ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG TỈNH LỚP 10, 11 NĂM HỌC 2010-2011 MÔN TOÁN

SỞ GDĐT BẠC LIÊU KỲ THI CHỌN HSG VÒNG TỈNH
Đề thi chính thức NĂM HỌC 2010 – 2011


Môn thi: Tiếng Anh lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)


Chữ ký, Họ tên
Giám thị 1

Chữ ký, Họ tên
Giám thị 2

Số phách
Do Trưởng ban chấm thi





THÍ SINH ĐIỀN CÁC THƠNG TIN VÀO ĐÂY:

Họ và tên thí sinh ....................................................................................................

Ngày sinh: ..............................................................................................................

Nơi sinh: ................................................................................................................

Trường THPT: .......................................................................................................

Số báo danh: ...................................................... Phòng thi ....................................






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SỞ GDĐT BẠC LIÊU KỲ THI CHỌN HSG VỊNG TỈNH

Đề thi chính thức NĂM HỌC 2010 - 2011
Đề thi 8 trang

(Không gồm trang phách)



Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Lớp 11

Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

LƯU Ý: THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI TRỰC TIẾP TRÊN ĐỀ THI

Điểm Chữ ký,
họ tên GK1

Chữ ký,
họ tên GK2

Mã phách

Bằng
số

Bằng
chữ Do Trưởng ban chấm thi ghi






ĐỀ

PART 1. LISTENING
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

Bài nghe được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 30 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần
nghe có tín hiệu.

Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
Thí sinh cần đọc kỹ các hướng dẫn cho mỗi phần trước khi nghe.



You will hear a talk about the song ‘Happy Birthday’. For questions 1-10, complete the
sentences. Write no more than THREE words for each blanks. (2pts)
The song was first called ‘Good Morning (1) ……………………..’

It was originally intended that (2) …………………….. would sing the song every morning.

The song then became known as ‘Good Morning (3) ……………………..’
Children began to sing the song with ‘Happy Birthday’ words when they were (4) ………… .

The song was sung with ‘Happy Birthday’ words in a (5) …………………….. in 1931 and
then in another one in 1934.

The legal situation concerning the song remains valid (6) …………………….. .
The song is among the (7) …………………….. songs most frequently sung in English.

Money has to be paid for using the song in any (8) ………………………………., eg a TV
show, a toy, etc.

The Hill sisters set up (9) …………………….. that receives money use of the song.
The song consists of just four (10) …………………….. but it is one of the most famous
songs in the world.

PART 2. PHONETICS
I. Circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined letter(s) pronounced
differently from the rest. (1pt)

1. A. loyalty B. embrace C. donation D. celebrate



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2. A. rugby B. music C. undertake D. dull

3. A. famous B. dangerous C. courteous D. resource
4. A. affect B. protect C. expand D. respect

5. A. accompany B. money C. wonder D. solitude
6. A. passes B. potatoes C. dictionaries D. leaves

7. A. honest B. honour C. horse D. hour
8. A. hostess B. cosy C. pesticide D. facsimile

9. A. scenic B. secure C. extinct D. discard

10. A. gather B. betroth C. athlete D. together

II. Circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) whose main stress is placed differently from
the others. (1pt)
1. A. elevate B. element C. elegant D. evacuate

2. A. telescope B. employee C. obvious D. pharmacist
3. A. document B. fountain C. maintain D. access

4. A .industrial B. experiment C. professor D. accidental
5. A. construction B. description C. aggressive D. consideration

6. A. method B. physicist C. magazine D. average
7. A. classmate B. persuade C. problem D. lesson

8. A. malaria B. annoyance C. paradise D. uneasiness
9. A. conceal B. contour C. consul D. contraband

10. A. Spanish B. explorer C. century D. origin

PART 3. LANGUAGE FOCUS
I. Circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence. (1pt)

