problem with this kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for couples with jobs
that pay well.
Parents may get another kind of help form the companies they work for. Many companies now let
people with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend more time with their children. Some
husbands may even stop working for a while to stay with the children. For these men there is a new word:
they are called “househusbands”. In the USA more and more men are becoming househusbands every year.
These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children
better, and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in
their marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other.
Question 29: Sixty years ago, most women__________.
A. were housewives
B. went out to work
C. did not do much housework
D. had no children
Question 30: Nowadays, there are__________.
A. more work outside the home than before
B. more and more women staying with the children all day
C. more housewives than before
D. more women going out to work than before

Question 31: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. cooking and washing up
B. tidying up C. washing and ironingD. shopping
Question 32: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that__________.
A. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center
B. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center
C. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with child care
D. grandparents can help care the children in a regular way
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to__________.
A. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers
B. parents who work part-time
C. husbands who stop working to stay with the children
D. fathers who spend more time with their children
Question 34: The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may__________.
A. help families
B. not change the children at all
C. not happen
D. cause problems for a marriage
Question 35: This article is about__________.
A. American men as househusbands
B. housewives in America
C. how more American women are workingD. how family life in America is changing
3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
Until recently, the ‘science of the future’ was supposed to be electronics and artificial intelligence.
Today it seems more and more likely that the next breakthrough in technology will be brought about through
a combination of those two sciences with organic chemistry and genetic engineering. This science is the
combination of biotechnology.
Organic chemistry enables us to produce marvelous synthetic materials. However, it is still difficult to
manufacture anything that has the capacity of wool to conserve heat and also to absorb moisture. Nothing that
we have been able to produce so far comes anywhere near the combination of strength, lightness, and

flexibility that we find in the bodies of ordinary insects. Nevertheless, scientists in the laboratory have already
succeeded in 'growing' a material that has many of the characteristics of human skin. The next step may well
be 'biotech heart and eyes’ which can replace diseased organs in human beings. These will not be rejected by
the body, as in the case with organs from humans.
The application of biotechnology to energy production seems even more promising. In 1996, the
famous science-fiction writer Arthur C. Clarke, many of whose previous predictions have come true, said that
we may soon be able to develop remarkably cheap and renewable sources of energy. Some of these power
sources will be biological. Clarke and others have warned us repeatedly that sooner or later we will have to
give up our dependence on non-renewable power sources. Coal, oil and gas are indeed convenient. However,
using them also means creating dangerously high levels of pollution. It will be impossible to meet the growing
demand for energy without increasing that pollution to catastrophic levels unless we develop power sources
that are both cheaper and cleaner.
Question 43: According to the text, the science of the future is likely to be?
A. Nuclear technology. B. Electronics.C. Genetic engineering. D. Biotechnology
Question 44: The word “These” refers to__________.


A. diseased organs
B. biotech heart and eyes
C. human beings
D. characteristics of human skin
Question 45: What does the text say is one of the worst problems caused by the use of coal, gas, and oil?
A. They are so cheap that people waste them.
B. They are very bad for the world around us.
C. They are no longer as easy to use as they once were.
D. They are too expensive for poorer people in many parts of the world.
Question 46: According to the text, it may soon be possible__________.
A. to make something as good as human skin.
B. to take an organ from one human and give it to another human.
C. to make useful substitutes for human hearts and eyes.

D. to cure certain diseases that damage human organs.
Question 47: In 1996, Arthur C. Clarke predicted__________.
A. that we may not be able to meet future demand for energy
B. that using oil, gas, and coal would lead to very high levels of pollution
C. newer and better ways of using oil, gas, and coal
D. new and better ways of heating and lighting homes, offices, and factories
Question 48: The word “to meet” is synonymous with__________.
A. satisfy
B. encounter
C. turn up
D. appear
Question 49: Which word below can be the best substitute for “breakthrough”?
A. exit
B. development
C. outlet
D. opening
Question 50: Organic chemistry helps to produce materials that are__________.
A. almost as good as wool
C. stronger, lighter, and better than natural materials
B. not as good as natural materials
D. almost as strong, light, and flexible as an insect’s body

5. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
Today, I’d like to begin a discussion on the problem of the heating up of the earth. First, we’ll touch on
the relationship between fluorocarbons and the ozone layer. You probably remember that the ozone layer is
the protective shield around the earth. It is important to all life, because it filters out harmful ultraviolet light
from the sun. Ozone itself, a form of oxygen, is regularly made by the action of the sun in the upper
atmosphere. It is also regularly destroyed by natural chemical processes.
The problem now is that too much of the ozone layer is being destroyed. Scientists suspect that certain
chemicals, such as fluorocarbons, are contributing to the depletion of the ozone layer. And how do we use

fluorocarbons? The most common uses are in spray cans and cooling systems. The chemical pollution from
these fluorocarbons can account for some of the ozone losses that have been reported. There are, however,
new studies linking the sun itself to the depletion of the ozone layer. We’ll go into that new study more next
time.
Question 31: Who is the most likely speaker?
A. A professor
B. A doctor
C. A mechanic
D. A chemist
Question 32: The speaker’s main topic is__________.
A. ultraviolet light
B. the use of spray cans
C. air-conditioning systems
D. fluorocarbons and the ozone layer
Question 33: What does the word “filters out” in paragraph 1 probably mean?
A. separates
B. stops
C. prevents
D. keeps
Question 34: What is the most important purpose of the ozone layer?
A. Providing fluorocarbons.
B. Shielding the sun.
C. Protecting the earth.
D. Destroying chemicals.
Question 35: What is the ozone layer made of?
A. Fluorocarbons.
B. Oxygen.
C. Shields.
D. Ultraviolet light.
Question 36: What does the word “depletion” in paragraph 2 probably mean?

A. deployment B. deletion
C. destruction
D. departure
Question 37: What will the speaker probably discuss next?
A. How to make air conditioners with fluorocarbons.
B. The sun as a cause of ozone layer depletion.
C. The make-up of the ozone layer.
D. Harmful effects of ultraviolet light.
6. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to


In many experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and
professor 2 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students now
are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacle.
Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children writing admission essays
to picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can
look even more broadly to the social trends of today.
How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number
of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically in the
past 10 years. We, as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our
children to “suffer”.
The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary
skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some individuals
suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the growing number of
medicated adolescents today.
Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I
don’t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do
think is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life.
What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of

these students – the student who complains that the professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an
assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of
careful instructions about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we
can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To
encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move
forward. This approach needs to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent
adulthood.
Question 38. According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are
___________.
A. not so academic
B. too ready for college
C. responsible for their work
D. not as mature
Question 39. The word “handle” in paragraph 2 mostly means________.
A. point at
B. deal with
C. gain benefits from D. lend a hand to
Question 40. According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to _________.
A. the absence of parents’ protection
B. the over – parenting from parents
C. the lack of parental support
D. the lack of financial support
Question 41. The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to__________.
A. studying medicine at college
B. receiving medical treatment
C. suffering anxiety or depression
D. doing medical research
Question 42. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.

B. Our society certainly doesn’t want our children to experience unpleasant things.
C. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.
D. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.
Question 43. Students who are not well – prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life will
need________.
A. to be assigned more housework from adults
B. to be encouraged to meet challenges
C. daily coaching from their teachers D. to be given more social responsibilities
Question 44. According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will ______.
A. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
B. defeat students from the very beginning
C. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
D. discourage students and let them down forever
Question 45. What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage?
A. Indifferent
B. Critical
C. Praising
D. Humorous
Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.


As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become
increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and
"life in the fast lane" have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to
new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.
Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of
heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other
day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking.
Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number

of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating
hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart
attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.
In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal
that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding
and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married
counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors,
intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered .
Question 08. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Risk factors in heart attacks B. Seasonal and temporal pattern of heart attacks
C. Cardiology in the 1980s
D. Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks
Question 09. The word “trigger” as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. involve
B. affect
C. cause
D. encounter
Question 10. What do the second and the third paragraphs of the passage mainly discuss?
A. The link between heart attacks and marriage
B. Unusual risk factors in heart attacks
C. Age and gender factors in heart attacks
D. Myths about lifestyles and heart attacks
Question 11. The phrase “susceptible to” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by_______.
A. aware of
B. affected by
C. accustomed to
D. prone to
Question 12. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of any heart attacks?
A. Decreased blood flow to the heart
B. Increased blood pressure

C. Lower heart rate
D. Increase in hormones
Question 13. Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?
A. Having a birthday B. Getting married C. Eating fatty foods
D. Being under stress
Question 14. Which of the following does the passage infer?
A. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
B. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
C. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.
D. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of
the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large mountain ranges. In
geography, the term "continent" refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about
29.2% of the planet's surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of the term
that deals with extensive main lands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large landmass.
Although all continents are bounded by the water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated main lands, such as
Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between
continents and large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of a particular landmass.
The analysis of compression and tension in the earth's crust has determined that continental structures
are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists
surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of their distinctive mineral
and chemical composition. It's also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on top of unknown continents that
have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means of a chemical
reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at various levels within the crust.
Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust formations by means of monitoring earthquakes,
geologists can speculate that a chemical split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea water and the crust before
it solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components that

