Đề và đáp án môn HSG tiếng anh tỉnh thanh hoá

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HÓA
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Số báo danh

.....................

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11- THPT
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 21/ 3/ 2019
Đề thi có 08 trang

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây,
mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài
trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
PART I. Listen to a conversation between a travel agent and a man making a hotel
reservation. Complete the form by using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A
NUMBER for each answer. (5pts)
Hotel Reservation Form
1. Billing address: (1) 4, The______________, Standmarch, Norfolk, NE1 4SP.
2. Mobile phone: (2)_______________________
3. Check out date: (3)_______________________
4. Payment Type: (4) ______________________
5. Amount:
(5) £_____________________

PART II. Listen to Heather talking to Clive about what Terry, her brother, is going to do
during his visit. Decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5
pts).
6. Heather’s brother will visit the parents after visiting her.
T/F
7. Clive found it easy to book a table at the Mexican restaurant.
T/F
8. Heather thinks that Terry will be interested in the exhibition.
T/F
9. The party is organized at their school.
T/F
10. Clive will come to the party before Heather and her brother.
T/F
PART III. Listen to the presentation about unusual British festivals. Answer the questions
by choosing A, B, C or D. (5pts)
11. What do they burn in the Up Helly Aa festival?
A. A wooden man
B. A wooden cross
C. A line in the grass
D. A Viking boat
12. What do you have to do during a pancake race?
A. Eat as many pancakes as possible
B. Run as fast as possible while tossing a pancake in a pan
C. Run and jump over the ropes without dropping the pancake
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D. Run and eat a pancake as fast as possible
13. Nowadays, who are usually the winners of the cheese rolling competition?
A. People from the village

B. Top athletes
C. Visitors from all over the world.
D. People in the south-west of England
14. What happens to the fastest snail in the Snail Racing?
A. It is cooked with garlic and butter.
C. It is given a prize of extra lettuce.

B. It is eaten by the snail owners and observers.
D. It is rescued from the barbecue.

15. How old is the Burning of the Clocks festival?
A. 2 years old
B. 20 years old
C. 200 years old

D. 2000 years old

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (3pts)
16. A. organised
B. based
C. decreased
D. released
17. A. smoothly
B. root
C. foot
D. mood
18. A. spacious
B. decision

C. ocean
D. special
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (2pts)
19. A. bother
B. capture
C. challenge
D. survive
20. A. confident
B. memento
C. constancy
D. solitude

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
21.You have managed to bungle every task I’ve given you so far._________, I’m preparing
to give you one last chance.
A. Regardless
B. Furthermore
C. Nevertheless
D.
Notwithstanding
22. ______second thoughts, I’d rather not go out tonight.
A. On
B. In
C. With
D. Under
23. I don’t think she will need my help,_________?
A. do I

B. will she
C. won’t she
D. don’t I
24. The State Laws limit the speed_____motorists are permitted to drive.
A. at which
B. which
C. that
D. where
25. Poor management brought the company to_________of collapse.
A. the edge
B. the foot
C. the ring
D. the brink
26. Mary Smith decided to give up her job for the_________of her children.
A. reason
B. concern
C. care
D. sake
27. I hear they are going to_________the old cinema and build a supermarket.
A. go down with
B. cut down on
C. do away with
D. get away with
28. Harry: Thank you for your help, Judy”
Judy: “__________.”
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A. With all my heart is
B. Never mention me

C. It’s my pleasure.
D. No problem
29. I need to__________£1.000 to my daughter’s account.
A. transfer
B. transform
C. transit
D. transact
30. __________lunch they provided was excellent.
A. A
B. The
C. An
D. Ø
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. When she found her dog (eat) ___________ her birthday cake, she couldn’t but kick it
out.
32. We were shocked to know the news of your (fire) _________.
33. It is asked that the government (set) __________up regional library system.
34. All the best things (go) ____________ if we don’t get to the sale soon.
35. This homework is not as good as usual. I think you (spend) ________ more time on it.
36. The aero plane in which the football team (travel) _________ crashed soon after taking
off.
37. Johnny was the last applicant (call) __________ for a position in this company.
38. I’m sorry. I didn’t mean (hurt) ______ you.
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (7pts)
39. The government should ________ this industry.
(REGULATE)
40. _______ to the US must complete all appropriate forms before entering
(MIGRATE)

