88 bài tập đọc HIỂU (572 câu) từ đề cô NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG image marked image marked

BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU
Exercise 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the
atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air
pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution
laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that
could be seen or smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As
technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list
of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant
under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen
oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by
various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air
purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global
basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region,
human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the
cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at
which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in
the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a
pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents
over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution.
B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
Question 3. The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. negatively

B. quickly

C. admittedly

Question 3. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that __________.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas

D. considerably


B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 4. The word “These” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. The various chemical reactions
B.The pollutants from the developing Earth
C.The compounds moved to the water or soil 6
D. The components in biogeochemical cycles
Question 5. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions ___.
A. can be dwarfed by nature’s output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
(ĐỀ 1 – BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 2:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions .
The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness Bertha
Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired creation of the Prize. The first American
woman to win the prize was Jane Addams, in 1931. However, Addams is best known as the founder of
Hull House.

Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women
in her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her
led her to work for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s Jane Addams travelled to Europe. While
she was in London, she visited a “settlement house” called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall,
Addams and her friends, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House in a neighborhood of slums in Chicago in
1899. Hull House provided a day care center for children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and
visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in English literacy, art and other subjects. Hull House
also became a meeting place for clubs and labor unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in
Hull House were well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use their
education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work.
Before World War I, Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper
poll that asked, “Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?” Jane


Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America’s involvement in World
War I, however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane
Addams was a strong champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote.
Addams joined in the movement for women’s suffrage and was a 7 vice president of the National
American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for the
Advancement of Colored People (NAACP), and was president of the Women’s International League for
Peace and Freedom. Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died of
cancer in 1935.
Question 6. With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman
B. A woman's work for social reform and world peace
C. The early development of Social Work in America
D. Contributions of educated women to American society
Question 7. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams
B. Jane Addarns is most famous for her opening of Hull House

C. Those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills
D. Jane Addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country
Question 8. The word “commitment” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. involvement

B. obligation

C. dedication

D. enthusiasm

Question 9. Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because ________.
A. it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education for carvers in social work
B. she traveled to Europe in the 1880s
C. she visited Toynbee Hall
D.she was invited by a “settlement house” in Chicago
Question 10. The word “their” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. children of working mothers

B. middle-class women

C. visiting nurses

D. labor union members

Question 11. According to the passage, Jane Addams’ reputation was damaged when she _____.
A. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions
B. joined in the movement for women's suffrage

C. became a founding member of the NAACP
D. opposed America’s involvem ent in World War I
Question 12. According to the passage, all of the following statements about Jane Addams are true
EXCEPT ___________.
A. She was the first woman to win the Nobel Peace Prize.
B. She was born into a wealthy family.
C. She objected to America’s participation in the First World War.
D. She was considered as a feminist.
Question 13. In paragraph three, the word “contemporaries” is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. people of the same time

B. famous people still alive

C. elected officials

D. people old enough to vote

(ĐỀ 1 – BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
THE IMPORTANCE OF FIRST IMPRESSIONS
We have all heard the expression, “you can’t judge a book by its cover.” However, it seems that is
exactly what most people do. The human brain seems to be wired in such a way that we make very
strong, lasting

judgments about the people we meet within the first 30 seconds. And it is true, you may be able learn a lot
about a person by their first impression. But can you really learn all you need to know?
May be there is something affecting your first impression. Possibly the person is nervous or upset.
Maybe you are in a bad mood or not feeling well. All of these factors and more could influence a first
impression, so should people place so much weight on it?

