Đề và đáp án môn HSG tiếng anh tỉnh thanh hoá

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HÓA
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Số báo danh

.....................

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11- THPT
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 21/ 3/ 2019
Đề thi có 08 trang

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây,
mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài
trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
PART I. Listen to a telephone conversation between a hotel receptionist and a caller
making a reservation. Complete the form by using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or
A NUMBER for each answer. (5pts)

Silver Tulip Hotel
1. Number of nights: (1)__________________________
2.Type of room:
(2) _______________________bed
3. Name:
(3) EDWARD_________________

4. Transport:
(4)__________________________
5. Date of arrival:
(5)__________________________

PART II. Listen to Tyrone calling his local swimming pool. Decide whether each of the
following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts)
6. There are four different age groups that play water polo.
T/F
7. Tyrone wants to join the under 14s club.
T/F
8. The under 16s water polo team trains three times a week.
T/F
9. Water polo matches are played on Saturdays.
T/F
10. You need to bring a photo to register at the swimming pool.
T/F

PART III. Listen to the speaker talking about the Maasai and the lions. Answer the
questions by choosing A, B, C or D. (5 pts)
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11. How did the Maasai people feel about lions in the past?
A. Strongly disliked them.
B. Ignore them
C. Loved them.
D. Honor them
12. What is the aim of the Lion Guardians scheme?
A. To move the lions to a safer area.

B. To train local people to breed the lions.
C. To allow experts to do the research.
D. To train local people to protect the lions.
13. Why did Olubi Lairumbe change his mind about killing lions?
A. He found it dangerous.
B. He felt sad about having killed a pregnant
lion.
C. He realized he was wrong.
D. He has killed seven lions in his lifetime.
14. How do Maasai warriors get a lion name, traditionally?
A. By killing a lion
B. By doing something brave
C. By raising a lion
D. By hunting a lion
15. What do the Lion Guardians do to help people see lions as part of the community?
A. Give people photos of the lions
B. Tell people stories about the lions.
C. Give the lions Maasai names
D. Give lion names to boys.
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest
in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (3pts)
16. A. pleased
B. raised
C. practised
D. organised
17. A. fossil
B. scenic
C. pursue
D. mission

18. A. wood
B. boot
C. mood
D. troop
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (2pts)
19. A. gather
B. limit
C. enlist
D. issue
20. A. gratitude
B. average
C. influence
D. recipient
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
21. David is the captain of the school basket team, _____his father before.
A. similar to
B. just like
C. such as
D. as well as
22. Biochemists have solved many of the mysteries about photosynthesis, the process______
plants make food.
A.by which
B. through which C. from which
D. in which
23. I don’t think he’s ever been there,___________?
A.do I
B. has he

C. don’t I
24.______second thoughts, I’d rather not go out tonight.
A.With
B. In
C. On

D. hasn’t he
D. Under

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25. Advertisers often claim their campaigns at young people as they have coniderable
spending_________.
A. power
B. force
C. energy
D. ability
26. When someone is down on their_______, friends are not easy to find.
A. mood
B. luck
C. fortune
D. merit
27. The online game “Pugb” quickly________with young people after being released in
2017.
A.took on
B. caught up
C. caught on
D. took up
28. Mai: “Stop talking! You are so noisy.”

Huy: “__________ He is the noisest in this class.”
A.Why not?
B. Look, who’s talking.
C. You can say that again.
D. You bet!
29. Everything in the supermarket is marked with a price_____.
A. notice
B. mark
C. sign
D. tag
30. We set off on ____ sunny Tuesday in August.
A. A
B. The
C. An
D. Ø
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. You wouldn’t catch me (work) __________ on a Sunday.
32. They were fortunate (rescue) ___________ from the fire before the building collapsed
33. It is asked that the government (set) ________ up a regional library system.
34. If there aren’t any tickets left when we reach the front of the queue, we (wait) ________
all the time for nothing.
35. Look! The rain has spoiled our furniture. You (close) _________ the windows last night.
36. She spoke about her daughter, then she went on (talk) _________ about her son.
37. We were told that the workers (repair) __________ an old bridge at that time.
38. The fifth man (interview) __________ was entirely unsuitable.
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (7pts)
39. Alice is very _________. She always manages to look good in photographs. (PHOTO)
40. Like many____ of his generation, he was fascinated by the Internet.

