ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC và đáp án GVG TỈNH NGHỆ AN môn TIẾNG ANH 2019

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
NGHỆ AN

HỘI THI GIÁO VIÊN DẠY GIỎI TỈNH CẤP THPT
NĂM 2019

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA NĂNG LỰC

(Đề có 07 trang)

Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

PHẦN 1. (4,0 điểm)
1. “Kiểm tra, đánh giá theo hướng phát triển phẩm chất, năng lực học sinh” là một tiêu
chí quy định chuẩn nghề nghiệp giáo viên cơ sở giáo dục phổ thông (Tiêu chí 6, Tiêu chuẩn 2,
Điều 5, Thông tư số 20/2018/TT- BGDĐT ngày 22/8/2018 của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo).
Anh (Chị) cần làm gì để thực hiện kiểm tra, đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh theo
hướng phát triển năng lực trong giai đoạn hiện nay?
2. Định hướng về phương pháp giáo dục trong Chương trình giáo dục phổ thông 2018 có nội
dung: “Các môn học và hoạt động giáo dục trong nhà trường áp dụng các phương pháp tích
cực hóa hoạt động học sinh, trong đó giáo viên đóng vai trò tổ chức, hướng dẫn hoạt động cho
học sinh, tạo môi trường học tập thân thiện và những tình huống có vấn đề để khuyến khích
học sinh tích cực tham gia vào các hoạt động học tập, tự phát hiện năng lực, nguyện vọng của
bản thân, rèn luyện thói quen và khả năng tự học, phát huy tiềm năng và những kiến thức, kỹ
năng đã tích lũy được để phát triển ” (Thông tư số 32/2018/TT-BGDĐT ngày 26/12/2018 của Bộ
Giáo dục và Đào tạo).
Là giáo viên, anh (chị) cần làm gì trong quá trình tổ chức dạy học trên lớp để góp phần
phát triển khả năng tự học cho học sinh?

PHẦN 2. (2,0 điểm)
Anh (Chị) hãy sử dụng một phần hay toàn bộ ngữ liệu sau để thiết kế 01 bài tập rèn
luyện các kỹ năng hoặc ôn tập kiến thức tiếng Anh cho đối tượng học sinh THPT (tối thiểu
5 câu hỏi) và đề xuất phương án hướng dẫn học sinh trả lời.
POPULAR MUSIC
The first major composer of popular music with a uniquely American style was
Stephen Foster (1826-1864). He established a pattern that has shaped American music
ever since - combining elements of the European musical tradition with African-American
rhythms and themes. Of Irish ancestry, Foster grew up in the South, where he heard slave
music and saw minstrel shows, which featured white performers in black make-up
performing African-American songs and dances. Such material inspired some of Foster's
best songs, which many Americans still know by heart: "Oh! Susanna," "Camptown Races,"
"Ring the Banjo," "Old Folks at Home" (better known by its opening line: "Way down upon
the Swanee River").
Before the movies and radio, most Americans had to entertain themselves or wait
for the arrival in town of lecturers, circuses, or the traveling stage revues known as
vaudeville. Dozens of prominent American entertainers got their starts in vaudeville - W.C.
Fields, Jack Benny, George Burns and Gracie Allen, Buster Keaton, Sophie Tucker, Fanny
Brice, Al Jolson, and the Three Stooges, to name just a few - and the medium demanded a
steady supply of new songs. Late in the 19th century, music publishing became a big
business in the United States, with many firms clustered in New York City, on a street that
became known as Tin Pan Alley.

1


Vaudeville and the European genre of operetta spawned the Broadway musical,
which integrates songs and dancing into a continuous story with spoken dialogue. The first
successful example of the new genre - and still one of the best - was Jerome Kern's
Showboat, which premiered in 1927. Interestingly, Showboat pays tribute to the black