the country.
41. They’ve decided to_________ the currency, so it’ll be worth a lot less.
(VALUE)
42. At the entrance of a greasy, _________ kitchen, we met an old man
(ODOUR)
carrying some unpleasant bags.
43.
Some
experiences
in
early
life
have
________
effects.
(ERADICATE)
44. Alice is very _________. She always manages to look good in photographs. (PHOTO)
45. “I am going to ask that very question of you.” said Norton________.
(URBAN)
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes (from 46 to 50). Recognize the
mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
Lin
e
1

The major revolution for the automated office is electronic mail. The customary

2

postal system requires messages written in paper to be transmitted physically from

3

one local to other. With electronic mail, messages are converted into electronic

4

signals, transmitted anywhere in the world, and then changed back into the original

5

written form, all in several seconds and minutes at almost.
3


6

Through the use of video screens in company offices, a single document can be

7

transmitted to hundreds of people in dozens of branch offices at the same time.

8

Thus, electronic mail, along with database, can be an important asset in

9

teleconferences.

10

box’ attached to a telephone is also of great value. Since in offices many telephone

11

calls go uncompleting on the first attempt, with electronic mail, two-way

12

conversion is not essential, so it reduces telephone use and saves time.

Furthermore, the use of electric mail in the form of a ‘mail

Example: Line 1: The  A
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)
The future of African elephant depends on man. No longer can human beings and wild
animals live in (51) _______ throughout vast areas of the continent as was possible in days
gone by, (52) _______ man’s needs have increased as well as his numbers. There are regions,
such as the Congo forests and the equatorial Sudan, (53) ________ the old relationship may
remain for a (54) _______ more years or even generations, but in general it has gone .
Conversation, if it is to be (55) ________, must be a positive, constructive policy, and it is
wishful thinking to imagine otherwise, particularly in the (56)________ of the elephant. And
if this is not yet true of the whole of Africa, it soon will be, for (57) _______ increase in the
human population is almost universal. Where human beings and wild animals find
themselves in competition with each other, the animals will (58) ________. Even if (59)
_______ appears to be enough room for both, man will not tolerate for long a situation in

which elephants and other creatures make even occasional raids on his fields of food or
economic crops. For many years this has been a major cause of conflicting (60) ________
and one of the reasons why so many elephants have been shot to control their numbers.
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
The Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life.
(61)_____human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world
carries on consuming two-thirds of the world’s resources while half of the world’s
population do so (62)_______to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the
(63)_______resources we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere
fertile soil is (64)__________built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are
exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (65)_________.We discharge
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pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a
(66)_________, the planet’s ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when
rising human numbers and consumption are (67)_______ increasingly heavy demands on it.
The Earth’s (68)_________resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air,
energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (69)_________us fed, comfortable,
healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will (70)_____
indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and
everyone will suffer.
61. A. Still
B. Despite
C. Yet
D. Although
62. A. for
B. just
C. already

D. entirely
63. A. lone
B. individual
C. lonely
D. alone
64. A. sooner
B. rather
C. either
D. neither
65. A. completely
B. quite
C. greatly
D. utterly
66. A. product
B. result
C. development
D. reaction
67. A. having
B. doing
C. taking
D. making
68. A. natural
B. real
C. living
D. genuine
69. A. stay
B. keep
C. maintain
D. hold
70. A. last