include shields, mountain belts, intra-cratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and block-vaulted belts. The


basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features relative to the
continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil
erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization
of layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate faulting and
mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of
large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the occurrence
of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution.
Question 44. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Continental structure and crust.
B. Continental drift and division.
C. Scientific analyses of continental crusts. D. Various definitions of the term "continent".
Question 45. According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions.
B. As extensive bodies of land.
C. As surficial compositions and ranges.
D. As the largest identifiable features.
Question 46. The word "bounded" is closest in meaning to________.
A. covered
B. convened
C. dominated
D. delimited
Question 47. The author in the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the fact
that__________.
A. Continents undergo compression and experience tension.
B. Continents have various underlying layers of crust.
C. Each continent has several planes and shelves.

D. Continents have different chemical makeup.
Question 48. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The distinctive features of their elements.
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size.
C. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features.
D. The proportional size of continents to one another.
Question 49. The phrase "This process" refers to________.
A. The rise of margins
B. Mountain ranges
C. Plate tectonic theory
D. Continental collision
Question 50. The word "evidence" in the last line is closest in meaning to________.
A. confirmation
B. eventuality
C. challenge D. exemplification

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
Floods are second only to fire as the most common of all natural disasters. They occur almost
everywhere in the world, resulting in widespread damage and even death. Consequently, scientists have long
tried to perfect their ability to predict floods. So far, the best that scientists can do is to recognize the potential
for flooding in certain conditions. There are a number of conditions, from deep snow on the ground to human
error, that cause flooding.
When deep snow melts it creates a large amount of water. Although deep snow alone rarely causes
floods, when it occurs together with heavy rain and sudden warmer weather it can lead to serious flooding. If
there is a fast snow melt on top of frozen or very wet ground, flooding is more likely to occur than when the
ground is not frozen. Frozen ground or ground that is very wet and already saturated with water cannot
absorb the additional water created by the melting snow. Melting snow also contributes to high water levels in
rivers and streams. Whenever rivers are already at their full capacity of water, heavy rains will result in the
rivers overflowing and flooding the surrounding land.
Rivers that are covered in ice can also lead to flooding. When ice begins to melt, the surface of the ice cracks

and breaks into large pieces. These pieces of ice move and float down the river. They can form a dam in the
river, causing the water behind the dam to rise and flood the land upstream. If the dam breaks suddenly, then
the large amount of water held behind the dam can flood the areas downstream too.
Broken ice dams are not the only dam problems that can cause flooding. When a large human-made
dam breaks or fails to hold the water collected behind it, the results can be devastating. Dams contain such
huge amounts of water behind them that when sudden breaks occur, the destructive force of the water is like a
great tidal wave. Unleashed dam waters can travel tens of kilometres, cover the ground in metres of mud and
debris, and drown and crush every thing and creature in their path.
Although scientists cannot always predict exactly when floods will occur, they do know a great deal
about when floods are likely, or probably, going to occur. Deep snow, ice-covered rivers, and weak dams are all
strong conditions for potential flooding. Hopefully, this knowledge of why floods happen can help us reduce
the damage they cause.


Question 37: Whlch of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Broken ice dams
B. Deep snow melting
C. Causes of floods
D. Consequences of floods
Question 38: Which of the following are included as causes for floods in the reading passage?
A. droughts
B. large lakes
C. melting snow
D. poorly built roads
Question 39: Which of the following best describes how a frozen river can cause a flood?
A. The ice in the river cracks into pieces that eventually create a dam causing the water to overflow.
B. The water behind the ice dam collects and when the dam breaks, it causes flooding upstream.
C. The ice in the river melts too quickly and causes a flood.
D. The ice in the river cracks causing the water to overflow.
Question 40: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to_________.

A. Pieces of ice
B. Streams
C. Heavy rains D. Rivers
Question 41: What kinds of problems can floods cause?
A. widespread damage B. destruction of plants and animalsC. downstream D. death
Question 42: The word “unleashed” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. almost flooded
B. quite strong
C. perfect
D. let free
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that knowledge of when floods exactly happen_________.
A. helps people improve conditions for potential flooding
B. is likely to be predicted correctly
C. is still a question for scientists
D. can be easily seen by the scientists
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
Alexis de Tocqueville, the French political scientist, historian, philosopher and politician, is most
famous for a four-volume book he wrote called “Democracy in America”. He came to America in 1831 to study
the American form of democracy and what it might mean to the rest of the world. After a visit of only nine
months, he wrote a remarkable book which is regarded as a classic. De Tocqueville had unusual powers of
observation. He described not only the democratic system of government and how it operated, but also its
effect on how Americans think, feel, and act. Many scholars believe he had a deeper understanding of
traditional American beliefs and values than anyone else who has written about the United States. What is so
remarkable is that many of these traits which he observed nearly 200 years ago, are still visible and
meaningful today. His observations are also important because the timing of his visit, the 1830s, was before
America was industrialized. This was the era of the small farmer, the small businessman, and the settling of the
western frontier. It was the period of history when the traditional values of the new country were newly
established. In just a generation, some 40 years since the adoption of the U.S. Constitution, the new form of
government had already produced a society of people with unique values. He was, however, a neutral
observer and saw both the good and bad sides of these qualities.

