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QUANG TRI DEPARTMENT OF
EDUCATION & TRAINING

DONG HA HIGH SCHOOL
Academic Year: 2014-2015

THE STATE’S HIGH SCHOOL GRADUATION
EXAMINATION MOCK TEST No.1

Allotted time: 90 minutes

Candidate Full Name: ……… - Candidate No. ………

PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE (0.125 x 64 = 8.0p)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The Planets of Jupiter

The largest of the giant gas planets, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 times greater than Earth’s, contains
more than twice the mass of all the other planets combined. It is thought to be a gaseous and fluid planet
without solid surfaces, Had it been somewhat more massive, Jupiter might have attained internal
temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear reactions, and it would have flamed as a star in its
own right. Jupiter and the other giant planets are of a low-density type quite distinct from the terrestrial
planets: they are composed predominantly of such substances as hydrogen, helium, ammonia, and
methane, unlike terrestrial planets. Much of Jupiter’s interior might be in the form of liquid, metallic
hydrogen, Normally, hydrogen is a gas, but under pressures of millions of kilograms per square
centimeter, which exist in the deep interior of Jupiter, the hydrogen atoms might lock together to form a
liquid with the properties of a metal. Some scientists believe that the innermost core of Jupiter might be
rocky, or metallic like the core of Earth.

Jupiter rotates very fast, once every 9.8 hours. As a result, its clouds, which are composed largely of
frozen and liquid ammonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright bands that circle the planet
at different speeds in different latitudes. Jupiter’s puzzling Great Red Spot changes size as it hovers in the
Southern Hemisphere. Scientists speculate it might be a gigantic hurricane, which because of its large size
(the Earth could easily fit inside it), lasts for hundreds of years.

Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from the Sun. Perhaps this is primeval heat or beat
generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet. Another star like characteristic of
Jupiter is its sixteen natural satellites, which, like a miniature model of the Solar System, decrease in
density with distance from rocky moons close to Jupiter to icy moons farther away. If Jupiter were about
70 times more massive, it would have become a star, Jupiter is the best-preserved sample of the early solar
nebula, and with its satellites, might contain the most important clues about the origin of the Solar System.
1. The word attained in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. attempted B. changed C. lost D. reached

2. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _____.

A. nuclear reactions B. giant planets C. terrestrial D. substances
3. According to the passage, hydrogen can become a metallic-like liquid when it is _____.

A. extremely hot B. combined with helium

C. similar atmospheres D. metallic cores

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A. solid surfaces B. similar masses C. similar atmospheres D. metallic cores

5. The clouds surrounding Jupiter are mostly composed of _____.

A. ammonia B. helium C. hydrogen D. methane

6. It can be inferred from the passage that the appearance of alternating bands circling Jupiter is caused
by _____.

A. the Great Red Spot
B. heat from the Sun
C. the planet’s fast rotation

D. Storms from the planet’s Southern Hemisphere

7. The author uses the word puzzling in paragraph 2 to suggest that the Great Red Spot is _____.
A. the only spot of its kind

B. not well understood

C. among the largest of such spots

D. a problem for the planet’s continued existence

8. Paragraph 3 supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as the Sun.

B. Jupiter has a weaker gravitational force than the other planets.
C. Scientists believe that Jupiter was once a star.

D. Scientists might learn about the beginning of the Solar System by Studying Jupiter.
9. Why does the author mention primeval heat in paragraph 3?

A. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the Sun

B. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the other planets

C. To suggest a possible explanation for the number of satellites that Jupiter has
D. To suggest a possible source of the quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off
10. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

A. If Jupiter had fewer satellites, it would be easier for scientists to study the planet itself.
B. If Jupiter had had more mass, it would have developed internal nuclear reactions.
C. If Jupiter had been smaller, it would have become a terrestrial planet.

D. if Jupiter were larger, it would give off much less heat.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

11. A. lean B. teammate C. beacon D. overhead

12. A. challenge B. snatch C. brochure D. chocolate

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

14. A. description B. counselor C. inspector D. amendment

15. A. psychiatry B. inexpensive C. patriotic D. scientific

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

16. By tomorrow, the car _____ by me.

A. will have been bought B. will be bought C. was being bought D. was bought
17. “_____” is used to express disagreement.