B. stand
C. remain
D. go
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
OUR HOME IN THE FUTURE
According to the report, we can expect some pretty remarkable changes to our home and our
personal spaces, overlooked things that makes up so much of our daily routine. As human
populations soar, our cities and homes will have to adapt: interior living spaces will change as a
cloud changes, easily reconfigured and rearranged to suit our fickle tastes, or accommodate
different purposes.
Imagine walls and floors made of a malleable “skin”, and embedded with tiny sensors and
actuators so that the shape and size of living spaces can quickly change, or even be divided into
smaller rooms: imagine fully programmable “smart homes” that can be controlled remotely, and
provide feedback to their owners - yes, there’ll even be an app for that.
Virtual decorations will alter with changing tastes, moods and whims; and the entire interior
surface of the home will be implanted with LED technology – television screens and computer
displays will form and unform in any room, as needed. Even our furniture will be adaptable,
molding to custom fit our bodies, responding to changes in posture, or disappearing altogether
when not needed.
It will be the ultimate evolution of the “Internet of Things”. Misplaced something? Can’t find
your keys? No problem. Just use an online search function to find it. Hate the color of that accent
wall? Delete it. Need more storage space? Watch new shelves appear, as if by magic.
And the amenities are fantastic. Every home will come standard with a 3D printer; they’ll be
able to churn out just about anything you could wish, using downloadable patterns, probably
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including even complex electronic devices. They may even print out your meals, designed and
programmed by the world’s master chefs.

Walk-in “medical pods”, meanwhile, will contribute to the decentralization of healthcare –
their imaging sensors, will diagnose your ills and, for the more easily treatable maladies,
dispense drugs, inject antibiotics, and recommend health regiments. It may even be possible to
undergo remote, robot-mediated surgery. In the comfort of your own home.
This barely scratches the surface. Imagine how whose very building material is salted with
dormant limestone-producing bacteria, which awaken upon contact with moisture and repair any
cracks or structural damage.
There will be “digestion tanks” full of anaerobic bacteria, to dispose of our waste; and our
homes will produce store, and reuse their own energy, using “microbial fuel cell stacks” and
more efficient solar panels to generate electricity, and power-banks like the Tesla power wall to
store it against future use. Personal homes will be almost fully independent of a dangerously
overtaxed energy grid.
One hundred years in the future, our house will be, in almost all aspects, semi-living, artificial
organisms – closed system with a metabolism, sensory apparatus, immune response, and an
approximation to a nervous system. We’ll be living in homes that are practically alive.
71. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Smart living – our home in the future
B. LED technology – television screens and computer displays
C. New standard with a 3D printer
D. Our home – a semi-living, artificial organisms
72. The word “overlooked” in paragraph 1 mostly means___________.
A. forbidden
B. foregone
C. foreseen
D. forgotten
73. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as an advantage of technology to
change our house?
A. movable walls
B. implanted LED
C. furniture

D. television screens and computer displays
74. The word “molding” in paragraph 4 mostly means___________.
A. forming
B. framing
C. adapting
D. producing
75. Remote, robot-mediated surgery has been mentioned in paragraph 6 as an example of____.
A. way to decentralize of healthcare
B. technology applied in healthcare
C. diagnosis of your ills
D. recommendation of health regiments
76. The word “They” in paragraph 5 refers to________.
A. downloadable patterns
B. complex electronic devices
C. 3D printer
D. world’s master chefs
77. Which of the following about our future home is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Interior living spaces will be easily reconfigured and rearranged to suit our tastes, or
accommodate different purposes.
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B. New shelves will be printed by 3D printer to give us more storage space.
C. We can search online to find our missing keys or things.
D. Our home will have more
78. The author’s attitude toward our home in the future is one of ___________.
A. humor
B. indifference
C. commendation D. disapproval
79. The word “amenities” in paragraph 4 mostly means___________.