Many people feel that a first impression is extremely important. Once those people form an idea of
you, it is often difficult for them to get beyond it. If someone feels that you are something you really
aren’t because of your first impression, then that is obviously not a good thing.
Yet many people really do still rely deeply on first impressions. One good example is the job
interview. We dress nicely for job interviews for a very good reason: to make a good first impression. In
addition to our outward appearance, many people tend to put on something of an act. By being extremely


polite and showing interest, we feel that we will make a good first impression and have a better chance
getting the job.
Is this the way things should be? Probably not. Will this situation ever change? The answer to that
question is the same - probably not. It is just human nature to rely on a first impression. Everyone knows
that they do it and most people know that it's not the right thing to do.
Question 14: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the first impression has a great effect on people
B. how people form first impression
C. how to judge a book
D. the first impression give people a better job.
Question 15: The phrase “to be wired" in paragraph 1 means_________.
A. to be connected

B. to be changed

C. to be charged

D. to be installed

Question 16: According to the article, once people form an opinion of you, it is__________.
A. changed automatically

B. impossible to modify it

C. easy to modify it

D. difficult to modify it

Question 17: The word “it” in paragraph 3 means _________.
A. a good feeling

B. a first impression C. an influence

D. an idea of you

Question 18: The author thinks that people will continue to rely on first impressions because_____.
A. people refuse to change

B. people like to deceive other people

C. it’s human nature

D. it’s easy to change them

(ĐỀ 2 – BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 4:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
LEVELS OF VOCABULARY
Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In
English, at least three have been identified and described.
Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a
majority of the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level of formality. As such, these

words and expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the other
hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in
informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations. Almost all idiomatic
expressions are colloquial language. Slang, refers to words and expressions understood by a large number


of speakers but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions and
even slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both colloquial usage and
slang are more common in speech than writing.
Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech,
but other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases, the
majority never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their collective memories.
Every generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar objects and events.
It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the
creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and
situations in the
society; second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association among the
subgroups and the majority population.
Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as
abstract labels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will
be aware that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during
appropriate situations, select and use three types of expressions.
Question 19: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Standard speech

B. Different types of vocabulary

C. Idiomatic phrases

D. Dictionary usage

Question 20: How is slang defined by the author?
A. Words and phrases accepted by the majority of formal usage.
B. Words or phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries.
C. Words or phrases that are understood by a restricted group of speakers.
D. Words or phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal usage.
Question 21: The word "appropriate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. old

B. large

C. correct

D. important

Question 22: The word "obscurity" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ________.
A. disappearance

B. influence

C. qualification

D. tolerance

Question 23: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______________.
A. words

B. slang phrases

C. memories

D. the majority

Question 24: Which of the following is TRUE of standard usage?
A. It can be used in formal or informal settings.

B. It is limited to written language.


C. It is only understood by the upper classes.

D. It is constantly changing.

Question 25: The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be created
EXCEPT ______.
A. new situations

B. a new generation

C. interaction among diverse groups

D. a number of linguists

Question 26: It can be inferred from the passage that the author_______.
A. does not approve of either slang or colloquial speech in any situation
B. approves of colloquial speech in some situations, but not slang
C. approves of slang or colloquial speech in appropriate situations
D. does not approve of colloquial usage in writing
(ĐỀ 2 – BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
ENDANGERED SPECIES
There are three valid arguments to support the preservation of endangered species. An aesthetic
justification contends that biodiversity contributes to the quality of life because many of the endangered
plants and animals are particularly appreciated for their unique physical beauty. The aesthetic role of
nature in all its diverse forms is reflected in the art and literature of every culture, attaining symbolic
status in the spiritual life of many groups. According to the proponents of the aesthetic argument, people
need nature in all its diverse and beautiful forms as part of the experience of the world.
Another argument that has been put forward, especially by groups in the medical and
pharmacological fields, is that of ecological self-interest. By preserving all species, we retain a balance of
nature that is ultimately beneficial to humankind. Recent research on global ecosystems has been cited as
evidence that every species contributes important or even essential functions that may be necessary to the
survival of our own species. Some advocates of the ecological argument contend that important chemical
compounds derived from rare plants may contain the key to a cure for one of the diseases currently
threatening human beings. If we do not protect other species, then they cannot protect us.
Apart from human advantage in both the aesthetic and ecological arguments, the proponents of a
moral justification contend that all species have the right to exist, a viewpoint stated in the United Nations
World Charter for nature, created in 1982. Furthermore, if humankind views itself as the stewards of all
the creatures on Earth, then it is incumbent upon human beings to protect them, and to ensure the


continued existence of all species. Moral justification has been extended by a movement called “deep
ecology,” the members of which rank the biosphere higher than people because the continuation of life
depends on this larger perspective. To carry their argument to its logical conclusion, all choices must be
made for the biosphere, not for people.
Question 27. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The beauty of the world

