GED Science Practice Questions

C H A P T E R

30

GED Science
Practice
Questions
NOW IT’S time to put all that you have learned about science and
scientific inquiry into practice. In the following section, you will find 75
multiple-choice questions like those you will find on the GED Science
Exam.

Directions
Read the questions carefully and choose the best answer for each question. Some questions may refer to a passage,
illustration, or graph. Be sure to answer every question; you will not be penalized for incorrect answers. Do not
spend too much time on any one question so you can be sure to complete all the questions in the allotted time.
Record your answers on the answer sheet provided on page 267. Make sure you mark the answer in the circle
that corresponds to the question.
Note: On the GED, you are not permitted to write in the test booklet. Make any notes or calculations on a separate piece of paper.

265



– LEARNINGEXPRESS ANSWER SHEET –

Answer Sheet
1.
2.
3.
4.

5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.

a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a

a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b

c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c

c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c

d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d

d
d
d
d
d

e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e

e

26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

a
a

a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a

b
b
b
b
b
b

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b

c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c

c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c

267

d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d

d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d

e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e

e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e

51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.

71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a

a

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b

c
c

c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c

d
d
d
d
d
d

d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d

e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e

e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e
e



– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

5

6

7

8

5.

Which of the following is NOT true about
gravity?
a. The more massive two objects are, the greater
the gravitational force between them.
b. Gravitational force between two objects
depends only on the mass of the larger object.
c. Gravitational force between two objects
depends on the distance between them.
d. People can jump higher on the moon than on
Earth because the gravitational force between
a person and the moon is lower than the gravitational force between a person and the
Earth.
e. A gravitational force exists between the moon
and the sun.

6.

Change of phase is a process whereby matter
changes form (solid, liquid, gas). Which one of
the following constitutes a phase change?
a. condensation of water vapor
b. photosynthesis
c. digestion of food
d. dry-cleaning
e. exhaling

7.

Two negatively charged spheres
a. repel each other.

b. attract each other.
c. neither attract nor repel each other.
d. can either attract or repel each other depending on their position.
e. attract each other only when the distance
between them is small.

9 10 11 12 13 14
Oven
cleaner
Lye

4

Ice floats on water because
a. ice is less dense than water.
b. water conducts heat better than ice.
c. ice has a lower temperature.
d. heat from the Earth’s core travels upward,
cooling the bottom first.
e. it needs energy from the sun to melt.

Increasingly Basic

Ammonia

3

Beer
Coffee

2

Vinegar

Battery
acid
Stomach
acid

1

Neutral

Bleach

Increasingly Acidic
0

4.

In an acid base reaction, an acid reacts with a
base to produce water and a salt. The pH scale
can be used to describe the acidity of a liquid.
Look at the diagram below.

Saliva
Blood

1.

Which two liquids could undergo an acid base
reaction?
a. bleach and ammonia
b. lye and ammonia
c. blood and saliva
d. bleach and vinegar
e. stomach acid and beer
2.

3.

According to Newton’s laws of motion, an object
set in motion remains in motion unless a force
acts on it. If you suspend an object from a string
and make it swing, the object will swing for a
while, then slow down and stop. Why does the
suspended object stop swinging?
a. because an object at rest remains at rest unless
a force acts upon it
b. because the mass of the object is too small to
maintain the motion
c. because energy is the ability to do work
d. because gravity is pulling it toward the Earth
e. because energy of motion is converted to heat
through friction with air
In an exothermic process, heat is released by the
process to the surroundings. An example of an
exothermic process is burning wood. An
endothermic process requires the input of heat
from the surroundings. An example of an

endothermic process is boiling water. Which of
the following is an endothermic process?
a. detonation of an explosive
b. melting ice
c. burning paper
d. the formation of helium on the sun
e. freezing water

269


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

8.

9.

11.

Which statement about energy and/or matter is
incorrect?
a. Matter and energy can’t be destroyed.
b. Matter and energy can’t be created.
c. All matter tends toward more disordered
states.
d. Energy can be stored and transferred.
e. Heat energy is composed of heat atoms.

400 nm

Violet

C

C

C

H

14.

H

C

C
H
H

H

H

C

C

C

H

H

H

H

In order to protect themselves from being eaten,
animals resort to camouflage and chemical
defense. Animals camouflage by mimicking the
appearance of their environment. Animals that
have chemical defenses contain chemicals noxious to predators. Which of these is NOT an
example of camouflage or chemical defense?
a. A walking stick insect looks just like a twig.
b. A skunk has an awful smell.
c. Feathers of the pitohui bird in New Guinea
contain a deadly toxin.
d. Roses have thorns.
e. A harlequin crab looks just like the sea
cucumber it lives on.

H

H

10.

C

Which of the following is NOT true about
sunlight?
a. It is a form of radiation.
b. It is used as an energy source in solar-powered
calculators.
c. It contains the colors of the rainbow.
d. Its speed is infinite.
e. It can be absorbed by plants.

H

H
H

H

H

e.

Red

13.

H

H
H

C

H

d.

C

H
H

Orange

What always stays the same when a chemical
reaction takes place?
a. the number of atoms
b. the number of molecules
c. the amount of gas
d. the amount of solid matter
e. the amount of disorder

H

H

c.

Green Yellow

700 nm 730 nm

12.

H
H

Blue

600 nm

H

H

b.

500 nm

According to the diagram, blue-green light
would most likely have a wavelength of
a. 670 nm.
b. 550 nm.
c. 350 nm.
d. 470 nm.
e. 700 nm.

The boiling point in hydrocarbons (molecules
containing H and C) increases with increasing
molecular weight due to larger intermolecular
forces. Which of these hydrocarbons would you
expect to have the highest boiling point?

a.
H
H

Different colors of light correspond to different
wavelengths. Wavelengths are often quoted in
nanometers (nm). The wavelengths of the visible
part of the spectrum are shown in the diagram
below.

H

H

H
C
H

H

People wear woolen gloves in the winter because
gloves
a. generate heat energy through radiation.
b. increase the temperature of cold air through
convection.
c. decrease the loss of body heat to surroundings
through insulation.
d. increase the amount of heat energy generated
by the body through conduction.
e. transform cold wind energy into thermal

energy.