Question 44: What makes Alexis de Tocqueville special?
A. His long-ago observations are still visible and meaningful today.
B. He wrote about “Democracy in America”
C. He named after Alexis de Tocqueville.
D. He read the impact of the book “Democracy in America”
Question 45: Alexis de Tocqueville’s nationality is____________.
A. French
B. American
C. United States
D. France
Question 46: What is special about Alexis de Tocqueville?
A. He had a deeper understanding.
B. He came to America in 1831.
C. He had unusual powers of observation.
D. He had written about the United States.
Question 47: The phrase “these traits” refers to___________.
A. observations
B. how Americans think, feel, and act
C. traditional American beliefs and values
D. visible and meaningful observations
Question 48: What is the passage primarily about?
A. the progress achieved in America within about 40 years after adoption of the U.S. Constitution
B. “Democracy in America”
C. Alexis de Tocqueville
D. the impact of the book “Democracy in America”
Question 49: The word “unique” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. clearly identifiable B. outstanding C. unmatched D. positive
Question 50: The word “neutral” in the passage is closest in meaning to____________.

A. impartial

B. important

C. thorough

D. careful

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
THE SUCCESS OF J. K. ROWLING
There are few modern-day writers as renowned as Joanne Kathleen Rowling, the creator of Harry
Potter. With over 30 awards under her belt, she is one of the most successful authors of all time. In addition,
her novels have famously been adapted into a series of box-office hits. These earn her so much income that the
47-year-old could comfortably retire, and live off Harry Potter royalties for the rest of her life! However, this
lucrative success story started at the most humble of beginnings, with a talented but insecure writer too afraid
to pursue her dreams.
Joanne grew up in a house full of books that fuelled her creativity. She was so enchanted by fairy tales
that she began to dream up her own, and by the time she was six years old she had written her first story about
a rabbit and a giant bee. “Ever since Rabbit and Miss Bee, I have wanted to be a writer, though I rarely told
anyone so,” recalls Joanne, “I was afraid they'd tell me I didn’t have a hope."
Throughout her life, Joanne continued to write, filling entire boxes with stories and unfinished novels.
But due to her lack of confidence, she never approached a publisher with any of her work. It wasn’t until later
life, when Joanne lost her job and was living in poverty, that she finally devoted her time to writing. Then with
nothing to lose, she contacted an agency with her first completed manuscript: Harry Potter and the
Philosopher’s Stone.
Joanne’s first novel was rejected by twelve different publishers and eventually found itself in the hands
of Nigel Newton, the founder of Bloomsbury Press. He did not read the book himself, but gave it to his eightyear-old daughter. The girl loved the novel so much that Nigel agreed to take it on; but not without
apprehensions. “You’ll never make any money out of children’s books,” he warned Joanne.
Well, she certainly proved him wrong! To date, she has sold 500 million copies of her novels globally,
and the Harry Potter franchise has reaped profits of £15 billion! Now, as the richest author in the world, no

publisher in their right mind would dream of turning down one of her books! And as for Joanne’s confidence;
well, let’s just say It’s been given quite a boost.
Question 33: The word “fuelled” is closest in meaning to________.
A. gave impetus to
B. brought in money
C. hinted
D. raised
Question 34: According to the text, what initially stopped Joanne from contacting a publisher?
A. her financial situation
B. her lack of time
C. her inability to complete a novel
D. her self-doubt
Question 35: W hat drove Nigel Newton to publish Joanne's first novel?
A. His daughter's reaction to the book.
B. He took pity on Joanne.
C. The fact that children's books sold well.
D. He was captivated upon reading it.
Question 36: The word “reaped” is closest in meaning to________.
A. made
B. brought
C. reached
D. raised
Question 37: What is the purpose of this article?
A. to compare the publishing and film industries
B. to raise publicity about a children's book
C. to show how profitable the publishing industry can be
D. to describe the career of a famous author
Question 38: In the first paragraph, what does these refer to________.
A. awards
B. films

C. royalties
D. books

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure
time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take our
cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice
mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.
Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them
from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially –
exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just
‘goofing off’.
But here we are at the start of the 21st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom times
in human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us
have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that
technology almost never does what we expect.