influence on mainstream American music with a story centered on miscegenation and, as
its most poignant song, the slave lament "Ol' Man River."
Songwriter Irving Berlin (1888-1989) made a smooth transition from Tin Pan Alley
to Broadway. An immigrant of Russian-Jewish extraction, he wrote some of the most
popular American songs: "God Bless America," "Easter Parade," "White Christmas,"
"There's No Business Like Show Business," and "Cheek to Cheek." Cole Porter (1891-1964)
took the Broadway show song to new heights of sophistication with his witty lyrics and
rousing melodies, combined in such songs as "Anything Goes," "My Heart Belongs to
Daddy," "You're the Top," "I Get a Kick Out of You," and "It's De-Lovely."
Black composers such as Scott Joplin (1868-1917) and Eubie Blake (1883-1983)
drew on their own heritage to compose songs, ragtime pieces for piano, and, in Joplin's
case, an opera. Joplin was all but forgotten after his death, but his music made a
comeback starting in the 1970s. Blake wrote the music for Shuffle Along, the first
Broadway musical by and about blacks, and continued to perform well into his 90s. Blues
songs, which had evolved from slaves' work songs, became the rage in New York City and
elsewhere during the 1920s and 1930s; two of the blues' finest practitioners were Ma
Rainey (1886-1939) and Bessie Smith (c.1898-1937).
(Extracted from InfoUSA – CD Version)

PHẦN 3. (14,0 điểm)
SECTION A – LISTENING
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Phần thi nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được phát 2 lần.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc phần thi nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thời gian thí sinh làm bài đã được tính trong nội dung
trong đĩa CD của phần thi nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong nội dung trong đĩa CD của phần thi nghe.

Part 1. Question 1-7: Complete the following notes using A WORD or SHORT PHRASE for
each answer.
Borchester University

Example: Where to get __ food __ on campus
PLACE
Main Refectory Hall

CAPACITY
500

REGULAR MENU
vegetarian, fish, (1)______

Open: (2)______
Arts Building Café
Open: 9 - 6

COST

(3)______ - £3
(4)______

tea, coffee, hot chocolate,
sandwiches

(5)______

2


(6)______ Bar

tea, coffee,

Open: 10 - 4

(7)______ sandwiches

£1.30

Question 8-10: Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each answer.
8. You can hear a concert of classical music every ______.
9. The jazz concerts start at ______.
10. You can smoke in ______.
Part 2. You will hear a lecture about the history of April Fools’ Day. Decide whether the
statements are true (T) or false (F).
1. April Fools’ Day is for people who love magic tricks.
2. A TV program in the UK broadcast that spaghetti grew on trees on April 4th, 1957.
3. Hundreds of people fell for the spaghetti-growing-on-trees prank.
4. People know for a fact that April Fools’ Day originated in France.
5. People who continued to celebrate New Year’s Day on April 1st after the change were called
“April fools.”
SECTION B - VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following questions.
1. STEM education has been introduced in high schools in Viet Nam to encourage ______ among
students.
A. creativity
B. creativeness
C. creative
D. creatively
2. The boy next door fell off his bike yesterday but he was all right. He ______ himself badly.
A. should have hurt B. would hurt

C. could have hurt
D. must hurt
3. Many people ______ the blame for the crisis on the government.
A. gave
B. put
C. took
D. had
4. The head teacher has asked me to take the new boy under my ______ and look after him.
A. sleeves
B. arm
C. wing
D. cloak
5. The boy has a collection of ______.
A. old valuable Australian postage stamp
B. old Australian valuable postage stamp
C. valuable Australian old postage stamp D. valuable old Australian postage stamp
6. Many people worry about the ______ of many species of plants and animals from our planet.
A. eruption
B. destruction
C. erosion
D. disappearance
7. The final examinations were hard, but most students ______.
A. pulled out B. pulled down
C. pulled through
D. pulled on
8. We are still dealing with problems that resulted ______ errors made in the past.
A. in
B. to
C. from
D. on

Cairo and Roma are talking in the living room. Choose the most suitable response (A, B, C,
or D) to complete their exchange.
9. Cairo: “______”
Roma: “I’d rather you didn’t.”
A. Would you do me a favour?
B. Would you mind if I opened the door?
C. Will you please open the window?
D. Do you mind helping me with my work?
Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the
following question.
10. There is growing apprehension about the safety of the missing children.
A. anxiety
B. confidence
C. hesitation
D. eagerness