B. The quality of life

C. The preservation of species

D. The balance of nature

Question 28. Which of the arguments supports animal rights?
A. Aesthetic justification

B. Ecological argument

C. Self-interest argument

D. Moral justification

Question 29. The word “perspective” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by __________.
A. ideal

B. event

C. truth

D. view

Question 30. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. humankind

B. stewards

C. creatures

D. human beings

Question 31. The author mentions all of the following as justifications for the protection of endangered
species EXCEPT ___________.
A. the natural compounds needed for medicines.
B. the intrinsic value of the beauty of nature
C. the control of pollution in the biosphere
D. the right to life implied by their existence
(ĐỀ 3 – BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 6:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Choosing a career may not be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with
care. View career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living.
Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding
a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right
one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live.
Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to
begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and
surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do


you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right
or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require,
which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance
to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day.
If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a
great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in
some fields is concentrated in certain regions. For example aerospace job in the U.S are most plentiful in
California, Texas, and Washington. Advertising jobs can generally be found only in large cities. On the

other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law, education, and retail sales are found in all regions of
the country.
Consider your financial goals. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its
starting. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay
substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations: The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber
does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or
demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas
plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you
will likely to develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice
you make today need not be your final one.
Question 32. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Choosing a career

B. Making the right decision.

C. Start-up

D. Careers in business

Question 33. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ________.
A. measuring

B. disposing

C. considering

D. discovering

Question 34. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. jobs

B. questions

C. answers

D. features

Question 35. According to the passage, which of the following is true ?
A. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.
B. If you want to make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
C. If you want to make a lot of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.


D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
Question 36. It can be inferred from the paragraph 4 that ________.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their careers
C. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career
D. people should constantly work toward the next promotion
Question 37. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ________.
A. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully
B. you may want to change careers at some time in the future
C. you will probably be jobless at some time in the future
D. as you get older, your career will probably be less fulfilling
Question 38. The word “evoke” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. bring to mind

B. agree on

C. be different from D. be related to

Question 39. Why does the author mention long, grueling hours without sleeps in paragraph 5?
A. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception
B. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen
D. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber
(ĐỀ 3 – BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Marriage nowadays is a choice people make on their own, but this has not always been the case in
society. Thousands of years ago, the average lifespan was shorter than it is today. A man usually lived
until he was about 40 years old, while women died even sooner because of childbirth. There were many
wars and illnesses, and people had to protect themselves by having more children while they were still
young. The parents lived through their children.
Marriage was not so much a romantic love story but a business transaction, or deal. Most
marriages were arranged between parents while their children were still very young. It was the custom
that the fathers made the decision on whom their children were going to marry. The mothers had little say
in it since they rarely made any decisions outside the household. The fathers would meet to arrange the
wedding date and the money given for the bride on her wedding date. The more money and land a girl
had, the more chances she had to marry well. Therefore, it was important that her father choose the


bridegroom very well. Usually, it was someone who came from a good family or who was rich too. It was
very unlikely that people married outside their social class. A few well-off and rich merchants got to
marry poorer noblewomen and became King’s business advisors. In a way, poor peasants had an easier
choice as it was less important whom they married.
The practice of arranged marriage is still common in some countries in the Middle East, such as
India or Pakistan. Here, social classes are still strongly divided and very well-kept. Often, however,

arranged marriages are a sign that people do not want to let go of the past, which gives them comfort and
security in an ever- changing world.
(Adapted from Longman Essence Reading,
Vol. 2)
Question 40: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Marriage as a business transaction today
B. Mothers' roles in their children's marriage
C. Marriage practices in modern society
D. The practice of arranged marriage
Question 41: The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT ____.
A. People tended to marry outside their social class.
B. Men made almost all decisions inside the family.
C. Marriage used to be a deal between two families.
D. The wedding date was decided by the fathers.
Question 42: The word "it" in paragraph I refers to ________.
A. marriage