A. I couldn’t disagree with you any more. B. That’s not a good idea.

C. That’s the way I see it. D. That’s what I’m not thinking of.
18. The meeting has been put _____ to Friday as so many people have got the flu.

A. up B. in C. out D. back

19. The activities of the international marketing researcher are frequently much broader than _____.
A. the domestic marketer has B. the domestic marketer does

C. those of the domestic marketer D. that which has the domestic marketer
20. I am wrong, _____?

A. aren't I B. are I C. are not I D. am I

21. - A: “John got married again.” - B: “Really? Who _____?”

A. with B. at C. to D. about

22. The child was told to _____ for being rude to his uncle.

A. excuse B. apologize C. forgive D. confess

23. Mai: “Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Nam” - Nam: “_____”.

A. Oh, I don’t know. B. Thank you. I’m glad you like it.

C. You’re welcome. D. I agree with you.

24. - A: “Are you interested in scuba diving?” - B: “A lot. Undersea life is _____.”

A. fascinating B. fascinate C. fascinates D. fascinated

25. "_____ anyone ring while I’m away, please take a message."

A. Will B. May C. Should D. Would

26. She had to pass all her exams, or _____ she would not have a holiday.

A. instead B. else C. though D. therefore

27. The meeting has been brought _____ to Monday due to the seriousness of the situation.

A. on B. out C. down D. forward

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A. will study B. studies C. will study D. study

29. My uncle was _____ ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow but steady
recovery.

A. seriously B. deeply C. fatally D. critically

30. The chief foods eaten in any country depend largely on _____ best in its climate and soil.

A. what grows B. it grows C. does it grow D. what does it grow

31. She made a list of what to do ______ forget anything.

A. in order to B. so as not to C. so that D. not to

32. A: “Can I smoke in here?” - B: “I’d rather you _____.”

A. don’t B. didn’t C. won’t D. can’t

33. The grape is the _____, juicy fruit of a woody vine.

A. skin which is smooth B. skinned is smooth C. smooth-skinned D. smooth skin

34. The _____ collar workers received a rise, but the workers on the shop-door were told they had to wait.

A. blue B. black C. grey D. white

35._____ wooden buildings helps to protect them from damage due to weather.

A. The paint B. Painted C. By painting D. Painting

36. She kept him _____ because he had a high temperature.

A. on B. in C. off D. out

37. Using many symbols makes _____ to put a large amount of information on a single map.

A. it possible B. possible C. it is possible D. that possible

38. Having been served lunch, _____.

A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee 
B. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
C. the committee members discussed the problem

D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee

39. Not until the dedication of Yellowstone Park in the late nineteenth century _____ a national park.
A. the United States had B. did the United States have

C. when the United States had D. the United States having

40. _____ mammals have hair at some time in their lives, though in certain whales it is present only
before birth.

A. Most B. The most C. Most of which D. In most of the

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

41. Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of extinction

A. enriched B. contaminated C. purified D. strengthened

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A. astonished B. frightened C. jolted D. saddened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

43. You must answer the police’s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into trouble.

A. in a harmful way B. as trustingly as you can

C. with a negative attitude D. exactly as you can
44. It takes me 15 minutes to get ready.

A. to prepare B. to wake up C. to go D. to get up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.

45. It is vitally important that she takes this medication night and morning.
 A B C D

46. Had it not been for you help me, I wouldn't have succeeded.
 A B C D

47. Children enjoy telling and listening to ghosts stories, especially on Halloween night.
 A B C D

48. We had better to review this chapter carefully because we will have some questions on it on our test
tomorrow. A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

49. Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price was astronomical.
A. It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase.

B. It was its astronomical price which decreased the demand for tea in the 19th century.

C. In the 19th century the price for tea didn't increase despite the demand.

D. The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price was enormous.
50. French is the only language other than English spoken on five continents.

A. French and English are spoken widely in official and commercial circles.
B. Unlike French, English is spoken on five continents.

C. French and English are the only languages that are spoken on five continents.
D. Before English, French was the only language spoken on five continents.
51. Adults laugh less than children, probably because they play less.

A. unlike adults children laugh more while playing games.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the pair
of sentences given in each of the following questions.

52. The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames. The building burned down completely.
A. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the
flames.

B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned down
completely.

C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the building. 
D. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down
completely.

53. Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.
A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.

B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it. 
C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it. 
D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it. 
54. She phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document.

A. She phoned him early in the morning when she didn’t want him to bring along the document. 
B. She phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the document. 
C. She phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the document.

D. She phoned him early in the morning though she didn’t want him to forget to bring along
the document.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Environmental Concerns

Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (55) _____ human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (56) _____ on consuming
two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly
destroying the (57) _____ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere
fertile soil is (58) _____ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that
they will never be able to recover (59) _____. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any
thought of the consequences. As a (60) _____ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the
very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (61) _____ increasingly heavy demands on it.
The Earth's (62) _____ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines,
warmth, shelter and minerals to (63) _____ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in
how we use the resources, they will (64) _____ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and
excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.

55. A. Although B. Yet C. Still D. Despite

56. A. continues B. repeats C. follows D. carries

57. A. individual B. alone C. very D. solitary

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59. A. utterly B. completely C. quite D. greatly

60. A. result B. reaction C. development D. product

61. A. making B. doing C. having D. taking

62. A. living B. real C. natural D. genuine

63. A. maintain B. stay C. hold D. keep

64. A. remain B. go C. last D. stand

PART 2: WRITING TASK (2.0p)

You should spend about 30 minutes writing a paragraph.
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
'Parents are the best teachers.'

Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer. You should give reasons for your answer
using your own ideas and experience.

Write at least 250

words.--- THE END

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QUANG TRI DEPARTMENT OF
EDUCATION & TRAINING

DONG HA HIGH SCHOOL
Academic Year: 2014-2015

THE STATE’S HIGH SCHOOL GRADUATION
EXAMINATION MOCK TEST No.2

Allotted time: 90 minutes

Candidate Full Name: ……… - Candidate No. ………

PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE (0.125 x 64 = 8.0p)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. Breathing B. Ethane C. Thank D. Healthy

2. A. School B. Blood C. Choose D. Bamboo

3. A. Charity B. Helicopter C. Enthusiasm D. Operate

4. A. Corporation B. Unexpected C. Centenarian D. Authority

5. A. Acquaintance B. Attraction C. Suspicion D. Influence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

6. By the time I _____ to bed last night, I _____ my homework.

A. went – have already finished B. had gone – already finished

C. went – had already finished D. was going – were already finishing
7. In an _____ to diffuse the tension, I suggest that we break off for lunch.

A. attempt B. advance C. effort D. ability

8. Electric lights are _____, clean, and give more light than gas.

A. economy B. economical C. economic D. economics

9. The survey was to find out the young people’s attitudes _____ love.

A. towards B. above C. beneath D. with

10. Peter: “I thought your game was much better last night.” – Dave: “You’ve
got to be kidding! _____!

A. I myself like it very much B. I thought it was terrible
C. I’m sure you enjoy it D. I suppose it was not bad
11. _____ her hard work, she could not have passed the exam.

A. Due to B. Because C. Though D. Had it not been for

12. _____ handball is fast becoming _____ popular sport worldwide.

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13. It is our responsibility to contribute to _____ our own lives.

A. growing B. heightening C. bettering D. increasing

14. He was not prepared for the test; _____, he managed to pass it.

A. however B. therefore C. so D. but

15. Early morning parties were held across the city to mark the _____ event.

A. historical B. history C. historian D. historic

16. She suggested that we _____ at the restaurant in the Hilton Garden Inn for a
change of venue.

A. could meet B. meet C. will meet D. met

17. Michael could hardly wait to _____ his new bike.

A. sit down B. turn back C. try out D. put on

18. There _____ two stone lions at the gate of that old house. Isn’t that right?

A. used to be B. used to C. were used to D. being used

19. My father and his teacher talked a lot about the things and persons _____
they could remember.

A. who B. which C. what D. that

20. I am 17 years old now. I wish my parents wouldn't treat me as if I _____ a
child.

A. was B. were C. am D. have been

21. Mr. Li made up his mind to devote all he could _____ his oral English
before going abroad.

A. improve B. to improve C. improving D. to improving

22. Mai: “Our living standards have been improved greatly” – Susan: “_____.”
A. Thank you for saying so B. Sure. I couldn’t agree more

C. No, it’s nice to say so D. Yes, it’s nice of you to say so

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

23. Tommy was one _____.

A. of the happiest children in the class B. of the happiest child in the class
C. child who was happiest of all the class D. happy children of his class
24. _____ falls on the 2nd of September.