3


SECTION C – READING
Part 1. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the
following questions.
Many teachers believe that the responsibilities for learning lie with the student. If a long
reading assignment is given, instructors expect students to be (1)______ with the information in
the reading even if they do not discuss it in class or take an examination. The ideal student is
considered to be one who is motivated to learn for the sake of (2)______, not the one interested
only in getting high grades. Sometimes homework is returned with brief written comments but
without a grade. Even if a grade is not given, the student is (3)______ for learning the material
assigned. When research is (4)______, the professor expects the student to take it actively and
to complete it with minimum (5)______. It is the student's responsibility to find books, magazines,

and articles in the library. Professors do not have the time to explain how a university library
works; they expect students, (6)______ graduate students, to be able to exhaust the reference
sources in the library. Professors will help students who need it, but (7)______ that their students
should not be too dependent on them. In the United States professors have many other duties
(8)______ teaching, such as administrative or research work. (9)______, the time that a
professor can spend with a student outside of class is limited. If a student has problems with
classroom work, the student should either (10)______ a professor during office hours or make an
appointment.
1. A. familiar
2. A. fun
3. A. criticized
4. A. collected
5. A. guidance
6. A. particularly
7. A. hate
8. A. but
9. A. However
10. A. greet

B. recognisable
B. work
B. innocent
B. distributed
B. direction
B. essentially
B. dislike
B. except
B. Therefore
B. annoy

C. well-known
C. learning
C. responsible
C. assigned
C. management
C. obviously
C. like
C. with
C. Furthermore
C. approach

D. accustomed
D. prize
D. dismissed
D. finished
D. supervision
D. rarely
D. prefer
D. besides
D. Nevertheless
D. attach

Part 2. You are going to read an article in which four people talk about train journeys
they have been on. For questions 1-10, choose from the people (A - D). The people may
be chosen more than once. (0) has been done as an example.
Memorable train journeys
A. London to Brighton (UK)
I spent over ten years doing this journey every day of the week. I’m very relieved I am retired
now. I still do the same journey sometimes but now I don’t have to travel in the rush hour and if
there are delays it doesn’t matter so much. The journey when it went well wasn’t bad at all. It

wasn’t too long and I was usually able to sit down and read the newspaper. It was quite
pleasant as long as there were no annoying people having loud phone conversations. But
generally it was fine and not a bad way to begin and end a busy day in the city. The problems
and stress came with the all too frequent delays and cancellations. It was extremely frustrating,
especially as I was paying so much money for my ticket. The cost was much too high in my
opinion. I am glad I don’t have to pay that anymore.

4


B. Moscow to St Petersburg (Russia)
The most memorable train journey I have ever been on was between Moscow and St
Petersburg in Russia. We were about 17 years old and on a school trip to see the places we
were studying in our Russian history lessons. We spent three days in Moscow then took the
overnight train to St Petersburg. I remember feeling really excited about it. I had never been on
an overnight train journey before. We went to the theatre on our last evening in Moscow and
then went straight to the station to get on the train at about 11 pm. There were four of us in
each room and our whole group occupied about two carriages of the train. Our teachers were
very aware of the dangers of travelling by train at night in Russia and warned us never to walk
around the train on our own. They told us to go in groups of three to the toilets so that two
people could wait outside together while one person went in. That frightened us a little but
nothing happened. I don’t think we slept much; we stayed up most of the night talking, but I
remember waking up in the morning and realising it was daylight outside and that we were in a
completely new city. It was amazing.
C. Casablanca to Marrakech (Morocco)
We decided to travel by train because it was cheap and it only took three hours. Also, I thought
a train journey through the desert would be interesting and different. In reality it wasn’t quite as
much fun as I had hoped. We got to the station in plenty of time and got our tickets without too
much difficulty. The chaos started when we went out to the platform. It appeared that everyone
else in the station was also planning to get on the same train as us. It was really crowded.

