76 bài tập đọc HIỂU (570 câu )từ đề cô DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG image marked image marked

BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU
EXERCISE 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Carnegie Hall, which is a famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration.
While this is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building’s history. As a result of this
new restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built.
Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in the late
1800s. The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing arts hall
where accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation, the concert hall suffered from several
detrimental renovations over the years. During the Great Depression, when fewer people could afford to
attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial businesses. As a result, a coffee
shop was opened in one comer of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick and terra cotta
walls with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality of the hall when
the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to allow for lights and
air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling, but the hall never sounded the
same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stem became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate
developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site.
This threat spurred Stem to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New York to
buy the property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city. In the
current restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced the hole in
the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and closed
the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never looked
more promising.
Question 1: What is this passage mainly about?
A. Changes to Carnegie Hall
B. The appearance of Carnegie Hall
C. Carnegie Hall’s history during the Great Depression
D. Damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall
Question 2: In the second paragraph, what is the meaning of the word “detrimental”?
A. Dangerous

B. Significant

C. Extreme

Question 3: What major change happened to the hall in 1946?
A. The acoustic dome was damaged.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.

D. Harmful


C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The stage was renovated.
Question 4: Who was Andrew Carnegie?
A. A violinist

B. An architect

C. A steel mill owner

D. The mayor of New York City

Question 5: What was Isaac Stem’s relationship to Carnegie Hall?
A. He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.
B. He performed on opening night in 1891.
C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.
D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression.
Question 6: What was probably the most important aspect of the recent renovation?
A. Restoring the outer wall

B. Expanding the lobby

C. Restoring the plaster trim

D. Repairing the ceiling

Question 7: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “unveiled” in the last paragraph?
A. Announced

B. Restricted

C. Overshadowed

D. Located

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 1
Exercise 2:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Happiness and sadness are experienced by people in all cultures around the world, but how can we tell
when other people are happy or despondent? It turns out that the expression of many emotions may be
universal. Smiling is apparently a universal sign of friendliness and approval. Baring the teeth in a hostile
way, as noted by Charles Darwin in the nineteenth century, may be a universal sign of anger. As the
originator of the theory of evolution, Darwin believed that the universal recognition of facial expressions
would have survival value. For example, facial expressions could signal the approach of enemies (or
friends) in the absence of language.
Most investigators concur that certain facial expressions suggest the same emotions in all people.
Moreover, people in diverse cultures recognize the emotions manifested by the facial expressions. In
classic research Paul Ekman took photographs of people exhibiting the emotions of anger, disgust, fear,
happiness, and sadness. He then asked people around the world to indicate what emotions were being

depicted in them. Those queried ranged from European college students to members of the Fore, a tribe
that dwells in the New Guinea highlands. All groups, including the Fore, who had almost no contact with
Western culture, agreed on the portrayed emotions. The Fore also displayed familiar facial expressions
when asked how they would respond if they were the characters in stories that called for basic emotional
responses. Ekman and his colleagues more recently obtained similar results in a study of ten cultures in


which participants were permitted to report that multiple emotions were shown by facial expressions. The
participants generally agreed on which two emotions were being shown and which emotion was more
intense.
Psychological researchers generally recognize that facial expressions reflect emotional states. In fact,
various emotional states give rise to certain patterns of electrical activity in the facial muscles and in the
brain. The facial-feedback hypothesis argues, however, that the causal relationship between emotions and
facial expressions can also work in the opposite direction. According to this hypothesis, signals from the
facial muscles (“feedback) are sent back to emotion centers of the brain, and so a person’s facial
expression can influence that person’s emotional state. Consider Darwin’s words: “The free expression by
outward signs of an emotion intensifies it. On the other hand, the repression, as far as possible, of all
outward signs softens our emotions.” Can smiling give rise to feelings of good will, for example, and
frowning to anger?
Psychological research has given rise to some interesting findings concerning the facial-feedback
hypothesis. Causing participants in experiments to smile, for example, leads them to report more positive
feelings and to rate cartoons (humorous drawings of people or situations) as being more humorous. When
they are caused to frown, they rate cartoons as being more aggressive.
What are the possible links between facial expressions and emotion? One link is arousal, which is the
level of activity or preparedness for activity in an organism. Intense contraction of facial muscles, such as
those used in signifying fear, heightens arousal. Self-perception of heightened arousal then leads to
heightened emotional activity. Other links may involve changes in brain temperature and the release of
neurotransmitters (substances that transmit nerve impulses.) The contraction of facial muscles both
influences the internal emotional state and reflects it. Ekman has found that the so-called Duchenne smile,
which is characterized by “crow’s feet” wrinkles around the eyes and a subtle drop in the eye cover fold

so that the skin above the eye moves down slightly toward the eyeball, can lead to pleasant feelings.
Ekman’s observation may be relevant to the British expression “keep a stiff upper lip” as a
recommendation for handling stress. It might be that a “stiff” lip suppresses emotional response - as long
as the lip is not quivering with fear or tension. But when the emotion that leads to stiffening the lip is
more intense, and involves strong muscle tension, facial feedback may heighten emotional response.
Question 8. The word “despondent” in the passage is closest in meaning to .............................
A. Curious