(TECHNOLOGY)
41. Tony’s stubborn belief in his own _______ kept him from listening to others. (FALL)
42. Children growing up in time of war are more likely to be _______ than other.
(ADJUST)
43. Noise from the factory has reached an ________level.
(ACCEPT)
44. The new movie is _________ good.
(EXCEPT)
45. People used to suffer from their life-time physical________.
(NORMAL)
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Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ). Recognize the
mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
Line
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12

Sometimes mail arrives in the post office, and it is impossible to deliver the mail.

Perhaps there is an inadequate or illegible address and no return address. The post
office can not just throw this mail out, so this becomes “dead mail”. This “dead mail”
is sent to one of the US. Postal Service’s dead mail offices. Seventy-five million
pieces of mail can end up in the dead mail office in one year. The staff of the dead
mail offices have a variety of ways to deal with all of these pieces of dead mail. First
of all, they open packages in the hope that something inside will show that the
package came from or is going to. Dead mail will also be listed on a computer so that
people can call in and check to see if a missed item is there. However, all of this mail
can’t simply be stored forever; When a lot of dead mail has piled up, the dead mail
offices hold public auction. Every three months, the public is invited in and bins
containing items found in dead mail packages are sold to the lowest bidder.

Example: Line 1: in  at
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)
There has been a significant shift in entertainment trends over the last twenty years or so.
Entertainment used to be public, now it is becoming more and more (51)________. Formerly
people wanting to amuse themselves did so in (52)________, these days, people increasingly
entertain themselves on their own.
Long, long ago, there were storytellers. They used to travel around the country and their
arrival was (53)_______ with eager anticipation. In the more recent past, people used to have
musical evenings, they used to play games together, on simply sit around the fire and chat.
Nowadays, (54)_______of playing board games in a group, children play video games
alone or with one another person. People of all ages spend their evenings alone watching
television, videos and DVDs. And large numbers of young (and not so young) enthusiasts
spend their free time surfing the net, (55)_________, by its very nature, tends to be a
(56)_________activity.
Forms of entertainment have always been changing, of course, but it could be said that
these recent changes all, (57)_______ of technological development, (58)_______ a more

fundamental shift. One could further argue that this shift is symbolized by the earphones that
(59)_______ in evidence everywhere. Can this deliberate attempt to shut out the rest of the
world really be (60)_______entertainment?
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
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In recent years there has been a remarkable increase in research into happiness. The
researchers have (61)______ a number of factors which contribute to a definition of
happiness. First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be
happy; in other words, happiness (62)_________ in families. And happiness seems to
correlate quite strongly with the main dimensions of personality: extroverts are generally
happier, neurotics are so. Second, people often (63)________ good social relations as a
reason for their happiness. In particular, friends are a great (64)________ of joy, partly
because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way friends use
positive nonverbal signals such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage
and similar (65)_______ relationship can also form the basis of lasting happiness. Third, job
satisfaction undoubtedly (66)________ overall satisfaction, and vice versa – perhaps this is
why some people are happy in boring job: it works in both ways. Job satisfaction is caused
not only by the essential nature of the work, but also by social interaction with co-workers.
Unemployment, on the contrary, can be serious cause of unhappiness. Fourth, leisure is
important because it is more under individual (67)_____ than most other causes of happiness.
Activities (68)_____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of
various kinds, can give joy, this is partly because of the (69)_____ themselves, but also
because of the social support of other group members-it is very strong (70)______the case of
religious groups.
61. A. fallen back on
B. gone in for
C. got down to

D. come up with
62. A. arrives
B. runs
C. goes
D. descends
63. A. explain
B. prefer
C. talk
D. report
64. A. source
B. origin
C. base
D. meanings
65. A. near
B. close
C. tight
D. heavy
66. A. consists of
B. applies to
C. contributes
D. counts on
67. A. check
B. power
C. control
D. choice
68. A. like
B. such
C. so
D. thus
69. A. facilities

B. activities
C. exercises
D. amenities
70. A. by
B. for
C. in
D. with
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
TIDAL ENERGY
A Tidal Stream Generation system reduces some of the environmental effects of tidal
barrages by using turbine generators beneath the surface of the water. Major tidal flows and
ocean currents, like the Gulf Stream, can be exploited to extract its tidal energy using
underwater rotors and turbines.
Tidal stream generation is very similar in principle to wind power generation. Water
currents flow across a turbines rotor blades which rotates the turbine, much like how wind
currents turn the blades for wind power turbines. In fact, tidal stream generation areas on the
sea bed can look just like underwater wind farms.