When the train arrived it was a real fight to get on and all the seats were occupied in seconds.
My friend and I got separated in the confusion but there was no way we could move so we just
had to stand where we were and hold on. My friend managed to sit down after about an hour
but I had to stand for the whole three hours. The scenery was quite spectacular in places but
the train was hot and uncomfortable.
D. Cairns to Karanga (Australia)
I went on this train journey while I was visiting some friends who lived in Australia. I went away
for a few days on my own and before I left, my friends had recommended this trip; it was
definitely worth it. It used to be an old mining train that took miners to work every day. It starts
on the coast and goes right up the side of a mountain. It is very steep and the views are
fantastic looking back out to sea.
There is lots of information in the different stations about the people who built the railway
originally. It was a very dangerous job and many of them died while they were doing it, either
through accidents or disease. The whole journey only takes about an hour but you see all sorts
of amazing things on the way. At one point it even goes through a tropical rainforest and there
are some really beautiful plants. It is a wonderful trip to do as a tourist, but I’m sure the miners
didn’t enjoy it quite so much.
Which person:
was disappointed by the experience?

0. __ C __

learnt something interesting while on the journey?

1. ______

did this journey more than once?

2. ______

did this journey with one friend?

3. ______

thinks the price was too expensive?

4. ______

chose to do the journey because of the low price?

5. ______

says this was the first time they had been on a journey like this?

6. ______

took this journey because of advice from friends?

7. ______

says they felt scared at one point on the journey?

8. ______

5


mentions something which irritated them while on the train?

9. ______

talks about what they could see outside the train?

10. ______

Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of
the following questions.
In today’s culture, tattoos are very popular as a form of body decoration. As seen in their
prevalence among rebellious teenagers, social outsiders, dangerous outlaws, and many other
people, tattoos are viewed as luxurious fashion statements that possess a forbidden attraction mainly as long as they remain unseen. However, some people get tattoos in order to identify
themselves with certain groups, such as military units, fraternities, or even criminal organizations,
like the Japanese yakuza. Tattoos have been used in this manner throughout history by many
different cultures in the world. In fact, they have always been an important functional and symbolic
feature in most tribal and ancient cultures, whether they were used for identification, worship,
therapy, decoration, or in other rituals.
The earliest written records describing tattoo usage date back to Ancient Egypt, from
where the practice spread to Crete, Greece, Persia, and Arabia. However, tribal cultures
throughout northern Europe, the western hemisphere, and east Asia had been applying tattoos for
several thousands of years before this, with people in Japan reportedly creating tattoos ten
thousand years ago. One of the best pieces of evidence of this usage came from the excavation
of Otzi the Ice Man, the Oldest naturally preserved body discovered in Europe. Dating back to
3300BC, this mummy had fifty-seven tattoos on its body, mostly located on the inside of the left
knee, ankle, and legs. In China and Russia, naturally mummified bodies that are just as old have
been found to bear tattoos in similar sports. Based on the location of these tattoos, some
researchers speculate that they were part of a therapeutic treatment for bones.
Ancient and tribal cultures used tattoos primarily for identification, though. A person’s tattoo
would indicate their tribe, family, or social status. For instance, the Norse, the Danes, the Saxons,
and other Germanic peoples used tattoos to identify their particular clans. The Maori in New
Zealand used tattoos to indicate their social ranking. In many southeast Asian tribes, as well as in
American tribes like the Inuit, women used tattoos to indicate that they were eligible for marriage

or already married. Tattoos were also very common among warriors who displayed bravery or
ferocity in combat. Chickasaw warriors distinguished themselves with tattoos, and the Dayak
tribes used them to boast of the people they killed in battle. In later military usage, ancient Greek
spies had tattoos that related their military ranks to each other. Originally, Roman soldiers did not
have tattoos. However, after witnessing the fierceness of British tribes they fought, Roman
soldiers began to get tattoos in order to emulate their enemy’s ferocity.
1. According to paragraph 1, tattoos ______.
A. are popular only with rebellious people like teenagers, outlaws, and outsiders
B. have a rebellious attraction for many different kinds of people
C. attract those who want to display their rebellious instincts for everyone
D. are such luxurious fashion statements that not many people can get them
2. In paragraph 1, the author mentions the modern use of tattoos as a form of identification in
order to ______.
A. introduce their origins in older cultures
B. explain their associations with criminals
C. provide technical details on tattoos
D. condemn them as fashion statements
3. The word "fraternities" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. markets
B. universities
C. societies
D. stores
4. According to paragraph 2, some researchers believe that the tattoos found on mummies were
used to ______.
A. mark them as slaves
B. treat bone ailments