A. Vietnam's Independent Day B. The day of the Vietnamese independence
C. Vietnam's Independence Day D. Vietnamese's Independence Day

25. George knew _____ improve his test scores, but he did not have enough
time to study.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

26. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even
exported the surplus.

A. large quantity B. excess C. small quantity D. sufficiency

27. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless
and orphans.

A. married B. divorced C. separated D. single

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

28. I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.

A. hopeless B. hopeful C. unsuccessful D. successful

29. You will need a sound understanding of basic teaching skills if you want to
enter the classroom with great confidence.

A. sufficient B. defective C. inadequate D. thorough.
30. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.

A. the long day B. all day long C. all long day D. day after day

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.

31. If I knew you were coming, I would have met you at the airport.
A B C D

32. I enjoyed talking to the people with that I met at the party last night.
A B C D

33. Despite of the fact that I washed my hands, they still look dirty.
A B C D

34. In my opinion, he maybe elected because he is honest, knowledgeable and
competent.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

MUSIC – A UNIVERSAL LANGUAGE

Music is universal - it is produced by all cultures. Some scientists believe that music came before
speech and (35) _____ as a development of mating calls. In fact, there is one theory that the (36) _____
languages were chanted or sung rather than spoken. Indeed, in some cultures, music is a form of (37)
_____ history. The Aboriginal Australians, for example, use music as a means to pass on stories of the
land and spirits to the next (38) _____.

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Researchers also report that people score better on a standard intelligence (41) _____ after listening to

Mozart. The so–called 'Mozart effect', has also been (42) _____ by findings that rats brought up on Mozart
run faster through a complex network of paths or passages, (43) _____ as a maze. Overall, it seems that in
most instances people who suffer from any form of mental (44) _____ benefit from listening to music.

35. A. was B. swelled C. arose D. reacted

36. A. simplest B. newest C. easiest D. earliest

37. A. enjoying B. making C. recording D. stating

38. A. children B. people C. tribe D. generation

39. A. convince B. satisfy C. please D. prefer

40. A. information B. knowledge C. memory D. facts

41. A. form B. scheme C. demonstration D. test

42. A. supported B. given C. marked D. remembered

43. A. called B. heard C. regarded D. known

44. A. badness B. hurt C. illness D. pain

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.

Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from the

ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the

surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes services
and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of a city.
Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site involves physical
characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important to the continuing
prosperity of a city. If a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its development is much more
likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled situation: it is located at the
southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity,
and at a meeting of significant land and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one of the world’s
finest large farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city regardless of
the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding during
thunderstorm activity.

Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City’s importance stems from its early and
continuing advantage of situation. Philadelphia and Boston both originated at about the same time as New
York and shared New York’s location at the western end of one of the world’s most important oceanic
trade routes, but only New York possesses an easy-access functional connection (the Hudson-Mohawk
Lowland) to the vast Midwestern Hinterland. This account does not alone explain New York’s primacy,
but it does include several important factors. Among the many aspects of situation that help to explain
why some cities grow and others do not, original location on a navigable waterway seems particularly
applicable. Of course, such characteristic as slope, drainage, power resources, river crossings, coastal
shapes, and other physical characteristics help to determine city location, but such factors are normally
more significant in early stages of city development than later.

35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The development of trade routes through United States cities.
B. Contrasts in settlement patterns in United States.

C. Historical differences among three large United States cities.

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36. The word “ingenuity” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. wealth B. resourcefulness C. traditions D. organization

37. According to the passage, a city’s situation is more important than its site in
regard to the city’s ____.

A. long-term growth and prosperity B. ability to protect its citizenry
C. possession of favorable weather conditions D. need to import food supplies

38. The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of Chicago’s
location EXCEPT its ____.

A. hinterland B. nearness to a large lake

C. flat terrain D. position in regard to transport routes

39. The word “characteristics” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. choices B. attitudes C. qualities D. inhabitants

40. The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to _____.
A. summarize past research and introduce a new study

B. describe a historical period

C. emphasize the advantages of one theory over another
D. define a term and illustrate it with an example

41. According to the passage, Philadelphia and Boston are similar to New York
City in _____.

A. size of population B. age

C. site D. availability of rail transportation

42. The word “functional” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. usable B. unknown C. original D. alternate

43. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.