B. Unhappy

C. Thoughtful

D. Uncertain

Question 9. The author mentions “Baring the teeth in a hostile way” in order to ..........................
A. Differentiate one possible meaning of a particular facial expression from other meanings of its
B. Support Darwin’s theory of evolution
C. Provide an example of a facial expression whose meaning is widely understood


D. Contrast a facial expression that is easily understood with other facial expressions
Question 10. The word “them” in the passage refers to .............................
A. Emotions

B. People

C. Photographs

D. Cultures

Question 11. According to paragraph 2, which of the following was TRUE about the Fore people of New
Guinea?
A. They did not want to be shown photographs.
B. They were famous for their story-telling skills.
C. They knew very little about Western culture.
D. They did not encourage the expression of emotions.
Question 12. According to the passage, what did Darwin believe would happen to human emotions that
were not expressed?
A. They would become less intense.

B. They would last longer than usual.

C. They would cause problems later.

D. They would become more negative

Question 13. According to the passage, research involving which of the following supported the facialfeedback hypothesis?
A. The reactions of people in experiments to cartoons
B. The tendency of people in experiments to cooperate
C. The release of neurotransmitters by people during experiments
D. The long-term effects of repressing emotions
Question 14. The word “rate” in the passage is closest in meaning to ........................ .
A. Judge

B. Reject

C. Draw

D. Want

Question 15. According to the passage, stiffening the upper lip may have which of the following effects?
A. It first suppresses stress, then intensifies it.
B. It may cause fear and tension in those who see it.
C. It can damage the lip muscles.
D. It may either heighten or reduce emotional response.
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 1
Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
After twenty years of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in
the United States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard’s MBA School has shown a substantial
increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their
enrollments. Since 1990, the number of people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA)


degrees, has dropped about 3 percent to 75,000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to
continue.
There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that
many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on
Wall Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entry- level management
jobs are going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as
those holding MBA degrees. Students have asked the question, “Is an MBA degree really what I need to
be best prepared for getting a good job?” The second major factor has been the cutting of American
payrolls and the lower number of entry-level jobs being offered. Business needs are changing, and MBA
schools are struggling to meet the new demands.
Question 16. What is the main focus of this passage?
A. Jobs on Wall Street
B. Types of graduate degrees
C. Changes in enrollment for MBA schools
D. How schools are changing to reflect the economy
Question 17. The word “prosperity” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the

following?
A. success

B. surplus

C. nurturing

D. education

Question 18. Which of the following business schools has shown an increase in enrollment?
A. Princeton

B. Harvard

C. Stanford

D. Yale

Question 19. Which of the following descriptions most likely applies to Wall Street?
A. a center for international affairs

B. a major financial center

C. a shopping district

D. a neighborhood in New York

Question 20: According to the passage, what are two causes of declining business school enrollments?
A. lack of necessity for an MBA and an ecorfomic recession
B. low salary and foreign competition

C. fewer MBA schools and fewer entry-level jobs
D. declining population and economic prosperity
Question 21: As used in the second paragraph, the word “struggling” is closest in meaning to
_________.
A. evolving

B. plunging

C. starting

Question22: Which of the following might be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. MBA schools’ efforts to change
B. Future economic predictions

D. striving


C. A history of the recent economic changes
D. Descriptions of non-MBA graduate programs
Exercise 4:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The main cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid
removes minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages
remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends
on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of
the plaque have been “primed” by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental
hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in
the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling
saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are

forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack
by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early
carious lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce
your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not
between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful
acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva.
Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth
after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective. Whenever possible, eat foods
with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that scrape off plaque, acting as a
toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when eating sweets.
Question 23. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Good nutrition

B. Food with fiber

C. Ways to keep your teeth health

D. Fluoridization and cavities

Question 24. According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT
_________.
A. It consists of acid producing bacteria
B. It is not affected by eating sweets
C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva


Question 25. We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is _________ .
A. It strengthens tooth enamel

B. It stimulates saliva production
C. It makes teeth whiter
D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
Question 26. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. dental floss

B. bacteria

C. removal ofplaque

D. plaque

Question 27. What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
Question 28. The word “scrape off” in line 29 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. repel

B. rub together with

C. remove

D. dissolve

Question 29. According to the passage, the value of eating foods with fiber is that _________.
A. they contain Vitamin A
B. they are less expensive than a toothbrush
C. they are able to remove the plaque from your teeth

D. they contain no sugar
Question 30. The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your
saliva increases _________.
A. with the amount of sweets you eat