270


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

15.

Osmosis is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane in order to equalize
the concentration (the amount of protein per
milliliter of water) on two sides of the membrane. Consider the diagram below. The container is divided into two compartments, A and
B, by a selectively permeable membrane. Each
circle represents 100 protein molecules that can’t
pass through the membrane. The amount of
water on two sides of the membrane is initially
equal. What will happen as a result of osmosis?

17.

Identical twins have exactly the same genes.
Identical twins result when
a. an egg fertilized by one sperm divides in two.
b. two eggs are fertilized with two sperm cells.
c. one egg divides in two and is fertilized by two
sperm cells.
d. the same sperm cell fertilizes two eggs.
e. the same egg is fertilized by two sperm cells.

18.

In peas, the gene for green color is dominant
over the gene for yellow color. We will specify the
gene for yellow peas as y, and the gene for green
peas as Y. Each pea has two genes for color (one
from each parent) and donates only one gene for
color to its offspring. Yellow peas have the genotype yy. Any other genotype leads to green peas.
Consider the following Punnett square:

Membrane
Water level
A

B

Parent
Y

16.

Which of the following statements about human
genetics is true?
a. Half the chromosomes in a human are inherited from the mother, and half from the
father.
b. A human looks 50% like the father, and 50%
like the mother.
c. Fraternal twins are genetically more similar
than siblings who are not twins.
d. Exposure to X-rays can have no effect on a
human’s chromosomes.

e. Genes are particles found in the nucleus of
DNA atom.

Parent

a. Protein will flow from compartment B to
compartment A.
b. Protein will flow from compartment A to
compartment B.
c. Water will flow from compartment B to compartment A.
d. Water will flow from compartment A to compartment B.
e. Both water and protein will flow from compartment B to compartment A.

y

y

Yy

yy

y

Yy

yy

The offspring of these two parents
a. could never be yellow.
b. could never be green.

c. could be either green or yellow.
d. could be yellow-green.
e. could be yellow, but could never have yellow
offspring.
19.

271

Which of the following is NOT true?
a. All organisms are made of atoms.
b. All organisms are made of molecules.
c. All organisms are made of one or more cells.
d. All organisms have genetic material.
e. All organisms have a cell wall.


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

20.

21.

In humans, a pair of chromosomes (one from
each parent) determines the sex of the baby.
Females have two X chromosomes, while males
have an X and a Y chromosome. The baby always
gets an X chromosome from the mother, so in
humans, the father determines the sex of the
baby by supplying it with either an X chromosome to make it female, or a Y chromosome to
make it male. In birds, like in humans, a pair of

chromosomes determines the sex. Birds with
two W chromosomes are male. Birds with a W
chromosome and a Z chromosome are female.
Which statement is true about birds?
a. The male bird determines the sex of the offspring by supplying it with the W or the Z
chromosome.
b. The male bird determines the sex of the offspring by supplying it with one of its W
chromosomes.
c. The male bird determines the sex of the offspring by supplying it with the X or the Y
chromosome.
d. The female bird determines the sex of the offspring by supplying it with the X or the Y
chromosome.
e. The female bird determines the sex of the offspring by supplying it with the W or the Z
chromosome.
A species may live in association with another
species. Such an arrangement is called symbiosis.
Symbiosis in which both species benefit is called
mutualism. If the symbiosis is beneficial to one
species and neither beneficial nor harmful to the
other, it is called commensalism. If one species
benefits at the expense of the other, the relationship is called parasitism. A tick that attaches to
the skin of a human or animal and feeds on its
blood is an example of
a. commensalisms.
b. parasitism.
c. competition.
d. coevolution.
e. mutualism.

Questions 22 through 24 are based on the following

passage.
An island in the Adriatic Sea was overpopulated with snakes. Sailors who came to the
island brought and let loose mongooses,
animals that feed on snakes. The population
of snakes started decreasing, since the mongooses were eating them. The mongoose
population started increasing since there
was ample food around. The mongooses
were not native to the island and there was
no predator on the island to keep the mongoose population in check. At some point,
there were hardly any snakes left on the
island, and people started populating it. The
mongoose, facing a shortage of snakes,
started eating chickens that people kept for
their eggs and meat. However, people
caught on and protected the chickens from
getting eaten. The mongoose population
decreased. Some remain on the island, but
their number is now at equilibrium, kept in
check by the availability of food.
22.

The passage illustrates
a. the interdependence of organisms.
b. the fragility of an ecosystem.
c. the ability of humans to change an ecosystem.
d. the relationship between the population of
predator and prey.
e. all of the above.

23.

There were hardly any snakes left on the island
because
a. mongooses had eaten them.
b. people had killed them.
c. there was no predator for the mongooses.
d. sailors brought them prey.
e. the chickens didn’t taste as good to the
mongooses.

272


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

24.

25.

Which statement best describes the change in
population of mongooses on the island?
a. The population was zero before sailors
brought a few. The few then multiplied, and
the number of mongooses on the island is still
steadily growing.
b. The population was zero before sailors
brought a few. The few then multiplied,
increasing the number of mongooses. When
the snakes were almost gone, the mongoose
population started decreasing.

c. The population was small before sailors
brought more mongooses, increasing the gene
pool. The number of mongooses kept growing, until the people started protecting the
chickens.
d. The population was small before sailors
brought more snakes, increasing the food supply for the mongoose. The number of mongooses kept growing, until the snake
population was almost gone. The mongooses
died out, since they ran out of food.
e. The population was initially large, but when a
predator was brought by sailors, the number
of mongooses decreased.
There are four blood types in humans: A, B, AB,
and O. An individual with blood type A has antibodies for B, so he or she can’t receive type B
blood. Similarly, a person with blood type B has
antibodies for type A and can’t receive type A
blood. A person with AB blood type has no antibodies and can receive blood from anyone. A
person with type O blood has both A and B antibodies and can receive blood only from someone
else with type O blood. Based on this information, someone with type B blood can donate to
a. blood groups B and O.
b. blood groups B and AB.
c. only blood group B.
d. only blood group AB.
e. only blood group O.