6

C. begin their adulthood

D. assist them in worship

5. What can be inferred from paragraph 2 about the origins of tattoos?
A. All ancient cultures copied the practice from Egypt.
B. Otzi the Ice Man is the first to have ancient tattoos.
C. It took thousands of years for tattoos to be used globally.
D. Tattoos developed independently in different cultures.
6. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. warriors
B. themselves
C. tattoos
D. tribes
7. The word "emulate" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ______.
A. express
B. reduce
C. display
D. imitate
8. According to paragraph 3, the Roman soldiers began to get tattoos because they ______.
A. were inspired by the ferocity of their tattooed enemies
B. wanted to boast of the enemies they killed
C. needed to identify their military ranks
D. used tattoos to treat their battle wounds
9. According to paragraph 3, all of the following are listed as things identified by tattoos in tribal
cultures EXCEPT ______.
A. marital status
B. tribal affiliation
C. social rank
D. criminal status

10. The best title for the passage could be ______.
A. ‘Tattoos – A Rebellious Attraction’
B. ‘Tattoos on Ancient Mummies’
C. ‘Usage of Tattoos as Identification’
D. ‘Tattoos in Tribal and Ancient Cultures’
SECTION D – WRITING
Part 1. You receive this message from an English friend who is coming to stay in your
home for a few weeks while you are away.
Is there anything I need to know about keeping your home secure? And are there any
household jobs or responsibilities that you need me to take care of? Also, what’s the
best way to get around in your area? Send me an email and let me know.
Write an email in 120-150 words to respond to his message. Use your name and address as
Mary Baker, 67 Nguyen Thi Minh Khai, Vinh city.
Part 2. In some countries at secondary or high school, there may be two streams of study:
academic or vocational. What are the advantages for students and society of putting
students into two streams at the age of 15?
Write an essay at least 250 words to express your opinion. Give reasons and specific
examples to support your answer.
- THE END -

Giáo viên dự thi không sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên giáo viên dự thi:………………………….....Số báo danh:………………
Chữ ký cán bộ coi thi số 1………………….. .Chữ ký cán bộ coi thi số 2………………….

7


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
NGHỆ AN
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

HỘI THI GIÁO VIÊN DẠY GIỎI TỈNH CẤP THPT
NĂM 2019
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ KIỂM TRA NĂNG LỰC

Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

PHẦN 1. (4,0 điểm)

Câu hỏi
Nội dung
Điểm
1.
Việc thực hiện kiểm tra, đánh giá học sinh theo định hướng 2.0 điểm
phát triển nănglực cần đạt được một số yêu cầu sau:
- Thực hiện biên soạn đề kiểm tra định kỳ theo ma trận.
0.75
- Giảm dần câu hỏi tái hiện kiến thức; tăng cường các câu hỏi
vận dụng kiến thức, kỹ năng để giải quyết vấn đề/tình huống
0.5
trong kiểm tra, đánh giá.
- Ngoài đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh thông qua bài
kiểm tra, còn chú trọng đánh giá thông qua hồ sơ học tập, kết
quả thực hiện dự án học tập, nghiên cứu KHKT, kết quả thực
0.5
hành, thí nghiệm; bài thuyết trình (bài viết, bài trình chiếu,
video...); sử dụng kết quả đánh giá thay thế cho một số bài
kiểm tra.
- Kịp thời động viên, khích lệ sự tiến bộ, cố gắng vươn lên của

học sinh; điều chỉnh quá trình dạy học vì sự tiến bộ của học
0.25
sinh.
2.
Một số hoạt động giáo viên cần làm để góp phần phát triển 2.0 điểm
khả năng tự học cho học sinh trong quá trình tổ chức dạy
học trên lớp:
- Xây dựng/thiết kế các nhiệm vụ học tập cho học sinh rõ về
mục tiêu cần đạt; cách thức thực hiện; phù hợp với đối
0.5
tượng.
- Trong quá trình học sinh thực hiện nhiệm vụ:
+ Tạo sự hứng thú cho học sinh khi nhận nhiệm vụ (nhiệm vụ
học tập đa dạng, vừa sức, phong phú về các hình thức thể
0.25
hiện).
+ Lựa chọn các hình thức tổ chức hoạt động để mỗi học sinh
chủ động thực hiện nhiệm vụ; dành nhiều thời gian để học
0.25
sinh được trình bày, thảo luận, bảo vệ kết quả học tập của
mình.
+ Quan sát, hướng dẫn, thực hiện kịp thời các phương án hỗ
0.25
trợ học sinh giải quyết các khó khăn.
0.25
+ Quan tâm rèn luyện cho học sinh một số kỹ năng: phát hiện
8