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Unlike off-shore wind power which can suffer from storms or heavy sea damage, tidal
stream turbines operate just below the sea surface or are fixed to the sea bed. Tidal streams
are formed by the horizontal fast flowing volumes of water caused by the ebb and flow of the
tide as the profile of the sea bed causes the water to speed up as it approaches the shoreline.
As water is much more denser than air and has a much slower flow rate, tidal stream
turbines have much smaller diameters and higher tip speed rates compared to an equivalent
wind turbine. Tidal stream turbines generate tidal power in both the ebb and flow of the tide.
On of the disadvantages of Tidal Stream Generation is that as the turbines are submerged

under of the water they can create hazards to navigation and shipping.
Other forms of tidal energy include tidal fences which use individual vertical-axis turbines
that are mounted within a fence structure, known as the caisson, which completely blocks a
channel and force water through them. Another alternative way of harnessing tidal power is
by using an “oscillating tidal turbine”. This is basically a fixed wing called a Hydroplane
positioned on the sea bed. The hydroplane uses the energy of the tidal stream flowing past it
to oscillate its giant wing, similar to a whales flipper, up and down with the movement of the
tidal currents. This motion is then used to generate electricity. The angle of the hydroplane to
the flow of the tide can be varied to increase efficiency.
Tidal energy is another form of low-head hydro power that is completely carbon neutral
like wind and hydro energy. Tidal power has many advantages compared to other forms of
renewable energy with its main advantage being that it is predictable. However, like many
other forms of renewable energy, tidal energy also has disadvantages such as its inflexible
generation times dependent upon the tides and the fact that it operates in the hostile
conditions of the oceans and seas.
71. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A.Tidal energy system and its working principle.
B.Currents and flow of ocean and seas.
C.Tidal turbine and its environmental effects.
D.Tidal energy in comparison with hydro energy.
72. According to paragraph 2, wind power turbines rotate thanks to________.
A. Tidal stream
B. water currents flow
C. wind currents
D. wind farms
73. What does the word “profile” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. An outline of an object
B. A biographical account
C. A summary or analysis of data
D. A vertical section of soil and rock

74. What is mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of Tidal Stream Generation?
A. It can suffer from storms or heavy sea damage.
B. There are some hazards in navigating and shipping turbines.
C. It uses individual vertical-axis turbines.
D. It is another form of low-head hydro power.
75. The word “that” in paragraph 5 refers to_________.
A. tidal energy
B. tidal fences
C. individual vertical-axis turbines
D. fence structure
6


76. What can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. Individual vertical-axis turbines are the best choice for Tidal Stream Generation.
B. Fence structure is the only way to harness tidal power.
C. Hydroplane uses less energy of the tidal stream.
D. There are some alternative ways to exploit tidal power.
77. The word “oscillate” in paragraph 5 mostly means_________.
A. fluctuate
B. remain
C. move
D. stabilize
78. According to the passage, which of the following statements about Tidal Stream Generation
is TRUE?
A. Tidal stream generation is very dissimilar in principle from the wind power generation.
B. Tidal stream turbines generate tidal power on both the ebb and flow of the tide.
C. The angle of the hydroplane to the flow of the tide can’t be varied to increase efficiency.
D. Tidal energy has no disadvantages.
79. The word “hostile” in the last paragraph mostly means_________.