In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their
offices at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they
traveled to and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today’s highly
competitive job market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours
and to keep in touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a
result, employees feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel
pressured to work after hours just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer,
change their work tasks more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job security.
Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and email messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty,
friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent
on instant messaging services would probably show staggering use.
This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research

to the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and
stressful rather than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then
something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it
should benefit us.
From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher
Question 44: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our lives
easier__________.
A. have brought us complete happiness
B. have fully met our expectations
C. have not interfered with our privacy
D. have turned out to do us more harm than good
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys?
A. They make our life more stressful. B. They bring more leisure to our life.
C. They are used even during vacations.
D. They are being increasingly used.
Question 46: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”_________”.
A. unforgettable
B. unimaginable
C. predictable
D. foreseeable
Question 47: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that_________.
A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off
B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work
C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices
Question 48: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to________.
A. employers
B. employees
C. workers
D. tasks

Question 49: This passage has probably been taken from_________.
A. a science review
B. a political journal C. an advertisement D. a fashion magazine
Question 50: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Expectations and Plain Reality
B. Benefits of Technology
C. Research on the Roles of ComputersD. Changes at the Workplace
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was
recognized when the sun was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent solar
time, even though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time (DST),
sometimes called summer time, was instituted to make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one
hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then set back one hour in
the fall to return to normal daylight.

Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate
in Paris in 1984 and wrote about it extensively in his essay, "An Economical Project." It is said that Franklin
awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the economist,
Franklin believed the practice of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight, as candles were
expensive at the time.
In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time
upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone,
including himself, would appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce
introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and


introduced into Parliament several times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers. Eventually, in
1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day following the third Saturday in April and close
after the first Saturday in October.

The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and
set Daylight Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United
States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on "the mean astronomical
time of the seventy-fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich" (England). In 1919, this act was repealed.

President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–
1945. However, after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to
television and radio broadcasting and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the
Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the Department of Transportation
was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s, President
Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further.
This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to begin on the first Sunday in April (to
spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back).
Question 01: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. Franklin’s idea of daylight saving
C. Franklin’s first official tenure

B. Franklin's first conception

D. Franklin’s delegation

Question 02: The word “obligatory” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. imperative

B. approved

C. deficient

D. peculiar

Question 03: Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s?
A. Sir Robert Pearce

B. television and radio broadcasting companies

C. farmers

D. the U.S. Congress

Question 04: The word “devised” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. divided

B. invented

C. ordered

D. adapted

Question 05: Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation?

A. It was created by President Richard Nixon. B. It set standards for DST throughout the world.
C. It constructed the Uniform Time Act.

D. It oversees all time laws in the United States.

Question 06: The Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for__________.
A. extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation
B. preserving and setting Daylight Saving Time across the continent
C. instituting five time zones in the United States

D. conserving energy by giving the Department of Transportation authority over time laws

Question 07: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act


B. The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time

C. The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving Time
D. Daylight Saving Time in the United States

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Global emissions of carbon dioxide from fossil fuel burning jumped by the largest amount on record in
2010. Emissions rose 5.9 percent in 2010, according to an analysis released on Sunday by the Global Carbon
Project.
Scientists said the increase was almost certainly the largest absolute jump in any year since the
Industrial Revolution. The increase solidified a trend of ever-rising emissions that will make it difficult, if not
impossible, to stop severe climate change in coming decades.
The burning of coal represented more than half of the growth in emissions, the analysis found. In the
United States, emissions dropped by a remarkable 7 percent in the year of 2009, but rose by over 4 percent in
2010, the new analysis shows.
“Each year, emissions go up, and there’s another year of negotiations, another year of indecision,” said
Glen P. Peters, a researcher at the Center for International Climate and Environmental Research. “There’s no
evidence that this path we’ve been following in the last 10 years is going to change.”

Scientists say the rapid growth of emissions is warming the Earth and putting human welfare at longterm risk. But their increasingly urgent pleas that society find a way to limit emissions have met sharp
political resistance in many countries because doing so would involve higher energy costs.
The new figures show a continuation of a trend in which developing countries have surpassed the wealthy

countries in their overall greenhouse emissions. In 2010, the burning of fossil fuels and the production of
cement sent more than nine billion tons of carbon into the atmosphere, the new analysis found, with 57
percent of that coming from developing countries.
On the surface, the figures of recent years suggest that wealthy countries have made headway in
stabilizing their emissions. But Dr. Peters pointed out that, in a sense, the rich countries have simply exported
some of them.