A. account B. primacy C. connection D. hinterland

44. The word “significant” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. threatening B. meaningful C. obvious D. available

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.

We believe the Earth is about 4.6 billion years old. At present we are forced to look to other bodies in
the solar system for hints as to what the early history of the Earth was like.

Studies of our moon, Mercury, Mars, and the large satellites of Jupiter and Saturn have provided
ample evidence that all these large celestial bodies were bombarded by smaller objects in a wide variety of
sizes shortly after the larger bodies had formed. This same bombardment must have affected Earth as
well. The lunar record indicates that the rate of impacts decreased to its present low level about 4 billion
years ago. On Earth, subsequent erosion and crustal motions have obliterated the craters that must have
formed during this epoch.

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are the oldest rocks on Earth. Tests on rocks from the moon and on meteorites show that these are about
4.6 billion years old. Scientists believe that this is the true age of the solar system and probably the true

age of the Earth

45. In paragraph 2, the word "obliterated" means _____.

A. created B. destroyed C. changed D. eroded

46. According to this passage, how do scientists estimate the age of the Earth?
A. By measuring the ratios of radioactive elements in rocks.

B. By examining fossils.
C. By studying sunspots.

D. By examining volcanic activity.

47. Scientists estimate the age of the Earth as_____.

A. 3 1/3 billion years old B. 4 billion years old C. 4.6 billion years old D. 6 billion years old
48. Which of the following processes led to the obliteration of the craters
formed by the bombardment of the Earth by celestial bodies?

A. Volcanic activity. B. Solar radiation. C. Gravity. D. Crustal motions.
49. According to the passage, why are scientists forced to look at other bodies in
the solar system to determine the early history of the Earth?

A. Human alteration of the Earth. B. Erosion and crustal motions.

C. Solar flares. D. Deforestation.

50. What is the BEST title for this passage?

A. "Determining the Age of the Earth" B. "Determining the Age of the Solar System"
C. "Erosion and Crustal Motion of Earth" D. "Radioactive Elements in Rocks"

51. Which of the following bodies was NOT studied to give evidence that the
Earth was bombarded in its early history?

A. Mars. B. Mercury. C. Jupiter. D. Earth's moon.

52. Bombardment of the Earth at one time by various sized bodies is _____.
A. inferred from what happened on other planetary bodies

B. documented fact

C. proven by the lunar record
D. indicated by erosion

53. The level of impacts of the bombardments of Earth has _____.
A. decreased to below normal B. increased to a current high
C. increased after a periodic low D. decreased to a current low
54. In paragraph 2, the word "bombardment" means _____.

A. an avoidance B. an assault C. an effect D. a cause

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Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (0.5p)

1. The death of over fifty people was caused by the storm.

The storm resulted...
2. It wasn’t nice of you not to invite me to your party.

I might...
3. Gmail accounts are generally better than other email services.

Other email services are generally...
4. I had no sooner closed the door than somebody knocked.

Hardly...
5. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.

Paper ...
Part II. You should spend about 30 minutes on this task. (1.5p)

Write about the following topic:

Some universities require students to take the entrance examination with the English subject. Other
universities do not. Which is better? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.

Write at least 140 words.

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---QUANG TRI DEPARTMENT OF
EDUCATION & TRAINING

DONG HA HIGH SCHOOL
Academic Year: 2014-2015

THE STATE’S HIGH SCHOOL GRADUATION
EXAMINATION MOCK TEST No.2

Allotted time: 90 minutes

KEY ANSWER

PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE (0.125 x 64 = 8.0p)

1. A. Breathing 2. B. Blood

3. C. Enthusiasm 4. D. Authority 5. D. Influence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions. (6-24)

6. C. By the time I went to bed last night, I had already finished my homework.
7. A. In an attempt to diffuse the tension, I suggest that we break off for lunch.
8. B. Electric lights are economical, clean, and give more light than gas.
9. A. The survey was to find out the young people’s attitudes towards love.

10. B. Peter: “I thought your game was much better last night.” – Dave:
“You’ve got to be kidding! I thought it was terrible!”