26.

Two main chemicals are responsible for the communication of the brain with the organs you
have no conscious control over (heart, digestive
system, endocrine system). The chemical norepinephrine helps your body get ready for a fightor-flight action by stirring up energy stores. In
contrast, the chemical acetylcholine helps conserve energy by slowing the heart and increasing

intestinal absorption. Which of the following situations is least likely to lead to increased levels of
norepinephrine?
a. being chased by a flesh-eating animal
b. running away from someone holding a knife
c. petting a rabbit
d. taking an important exam
e. going on a first date with someone

27.

Most bacteria cannot grow in high concentrations of salt. As a result,
a. salt acts as a preservative in ham, beef jerky,
and other salty foods.
b. people who don’t eat enough salt become
anemic.
c. Utah’s great Salt Lake is filled with bacteria.
d. most antibiotics are sweet.
e. there are no bacteria in fresh water.

28.

In the early 19th century, almost all peppered
moths collected by biologists in the U.K. were
pale and mottled. Only rarely was a collector able
to find a dark-peppered moth. After the Industrial Revolution, when furnaces filled the air with
dark soot, the light-peppered moth became rare
and the dark-peppered moth was most common
in industrial cities. A reasonable explanation for
this change is that the dark moth was less likely
to be seen and eaten by birds against the dark

background. This explanation illustrates the
principle of
a. conservation of energy.
b. natural selection.
c. gene flow.
d. male competition.
e. acquired traits.

273


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

29.

All of the following are mammals EXCEPT
a. humans.
b. rabbits.
c. whales.
d. penguins.
e. rats.

30.

31.

All of the following are primates EXCEPT
a. humans.
b. gorillas.
c. whales.

d. chimpanzees.
e. orangutans.

A solar eclipse occurs when the moon blocks our
view of the sun. Select the diagram that best represents the position of the sun, the Earth, and
the moon during a solar eclipse, as well as the
correct orbits.
a.

Moon
Sun

Earth

b.

Moon
Earth

Sun

c.

Moon

Earth

Sun

d.

Sun

Earth
Moon

e.
Sun

Moon

Earth

274


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

32.

Convection currents of molten rock within the
Earth mantle cause all the following EXCEPT
a. sunlight.
b. movement of plates on Earth’s crust.
c. volcanic eruptions.
d. earthquakes.
e. flow of molten rock from cracks along the
bottom of the ocean.

36.

33.

Which of the following does NOT cause changes
in the Earth’s surface, such as the formation of
mountains and valleys?
a. collision of plates
b. moving apart of plates
c. volcanic eruptions
d. erosion
e. ozone

Questions 37 and 38 are based on the following passage.

34.

35.

The United States is in the Northern Hemisphere. Which statement(s) about the Southern
Hemisphere is true?
I. It is always warm in the Southern
Hemisphere.
II. When it’s summer in the Northern
Hemisphere, it is winter in the Southern
Hemisphere.
III. In the Southern Hemisphere, the sun sets in
the east.
IV. When it’s winter in the Northern
Hemisphere, it is summer in the Southern
Hemisphere.
a. statement I only

b. statement II only
c. statements II, III, and IV
d. statements II and IV
e. statements I, II, and IV
Humidity is a measure of
a. air temperature.
b. the amount of water vapor in air.
c. air pressure.
d. cloudiness.
e. air resistance.

The Milky Way is estimated to be about 100,000
light-years across its larger diameter. A light-year
is a measure of
a. time since the Big Bang.
b. distance.
c. brightness.
d. the number of stars in a galaxy.
e. speed of light.

According to scientists, the sun has existed for
4.6 billion years. The sun produces energy by
a nuclear conversion of hydrogen into helium.
When hydrogen runs out, according to this
theory, the sun will expand, engulfing Earth
and other planets. Not to worry—the expansion will not affect us, since the sun has
enough hydrogen for another 4.6 billion
years. When it expands, the sun will become
what is called a red giant star. In another 500
million years, the sun will shrink to the current size of the Earth and will be called a white

dwarf, cooling down for several billion years.
37.

According to the passage, the sun will eventually
a. expand and then shrink.
b. shrink and then expand.
c. shrink and then run out of helium.
d. expand because it ran out of helium.
e. shrink because it ran out of hydrogen.

38.

Based on this theory, the sun will, at some point,
be a
a. blue star.
b. red dwarf star.
c. white dwarf star.
d. asteroid.
e. galaxy.

39.

Webbed feet enable ducks to swim better by
a. making the ducks aerodynamic.
b. increasing the surface area with which ducks
propel water.
c. preventing particles from being stuck between
the duck’s toes.
d. making the duck less dense.
e. increasing the rate of heat loss, so that ducks

can cool down faster.

275


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

40.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Determine how much water is in the graduated
cylinder drawn below by reading the bottom of
the meniscus (surface of water).
10
ml

43.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
41.

In addition to magnifying the image of an
object, a microscope inverts the image left to
right. The image of the object observed through
the microscope is also upside down. Looking
through the eyepiece, you would therefore see
the upside-down mirror image of the object
under the microscope lens. What would the
object below look like if observed through the
microscope?

e.

42.

E
E

E

d.

E

c.

E

E

b.

Here are a few experimental observations and
known facts:
I. A scummy substance often forms in solutions of an amino acid in water.
II. When the water is purified and exposed to
UV radiation, the scummy substance does
not form in the amino acid solution.
III. UV radiation kills bacteria.
What would be a valid hypothesis based on I, II
and III?
a. The scummy substance is a form of the amino
acid.
b. The scummy substance would not appear if
water were treated by a method, other than
UV radiation, that kills bacteria.
c. The scummy substance is caused by organisms that humans are unable to detect.
d. The amino acid would not form the scummy
substance in another galaxy.
e. UV light contributes to global warming.

3.0 ml
5.5 ml
6.5 ml
7.5 ml
10.0 ml

E
a.

All organisms are made of one or more cells.