1. Is a questionnaire answered by 500 people truly ................of national opinion?
A. represent B. represented C. representative D. representation
2. I’ll call you back in ................hour.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
3. The house is ................fire. Please call ....................help!
A. at/ to B. for/ at C. on/for D. up/ for
4. I regret ..............you the story. I really didn’t know it would make you disappointed.
A. to tell B. tell C. telling D. told
5. George asked Mary ........................” Hamlet “.
A. if she had seen B. what she had seen
C. if had she seen D. had she seen
6. The boss often has his secretary .......................the letters.
A. to type B. type C. typing D. typed
7. Of the five students , Mary is........................................
A. more intelligent B. the more intelligent
C. most intelligent D. the most intelligent
8. I would rather wait here.............................the bus.
A. than risking to miss B. as risk missing
C. better than to risk missing D. than risk missing



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9. Virtually all doctors agree....................a second diagnosis in the event of a potentially major
disease.

A. that patients should seek B. patients should be seek
C. patients they seek D. patients that should seek
10. My friend, ......................., is very hopeful about her future.
A. whose father is a millionaire B. of a millionaire’s daughter
C. her father whose is a millionaire D. a millionaire is whose father

II. Circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following
passage. (2pts)
Hardly a week goes by without some advance in technology. That would have seemed
incredible 50 years ago. Over the past 20 years computers have completely (1)..............our
lives. The next 25 years will see as many changes as have been witnessed in the past 150.
These (2)..............in technology are bound to have a dramatic (3)............. on the future of
work. Doctors will find that an electronic (4)................will be able to carry out a much
quicker and more accurate (5)................and recommend more (6)............courses of treatment.
In education, teachers will be largely (7)................by teaching machines far more
(8).................than any human being .What’s more, most learning will take place in the home
via video (9)................. Children will go to school though, until another place is created where
they can make friends and develop social (10)..............through play.
1. A. revolution B. revolutionary C. revolutionized D. revolutionists

2. A. develops B. developing C. developed D. developments
3. A. effect B. effective C. affect D. affection

4. A. competitiveness B. competitor C. competition D. competing
5. A. diagnose B. diagnoses C. diagnosis D. diagnosable

6. A. efficient B. efficiently C. efficiency D. inefficiently
7. A. placed B. places C. replaced D. replacements

8. A. knowledgeable B. acknowledged C. known D. knowledge

9. A. conference B. conferences C. conferencing D. conferment

10. A. skill B. skills C. skillful D. skillfully

III. Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the spaces provided. (1pt)
1. The food was good but the ……………………….. was very slow. (SERVE)
2. After they got ……………………………..., she never remarried. (DIVORCE )

3. I have no ………………………………….. of changing jobs. (INTEND)

4. Nobody in the office had received an ………………………. to the party. (INVITE)

5. The Red Cross is in charge of……………………. of emergency relief. (PROVIDE)
6. All the children are tested in basic ……………………………. . (LITERATE)

7. Did he do it …………………………… or did you make him? (VOLUNTEER)
8. Over 30,000 …………………………. will run in the New York marathon. (COMPETE)

9. I felt extremely…………………………….. when we lost. (DISAPPOINT)
10. The teacher’s comments are designed to help improve your knowledge and
………………………… (UNDERSTAND)

IV. Write the correct tense of the verbs in brackets in the spaced provided. (1pt)



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1. The accident was reported ……………………….(CAUSE) by a reckless motorist.

2. It’s a great pity you didn’t come to Brighton with us last Sunday. As you ……………….
(NEVER, SEE) the sea before, it ………………………… (BE) a new experience.

3. When I get my degree, I …………………… (STUDY) at this school for four years.
4. When I see my sister again, she ……………………… (FINISH) all her exam.

5. I didn’t do the task well. I ……………………….. (PREPARE) it very carefully at home.
6. My uncle would rather that I ……………………… (NOT, LEAVE) yesterday.

7. Who was the girl you …………………… (TALK) to when I …………………… (PASS)
you in the street?

8. This time next year I …………………..(PROBABLY, LIVE) on the other side of the
world.
V. Circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence (1pt)
1. Come …………….., children! Get your coat on or you’ll be late for school.