B. with the number of times you eat sweets

C. if you eat sweets with your meals

D. if you eat sticky sweets

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 2
Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Because the low latitudes of the Earth, the areas near the equator, receive more heat than the latitudes
near the poles, and because the nature of heat is to expand and move, heat is transported from the tropics
to the middle and high latitudes. Some of this heat is moved by winds and some by ocean currents, and
some gets stored in the atmosphere in the form of latent heat. The term “latent heat” refers to the energy
that has to be used to convert liquid water to water vapor. We know that if we warm a pan of water on a
stove, it will evaporate, or turn into vapor, faster than if it is allowed to sit at room temperature. We also


know that if we hang wet clothes outside in the summertime, they will dry faster than in winter, when the
temperature is lower. The energy used in both cases to change liquid water to water vapor is supplied by
heat - supplied by the stove in the first case and by the Sun in the latter case. This energy is not lost. It is
stored as vapor in the atmosphere as latent heat. Eventually, the water stored as vapor in the atmosphere
will condense to liquid again, and the energy will be released to the atmosphere.
In the atmosphere, a large portion of the Sun’s incoming energy is used to evaporate water, primarily in
the tropical oceans. Scientists have tried to quantify this proportion of the Sun’s energy. By analyzing
temperature, water vapor, and wind data around the globe, they have estimated the quantity to be about 90

watts per square meter, or nearly 30 percent of the Sun’s energy. Once this latent heat is stored within the
atmosphere, it can be transported, primarily to higher latitudes, by prevailing, large - scale winds. Or it
can be transported vertically to higher levels in the atmosphere, where it forms clouds and subsequent
storms, which then release the energy back to the atmosphere.
Question 31: The passage mainly discusses how heat ___________________
A. is transformed and transported in the Earth’s atmosphere.
B. is transported by ocean currents.
C. can be measured and analyzed by scientists.
D. moves about the Earth’s equator.
Question32: The passage mentions that the tropics differ from the Earth’s polar regions in which of the
following ways?
A. The height of cloud formation in the atmosphere.
B. The amount of heat they receive from the Sun.
C. The strength of their large scale winds.
D. The strength of their oceanic currents.
Question 33: The word “convert” is closest in meaning to ___________________ .
A. mix

B. change

C. adapt

D. reduce

Question 34: Why does the author mention “the stove” in the passage?
A. To describe the heat of the Sun.
B. To illustrate how water vapor is stored.
C. To show how energy is stored.
D. To give an example of a heat source
Question 35: According to the passage, most ocean water evaporation occurs especially _________ .

A. around the higher latitudes

B. in the tropics

C. because of large - scale winds

D. because of strong ocean currents

Question 36: According to the passage, 30 percent of the Sun’s incoming energy __________


A. is stored in clouds in the lower latitudes
B. is transported by ocean currents
C. never leaves the upper atmosphere
D. gets stored as latent heat
Question 37: The underlined word “it” refers to ___________________ .
A. square meter

B. the Sun’s energy

C. latent heat

D. the atmosphere

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 3
Exercise 6:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Often the craft worker’s place of employment in ancient Greece was set in rural isolation. Potter, for
instance, found it convenient to locate their workshops near their source of clay, regardless of its relation

to the center of settlement, At Corinth and Athens, however, two of the best-known potters’ quarters were
situated on the cities’ outskirts, and potters and makers of terra-cotta figurines were also established well
within the city of Athens itself. The techniques of pottery manufacture had evolved well before the Greek
period, but marked stylistic developments occurred in shape and in decoration, for example, in the
interplay of black and other glazes with the red surface of the fired pot. Athenian black-figure and redfigure decoration, which emphasized human figures rather than animal images, was adopted between 630
and 530 B.C.; its distinctive color and luster were the result of the skillful adjustments of the kiln’s
temperature during an extended three-stage period if firing the clayware. Whether it was the potters or the
vase-painters who initiated changes in firing is unclear; the functions of making and decorating were
usually divided between them, but neither group can have been so specialized that they did not share in
the concerns of the other.
The broad utility of terra-cotta was such that workers in clay could generally afford to confine
themselves to either decorated housewares like cooking pots and jars or building materials like roof tiles
and drainpipes. Some sixth-and fifth-century B.C. Athenian pottery establishments are known to have
concentrated on a limited range of fine ware, but a rural pottery establishment on the island of Tliasos
produced many types of pottery and roof tiles too, presumably to meet local demand. Molds were used to
create particular effects for some products, such as relief-decorated vessels and figurines; for other
products such as roof tiles, which were needed in some quantity, they were used to facilitate mass
production. There were also a number of poor-quality figurines and painted pots produced in quantity by
easy, inexpensive means- as numerous featureless statuettes and unattractive cases testify.
Question 38: The passage mainly discusses ancient Greek pottery and its __________ .


A. production techniques

B. similarity to other crafts

C. unusual materials

D. resemblance to earlier pottery

Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that most pottery establishments in ancient Greece were
situated ___________ .
A. in city centers

B. on the outskirts of cities

C. where clay could be found

D. near other potters’ workshops

Question 40: The word “marked” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________ .
A. original

B. attractive

C. noticeable

D. patterned

Question 41: The word “confine” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. adapt

B. train

C. restrict

D. organize

Question42: It can be inferred from the passage that terra-cotta had which of the following advantages?
A. It did not break during the firing process.