It’s wrong to kill any organism.
All organisms need energy.
Some organisms reproduce asexually.
Some organisms can breathe underwater.

Which one of the following statements is an
opinion, rather than a fact?
276


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

44.

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a condition that can lead to heart attack and stroke. A
scientist graphed the following data collected
from a study on hypertension. What is a logical
conclusion based on the data?

45.

The following pie chart illustrates the relative
productivity (new plant material produced in
one year) of different biomes. Based on the
chart, which biome has the largest effect on the
overall productivity?
Relative Productivity
of Biomes

Hypertension among Different

Age Groups
Prevalence of
hypertension (%)

70
Desert
1%

60

Tundra
2%
Chaparral
11%

50
40

Tropical
rain
forest
33%

30
20

Grassland
9%

10

Taiga
12%

0
all ages 18–24

25–34

35–44

45–54

55–64

65–74

Age group

Temperate
deciduous
forest
18%

a. The prevalence of hypertension is higher than
average in the 35–44 age group.
b. The prevalence of hypertension is highest in
the 45–54 age group.
c. The prevalence of hypertension increases
with age.

d. No teenager suffers from hypertension.
e. All senior citizens suffer from hypertension.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

277

Savanna
14%

chaparral
savanna
tropical rain forest
desert
temperate deciduous forest


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

46.

In 1969, two scientists devised an experiment to
test a hypothesis that the number of species in an
ecosystem depends on the area of the ecosystem.
They counted all the arthropod species on a few
very tiny islands. They then exterminated all the

arthropods (mostly insects) with a pesticide.
Over six months, they monitored the gradual
repopulation of the island and noticed that by
the end of the observation period, each island
had almost the same number of species as it had
before pesticide was used. However, the kinds of
species that arrived often differed from the
species that were on the island prior to pesticide
use. Here is a chart that illustrates the results.

Questions 47 and 48 are based on the following passage.
A science student hypothesized that the rate
of evaporation of water depends on the
shape of the container the water is placed in.
She decided to measure the amount of
water evaporated when 300 ml of water in
five different containers was heated from
room temperature to 90° C on preheated
hot plates. She used five cylindrical 500milliliter glass containers, each having the
same wall thickness but a different base
radius and height. In other words, some
containers were narrow and tall, others were
wide and shallow. The following table lists
the dimensions of the containers and the
amount of water initially present.

NUMBER OF SPECIES

Before
Trophic Level

After

Pesticide Use

Pesticide Use

Herbivores

55

55

Scavengers

7

5

13

8

8

6

Ants

32

23

Predator

36

31

Parasite

12

Radius
Container

9

Detrivores
Wood borers

Height

Volume

(cm)

(cm)

(cm)

1

2.0

75.0

300

2

3.4

26.0

300

3

4.0

18.8

300

4

5.0

12.0

300

5

10.0

3.0

300

She placed each container, containing the
same amount of water, on a hot plate, and
placed a thermometer in each to monitor
the temperature. She noticed that the temperature was increasing faster in the containers with a larger radius. After some time,
the temperature in the 10-cm radius container reached the set 90° C. Following container 5, the water in containers 4, 3, 2, and
1, in that order, reached the set temperature.
The student checked the volume of the
water in each container and found that it
was lower than 300 ml. She also found that
the decrease in volume was highest in the
container with the largest radius. In container 1, volume decrease was barely
detectable.

Based on the chart, which trophic level suffered the
greatest net loss (number of species) in diversity?
a. herbivores
b. scavengers
c. detrivores
d. wood borers

e. ants

278


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

47.

48.

What can the student conclude from the data?
a. The greater the radius of the container, the
lower the rate of evaporation.
b. The greater the radius of the container, the
higher the rate of evaporation.
c. The radius of the container is not related to
the rate of evaporation.
d. The greater the radius of the container, the
slower it reaches the set temperature.
e. The smaller the radius of the container, the
faster it reaches the set temperature.

Questions 50 and 51 are based on the following passage.
Is Pluto a Planet?

Based on perturbations in Neptune’s orbit,
the search for a ninth planet was conducted
and Pluto was discovered in 1930. Pluto
orbits the sun just like the other eight planets, and it has a moon, Charon, and a stable

orbit. Based on its distance from the sun,
Pluto should be grouped with the planets
known as gas giants. In addition, Pluto, like
the planet Mercury, has little or no atmosphere. Pluto is definitely not a comet
because it does not have a tail like a comet
when it is near the sun. Pluto is also not an
asteroid, although its density is closer to an
asteroid than to any of the other planets.
Pluto is a planet because it has been classified as one for more than sixty years since
its discovery.

Which two statements are valid objections to the
experimental setup?
I. All the containers were filled with the same
amount of water.
II. A different hot plate was used to heat water
in different containers.
III. Water in different containers was heated for
different amounts of time.
IV. The containers were not filled completely.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

49.

e. At 300 seconds, the concentration of the reactant is at maximum.

I and II
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

50.

Which argument supporting the classification of
Pluto as a planet is the weakest?
a. Pluto orbits the sun just like the other eight
planets.
b. Pluto has a moon.
c. Pluto has a stable orbit.
d. Pluto, like the planet Mercury, has little or no
atmosphere.
e. Pluto has been classified as a planet for more
than sixty years since discovery.

51.

Which one of the following statements is NOT
backed with an explanation?
a. Pluto is like a planet.
b. Pluto should be grouped with planets known
as gas giants.
c. Pluto is like Mercury.
d. Pluto is not a comet.
e. Pluto is not an asteroid.

The following graph shows how the concentration (amount per unit volume) changes with
time. What information can be obtained from the
data?
Concentration of a Reactant
as a Function of Time

Concentration (mol/liter)

0.20
0.15
0.10
0.05
0.00
0

100

200
300
400
Time (seconds)

500

600

a. The amount of reactant does not change with
time.
b. The amount of product is decreasing.
c. The amount of reactant first decreases and

then stays constant.
d. After 500 seconds, all of the reactant is used.
279


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

Questions 55 and 56 are based on the following diagram.

The instrument shown in this picture can be
used to study

180

0

E
N
0

90

60

30

30

54.