11. D. Had it not been for her hard work, she could not have passed the exam.
12. C.  handball is fast becoming a popular sport worldwide.

13. C. It is our responsibility to contribute to bettering our own lives.

14. A. He was not prepared for the test; however, he managed to pass it.

15. D. Early morning parties were held across the city to mark the historic
event.

16. B. She suggested that we meet at the restaurant in the Hilton Garden Inn for
a change of venue.

17. C. Michael could hardly wait to try out his new bike.

18. A. There two stone lions at the gate of that old house. Isn’t that right?

19. D. My father and his teacher talked a lot about the things and persons that
they could remember.

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21. D. Mr. Li made up his mind to devote all he could to improving his oral
English before going abroad.

22. B. Mai: “Our living standards have been improved greatly” – Susan: “Sure.
I couldn’t agree more .”

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

23. A. Tommy was one of the happiest children in the class . 
24. C. Vietnam's Independence Day falls on the 2nd of September.

25. B. George knew how he could improve his test scores, but he did not have
enough time to study.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

26. C. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance(>on the
island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

27. A. She decided to remain celibate(>< married) and devote her life to
helping the homeless and orphans.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

28. D. I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry. (=
successful)

29. D. You will need a sound (= thorough) understanding of basic teaching

skills if you want to enter the classroom with great confidence.

30. B. We spent the entire day(= all day long) looking for a new apartment.

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.

31. A. If I knew you were coming, I would have met you at the airport. ( had
known)

32. C. I enjoyed talking to the people with that I met at the party last night. (
whom)

33. A. Despite of the fact that I washed my hands, they still look dirty. (
Despite/ In spite of)

34. B. In my opinion, he maybe elected because he is honest, knowledgeable
and competent. ( may be)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (35-44)

MUSIC – A UNIVERSAL LANGUAGE

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New evidence suggests that music does not just (39. B) satisfy the feel-good factor but it is also good
for the brain. A study of intellectually disabled children showed that they could recall more (40. A)
information after it was given to them in a song than after it was read to them as a story.

Researchers also report that people score better on a standard intelligence (41. D) test after listening to
Mozart. The so–called 'Mozart effect', has also been (42. A) supported by findings that rats brought up on
Mozart run faster through a complex network of paths or passages, (43. D) known as a maze. Overall, it
seems that in most instances people who suffer from any form of mental (44. C) illness benefit from
listening to music.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.

Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from the

ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the
surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes services
and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of a city.
Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site involves physical

characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important to the continuing
prosperity of a city. if a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its development is much more
likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled situation: it is located at the
southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity,
and at a meeting of significant land and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one of the world’s
finest large farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city regardless of
the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding during
thunderstorm activity.

45. D. What does the passage mainly discuss? The importance of

geographical situation in the growth of United States cities

46. B. The word “ingenuity” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

resourcefulness.

47. A. According to the passage, a city’s situation is more important than its site
in regard to the city’s long-term growth and prosperity.

48. C. The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of Chicago’s
location EXCEPT itsflat terrain.

49. C. The word “characteristics” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
qualities.

50. D. The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to define a term and illustrate it
with an example.

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52. A. The word “functional” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to usable.

53. A. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to account.

54. B. The word “significant” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
meaningful.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.

We believe the Earth is about 4.6 billion years old. At present we are forced to look to other bodies in
the solar system for hints as to what the early history of the Earth was like.

Scientists estimate the Earth's age by measuring the ratios of various radioactive elements in rocks.
The oldest Earth rocks tested thus far are about 3 1/3 billion years old. But no one knows whether these
are the oldest rocks on Earth. Tests on rocks from the moon and on meteorites show that these are about
4.6 billion years old. Scientists believe that this is the true age of the solar system and probably the true
age of the Earth

55. B. In paragraph 2, the word "obliterated" means destroyed.

56. A. According to this passage, how do scientists estimate the age of the

Earth? By measuring the ratios of radioactive elements in rocks.

57. C. Scientists estimate the age of the Earth as 4.6 billion years old.

58. D. Which of the following processes led to the obliteration of the craters

formed by the bombardment of the Earth by celestial bodies? Crustal motions.

59. B. According to the passage, why are scientists forced to look at other
bodies in the solar system to determine the early history of the Earth? Erosion and crustal motions.
60. A. What is the BEST title for this passage? "Determining the Age of the
Earth"

61. C. Which of the following bodies was NOT studied to give evidence that

the Earth was bombarded in its early history? Jupiter.