B. It was less expensive than other available materials.
C. Its surface had a lasting shine.
D. It could be used for many purposes.
Question 43: The word “presumably” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________
A. frequently

B. practically

C. preferably

D. probably

Question 44: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to __________________.
A. molds

B. particular effects

C. products

D. vessels and figurines

Question 45: According to the passage, all of the following are true of ancient Greek potters and vase
painters EXCEPT __________________.
A. Their functions were so specialized that they lacked common concerns.
B. They sometimes produced inferior ware.
C. They produced pieces that had unusual color and shine.
D. They decorated many of their works with human images
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 3
Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember past events, anticipate future
ones, make plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are
cautious about the extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing.
Explanations of animal behavior that leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions
entirely to instinct leave many questions unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior:


Honeybees communicate the sources of nectar to one another by doing a dance in a figure-eight pattern.
The orientation of the dance conveys the position of the food relative to the sun’s position in the sky, and
the speed of the dance tells how far the food source is from the hive. Most researchers assume that the
ability to perform and encode the dance is innate and shows no special intelligence. But in one study,
when experimenters kept changing the site of the food source, each time moving the food 25 percent
farther from the previous site, foraging honeybees began to anticipate where the food source would
appear next. When the researchers arrived at the new location, they would find the bees circling the spot,
waiting for their food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose brains weigh four ten-thousandths of an
ounce, could have inferred the location of the new site.
Other behaviors that may indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter
who uses a stone to crack mussel shells, are capable of using objects in the natural environment as
rudimentary tools. One researcher has found that mother chimpanzees occasionally show their young
how to use tools to open hard nuts. In one study, chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells
containing chocolate chips. Allowed to choose which pair they wanted, the chimpanzees almost always
chose the one with the higher total, showing some sort of summing ability. Other chimpanzees have
learned to use numerals to label quantities of items and do simple sums.
Question 46: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The role of instinct in animal behavior
B. Observations that suggest consciousness in animal behavior
C. The use of food in studies of animal behavior
D. Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory
experiments.
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT discussed as an ability animals are thought to have?

A. Selecting among choices

B. Anticipating events to come

C. Remembering past experiences

D. Communicating emotions

Question48: What is the purpose of the honeybee dance?
A. To determine the quantity of food at a site
B. To communicate the location of food
C. To increase the speed of travel to food sources
D. To identify the type of nectar that is available
Question 49: The word “yet” in line 15 is closest in meaning to
A. however

B. since

C. generally

D. so far

Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that brain size is assumed to _________.
A. be an indicator of cognitive ability

B. vary among individuals within a species


C. be related to food consumption

D. correspond to levels of activity

Question 51: Why are otters and mussel shells included in the discussion in paragraph 3?
A. To provide that certain species demonstrate greater ability in tool use than other species.
B. To provide an example of tool use among animals.
C. To show that animals are very good at using objects in their habitat.
D. To provide an example of the use of weapons among animals.
Question 52: The phrase “the one” in paragraph 3 refers to the _________ .
A. study

B. pair

C. chimpanzee

D. ability

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 5
Exercise 8:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The Native American peoples of the north Pacific Coast created a highly complex maritime culture
as they invented modes of production unique to their special environment. In addition to their
sophisticated technical culture, they also attained one of the most complex social organizations of any
nonagricultural people in the world.
In a division of labor similar to that of the hunting peoples in the interior and among foraging
peoples throughout the world, the men did most of the fishing, and the women processed the catch.
Women also specialized in the gathering of the abundant shellfish that lived closer to shore. They
collected oysters, crabs, sea urchins, abalone, and clams, which they could gather while remaining close
to their children. The maritime life harvested by the women not only provided food, but also supplied
more of the raw materials for making tools than did fish gathered by the men. Of particular importance
for the native tool than did the fish gathered by the men. Of particular made from the larger mussel shells,

and a variety of cutting edges that could be made from other marine shells.
The women used their tools to process all of the fish and marine mammals brought in by the men.
They cleaned the fish, and dried vast quantities of them for the winter. They sun - dried fish when
practical, but in the rainy climate of the coastal area they also used smokehouses to preserve tons of fish
and other seafood annually. Each product had its own peculiar characteristics that demanded a particular
way of cutting or drying the meat, and each task required its own cutting blades and other utensils.
After drying the fish, the women pounded some of them into fish meal, which was an easily
transported food used in soups, stews, or other dishes to provide protein and thickening in the absence of
fresh fish or while on long trips. The women also made a cheese-like substance from a mixture of fish and
roe by aging it in storehouses or by burying it in wooden boxes or pits lined with rocks and tree leaves.