A. to B. across C. on D. over
2. All her hard work paid………….in the end and she’s now very successful.

A. up B. out C. back D. off
3. According……………some experts, musical ability is actually determined by a gene.

A. to B. across C. along D. over
4. Often it is a teacher they had as a child that has had an enormous influence…………their
career

A. over B. across C. along D. on
5. He’s always in a bad mood when he ……………..

A. wakes up B. wash up C. wake of D. go to sleep
6. Tom always ……………..his toys when he’s finished playing with them.

A. puts off B. gives up C. puts away D. puts on
7. “What’s that noise?” “I think it’s fireworks ……….in the park”

A. go on B. going off C. taking off D. get on
8. The doors and the windows were locked and they couldn’t…………

A. get out of B. get out C. get up D. get over
9. I’ve …………sugar. I’ll see if I can borrow some.

A. run along B. run at C. run out of D. run away with
10. Don’t be afraid to …………..your mistakes.

A. own back on B. own up C. own against D. own up to

VI. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (2pts)
1. When I came to the square, I saw a lot of people there.
Coming ......................................................................................................................

2. He has attended our English-speaking club for a year.

He started ...................................................................................................................

3. To do morning exercise regularly is very good for health.
People find ................................................................................................................

4. Fossil fuel won’t be more expensive if scientists get energy from the wind and the sun.

Unless .........................................................................................................................

5. “Why don’t we go to the library for self-studying?”



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I .................................................................................................................................

6. Lan watches television four hours a day. So does Mai.
Mai spends .................................................................................................................

7. The Cherokee Indians have an alphabet that consists of eighty-five characters.
The Cherokee .............................................................................................................

8. Ho Chi Minh city is the biggest city in Viet Nam.
It ................................................................................................................................

9. The secretary asked him to wait for her manager there.

The secretary made ....................................................................................................

10. I come from a city that is located in the southern part of the country.
I .................................................................................................................................

PART 3. READING
I. Fill in each blank with only ONE suitable word in the numbered spaces provided.
(1pt)
In 1885, the US Post Office had a(n) (1) ………………. in the southern state of Florida. The

(2) ……………… service from the Lake Worth to Biscayne Bay was talking six weeks. They

found a solution – a 136 mile route which took three days. It (3) …………….. that the

mailmen had to walk barefoot along beaches for eighty miles and then cover the remaining

fifty-six miles by boat. This difficult job was first (4) ……………… out by mailman Edwin R

Bradley. In the summer of 1887, James “Ed” Hamilton took over deliveries but a few months

later his career ended suddenly in (5) ……………….. which made him famous in the Post

Office.

The Autumn weather that year was served. On 9th October, Hamilton felt unwell as he

set off. (6) ……………… this, he arrived at his first stop, Orange Grove. His next call should

have been at a place (7) ……………… Fort Lauderdale Refuge. This time he didn’t arrive

and he was (8) ……………. seen again. (9) …….. ………ever found out what happened to

him.

In 1892, a road was built and the days of the barefoot mailmen were over. However, their

story has never been (10) …….……... . There are annual walks along the route, and a book

and film have been made about them

II. Read the passage and do the following task. (1pt)
OVER-POPULATION?

by Norman Macrae
Since 1974, all UN World Population Conferences have over-estimated the annual growth of
world population, but in fact the rate of growth has been declining. We have now reached the
stage when the average number of children per woman is falling fast in most of the world.
The rate has come down sharply, with increasing prosperity, even in Catholic Latin America.
The high rates of six or seven children now only exist in Africa and some parts of the Islamic
world.



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A World Bank study finds that in areas where there no girls in secondary schools, the average
women has seven children. If we continue with UN Population Conferences every ten years (
1974, 1984, 1994), the Conference in 2004 will produce the opposite panic to today’s. This is
that we are breeding too few babies.
But we will then make the awful discovery that we are keeping alive too many of the world’s
old people because most citizens in rich countries will properly start to live through their
nineties. We have made medical care a universal right, free for the old – who need much more
medical care than younger patients. We have abandoned the culture whereby the elderly live
with the family at just the wrong moment. From The Economist, December 1994.
* Match the first half of the sentences in column A with the other half in column B
according to what you have read.
Column A Column B
1. The factual rate of population growth has
been declining,

a. the number of children per woman is still
high.