B. a choice

C. society

D. the average lifespan

Question 43: According to paragraph 2, richer girls were more likely to_____.
A. become noblewomen

B. marry well

C. succeed in business

D. marry peasants

Question 44: The phrase “let go of” in paragraph 3 mostly means _____.
A. give up

B. turn off

C. save up

D. give in

(ĐỀ 4– BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 8:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our
leisure time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away,


we take our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use
of e-mail, voice mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.
Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free
them from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and
socially - exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family,
and even just ‘goofing off’.
But here we are at the start of the 21st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom
times in human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to
liberate us have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It
would seem that technology almost never does what we expect.
In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their
offices at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as

they traveled to and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today's
highly competitive job market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in
longer hours and to keep in touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications
devices. As a result, employees feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days
off. They feel pressured to work after hours just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work
harder and longer, change their work tasks more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry
about job security.
Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and
email messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which
faculty, friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies
of time spent on instant messaging services would probably show staggering use.
This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies from genetic
research to the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more
difficult and stressful rather than easier and more meaningful - and we are, as a society, barely conscious
of it - then something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our
understanding of how it should benefit us.
Question 45: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Changes at the Workplace

B. Benefits of Technology

C. Research on the Roles of Computers

D. Expectations and Plain Reality

Question 46: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys?
A. They bring more leisure to our life.

B. They make our lives more stressful.

C. They are being increasingly used.

D. They are used even during vacations.

Question 47: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our
lives easier ______.
A. have turned out to do us more harm than good
B. have not interfered with our privacy
C. have fully met our expectations
D. have brought us complete happiness
Question 48: The word "inconceivable" in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. predictable

B. foreseeable

C. unforgettable

D. unimaginable

Question 49: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that __________.
A. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work
B. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off.
C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices
Question 50: The word "They" in the fourth paragraph refers to ________.
A. workers

B. employers

C. employees

D. tasks

Question 51: Which of the following could be the main idea of the fifth paragraph?
A. New technological applications are wise entertainment choices of our modern time.
B. The coming of new technological advances has spoiled family and social relationships.
C. New technological advances have added more stress to daily life.
D. New technological advances have reduced work performance.
Question 52: This passage has probably been taken from ________.
A. a science journal

B. an advertisement

C. a political journal

D. a fashion magazine

(ĐỀ 4– BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born in
North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen,
where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a


year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in
Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant
companion, and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short
stories. He then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his

pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887,
Porter married Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First Nation Bank.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed within a
year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was
examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter then fled
to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because
of his wife’s continued ill-health, however, she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found
guilty and sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty- five, he entered prison as a
defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison
three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at
least twelve stories in jail, and after regaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published
more than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short story writer. Porter married again in
1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O.
Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.
Question 53: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. a tragic story of a gifted writer
B. the career of a famous American
C. the fame of America’s favorite short story writer
D. the influences on O. Henry’s writing
Question 54: Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison EXCEPT his______.
A. home

B. wife

C. job

D. books

Question55: The word "his" in paragraph 1 refers to ________.A. William Sydney Porter
B. Porter’s father

C. a medical colleague

D. Webster

Question 56: The word “venture” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. challenging experiment

B. bold initiative

C. speculative action

D. sorry experience

Question 57: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?