vấn đề và con đường, cách thức giải quyết vấn đề; chọn, đọc

tài liệu; biết cách tự ghi chép, khắc sâu các kiến thức trong
quá trình học tập,…
- Kịp thời ghi nhận, động viên, khích lệ kết quả thực hiện
nhiệm vụ học tập của học sinh.
- Định hướng, gợi mở các vấn đề nghiên cứu; hướng dẫn học
sinh tìm kiếm tài liệu, học liệu, tích lũy kinh nghiệm, thực
hiện các hoạt động trải nghiệm,…
PHẦN 2. (2,0 điểm)

Các tiêu chí đánh giá

0.25
0.25

Điểm

1. Thiết kế bài tập
Đáp ứng các yêu cầu của bài tập, cụ thể:
- Có hướng dẫn (rubric) rõ ràng, súc tích, dễ hiểu (thể
hiện rõ mục tiêu, yêu cầu, cách thức,… khuyến khích viết
bằng tiếng Anh)
- Đầy đủ số lượng tối thiểu 5 câu hỏi cho các mức độ nhận
biết, thông hiểu, vận dụng nhằm phát triển kỹ năng, năng
lực và củng cố kiến thức của học sinh (khuyến khích câu
hỏi yêu cầu mức độ vận dụng cao)
- Bảo đảm tính khoa học, tính giáo dục, phù hợp chuẩn
kiến thức, kỹ năng
2. Phương án hướng dẫn học sinh trả lời
Các tiêu chí đánh giá phương án hướng dẫn:
- Đầy đủ số lượng phương án hướng dẫn cho tất cả các

câu hỏi; các phương án hướng dẫn phải đảm bảo xác định
rõ cho học sinh phạm vi kiến thức hay kỹ năng cần kiểm
tra, phương pháp, kỹ năng tìm câu trả lời (khuyến khích
giáo viên khái quát hóa để học sinh có thể vận dụng cho
các câu hỏi tương tự)
- Chính xác, chuẩn về mặt kiến thức, đảm bảo tính khoa
học, tính giáo dục (khuyến khích hướng dẫn bằng tiếng
Anh)
- Dễ hiểu, rõ ràng, súc tích

1,0 điểm
0,25

0,5
0,25
1,0 điểm

0,5

0,25
0,25

PHẦN 3. (14,0 điểm)

SECTION A - LISTENING
Part 1 (2,0/20,0 points: 0,2 points for each correct answer)
1. pasta and salad
6. Theatre

2. 11.30 - 2.30

7. toasted

3. £1.50
8. Thursday

4. 50
9. 1 p.m.

5. £1.15
10. The main Refectory

Part 2 (1,0/20,0 points: 0,2 points for each correct answer)
1. F
2. F
3. T
4. F

5. T

SECTION B – VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
(2,0/20,0 points: 0,2 points for each correct answer)
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. C

5. D

9

6. D

7. C

8. C

9. B

10. A

SECTION C – READING
Part 1 (1,0/20,0 points: 0,1 points for each correct answer)
1. A
2. C
3. C
4. C
6. A
7. D
8. D
9. B

5. A
10. C

Part 2 (2,0/20,0 points: 0,2 points for each correct answer)
1. D
2.A
3.C
4. A

6.B
7.D
8.B
9.A

5.C
10.D

Part 3 (2,0/20,0 points: 0,2 points for each correct answer)
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. B
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. D

5. D
10. D

SECTION D – WRITING
Part 1. (1,5/20 points)
Part 2. (2,5/20 points)
Notes:
The mark given to parts 1 and 2 is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: (35% of total mark)
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark)

a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The writing is well-structured
3. Language: (30% of total mark)
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school teachers
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: (5% of total mark)
a. Legible handwriting
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes

10