2. The average number of children per
woman has fallen together with

b. that is too few babies will be born.

3. Where girls do not receive education, c. in contrast with the estimations by UN
World Population Conferences.

4. In the future the opposite situation may
occur,

d. more people in rich countries living
through their nineties.

5. Free medical care for the elderly result in e. better living standards even in poor
areas.

* Answer:
1. ………. 2. ………. 3. ………. 4. ………. 5. ……….

III. Read the passage and do the following tasks. (2pts)
The starting point for many new collections is to ask family and friends to save stamps from
their incoming mail. Although the stamps received by major businesses, and those kept by
elderly relatives, may be of international and historical interest, the stamps received from
family members are often of the definitive sort. Definitives seem mundane but, considering
their variety of colours, watermarks, paper differences, perforations and printing errors, they

can fill many pages in a collection. Introducing either variety or specific focus to a collection
can require the purchasing of stamps, either from a dealer or on line. Large numbers of
relatively recent stamps, often still attached to fragments or envelopes, may be obtained
cheaply and easily. Rare and old stamps can also be easily obtained via similar channels, with
costs extending far beyond the means of all but a tiny minority of collectors.
Duplicate stamps are the stamps that a collector already has, and are therefore not required to
fill a gap in a collection. Duplicate stamps can be sold or traded, so they are an important
medium of exchange among collectors.
Many stamp dealers sell their merchandise over the Internet. Others have neighborhood stamp
shops, one of the best resources for the beginning and intermediate collectors. Some dealers
also jointly set up weekend stamp markets called “Bourses” that move around a region from
week to week. They also meet collectors at regional exhibitions and stamp shows.
* Decide whether the statements are true (T), false (F) or not given (N).
1. ………. Stamps from major businesses are more beautiful and expensive than those

from friends and relatives.
2. ………. Definitive stamps are common stamps about different fields in everyday life.

3. ………. Rare and old stamps cannot be obtained from a dealer or online.
4. ………. Collectors often exchange duplicate stamps with each other.

5. ………. Beginning collectors can find stamps in a stamp shop.



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6. ……. “Bourses”, exhibitions and stamps shows are held every week for stamp dealers.
* Read the passage again and circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that best
completes each sentence.

7. What does the word “those” in paragraph 1 refer to?
A. major businesses B. family and friends
C. stamps D. new collectors
8. What of the following is the word “relatively” in paragraph 1 closest in meaning to?
A. fairly B. well C. extremely D. enormously
9. The word “via” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by ………. .
A. from B. through C. with D. on
10. The word “jointly” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to the word……….. .
A. equally B. individually C. together D. regularly

PART 4. WRITING

I. (1pt) Imagine you were a student of class 11A, high school X. Write a paragraph
(about 100 words) to describe your class’s celebration for the Women’s day. In your
description, you should tell about the main activities, and your feeling about the
celebration.
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II. Imagine you were a student of high school X. Write a paragraph (about 200 words) to
express what you like and dislike about your school library, and suggest what should be
improved to help the library serve the students better. (2pts)

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---Hết---



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SỞ GDĐT BẠC LIÊU KỲ THI CHỌN HSG VỊNG TỈNH

Đề thi chính thức NĂM HỌC 2010 – 2011

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh lớp 11



Part 1. LISTENING
0.2pt x 10 = 2pts
1. to All 2. the teacher(s)
3. to You 4. at parties
5. show 6. until 2030
7. 3 (three) 8. profit-making enterprise
9. a foundation 10. (short) musical phrases
Part 2. PHONETICS
I. 0.1pt x 10 = 1pt
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C
II. 0.1pt x 10 = 1pt
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B
Part 3. LANGUAGE FOCUS
I. 0.1pt x 10 = 1pt
1. C 2. B 3. C 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.D 8. D 9. A 10. A
II. 0.2pt x 10 = 2pts
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. B
III. 0.1pt x 10 = 1pt
1. service 2. divorced 3. intension 4. invitation 5. provision
6. literacy 7. Voluntarily 8. competitors 9. disappointed 10. understanding
IV. 0.1pt x 10 = 1pt
1. to have been caused 2. have never seen; would have been
3. will have been studying 4. will have finished