The fast rise in developing countries has been caused to a large extent by the growth of energyintensive manufacturing industries that make goods that rich countries import. “All that has changed is the
location in which the emissions are being produced,” Dr. Peters said.
Many countries, as part of their response to the economic crisis, invested billions in programs designed
to make their energy systems greener. While it is possible, the new numbers suggest they have had little effect
so far.
Question 44: Many governments in the world resist limiting emissions because_________.
A. it is not the best way to solve such problems
B. they don’t realize the risks of carbon emissions

C. it would probably harm human welfare in the long run


D. they are unwilling to accept higher energy costs

Question 45: According to the passage, the report found that the burning coal accounts for_________ of the
increase in total emissions.
A. more than half
B. one-third
C. only about 7 percent
D. over 4 percent
Question 46: According to Glen P. Peters, we can learn that__________.
A. the rapid growth of emissions contributes to potential risks for humans
B. rich countries actually take more responsibility for the growth of emissions

C. human beings will follow the same path of negotiations in the next 10 years
D. some countries negotiate together yearly whether to reduce the amounts of emissions
Question 47: The word “urgent” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. needful
B. pressing
C. related

D. unsolved

Question 48: Which of the following is TRUE according to the text?
A. Emissions in the United States dropped by about 7 percent in 2010.
B. Developing countries will produce less emissions with economic development.
C. There is a long way to go for many countries to limit the fast growth of emissions.
D. Over 50 percent of the growth in emissions resulted from the burning of fossil fuels.

Question 49: The phrase “On the surface” in the seventh paragraph means most nearly the same as ___________.
A. Not thought about deeply or thoroughly
B. Just the tip of the iceberg
C. Judging from what can be seen

Question 50: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. an analysis released by the Global Carbon Project

D. To all intents and purposes

B. the record jump in carbon dioxide emissions
C. the possible climate change
D. the main harm of greenhouse gases
in future decades

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial
problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s
inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend
that many creatures of the desert pass then entire lives without a single drop.

Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its
desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The
giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it
holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely
nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the
word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if,
like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So
most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt


only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the
temperature is only 60 degrees.

Question 26: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as _________. A. very
few lager animals are found in the desert
B. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
D. water is an essential part of his existence

Question 27: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means_________.

A. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants”

B. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants”
C. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants”
D. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own”

Question 28: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behaviour of desert animals EXCEPT_______.
A. they are noisy and aggressive
B. they sleep during the day
C. they dig home underground

D. they are watchful and quiet

Question 29: According to the passage, creatures in the desert_________.
A. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest

B. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest
C. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world

D. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest

Question 30: We can infer from the passage that_________.
A. healthy animals live longer lives
C. water is the basis of desert life

B. desert life is colorful and diverse

D. living things adjust to their environment

Question 31: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that _________.
A. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees

B. they are less healthy than animals living in other places
C. they live in an accommodating environment

D. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals

Question 32: The title for this passage could be_________.
A. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”

B. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”


C. “Life Underground”

D. “Desert Plants”

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
SHAYNE’S DREAMS COME TRUE - BUT WILL THEY BE SHATTERED?

It is a week before The X Factor live tour when I meet the winner of the series, Shayne Ward. “It has
been mental,” he says, referring to the past six months of his life. “I've just been talking to Louis Walsh on the
phone. Louis Walsh!” Walsh, a top record producer and The X Factor judge, now manages Shayne’s career. “I
was talking to Simon Cowell (a celebrity record producer) yesterday!” He shakes his head in amazement. And
these people are telling me they're excited about working with me. “I can't get my head round it.”

Shayne is about as natural as any pop star arriving in the public arena can be. “I just can’t accept where
I am now” he says sincerely. “It doesn't feel real. To me, this is just a job.” “What do you think being famous
feels like?” I ask him. “I'm not sure, to be honest. Different from this?” he laughs, with only a hint of nerves.
Since winning The X Factor, Shayne's success has been phenomenal. His debut single took just three days to

reach the number one spot. On tour, he's going to play to audiences of 10,000 on average. He has already
brought the house down at a gig in his home city. “I walked out after that performance and just thought, “I’m
dreaming!”” Shayne is one of a family of seven children. Times were hard, but he has never wished or a
different childhood. Although he thought about going to college, he ended up leaving school at sixteen, just to
help his mother pay the rent. He set out on his reality show journey shortly afterwards. When he told he
friends he had an audition for The X Factor, none of them really believed him. “I thought I’d go fot it because
my family wanted me to, but I never really believed that I would win.”
Naturally, Ward is a fan of reality TV talent shows. “They're brilliant, because people who want
recording contracts try for years and get nowhere. Then these competitions come along the people at home
decide whether they like the singers or not. So its not just a few people at a record company deciding who gets
a chance.” But the previous winner of The X Factor only had one hit. He hasn't been heard of since then. Is
Shayne Ward going to be another talent show flop?