Question 53: Which aspect of the lives of the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast does the
passage mainly discuss?
A. Methods of food preservation
B. How diet was restricted by the environment
C. The contributions of women to the food supply
D. Difficulties in establishing successful farms
Question 54: The word “unique” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. comprehensible

B. productive

C. intentional

D. particular

Question 55: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the social organization of many agricultural peoples
is _________ .
A. more complex than that of hunters and foragers

B. less efficient than that of hunters and foragers
C. more widespread than that of hunters and foragers
D. better documented than that of hunters and foragers
Question 56: According to the passage, what is true of the “division of labor” mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. It was first developed by Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast.
B. It rarely existed among hunting
C. It was a structure that the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast shared with many other
peoples.
D. It provided a form of social organization that was found mainly among coastal peoples.
Question 57: All of the following are true of the north Pacific coast women EXCEPT that they .
A. were more likely to catch shellfish than other kinds of fish
B. contributed more materials for tool making than the men did
C. sometimes searched for food far inland from the coast
D. prepared and preserved the fish
Question 58. The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to _________ .
A. women

B. tools

C. mammals

D. men

Question 59. The Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast used smokehouses in order to _________ .
A. store utensils used in food preparation
B. prevent fish and shellfish from spoiling
C. have a place to store fish and shellfish
D. prepare elaborate meals
Question 60. All of following are true of the cheese-like substance mentioned in paragraph 4 EXCEPT
that it was _________ .

A. made from fish

B. not actually cheese

C. useful on long journeys

D. made in a short period of time

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 5
Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Foot-racing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but
also as a way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a
good cause. Though serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers
might not train at all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply
to enjoy the fun and exercise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who may be pushed in
strollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college
campuses, through parks, and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest footrace in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San
Francisco every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on
the west side at the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the
streets and hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might
finish in as little as 34 minutes. Behind them are the thousands who take several hours to finish. In the
back of the race are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of
men who dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in
a long line and who were carrying a fire-hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was
dressed in a long white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to
bystanders, and they were actually married at some point along the route.

Question 61. The main purpose of this passage is to _________.
A. encourage people to exercise
B. describe a popular activity
C. make fun of runners in costume
D. give reasons for the popularity of footraces
Question 62. The word “camaraderie” as used in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of
the following?
A. games

B. companionship

C. jokes

Question 63. Which of the following is NOT implied by the author?
A. Footraces appeal to a variety of people.
B. Walkers can compete for prizes.
C. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization.

D. views


D. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
Question 64. The word “beat” as used in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. incline

B. overturn

C. outdo

D. undermine

Question 65. In what lines does the author give reasons for why people enter footraces?
A. Foot-racing... and exercise.

B. People of all ages... in length.

The largest... 34 minutes.

D. Behind them... a fire-hose.

Question 66. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley.
B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.
C. Some runners were participating in a wedding.
D. Some runners were serious about winning.
Question 67. A “bystander” as used in the last paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. a walker

B. a participant

C. a spectator

D. a judge

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 6
Exercise 10:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Industrialization came to the United State after 1790 as North American entrepreneurs increased
productivity by reorganizing work and building factories. These innovations in manufacturing boosted

output and living standards to an unprecedented extent; the average per capita wealth increased by nearly
1 percent per year - 30 percent over the course of a generation. Goods that had once been luxury items
became part of everyday life.
The impressive gain in output stemmed primarily from the way in which workers made goods, since
the 1790’s, North American entrepreneurs - even without technological improvements - had broadened
the scope of the outwork system that made manufacturing more efficient by distributing materials to a
succession of workers who each performed a single step of the production process. For example, during
the 1820’s and 1830’s the shoe industry greatly expanded the scale of the outwork system. Tens of
thousands of rural women, paid according to the amount they produced, fabricated the “uppers” of shoes,
which were bound to the soles by wage-earning journeymen shoemakers in dozens of Massachusetts
towns, whereas previously journeymen would have made the enduring shoe. This system of production
made the employer a powerful “shoe boss” and eroded workers’ control over the pace and conditions of
labor. However, it also dramatically increased the output of shoes while cutting their price.


For tasks that were not suited to the outwork system, entrepreneurs created an even more important
new organization, the modem factory, which used power-driven machines and assemblyline techniques to
turn out large quantities of well-made goods. As early as 1782 the prolific Delaware inventor Oliver
Evans had built a highly automated, laborsaving flour mill driven by water power. His machinery lifted
the grain to the top of the milt, cleaned it as it fell into containers known as hoppers, ground the grain into
flour, and then conveyed the flour back to the top of the mill to allow it to cool as it descended into
barrels. Subsequently, manufacturers made use of new improved stationary steam engines to power their
mills. This new technology enabled them to build factories in the nation’s largest cities, taking advantage
of urban concentrations of inexpensive labor, good transportation networks, and eager customers.
Question 68. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The difficulties of industrialization in North America
B. The influence of changes in manufacturing on the growth of urban centers
C. The rapid speed of industrialization in North America
D. Improved ways of organizing the manufacturing of goods
Question 69. The word “scope” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.