A. both of Porter’s wives died before he died
B. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist
C. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”
D. the first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin
(ĐỀ 5– BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 10:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological developments in recent
years. Never before have so many people had access to so many different sources of information. For all
of the Internet’s advantages, however, people are currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and
are looking for creative solutions. Among the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability
and numerous security concerns, the most crucial is speed.
First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly. In 1990, only a few academics had ever heard of
the Internet. In 1996, over 50 million people used it. Every year, the number of people with access to the

Internet doubles. The rapid growth has been a problem. The computer systems which run the Internet
have not been able to keep up with the demand. Also, sometimes a request for information must pass
through many routing computers before the information can be obtained. A request for information made
in Paris might have to go through computers in New York, Los Angeles and Tokyo in order to obtain the
required information. Consequently, service is often slow and unpredictable. Service also tends to be
worse when the Internet is busiest - during the business day of the Western Hemisphere - which is also
when companies need its service the most.
Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way as to avoid
this problem. In 1995, a group of American universities banded together to form what has come to be
known as Internet II. Internet II is a smaller, more specialized system intended for academic use. Since it
is more specialized, fewer users are allowed access. Consequently, the time required to receive
information has decreased.
Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II. Many businesses are
creating their own “Intranets”. These are systems that can only be used by the members of the same
company. In theory, fewer users should translate into a faster system. Intranets are very useful for large
national and international companies whose branches need to share information. Another benefit of an
Intranet is an increased amount of security. Since only company employees have access to the
information on the Intranet, their information is protected from competitors. While there is little doubt


that the Internet will eventually be a fast a reliable service, industry and the academic community have
taken their own steps toward making more practical global networks.
Question 58: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Security concerns of the Internet.

B. Internet’s current problems.

C. The development of the Internet.

D. The disadvantages of the Internet.

Question 59: According to passage 1, Internet ____________.
A. tends to be unreliable

B. has created a sense of financial security

C. is too expensive to access

D. has become increasingly less popular

Question 60: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. system

B. problem

C. Internet II

D.

academic

use
Question 61: The word “obtain” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________ .
A. understood

B. acquired

C. purchased

D. distributed

Question 62: According to the passage, what benefits does Internet II have over the Internet?
A. There is no governmental intervention regulating Internet II.
B. Small businesses pay higher premiums to access the Internet.
C. Internet II contains more information than the Internet.
D. Internet II has fewer users and therefore is faster to access.
Question 63: The word “analogue” in paragraph 4 most nearly means_________.
A. similarity

B. alternative

C. use

D. solution

Question 64: According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?
A. Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet traffic.
B. Most people do not have computers that arc fast enough to take advantage of the Internet.
C. Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final destination.
D. Scientists take up too much time on the Internet, thus slowing it down for everyone else.
Question 65: According to the passage, which of the following statements was true in 1970?
A. The Internet was a secure means to gain information.
B. The Internet experienced enormous growth rates.
C. Internet data proved to be impractical.
D. Few people were using the Internet.
(ĐỀ 5– BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)


Exercise 11: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example,
rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause people sensitive to them
to suffer greatly. At first, the body in treating their migraines with supplements of B- vitamins,
particularly B6 of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying
interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has
begun to develop.
Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a food allergy since it can show up so many different ways.
Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains
mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk,
eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not
develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months.
Breast milk also tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or
sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine,
pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many oriental and prepared foods
(read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of Bvitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food
additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds,
green peppers, peaches, lea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written
the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing
whether the diet is effective.
Question 66: The topic of this passage is __________.
A. reaction to food

B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies

D. a good diet

Question 67: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to food is due to _______.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat

B. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
C. lack of a proper treatment plan
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 68: The word “symptoms” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. indications

B. diet

C. diagnosis

D. prescriptions


Question 69: The word “these” in the third paragraph refers to _________.
A. food additives

B. food colorings

C. innutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates

Question 70: According to the article, the Feingold diet is NOT _______.
A. available in book forms
B. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
(ĐỀ 6– BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 12:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the
demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women

entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in
annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Donnell
Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, “The 1970s was the decade of women
entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur”. What are
some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business
and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive
suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, “In the 1970s women believed if they got
an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they’ve found out that isn’t
going to happen, so they go out on their own”. In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in
“women’s” fields: cosmetics and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer
Systems, a $22-million-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who
was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first
product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was
a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the 6 company’s cash. After she succeeded
with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computerscience graduates to develop
additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200
employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles
in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still
dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But
the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzig in the years ahead.