27 0

53.

cell organelles.
the flight pattern of birds.
the movement of stars in other galaxies.
old manuscripts.
human vision defects.

S
W

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

2 10
0
24

1 20

0
15

0
33

52.

55.

A large surface area results in a high rate of cooling. This is why we tend to curl up when we sleep
in a cold room and spread our limbs out when
we sleep in a very hot room. Which of the following is an example where this principle is used
in technology?
a. Refrigerators can be used to cool containers of
milk with large surface areas.
b. Fans that cool computers are often ribbed to
increase the surface area for cooling.
c. Airplanes are shaped to minimize heat loss in
the cabin.
d. Heat packs are designed to have a large surface
area.
e. Microwave ovens are designed to completely
close during food preparation.

This instrument is used to
a. determine the direction of the wind.
b. determine the directions of the world.
c. find the nearest piece of land when navigating
the seas.
d. find underground waters.
e. determine the direction of water flow.

56.

This instrument works because
a. it has an internal clock.
b. the needle points to the direction of minimum pressure.
c. the needle changes position depending on the
position of the sun.
d. the Earth has two magnetic poles.
e. the temperatures on Earth’s poles are very low.

The amount of dissolved gas in a liquid solution
depends on the pressure of the gas. Under a high
pressure, greater amounts of gas can be dissolved. Pressure is used to increase the solubility
of carbon dioxide gas in
a. fish ponds.
b. cereals.
c. carbonated drinks.
d. milk.
e. gasoline.

280


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

Questions 57 and 58 are based on the following passage.
Farm animals can carry salmonella, a kind
of bacteria that can cause severe food poisoning. However, animals fed antibiotics can
carry especially deadly strains of salmonella.
In Minnesota in 1983, 11 people were hospitalized with salmonella poisoning. This
number itself was not striking at all. Fortythousand Americans are hospitalized with
salmonella poisoning every year. What was

striking about the cases in Minnesota was
that each patient had severe symptoms and
all the patients were infected with the same,
rare strain of salmonella, resistant to several
common antibiotics. A young scientist,
Scott Holmberg, noted that eight patients
were taking the same antibiotics for sore
throats. He ruled out the possibility that the
antibiotics themselves were infected with
the bacteria because three of the patients
were not taking antibiotics at all. He later
showed that the people were infected with
salmonella prior to taking the antibiotics,
but that the antibiotics triggered the onset
of salmonella poisoning. He postulated that
salmonella suddenly flourished when the
patients took antibiotics, because the antibiotics killed off all other competing bacteria.
He was also able to trace the antibioticresistant salmonella to the beef that was
imported to Minnesota from a farm in
South Dakota, at which cattle were routinely
fed antibiotics and at which one calf died of
the same strain of salmonella.

57.

As a result of this finding, the Food and Drug
Administration should
a. carefully regulate the prescription of antibiotics for sore throats.
b. prevent the export of meat from South
Dakota to Minnesota.

c. limit the practice of feeding antibiotics to
cattle.
d. take the antibiotic that caused salmonella off
the market.
e. require special prescription for antibiotics
resistant to salmonella.

58.

Based on the passage, which one of the following
statements is false?
a. Salmonella poisoning is a common bacterial
infection.
b. Some strands of bacteria are resistant to
antibiotics.
c. Antibiotics kill off bacteria that are not resistant to antibiotics.
d. Antibiotics transmit salmonella.
e. Farm animals can carry salmonella.

281


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

59.

Which of the minerals listed in the table are you
most likely lacking if you experience irregular
heartbeat?
a. sodium

b. potassium
c. calcium
d. phosphorous
e. magnesium
Which two minerals are necessary for formation
of healthy bones and teeth?
a. calcium and magnesium
b. calcium and phosphorous
c. calcium and potassium
d. calcium and sodium
e. sodium and magnesium

62.

Which of the following is the most common
result of prolonged excessive alcohol
consumption?
a. heart attack
b. brain tumor
c. lung cancer
d. liver damage
e. cataracts

63.

Minerals are an important component of
the human diet. Some minerals are needed
in relatively large amounts. These include
calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulfur,
chlorine, and magnesium. Others, including

iron, manganese, and iodine, are needed in
smaller amounts. Humans need 26 minerals
all together, but some of them are only
required in tiny amounts. Some minerals,
such as lead and selenium, are harmful in
large quantities. Dietary supplements can
decrease the chance of mineral deficiencies
listed in the table below, but should be taken
with great care, since overdose can lead to
poisoning.

60.

61.

Questions 59 through 61 are based on the passage below
and the table at the bottom of the page.

Which of the following could be transmitted
through kissing?
a. lung cancer
b. brain tumor
c. flu
d. diabetes
e. Down’s syndrome

Taking several iron supplements per day can
a. decrease the chance of bone loss.
b. make you stronger.
c. help relieve PMS symptoms.

d. cause poisoning.
e. make up for an unbalanced diet.

MINERAL

GOOD SOURCES

SYMPTOMS OF DEFICIENCY

FUNCTIONS

Sodium

Table salt, normal diet

Muscle cramps

Water balance, muscle and
nerve operation

Potassium

Dairy, bony fish, leafy

Irregular heartbeat, fatigue,

Muscle and nerve opera-

muscle cramps
Calcium

Fruits, vegetables, grains

tion, acid-base balance

Osteoporosis

green vegetables

Formation of bone and
teeth, clotting, nerve
signaling

Phosphorous

Dairy, meat, cereals

Bone loss, weakness, lack of appetite Formation of bone and
teeth, energy metabolism

Magnesium

Nuts, greens, whole grains

Nausea, vomiting, weakness

Enzyme action, nerve
signaling

282

– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

Hormone concentration (units per ml)

A woman is most likely to get pregnant if she has
unprotected sex a few days before and on the day
of ovulation, when the egg is released from the
ovaries. The release of the egg is hormonally
stimulated, meaning that a hormone in the
woman’s body triggers ovulation. On average,
women ovulate around the 14th day of their
menstrual cycle. The following is a graph showing the levels of three hormones throughout the
menstrual cycle of an average woman.

66.