A. value

B. popularity

C. extent

D. diversity

Question 70. The author mentions the shoe industry in the second paragraph to provide an example of
how
A. entrepreneurs increased output by using an extended outwork system
B. entrepreneurs used technological improvements to increase output
C. rural workers responded to “shoe bosses”
D. changes in the outwork system improved the quality of shoes
Question 71. All of the following are true of the outwork system EXCEPT _________.
A. It involved stages of production.
B. It was more efficient than the systems used before 1790.
C. It made many employers less powerful than they had been before.
D. It did not necessarily involve any technological improvements.
Question 72. The word “prolific” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. famous

B. productive

C. self-employed

D. progressive

Question 73. According to the passage, how did later mills differ from the mills built by Oliver Evans?
A. They were located away from large cities.

B. They used new technology to produce power.
C. They did not allow flour to cool before it was placed in Barrels.
D. They combined technology with the outwork system.


Question 74. The passage mentions which of the following as a result of improvements in factory
machinery?
A. It become easier for factory’ owners to find workers and customers.
B. Manufacturers had to employ more highly skilled workers.
C. The amount of power required for factories operate was reduced.
D. Factories could operate more than one engine at a time.
Question 75. The word “eager” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. wealthy

B. knowledgeable

C. regular

.
D. enthusiastic

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 6
Exercise 11: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
In 1900 the United States had only three cities with more than a million residents-New York,
Chicago, and Philadelphia. By 1930, it had ten giant metropolises. The newer ones experienced
remarkable growth, which reflected basic changes in the economy. The population of Los Angeles
(114,000 in 1900) rose spectacularly in the early decades of the twentieth century, increasing a dramatic
1,400 percent from 1900 to 1930.
A number of circumstances contributed to the meteoric rise of Los Angeles. The agricultural

potential of the area was enormous if water for irrigation could be found, and the city founders had the
vision and dating to obtain it by constructing a 225-mile aqueduct, completed in 1913, to tap the water of
the Owens River. The city had a superb natural harbor, as well as excellent rail connections. The climate
made it possible to shoot motion pictures year-round; hence Hollywood not only supplied jobs but also
disseminated an image of the good life in Southern California on screens all across the nation. The most
important single industry powering the growth of Los Angeles, however, was directly linked to the
automobile. The demand for petroleum to fuel gasoline engines led to the opening of the Southern
California oil fields, and made Los Angeles North America’s greatest refining center.
Los Angeles was a product of the auto age in another sense as well: its distinctive spatial
organization depended on widespread private ownership of automobiles. Los Angeles was a decentralized
metropolis, sprawling across the desert landscape over an area of400 square miles.
It was a city without a real center. The downtown business district did not grow apace with the city
as a whole, and the rapid transit system designed to link the center with outlying areas withered away
from disuse. Approximately 800,000 cars were registered in Los Angeles County in 1930, one per 2.7
residents. Some visitors from the east coast were dismayed at the endless urban sprawl and dismissed Los
Angeles as a mere collection of suburbs in search of a city. But the freedom and mobility of a city built on
wheels attracted floods of migrants to the city.


Question 76. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The growth of cities in the United States in the early 1900s
B. The development of the Southern California oil fields
C. Factors contributing to the growth of Los Angeles
D. Industry and city planning in Los Angeles
Question 77. The author characterizes the growth of new large cities in the United States after 1900 as
resulting primarily from _________.
A. new economic conditions

B. images of cities shown in movies

C. new agricultural techniques

D. a large migrant population

Question 78. The word “meteoric" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. rapid

B. famous

c. controversial

D. methodical.

Question 79. According to the passage, the most important factor in the development of agriculture
around Los Angeles was the _________.
A. influx of “new residents to agricultural areas near the city.
B. construction of an aqueduct.
C. expansion of transportation facilities
D. development of new connections to the city’s natural harbor
Question 80. According to the passage, the initial success of Hollywood’s motion picture industry was
due largely to the _________ .
A. availability of many skilled workers
B. beauty of the countryside
C. region’s reputation for luxurious lifestyles
D. region’s climate and good weather
Question 81. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1930 the greatest number of people in the Los
Angeles area were employed in _________.
A. farming

B. oil refining

C. automobile manufacturing

D. the motion picture industry

Question 82. The visitors from the east coast mentioned in the passage thought that Los Angeles
A. was not accurately portrayed by Hollywood images
B. lacked good suburban areas in which to live
C. had an excessively large population
D. was not really a single city
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 7


Exercise 12:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become
recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the tamily, traditional cultural patterns
confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more
persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger
groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ubility, decades ot research
have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category ot “natural leaders”. It seems that
there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be
recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs ot that particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research
suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals.
Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group.
Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things” done.” Expressive leadership, on the
other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well-being of a social group’s member.
Expressive leaders are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional

support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members
expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to
individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members.
They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group’s goals.
Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They offer
sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a
serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the differences
in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group
members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more distant
respect.
Question 83. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The problems faced by leaders
B. How leadership differs in small and large groups
C. How social groups determine who will lead them
D. The role of leaders in social groups


Question 84. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders
EXCEPT _________.
A. recruitment

B. formal election process

C. specific leadership training

D. traditional cultural patterns

Question 85. In mentioning “natural leaders” in the second paragraph, the author is making the point that
_________.