Question 71: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business
world.
B. The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
C. Women are better at small business than men are.
D. Women today are opening more business of their own.
Question 72: The word “excluded” in first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.

A. not permitted in: không được phép tham gia

B. often invited to: thường được mời đến

C. decorators of: là người trang trí của

D. charged admission to: được chấp nhận vào

Question 73: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business
world EXCEPT _________.
A. Women were required to stay at home with their families
B. Women lacked ability to work in business
C. Women faced discrimination in business
D. Women were not trained in business
Question 74: The word “that” in the first paragraph refers to _______
A. a woman becomes chairman of the board

B. women working hard

C. women achieving advanced degrees

D. women believing that business is a place

for them
Question 75: According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s ______.
A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management
B. were still more interested in education than business opportunities
C. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today
D. were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business
Question 76: The author mentions the “shoebox under the bed” in the second paragraph in order to

__________.
A. show the frugality of women in business
B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig
C. point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig's business were limited
D. suggest that the company needed to expand


Question 77: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses operated by
women are small because ______.
A. women prefer a small intimate setting

B. women can’t deal with money

C. women are not able to borrow money easily

D. many women fail at large businesses

Question 78: The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is ________
A. skeptical

B. optimistic

C. frustrated

D. negative

(ĐỀ 6– BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 13: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body

takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in the
nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time
that food contained constituents that were essential for human function and that different foods provided
different amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that
rapid weight loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing
adequate dietary protein associated with certain foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called “the
vitamin period”. Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were described. As
vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to
suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might
be responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started to become more interested
in having their curricula integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this
education was on the recognition of vitamin deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what
ultimately turned from ignorance to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless
claims were made for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the
use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950s to mid-1960s, vitamin therapy began to fall
into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It
was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing and
were quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature extolling the
virtue of supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of
vitamins in disease control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies


are much less effective when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems
of under nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.
Question 79: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of vitamins on the human body.
B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present.
C. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study.

D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century.
Question 80: It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made
during the first era in the history of nutrition?
A. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.
B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.
C. Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.
D. Certain foods were found to be harmful to good health.
Question 81: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. therapies

B. claims

C. effects

D. vitamins

Question 82: Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950s?
A. The public lost interest in vitamins.
B. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts.
C. Nutritional research was of poor quality.
D. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.
Question 83: The word “skyrocketing” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. internationally popular

B. increasing rapidly

C. acceptable

D. surprising

(ĐỀ 7– BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 14:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating
without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The
basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for
example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for
communication is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in
and of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are


more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the
receiver's cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an
auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural
messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage. They
usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a
result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based
upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few.
Question 84: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Gestures

B. Signs and signals

C. Speech

D. Communication

Question 85: What does the author say about speech?
A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.

B. It is the most advanced form of communication.
C. It is necessary for communication to occur.
D. It is the only true form of communication.
Question 86: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Signals, symbols, signs and gestures are found in every culture.
B. Signals, symbols, signs and gestures are very useful.
C. Signals, symbols, signs and gestures also have a certain disadvantage.
D. Signals, symbols, signs and gestures are used for long distance contact
Question 87: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to _________________.
A. way

B. environment

C. function

D. Signal

Question 88: The word “potential” in paragraph 1 could be replaced by______________.
A. advanced

B.possibility

C. organization

D. Signal

Question 89: The word “intricate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________
A. inefficient

B.complicated

C. historical

D. uncertain

Question 90: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?
A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.
B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.
C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
D. Because people wanted new forms of communication.