A. facilities
B. inconveniences C. devices
D. abominations
80. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The more advanced technology becomes, the more we have to pay attention to our
home.
B. Advanced technology will soon replace human labor at home.
C. Our home will be practically smart and human totally depend on it.
D. Advance of technology can be applied to change everything in our home, and to make
our life more comfortable and safer than ever before.
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer
sheet. (5 pts)
81. “Under no circumstances and I to be disturbed!” the manager told her secretary.
The manager gave her secretary strict instructions_______________
82. People believe he won a lot of money on the lottery.
He is____________________________________________________
83. “ Don’t worry, you’ll make a complete recovery.” The doctor told me
The doctor reassured________________________________________
84. When I picked up my pen I found that the nib had broken.
 On______________________________________________________
85. The staff hated Frank’s new policies intensely and so went on strike.
 So intense_______________________________________________
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not
change the form of the given word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5pts)
86. There are a lot of people out of work in this town.
(LEVEL)
The____________________________________________________

87. There is a bus to the station every half an hour on Saturdays.
(INTERVALS)
There___________________________________________________
88. I’m not going any further till I’ve had something to eat.
(FAR)
This is__________________________________________________
89. Although Tom had his legs cut off after a serious accident,
he competed in the Olympic Games and won a medal.
(PREVENT)

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Tom’s legs being__________________________________________
90. After such a long time together they are still happily married.
Their marriage___________________________________________

(TEST)

Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)
Write an essay of about 200 - 250 words to express your opinion on the following
topic:
“Music is an integral part of our life.”

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠOTHANH HÓA

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM DỰ BỊ
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP

TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
(HDC gồm 03 trang)
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11 - THPT
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 21/ 3/ 2019
SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
PART I. Listen to a conversation between a travel agent and a man making a hotel
reservation. Complete the form by using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A
NUMBER for each answer. (5pts)
1. WILLOWS
2. 07632 112254
3. Tuesday 19th June
4. credit card
5. 360
PART II. Listen to Heather talking to Clive about what Terry, her brother, is going to do
during his visit. Decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F).
(5pts)
6. T
7. F
8. T
9. F
10. F
PART III. Listen to the presentation about unusual British festivals. Answer the questions
by choosing A, B, C or D. (5pts)
11. D

12. B
13. A
14. C
15. B
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)
16. A
17. C
18. B
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)
19. D
20. B
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.(10 pts)
21. C
22. A
23. B
24. A
25D
26. D
27. C
28. C
29.A
30. B
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (8 pts)
31. eating
32. having been fired

33. (should) set
34. will have gone
35. should have spent
36. was travelling
37. to be called
38. to hurt
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (7pts)
39. deregulate
40. immigrants
41. devalue 42. malodourous
43. ineradicable
44. photogenic
45. urbanely
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Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes (from 46 to 50). Recognize the
mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
46. Line 2: in

on
47. Line 3:other

another
48. Line 5: almost

most
49. Line 8: database


databases
50. Line 5: uncompleting

uncompleted
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
51. harmony
52. for
53. where
54. few
55. effective
56. case
57. the
58. lose
59. there
60. interests
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
61. C
62. B
63. C
64. C
65. A
66. B
67. D
68. A
69. B
70. A
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the

answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
71. A
72. D
73. A
74. C
75. B
76. C
77. B
78. C
79. A
80. D
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. The manager gave her secretary strict instructions that no one should be allowed to
disturb her.
82. He is believed to have won a lot of money on the lottery.
83. The doctor reassured me that I would make a complete recovery.
84. On picking up my pen, I found that the nib had broken.
85. So intense was the hatred for/of Frank’s new policies that the staff went on strike.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not
change the form of the given word. (5pts)
86. The level of unemployment is high in this town.
87. There is a bus to the station at half-hour intervals on Saturdays.
88. This is as far as I’m going till I’ve had something to eat.
89. Tom’s legs being cut off did not/ could not prevent him from competing in the Olympic
Games and winning a medal.
90. Their marriage has stood the test of time.
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)

Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: 2 pts ( coherence, cohesion , style )
The essay should include 3 parts:
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a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are
expressed clearly
b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic
sentence, reasonings and examples.
c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)
2. Content : 5pts
A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
Note:
- Students can totally agree/ disagree or partly agree.
- Students can give their opinion right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his or
her own opinion in the conclusion.
3. Language : 3pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures )
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 100 điểm
- Thang điểm:
20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
Điểm bài thi
=
5
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25
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