A. few people qualify as “natural leaders”
B. there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist
C. “natural leaders’ are easily accepted by the members of a social group
D. “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics
Question 86. Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
A. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in another
group.
B. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
C. A person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.
D. Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
Question 87. The passage indicates that ‘instrumental leaders’ generally focus on _________.
A. ensuring harmonious relationships
B. sharing responsibility with group members
C. identifying new leaders
D. achieving a goal
Question 88. The word “collective” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. necessary

B. typical

C. group

D. particular

Question 89. The word “them” in the third paragraph refers to _________.
A. expressive leaders

B. goals of the group

C. group members

D. tension and conflict

Question 90. A “secondary relationship” mentioned in the last paragraph between a leader and the
members of a group could best be characterized as _________.
A. distant

B. enthusiastic

C. unreliable

D. personal

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 7
Exercise 13: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.


Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from the
ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the
surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes services
and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of a city.
Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site involves
physical characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important to the
continuing prosperity of a city. If a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its development is
much more likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled situation: it is
located at the southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west transportation lines to be compressed into
its vicinity, and at a meeting of significant land and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one
of the world’s finest large farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city
regardless of the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding

during thunderstorm activity.
Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City’s importance stems from its early and
continuing advantage of situation. Philadelphia and Boston both originated at about the same time as New
York and shared New York’s location at the western end of one of the world’s most important oceanic
trade routes, but only New York possesses an easy-access functional connection (the Hudson-Mohawk
lowland) to the vast Midwestern hinterland. This account does not alone explain New York’s primacy,
but it does include several important factors. Among the many aspects of situation that help to explain
why some cities grow and others do not, original location on a navigable waterway seems particularly
applicable. Of course, such characteristic as slope drainage, power resources, river crossings, coastal
shapes, and other physical characteristics help to dertermine city location, but such factors are normally
more significant in early stages of city development than later.
Question 91. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The development of trade routes through United States cities
B. Contrasts in settlement patterns in United States
C. Historical differences among three large United States cities
D. The importance of geographical situation in the growth of United States cities
Question 92. The word “ingenuity” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. wealth

B. resourcefulness

C. traditions

D. organization

Question 93: According to the passage, a city’s situation is more important that its site in regard to the
city’s _________.
A. long-term growth and prosperity
B. ability to protect its citizenry

C. possession of favorable weather conditions
D. need to import food supplies
Question 94. The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of Chicago’s location EXCEPT
its _________.
A. hinterland

B. nearness to a large lake

C. position in regard to transport routes

D. flat terrain

Question 95. The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to _________.
A. summarize past research and introduce a new study
B. describe a historical period
C. emphasize the advantages of one theory over another
D. define a term and illustrate it with an example
Question 96. According to the passage, Philadelphia and Boston are similar to New York City in
_________.
A. size of population

B. age

C. site

D. availability of rail transportation

Question 97. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. account

B. primacy

C. connection

D. hinterland

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 8
Exercise 14:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
In the North American colonies, red ware, a simple pottery fired at low temperatures, and stone
ware, a strong, impervious grey pottery fired at high temperatures, were produced from two different
native clays. These kinds of pottery were produced to supplement imported European pottery. When the
American Revolution (1775-1783) interrupted the flow of the superior European ware, there was
incentive for American potters to replace the imports with comparable domestic goods. Stoneware, which
had been simple utilitarian kitchenware, grew increasingly ornate throughout the nineteenth century, and
in addition to the earlier scratched and drawn designs, threedimensional molded relief decoration became
popular. Representational motifs largely replaced the earlier abstract decorations. Birds and flowers were
particularly evident, but other subjects---lions, flags, and clipper ships---are found. Some figurines,
mainly of dogs and lions, were made in this medium. Sometimes a name, usually that of the potter, was
die-stamped onto a piece.
As more and more large kilns were built to create the high-fired stoneware, experiments revealed
that the same clay used to produce low-fired red ware could produce a stronger, paler pottery if fired at a
hotter temperature. The result was yellow ware, used largely for serviceable items; but a further


development was Rockingham ware---one of the most important American ceramics of the nineteenth
century. (The name of the ware was probably derived from its resemblance to English brown-glazed
earthenware made in South Yorkshire.) It was created by adding a brown glaze to the fired clay, usually
giving the finished product a mottled appearance. Various methods of spattering or sponging the glaze

onto the ware account for the extremely wide variations in color and add to the interest of collecting
Rockingham. An advanced form of Rockingham was flint enamel, created by dusting metallic powders
onto the Rockingham glaze to produce brilliant varicolored streaks.
Articles for nearly every household activity and ornament could be bought in Rockingham ware:
dishes and bowls, of course; also bedpans, foot warmers, cuspidors, lamp bases, doorknobs, molds,
picture frames, even curtain tiebacks. All these items are highly collectible today and are eagerly sought.
A few Rockingham specialties command particular affection among collectors and correspondingly high
prices.
Question 98. The word “ornate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. elaborate