Question 91: It may be concluded from this passage that____________ .
A. only some cultures have signs, signals, and symbols
B. signs, signals, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication
C. symbols are very easy to define and interrupt
D. waving and handshaking are not related to culture
(ĐỀ 7– BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 15: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300
million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into
the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More
than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to
replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent.
Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other
liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids
contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice
sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during

the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold
currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent.
Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest
of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast
quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more
substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for
minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals
are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from
the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.
Question 92: The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ___________.
A. illustrate the importance of conserving water
B. describe the properties and uses of water
C. compare water with other liquids


D. explain how water is used in commerce and industry
Question 93: The phrase “this vast amount” in the first paragraph refers to ________ .
A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water

B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain

C. 80,000 cubic miles of water

D. 300 million cubic miles of water

Question 94: The word “outstanding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. exceptionally good

B. special

C. amusing

D. important

Question 95: According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because ________ .
A. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle
B. there are currents in the oceans
C. they do not need oxygen
D. ice floats
Question 96: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of water?
A. Water can absorb heat

B. Water is good solvent

C. Water contracts on cooling

D. Water expands when it is frozen

(ĐỀ 8– BỘ 1 – GV NGUYỄN PHƯƠNG- Hoc24h)
Exercise 16:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The development of genetically modified (GM) plants and animals had led to a huge global
controversy. Opponents say that GM “Frankenfoods” are a threat to our well-being, and proponents say
that the risks are minimal. There is one aspect of the war over GM that is often overlooked. Anyone who
wears a cotton shirt these days is using a GM crop. Cotton is the only major non-food GM crop at present,
but others are coming.
GM cotton plants that are not food have not stopped the most passionate GM opponents from
objecting. If GM cotton is grown in a field next to fields of non- GM cotton, they argue, then how to keep
genes from being transferred from field to field. This danger, however, is not as compelling to the public
as possible health hazards in food, so there is no great fury over GM cotton.

GM cotton seeds produce higher yields, and they do without the need for pesticides. Planting of
GM cotton has increased fivefold since 1997; three-quarter of cotton in America, and over half in China,
is now GM. Farmers like it because it increases their profits.
Other options for non-food GM include new variety of flowers with different colors or scents,
tougher grasses for lawns, and plants designed to soak up pollutants from the soil. The paper industry


provides another example of potential for GM to help produce better and cheaper products. Paper is made
from pulp, and pulp is generally made from trees. Researchers in New Zealand and Chile have been
working on insect-resistant pines, and a Japanese firm has combined carrot genes with tree genes to make
them grow better in poor soil.
Another interesting case is that of tobacco. It is not food crop, but it is consumed, and GM tobacco
plants with both more and less nicotine have been created. The tobacco plant, however, is an ideal target
for GM, since its genetics are very well understood and it produces a lot of leaves. The value of the drugs
that could be produced by GM tobacco is so high, many fanners could switch from growing tobacco for
cigarettes to growing it for medicine. Since medical cost is rising, consumers would also be happy to use
drugs produced in bulk by GM tobacco.
Question 97: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Controversial GM products

B. The hazards of GM products

C. Non-food GM products

D. GM cotton and tobacco

Question 98: Why does the author mention a cotton shirt in the first paragraph?
A. to show that cotton is one of the most popular materials for clothing
B. to give an example of a common GM product that is not a food
C. to give an example of a controversy surrounding GM products

D. to show that the risk of GM products are minimal
Question 99: The word “that” in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. war

B. aspect

C. GM

D. risk

Question 100: The word “compelling” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. interesting

B. annoying

C. dangerous

D. obvious

Question 101: Which options for non-food GM is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. flowers

B. grass

C. tobacco

D. rubber

Question 102: The word “ideal” in paragraph mostly means_________.
A. good

B. perfect

C. wrong

D. opinion

Question 103: According to the passage, why are researchers developing GM trees?
A. to improve or make paper less expensive
B. to produce more fruit
C. to find a way to make paper without pulp
D. to replace trees cut down for paper