A lot of people feel cynical about reality TV show winners and their chances of continuing success.
Audiences usually lose interest in them as soon as the show has finished. In fact, contestants on shows like Big
Brother are given severe warnings from the show’s producers beforehand, basically telling them “you will not
be liked”. Talent shows like The X Factor have to offer contestants a kind of stardom though, and something
they can think of as a career, months afterwards at least.
Question 35: The word “flop” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. someone who is unpopular

C. someone who isn’t ambitious

B. someone who is unsuccessful

D. someone who lacks character

Question 36: According to the passage, who decide the winner of a reality TV talent show?
A. audiences

B. contestants

C. previous winners

Question 37: What does the writer suggest about reality talent show winners?
A. They are treated badly by producers.
C. Audiences never really like them.

B. Their fame is short-lived.

D. They don’t expect to be popular.

Question 38: The word “mental” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. psychiatric

B. physical

D. record companies

Question 39: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to

C. crazy

D. mind-bending


A. the tour

B. the experience

C. the phone call

Question 40: Which of the following statement is TRUE about Shayne Ward?

D. the show

A. He is certain how well known he is. B. He finds his present situation unacceptable.

C. He is confused about the nature of fame. D. He thinks his job isn’t particularly glamorous.

Question 41: After performing in his home city, Shayne felt
A. overwhelmed

B. embarrassed

C. disappointed

A. set off on a trip

B. gave up performing C. got himself a job

Question 42: After leaving school at the age of sixteen, Shayne

D. relieved

D. applied to a college

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
The Hindu culture celebrates marriage as a pure and pristine rite enabling two individuals start their
journey of life together. It puts emphasis on the values of happiness, harmony and growth and could be traced

back from the Vedic times.
Months before the wedding ceremony, an engagement is held which is called “magni”. The couple is
blessed here with gifts, jewelry and clothes. Another important ritual is the “mehendi” which is a paste made
from the leaves of henna plant. It is the traditional art of adorning the hands and the feet of the bride with
mehendi and the name of the groom is also hidden in the design.

On the day of marriage, the couple exchanges garlands as a gesture of acceptance of one another and a
pledge to respect one another as partners which is known as «jaimala». This is followed by «jaimala», where
the father of the bride places her hand in the groom’s hand requesting him to accept her as an equal partner.
Another ritual is the «havan» in which the couple invokes Agni, the god of Fire, to witness their
commitment to each other. Crushed sandalwood, herbs, sugar rice and oil are offered to the ceremonial fire.
The “gath bandhan” takes place where scarves of the bride and groom are tied together symbolizing their
eternal bond. This signifies their pledge before God to love each other and remain loyal. The couple then takes
four “mangal pheras” or walk around the ceremonial fire, representing four goals in life: “Dharma”, religious
and moral duties; “Artha”, prosperity; “Kama” earthly pleasures; “Moksha”, spiritual salvation.
The couple also takes seven steps together to begin their journey, called the “saptapardi”. Then the
ritual of “sindoor” takes place where the groom applies a small dot of vermilion, a red powder to the bride’s
forehead and welcomes her as his partner for life. This signifies the completion of the marriage. The parents of
the bride and the groom then give their blessings, “ashirwad” to the newly wed couple as they touch the feet of
their parents.
Question 28: What might be the most suitable title for this reading passage?
A. The Hindu culture

C. The Hindu wedding

B. The Hindu religion

Question 29: What does the word “magni” stand for?
A. the wedding

C. the engagement

D. The Hindu tradition

B. the paste made from the leave of one another

D. the gesture of acceptance oi one another

Question 30: What do the Hindu people think about marriage?


A. It is entirely a spiritual traditional ritual allowing two individuals to live together
B. It is a belief in the growth of a family newly formed by two individuals
C. It is a wish of happiness and harmony to come to two individuals
D. It is just a living-together announcement of two individuals

Question 31: What can the word adorning be best replaced by?
A. decorating

B. painting

C. repairing

D. dying

A. tells

B. says

C. prays

D. talks

Question 32: What can the word invokes be best replaced by?
Question 33: Why does the couple exchange garlands?
A. to do a ritual

B. to show both their acceptance of and the swear to respect the partner
C. to express their acceptance of one another and a wish of happiness
D. to express their vow to respect each other for the whole life

Question 34: When is the wedding ceremony completed?