5. should have prepared 6. hadn’t left
7. were talking; passed 8. will probably be living
V. 0.1pt x 10 = 1pt
1. C 2.D 3.A 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.C 10.D
VI. 0.2pt x 10 = 2pts
1. Coming to the square, I saw a lot of people there.
2. He started attending our English-speaking club last year.
3. People find it very good for health to do morning exercise regularly.
4. Unless scientists get energy from the wind and the sun, fossil fuel will be more expensive.
5. I suggest going to the library for self-studying.
6. Mai spends as much time (on) watching television as Lan (does).
7. The Cherokee Indians have an alphabet consisting of eighty-five characters.
8. It is Ho Chi Minh city that is the biggest city in Viet Nam.
9. The secretary made him wait for her manager there.
10. I come from a city located in the southern part of the country.
Part 4. READING
I. 0.2pt x 10 = 2pts
1. problem 2. delivery 3. meant 4. thought 5. circumstances
6. Despite 7. called 8. never 9. Nobody 10. forgotten



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II. 0.2pt x 5 = 1pt
1. C 2. E 3. A 4. B 5. D
III. 0.2pt x 10 = 2pts
1. N 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. T 6. N
7. C 8. A 9. B 10. C
Part 5. WRITING (3pts)

Examiners assess the answer according to these criteria:

 Task Achievement (i.e. how effectively the candidate has identified, illustrated and
reported the key features of the information in the task)

 Coherence and Cohesion (i.e. how well the information and ideas are organised, and
how well the information is linked)

 Lexical Resource (i.e. the range of vocabulary used, how accurately it is used and how
appropriate it is for the task)

 Grammatical Range and Accuracy (i.e. the range of structures used, how accurately
they are used and how appropriate they are for the task)

The candidates will be penalised if
 they write less than the minimum word limit they will be penalised.
 their response is off-topic, irrelevant.
 their answer is not written as full, connected text (e.g. using bullet points in any part of
the response, or note form etc.)

Mark table: Task I:

1.00 Excellent

Candidates are able to understand information that is presented in
diagram/graph/chart/table form. They must also be able to choose
the most significant information to include in their description and
be sure to focus on the overall trends within the data (if data is
presented) in order to give an overview of it. They may also need to
compare and contrast information.

0.8 – 0.9 Very good Good vocabulary and structure, above the simple sentence level.
Errors non-basic.

0.6 – 0.7 Good Simple but accurate realisation of task. Sufficient naturalness, not
many errors.

0.5 Pass Reasonably correct if awkward OR natural treatment of subject
with some serious errors.

0.3 – 0.4 Weak Vocabulary and grammar inadequate for the task set.
0.0 – 0.2 Very poor Incoherent. Errors showing lack of basic knowledge of English.

Task II:

2.00 Excellent

Candidates are able to understand information that is presented in
diagram/graph/chart/table form. They must also be able to choose
the most significant information to include in their description and
be sure to focus on the overall trends within the data (if data is
presented) in order to give an overview of it. They may also need to
compare and contrast information.

2.0 - <1.5 Very good Good vocabulary and structure, above the simple sentence level.
Errors non-basic.

1.5 - <2.0 Good Simple but accurate realisation of task. Sufficient naturalness, not
many errors.

1.0 - <1.5 Pass Reasonably correct if awkward OR natural treatment of subject
with some serious errors.

0.5 - <1.0 Weak Vocabulary and grammar inadequate for the task set.
0.0 - <0.5 Very poor Incoherent. Errors showing lack of basic knowledge of English.

---Hết---