The boiling point of water decreases with
increasing pressure. At high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is lower than at sea level. Where
would you expect to find the highest boiling
point temperature of water?
a. in the Grand Canyon Valley
b. at sea level
c. at the base of Mount Everest
d. at the top of Mount Everest
e. at the top of a small hill

67.

64.

As the pressure of a gas increases at constant
temperature, the volume of the gas decreases.

80
70
60

Apply
pressure

FSH
LH
Progesterone

50
40
30

GAS

20
GAS

10
0
0

2

4

6

8

10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28

Day of menstrual cycle

Based on the graph, which hormone is most
directly responsible for triggering ovulation?
a. FSH
b. LH
c. progesterone
d. testosterone
e. cholesterol
65.

Through friction, energy of motion is converted
to heat. You use this in your favor when you
a. wear gloves to make your hands warm.
b. rub your hands together to make them warm.
c. soak your hands with hot water to make them
warm.
d. place your hands near a fireplace to make
them warm.
e. hold a cup of tea to make your hands warm.

283

If you were a diver and you wanted to take an
oxygen tank with you, what would you do?
a. Pressurize the oxygen, so more of it can fit in a
tank of a manageable size.
b. Decrease the pressure of oxygen in the tank,
so the tank doesn’t explode.
c. Increase the temperature of oxygen in the
tank, so that the cold oxygen doesn’t damage
the lungs.
d. Decrease the temperature of oxygen, so that it
doesn’t escape from the tank.
e. Increase the temperature of the oxygen and
decrease the pressure, so the volume stays the
same.


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

68.

The amount of solute that can be dissolved in a
solvent at a given temperature is called solubility.
For most substances, solubility increases with
temperature. Rock candy can be made from
sugar solutions that have an excess of sugar dissolved. The amount of sugar per 100 grams of
water at a given temperature has to be higher
than the amount that is normally soluble in
order to make rock candy. Based on the solubility of sugar in water as a function of temperature, plotted in the graph, how much sugar

would you need to dissolve in 100 grams of
water to make rock candy at 40° C?

Questions 70 and 71 are based on the following passage.
In 1628, English physician William Harvey
established that the blood circulates
throughout the body. He recognized that
the heart acts as a pump and does not work
by using up blood as earlier anatomists
thought. To carefully observe the beating of
the heart and the direction of blood flow,
Harvey needed to see the works of the blood
in slow motion. Since there was no way for
him to observe a human heart in slow
motion, he studied the hearts of toads and
snakes, rather than the rapidly beating
hearts of “warm-blooded” mammals and
birds. By keeping these animals cool, he
could slow their hearts down. The main
argument for his conclusion that the blood
circulates stemmed from his measurement
of the amount of blood pumped with each
heartbeat. He calculated that the amount of
blood pumped each hour by far exceeds the
total amount of blood in the body and
proved that the same blood passes through
the heart over and over again.

Solubility
(g of sugar/100 g of water)

Solubility of Sugar in Water
600
550
500
450
400
350
300
250
200
150
100
50
0
0

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
69.

10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110
Temperature (degrees Celsius)

less than 50 grams
between 50 and 100 grams
between 100 and 150 grams

between 150 and 200 grams
more than 250 grams

70.

Which of the following energy sources causes the
least pollution to the environment?
a. coal
b. nuclear power
c. gasoline
d. solar
e. oil

What misconception did scientist harbor before
Harvey’s study?
a. The heart circulates blood.
b. The heart pumps blood.
c. The heart uses up blood.
d. The heart contains no blood.
e. The heart of birds beats faster than the heart
of frogs.

71.

Which of the following did Harvey do?
I. Observe the heartbeat and blood flow in
snakes and frogs.
II. Determine that the heart acts as a pump.
III. Count the number of blood cells that pass
through the heart every hour.

IV. Show that the blood circulates.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

284

He did only I.
He did I and II.
He did I, II, and IV.
He did I, III, and IV.
He did II, III, and IV.


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

Questions 72 and 73 are based on the following passage.

Questions 74 and 75 are based on the following passage.

Radiation from radioisotopes can be used to
kill cancer cells. Chemist Marie Curie
received two Nobel Prizes for her work with
radioisotopes. Her work led to the discovery
of the neutron and synthesis of artificial
radioactive elements. She died of leukemia
at 67, caused by extensive exposure to radiation. Curie never believed that radium and
other materials she worked with were a

health hazard. In World War I, glowing
radium was used on watch dials to help soldiers read their watches in the dark and to
synchronize their attacks. Unfortunately,
women who worked in factories were drawing their radium stained brushes to fine
points by putting them between their lips.
As a result, their teeth would glow in the
dark. But this was an amusement for children more than a cause of worry. About ten
years later, the women developed cancer in
their jaws and mouths and had problems
making blood cells. This exposed the dangers of radiation.

In the past, people thought that the Earth was
flat and that a ship that sailed too far would
fall off the edge of the world. The Earth
appears flat because the Earth is too large for
humans on Earth to see its curvature. Several
events helped shed the misconceptions. For
one, during a lunar eclipse, the Earth is positioned between the sun and the moon. It
eclipses the moon by casting a shadow on it.
The shadow the Earth casts is round. When
Magellan circumnavigated the Earth, he
proved that one could not fall off the edge of
the Earth, because the Earth was round and
had no edges. Finally, space missions provided
us with images of our round Earth from far
away and showed us how beautiful our planet
looks, even from a distance.

72.

73.

Based on the information in the passage, which
statement about radioisotopes is false?
a. Radioisotopes can kill cancer cells.
b. Radioisotopes can cause cancer.
c. A radioisotope can glow in the dark.
d. Einstein received the Nobel Prize for working
with isotopes.
e. A radioisotope was used in watch dials.

74.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
75.