A. When the parents ot the bride and the groom give their blessings to the couple
B. When the couple touches their parents’ feet

C. When the couple makes seven steps together

D. When the groom applies a small dot of vermillion of the brides forehead

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
It is hard to think of a world without gas or electricity. Both are commonly used for lighting and heating
today. We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. But it was not long ago that there
were no such things as matches or lighters. To make fire, it was necessary to strike a piece of iron on flint for
sparks to ignite some tinder. If the tinder was damp, or the flint old, you had to borrow some fire from a
neighbor.
We do not know exactly when or how people first used fire. Perhaps, many ages ago, they found that
sticks would burn if they were dropped into some hole where melted lava from a volcano lay boiling. They
brought the lighted sticks back to make their fire in a cave. Or, they may have seen trees catch fire through

being struck by lightning, and used the trees to start their own fires.
Gradually people learned they could start a fire without traveling far to find flames. They rubbed two
pieces ot wood together. This method was used for thousands of years.

When people became used to making fires with which to cook food and stay warm at night, they found
that certain resins or gums from trees burnt longer and brighter. They melted resins and dipped branches in
the liquid to make torches that lit their homes at night. Iron stands in which torches used to be fixed can still be
seen in old buildings of Europe.


There was no lighting in city streets until gas lamps, and then electric lamps were installed. Boys ran
about London at night carrying torches of burning material. They were called torch boys, or link boys, and
earned a living by guiding visitors to friends’ houses at night.

For centuries homes were lit by candles until oil was found. Even then, oil lamps were no more
effective than a cluster of candles. We read about the splendors and marvels of ancient palaces and castles, but
we forget that they must have been gloomy and murky places at night.
Question 35: What does “they” refer to?
A. people

B. ages

C. sticks

D. trees

Question 36: According to the passage the first fire used by people was probably obtained_________.
A. from the suns heat through glass

C. from heat or fire caused by nature

B. by rubbing wood together

D. by striking iron against flint

Question 37: It is stated in the passage that torches for lighting were made from_________.
A. the wood of gum trees

C. wooden poles dipped in oil

B. iron bars dipped in melted resins

D. tree branches dipped in melted resins

Question 38: It is mentioned in the passage that before the electric lamp was invented, _________.
A. oil lamps and then candles were used

B. candles and oil lamps appeared about the same time
C. candles and then oil lamps were used

D. people did not use any form of lighting in their houses

Question 39: The word “splendors” in the passage could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. expensive object

B. places of scenic beauty

C. achievements

D. the beautiful and impressive features

Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following sentence is NOT true?
A. We know exactly when and how people first used fire

B. Before gas lamps and electric lamps appeared, streets were lit by torches

C. We can make a fire by striking a piece of iron on flint to ignite some tinder
D. Matches and lighters were invented not long ago

Question 41: The word “gloomy” in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. nearly dark

B. badly decorated

C. containing a lot of white

D. mysterious

Question 42: What form of street lighting was used in London when link boys used to work there?
A. Gas lighting B. No lighting at all

C. Electric lighting

D. Oil lighting


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Long ago prehistoric man began to domesticate a number of wild plants and animals for his own use. This
not only provided more abundant food but also allowed more people to live on a smaller plot of ground. We

tend to forget that all of our present-day pets, livestock, and food plants were taken from the wild and
developed into the forms we know today.

As centuries passed and human cultures evolved and blossomed, humans began to organize their
knowledge of nature into the broad field of natural history. One aspect of early natural history concerned the
use of plants for drugs and medicine. The early herbalists sometimes overworked their imaginations in this
respect. For example, it was widely believed that a plant or part of a plant that resembles an internal organ
would cure ailments of that organ. Thus, an extract made from a heart-shaped leaf might be prescribed for a
person suffering from heart problems.
Nevertheless, the overall contributions of these early observers provided the rudiments of our present
knowledge of drugs and their uses.
Question 14. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. The beginning of natural history.
C. Early plants and animals.

B. Prehistoric man.

D. Cures from plants.

Question 15. The phrase "in this respect" refers to___________.
A. the origin of knowledge of nature

C. the development of human culture

B. the development of the field of natural history
D. the use of plants for drugs and medicine

Question 16. The word "blossomed" is closest in meaning to___________.
A. produced flowers

B. flourished

C. changed

D. learned

A. design

B. flavor

C. substance

D. ailment

A. proofs

B. beginnings

C. requirements

D. history

Question 17. The word "extract" is closest in meaning to___________.

Question 18. The word "rudiments" is closest in meaning to___________.
Question 19. The word "this" refers to___________.

A. man’s domestication of plants and animals
C. man’s ability to live on a small plot of land

B. providing food for man

D. the earliest condition of prehistoric man

Question 20. Ancient human-being were interested in___________.
A. knowledge of history

C. understanding of nature D. knowledge of drugs

B. science fiction