B. puzzling

C. durable

D. common

Question 99. The passage suggests that the earliest stoneware _________.
A. was decorated with simple, abstract designs
B. used three-dimensional decorations
C. was valued for its fancy decorations
D. had no decoration
Question 100. How did yellow ware achieve its distinctive color?
A. By sponging on a glaze

B. By dusting on metallic powders

C. By brown-glazing

D. By firing at a high temperature

Question 101. The phrase “derived from” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. ruined by

B. warned against

C. based on

D. sold by

Question 102. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. red ware

B. yellow ware

C. Rockingham ware

D. English brown-glazed earthenware

Question 103. The phrase “account for” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. explain

B. restrict

C. finance

D. supplement

Question 104. What was special about flint enamel?
A. Its even metallic shine

B. Its mottled appearance

C. Its spattered effect

D. Its varicolored streaks

Question 105. Which of the following kinds of Rockingham ware were probably produced in the greatest
quantity?


A. Picture frames

B. Dishes and bowls

C. Curtain tiebacks

D. Doorknobs

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 8
Exercise 15: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
During the second half of the nineteenth century, the production of food and feed crops in the
United States rose at an extraordinarily rapid rate. Com production increased by four and a half times, hay
by five times, oats and wheat by seven times. The most crucial factor behind this phenomenal upsurge in
productivity was the widespread adoption of labor-saving machinery by northern farmers. By 1850 horsedrawn reaping machines that cut grain were being introduced into the major grain-growing regions of the
country. Horse-powered threshing machines to separate the seeds from the plants were already in general
use. However, it was the onset of the Civil War in 1861 that provided the great stimulus for the
mechanization of northern agriculture. With much of the labor force inducted into the army and with
grain prices on the rise, northern farmers rushed to avail themselves of the new labor-saving equipment.

In 1860 there were approximately 80,000 reapers in the country; five years later there were 350,000.
After the close of the war in 1865, machinery became ever more important in northern agriculture,
and improved equipment was continually introduced. By 1880 a self-binding reaper had been perfected
that not only cut the grain, but also gathered the stalks and bound them with twine. Threshing machines
were also being improved and enlarged, and after 1870 they were increasingly powered by steam engines
rather than by horses. Since steam-powered threshing machines were costly items-running from $ 1,000
to $4,000 - they were usually owned by custom thresher owners who then worked their way from farm to
farm during the harvest season. “Combines” were also coming into use on the great wheat ranches in
California and the Pacific Northwest. These ponderous machines - sometimes pulled by as many as 40
horses - reaped the grain, threshed it, and bagged it, all in one simultaneous operation.
The adoption of labor-saving machinery had a profound effect upon the sale of agricultural
operations in the northern states-allowing farmers to increase vastly their crop acreage. By the end of
century, a farmer employing the new machinery could plant and harvest two and half times as much com
as a farmer had using hand methods 50 years before.
Question 106. What aspect of farming in the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage
mainly discuss?
A. How labor-saving machinery increased crop production
B. Why southern farms were not as successful as northern farms
C. Farming practices before the Civil War


D. The increase in the number of people taking up farming
Question 107. The word “crucial” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. obvious

B. unbelievable

C. important

D. desirable

Question 108. The phrase “avail themselves of” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. take care of

B. make use of

C. get rid of

D. consist of

Question 109. According to the passage, why was the Civil War a stimulus for mechanization?
A. The army needed more grain in order to feed the soldiers.
B. Technology developed for the war could also the used by farmers.
C. It was hoped that harvesting more grain would lower the price of grain.
D. Machines were needed to replace a disappearing labor force.
Question 110. Combines and self-binding reapers were similar because each _________.
A. could perform more than one function
B. required relatively little power to operate
C. was utilized mainly in California
D. required two people to operate
Question111. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. grain stalks

B. horses

C. steam engines

D. threshing

Question112. It can be inferred from the passage that most fanners did not own threshing machines

because _________ .
A. farmers did not know how to use the new machines
B. farmers had no space to keep the machines
C. thresher owners had chance to buy the machines before farmers did
D. the machines were too expensive for every farmer to own
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2019 – CÔ DƯƠNG THỊ HƯƠNG – MEGABOOK – ĐỀ SỐ 9
Exercise 16:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
In the early 1800s, to reach the jump-off point for the West, a family from the East of the United
States could either buy a steamboat passage to Missouri for themselves, their wagons and their livestock
or, as happened more often, simply pile everything into a wagon, hitch up a team, and begin their
overland trek right in their front yard.
Along the macadamized roads and turnpikes east of the Missouri River, travel was comparatively
fast, camping easy, and supplies plentiful. Then, in one river town or another, the neophyte emigrants
would pause to lay in provisions. For outfitting purposes, the town of Independence had been preeminent