Which dangers of radiation were mentioned in
the passage?
I. Radiation can cause genetic mutations.
II. Radiation can lead to leukemia.
III. Radiation can cause chemotherapy.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

In the passage, what was cited as proof that the
Earth is round?
I. Earth casts a round shadow on the moon
during a lunar eclipse.
II. Earth revolves around the sun.
III. Magellan circumnavigated the Earth.
IV. images from space

danger I only
danger II only
danger III only
dangers I and II
dangers II and III

285

I and II
I, II, and III
I, II, and IV
I, III, and IV
II, III, and IV

With which misconception about the Earth is the
passage concerned?
a. that the Earth turned
b. that the Earth was in the center of the solar
system
c. that the Earth was flat
d. that the Earth was created at the same time as

the sun
e. that the Earth could be eclipsed by the sun


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

10. c. Gloves provide insulation. They can’t generate
heat, choice a. Gloves left out in the snow would
be cold. Gloves can’t have an effect on the temperature, choice b. They also don’t affect the
amount of energy your body produces, choice d,
or transform energy in any way, choice e.

Answers and Explanations
1. d. It is the only pair of liquids listed in which one
is acidic (vinegar—pH 3) and the other basic
(bleach—pH 9).
2. e. The object set in motion slows down and stops
swinging because the force of friction acts on it.
The kinetic energy of the object is converted to
heat energy through friction with air. Statements a, c, and d are true but are not the reason
why the object stops swinging. An object having
any mass can maintain motion, so the statement
in choice b is wrong.

12. a. The number of atoms stays constant throughout
a chemical reaction. The number of molecules
can change (choice b). For example, in photosynthesis, 6 molecules of carbon dioxide and 6
molecules of water (total 12 molecules) can
react to form 1 molecule of glucose and 6 molecules of oxygen (total of 7 molecules). Similarly,
the amount of gas and solid can change (choices

c and d). The amount of disorder in the universe is always increasing, so it does not have to
stay constant through a reaction (choice e).

3. b. An endothermic process requires the input of
heat energy. The only one that requires input of
energy (heat) is melting ice (ice melts when
heated). The rest of the processes listed give off
heat, so they are exothermic.
4. a. Things that float are less dense than the substance in which they float.
5. b. The statement is false because the gravitational
force between two objects depends on the
masses of both objects. All the other statements
are true and consistent with Newton’s Law of
Gravitation.

13. d. The statement is false because light has a finite
speed. It is very large, but it is not infinite. The
rest of the statements are true.

6. a. When water vapor condenses, gas changes to
liquid. Choices b, c, and d involve chemical reactions and can’t be considered physical processes.
Through exhaling, choice e, air is pushed out of
the lungs, but there is no phase change.
7. a. Two like charges always repel.
8. e. The statement is false because energy is not
composed of matter (atoms). All other statements are true.

11. d. The wavelength of blue-green should be
between the wavelength of blue light and green
light. The wavelength of blue light is about 450

nm and the wavelength of green light is at about
500 nm. Midway between these wavelengths
is 470 nm.

14. d. Thorns are a form of defense, but are neither
camouflage nor chemical defense. Choices a
and e are examples of camouflage. Choices b
and c are examples of chemical defense.
15. d. The concentration of protein in compartment B
is higher. Because of the nature of the membrane, the protein can’t pass through it. The
only way for concentration to reach the same
level in two compartments is for water to flow
from A to B.

9. e. The molecule in choice e has the most atoms
and the largest molecular weight. It therefore
has the highest boiling point.

286


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

16. a. Every human normally inherits 23 chromosomes from the mother and 23 chromosomes
from the father. However, that doesn’t mean that
humans look exactly 50% like the father and
50% like the mother (choice b), since one parent’s genes can be more dominant, and since
genes from two parents sometimes produce a
blended effect. Fraternal twins happen to be in
the womb at the same time, but genetically, they

are not any more similar than two siblings who
are not twins (choice c). Fraternal twins come
from two different eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells. Exposure to X-rays can alter
chromosomes (choice d). Genes are not particles. DNA is not an atom and it doesn’t have a
nucleus (choice e). Genes are found in the
nucleus of a cell and are made of DNA.

23. a. There was no mention of choice b in the passage. Choice c is true, but not as directly related
to snake disappearance as choice a. Choice d is
false. Sailors did not bring prey for the snakes;
they brought a predator. There isn’t enough
information to support choice e, and even if it
were true, it wouldn’t be directly related to the
disappearance of snakes.
24. b. There is no support for other statements in the
passage.
25. b. Someone who has blood type B can donate
blood to those who don’t have antibodies for B.
These include other people with type B blood
(they have antibodies for A only) and those with
type AB blood (they don’t have any antibodies).
26. c. Levels of norepinephrine rise when there is a
potential for danger, stress, or excitement.
Choice c, petting a rabbit, is the only choice
that would tend to calm, rather than scare or
excite, a person.

17. a. In order for twins to have the same genes, they
need to come from one egg and one sperm cell.
18. c. According to the Punnett square, the combination of genes of Parent I with the genes of Parent II results in either offspring with yy (which

is yellow) or Yy (which is green).

27. a. Salty foods are less prone to bacterial attack
because most bacteria can’t grow in environments that are too salty. Being anemic (choice b)
is not related to bacteria. Choice c is inconsistent with the question. Choices d and e are not
true and are inconsistent with the question.

19. e. The statement is false. Animal cells usually don’t
have a cell wall. Other statements are true.
20. e. In humans, the sperm determines the sex of the
child because the male has two different chromosomes. In birds, the female has two different
chromosomes, so she determines the sex of the
offspring. Birds have Ws and Zs, not Xs and Ys
like humans, so choice d is incorrect.

28. b. Natural selection is the process whereby the
members of the species who are best able to survive and reproduce in an environment thrive,
passing their genes on to next generations. The
pollution in the environment selected for darkness in peppered moths.

21. b. The tick is a parasite. It benefits, while the animal it feeds from suffers.
22. e. Statements a through d were illustrated in the
passage. Mongooses depend on snakes for food,
choice a. The balance in the ecosystem was disturbed when a new predator was introduced,
choice b. Humans entirely changed the ecosystem when they brought the mongooses, choice
c. When the population of mongooses increased,
the population of snakes decreased, causing a
drop in the population of mongooses, choice d.