A. difficult
B. unfriendly
C. agreeable
D. favorable
80. According to the last paragraph, the passage will most likely be followed by discussion
of____.
A. Hostile conditions of the oceans and seas.
B. Adjustable generation times of the tides.
C. Drawbacks of tidal energy.
D. Many other forms of renewable energy.
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer
sheet. (5 pts)
81. You must not write your answer in ink.
 It is against_____________________________________________ .
82. The staff hated Frank’s new policies intensely and so went on strike.
 So intense______________________________________________ .
83. People say that he sold his house to pay the debt.
 He is __________________________________________________ .
84. “I admit that I forgot to turn on the alarm system” said Mark.
 Mark confessed_________________________________________ .
85. When she saw the dog coming towards her, she quickly crossed the road.
 On ___________________________________________________ .
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
86. Every possible effort was made by the orphanage to find the boy’s parents. (STONE)
 The orphanage____________________________________________.
87. Women outnumber men by two to one in Greece
(TWICE)

 There ___________________________________________________.
88. No matter what Peter does, people don’t seem eager to work on project.
(GENERATE)
 Peter doesn’t seem_________________________________________.
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89. The jumper you knitted for my daughter no longer fits her.

(GROWN)

 My daughter _____________________________________________.
90. Only final year students are allowed to use the main college car park.
 The use_________________________________________________.

(RESTRICTED)

Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)
Write an essay of about 200 - 250 words to express your opinion on the following topic:
“Music is an integral part of our life.”
----------------- THE END-------------------SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠOTHANH HÓA ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM – ĐỀ CHÍNH
THỨC
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
(HDC gồm 03 trang)
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11 - THPT
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 21/ 3/ 2019
SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
PART I. Listen to a telephone conversation between a hotel receptionist and a caller

making a reservation. Complete the form by using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or
A NUMBER for each answer. (5pts)
1. 1/ one
2. Double - king-sized
3. FRANCIS
4. Taxi
5. Fri(day) 16th April
PART II. Listen to Tyrone calling his local swimming pool. Decide whether each of the
following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts)
6. T
7. F
8. F
9. T
10. T
PART III. Listen to the speaker talking about the Maasai and the lions. Answer the
questions by choosing A, B, C or D. (5 pts)
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. C
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest
in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)
16. C
17. D
18. A
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)
19. C

20. D
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.(10 pts)
21. B
22. A
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. C
30. A

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Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. working
32. to have been rescued
33. (should) set
34. will be waiting
35. should have closed
36. to talk
37. were repairing
38. to be interviewed
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (7pts)
39. photogenic

40. technophiles
41. infallibility
42. maladjusted
43. unacceptable
44. exceptionally 45. abnormalities
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ). Recognize the
mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
46. Line 3: out

away
47. Line 7: that

where
48. Line 9: missed

missing
49. Line 10: auction

auctions
50. Line 12: lowest

highest
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
51. private 52. groups
53. awaited
54. instead
55. which
56. solitary 57. products

58. mark
59. are
60. called
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
61. D
62. B
63. D
64. A
65. B
66. C
67. C
68. A
69. B
70. C
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
71. A
72. C
73. D
74. B
75. C
76. D
77. A
78. B
79. B
80. C
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)

81. It is against the rules to write your answer in ink.
82. So intense was the hatred for/of Frank’s new policies that the staff went on strike.
83. He is said to have sold his house to pay the debt.
84. Mark confessed to forgetting/ having forgotten to turn on the alarm system.
85. On seeing the dog coming towards her, she quickly crossed the road.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not
change the form of the given word. (5pts)
9


86.
87.
88.
89.
90.

The orphanage left no stone unturned in their attempt to find the boy’s parents.
There are twice as many women as men in Greece.
Peter doesn’t seem to generate enthusiasm (in people) for working on the project.
My daughter has grown out of the jumper you knitted for her.
The use of the main college car park is restricted to final year students.

Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: 2 pts ( coherence, cohesion , style )
The essay should include 3 parts:
a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are
expressed clearly
b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic

sentence, reasonings and examples.
c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)
2. Content : 5pts
A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
Note:
- Students can totally agree/ disagree or partly agree.
- Students can give their opinion right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his or
her own opinion in the conclusion.
3. Language : 3pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures )
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 100 điểm
- Thang điểm:
20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
Điểm bài thi
=
5
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25
----------------- THE END----------------------

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