29. d. Penguins are birds. They hatch from eggs and

have wings. They are not mammals; they don’t
give birth or breastfeed their young.
30. c. Whales are not primates. Primates have five digits on each hand and foot, binocular vision, and
flexible shoulder joints.

287


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

31. a. This diagram corresponds to the correct
arrangement of Earth, moon, and the sun during a solar eclipse. The moon is located between
the Earth and the sun, blocking the Earth’s view
of the sun. It also corresponds to the correct
orbits, with the moon orbiting around the
Earth, and the Earth around the sun. Choice b is
wrong because it shows the sun orbiting around
the Earth, and the moon around the sun. Choice
c is wrong because the Earth, moon, and sun are
not aligned as they should be during an eclipse,
and the moon is not orbiting around the Earth.
Choice d shows correct orbits, but the moon is
not blocking the sun from the Earth’s view. In
fact, choice d corresponds to a lunar eclipse.
Choice e is wrong because it shows the Earth
and the sun orbiting around the moon.

39. b. Webbed feet enable ducks to swim better by
increasing the surface area on their feet. In
swimming, being hydrodynamic, not aerodynamic, is important (choice a). Stuck particles

between a duck’s toes, choice c, would most
likely not be a frequent problem. Webbed feet
would not affect the duck’s density, choice d, by
much. The rate of heat loss, choice e, may be
slightly higher because of larger surface area, but
heat loss is not essential for swimming.
40. d. The top division on the graduated cylinder is
the 10 ml mark. There are 10 divisions, so each
one is 1 ml. The bottom of the meniscus is
between 7 ml and 8 ml, so 7.5 ml is the best
answer.

32. a. Sunlight is caused by nuclear reactions on the
sun, not by convection currents of molten rock
within the Earth mantle.

41. b. This is what the object looks like when it is
inverted left to right (mirror image). When the
object is flipped upside down, there is no change
in its appearance.

33. e. Ozone cannot directly change the surface of the
Earth. Processes in a through d can.

42. b. This is a statement that can’t be tested by scientific means. All the others can.

34. d. When it’s summer in the Northern Hemisphere,
it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere, and
vice versa (choices II and IV). On average, the
Southern Hemisphere is not warmer than

Northern Hemisphere (choice I). The sun
always sets in the west, everywhere on Earth.

43. b. Choice a is not consistent with observation II.
Choices c and d are not testable and are therefore invalid. Choice e is not relevant to the
observations.

35. b. Humidity is a measure of the amount of water
vapor in air.

45. c. Tropical rain forests are the most productive.

36. b. A light-year is a measure of the distance that
light travels in a year (about 5.88 trillion miles).
37. a. The passage states that the sun will first expand
(not shrink—choices b, c, and e) when it runs
out of hydrogen (not helium—choice d), and
then 500 million years later, it will shrink.
38. c. Choice c is the correct answer based on the
passage.

44. c. This is the only statement supported by the
graph.

46. e. The number of species lost was greatest in ants.
47. b. “She also found that the decrease in volume was
highest in the container with the largest radius.
In container 1, volume decrease was barely
detectable.” Choice d and e are false because the
container with the larger radius reached the set

temperature faster.
48. d. There is nothing wrong with I and IV. Using different hot plates can have an effect because
some hot plates may be heating more efficiently
than others. Heating water in all the containers

288


– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS –

for the same amount of time, rather than up to
a fixed temperature, would be better because the
rate of evaporation is the amount of water lost
per unit of time. By using different times, the
student is changing an important variable.
49. c. Choice a is wrong because initially, the concentration decreases. There is no information about
the product on the chart, so choice b is incorrect. Choice d is wrong because at 500 seconds,
the concentration is not zero. Choice e is wrong
because at 300 seconds, the concentration is
lower than at other times, at the start of the
experiment.

56. d. The needle on the compass responds to the
Earth’s magnetic poles.
57. c. Choice a is already being done, and since the
antibiotics weren’t directly making people ill
(choice e), these measures wouldn’t be necessary. There is nothing that indicates that all
meat from South Dakota has salmonella or that
meat from everywhere else is always healthy, so
choice b would not be necessary. Choice d is

wrong because antibiotics are not resistant to
salmonella; some salmonella is resistant to
antibiotics.
58. d. The statement, as noted in the previous question, is false.

50. e. This is the weakest argument because it is justified with authority, tradition, and past belief,
rather than scientific facts. People have been
wrong in the past, and noting that something
has been done a certain way for years does not
mean that there are no better ways, and it is not
a convincing scientific argument.

59. d. Taking too many minerals can lead to poisoning. None of the other choices was discussed in
the passage or listed in the table.
60. b. No other mineral deficiency has this symptom.

51. e. The passage states that Pluto’s density is closer
to an asteroid’s than to any of the planets’. This
would lead the reader to think that Pluto, based
on its density, may be an asteroid. But the passage states that this is not the case and does not
give arguments to support the statement. The
statements in all other choices are supported
with facts.

61. b. The table lists that the function of both calcium
and phosphorous is the formation of healthy
bones and teeth.

52. b. Binoculars are used to view objects or animals
in the distance. They don’t have the kind of

magnification necessary for studies in choices a,
c, d, and e.

63. c. Only certain contagious diseases can be transmitted through kissing. Health problems associated with the other choices are not contagious.
One can’t get lung cancer, a brain tumor, diabetes, or Down’s syndrome by kissing someone
who has it.

62. d. While alcohol damages other tissues as well,
most alcoholics first experience liver failure.
One of the functions of the liver is to rid the
body of toxins. Alcohol is a toxin to the body.

53. b. Choices a and e are not relevant. Choices c and
d are false.
54. c. The soda bubbles you see when you open a can
are made of carbon dioxide gas that was dissolved in the soda under pressure. Pressure is
not used to dissolve carbon dioxide in any of the
substances described in the other choices.
55. b. The instrument is a compass, used to find directions of the world.

64. b. The graph shows that the level of LH rapidly
rises right before the 14th day of the cycle, and
then falls.
65. b. Only the action in choice b involves friction (of
one hand against the other).
66. d. The boiling point decreases with increasing
pressure. So, the lower the pressure, the higher

289