62. A. Bombardment of the Earth at one time by various sized bodies is

inferred from what happened on other planetary bodies.

63. D. The level of impacts of the bombardments of Earth has decreased to a

current low.

64. B. In paragraph 2, the word "bombardment" means an assault.

PART 2: WRITING TASK (2.0p)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (0.5p)

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I might have been invited to your party.

3. Gmail accounts are generally better than other email services.
Other email services are generally not as good as Gmail accounts.
4. I had no sooner closed the door than somebody knocked.

Hardly had I closed the door when somebody knocked.
5. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.

Paper is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D. 
Part II. You should spend about 30 minutes on this task. (1.5p)

Write about the following topic:

Write at least 140 words.

Tiêu chí Điểm

1. Bố cục toàn bài viết 0.4

2. Phát triển ý: logic, dẫn chứng, ví dụ … 0.25

3. Sử dụng ngơn từ: văn phong, từ nối … 0.3

4. Nội dung đủ thuyết phục, độ dài +/- 5% (140 word: 12 words/ line = 11  13

lines)

0.3

5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, chính tả (1 lỗi: - 0.15p) 0.25

Tổng điểm 1.50

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---SỞ GD-ĐT QUẢNG TRỊ
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN THỊ

TÂM

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
MƠN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (khơng kể thời gian giao đề) 
Đề thi gồm có 06 trang

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÃ ĐỀ THI: 985

Họ và tên thí sinh:... Số báo danh:...
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.

Question 1: A. handle B. gesture C. retain D. famine

Question 2: A. reflection B. division C. astronomy D. interview

Question 3: A. humanity B. necessity C. academic D. facilitate

Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently.

Question 4. A. solved B. stylizled C. survived D. wounded

Question 5. A. cough B. enough C. laughter D. plough

Choose the word phrase that best completes each sentence. 
Question 6: _______ that she burst into tears.

A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so
Question 7: At first sight I met her. I was impressed with her _______

A. big beautiful round black eyes B. beautiful black big round eyes 
C. beautiful big round black eyes D. beautiful round big black eyes
Question 8: She had to hand in her notice ______ advance when she decided to leave the job.

A. with B. from C. in D. to

Question 9:He was very lucky when he fell off the ladder. He _____ himself.

A. could have hurt B. must have hurt C. should have hurt D. will have hurt
Question 10: John contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute ______

A. the same amount also B. more fifty dollars C. another fifty D. one other fifty dollars
Question 11: Grace Kelly was first famous as a Hollywood actress and then ______ Prince Rainier of 
Monaco.

A. to be the wife of B. she was the wife of C. the wife of D. as the wife of
Question 12: ______ for breakfast is bread and eggs.

A. That I only like B. Which better I like C. What I like most D. The food what I like 
Question 13: : ______ but he also proved himself a good athlete.

A. Not only he showed himself a good student B. He did not show himself only a good student 
C. Not only did he show himself a good student D. A good student not only showed him 
Question 14: ______, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

A. He felt very tired though B. As he might feel tired

C. Tired as it was D. Tired as he might feel

Question 15: - "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" - "______"

A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that.

C. Yes, of course. It's expensive. D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. 
Question 16: : I like reading books________ this is a good way to get information.

A. because B. because of C. so that D. in order to

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A. Of course not. You bet! B. Well, that’s very surprising. 
C. There’s no doubt about it. D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.

Question 18: _________ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On the contrary B. On my part C. On the whole D. On the other hand

Question 19: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have ______ by 2015. 
A. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out

Question 20: The beautiful girl died of an________morphine.

A. overweight B. overhear C. overdo D. overdose
Question 21: The old houses were ______ down to make way for a block of flats.

A. banged B. hit C. knocked D. put

Question 22: Will you just tidy your room, and stop ______ excuses!”

A. having B. making C. doing D. taking

Question 23: James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so ____.
A. sensible B. insensible C. sensitive D. senseless
Question 24: Only 40 % of 5-year-olds have_______ to pre-school children.

A. access B. approach C. denial D. recognition

Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following questions
Question 25: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize

Question 26: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.

A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor

Question 27:The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.

A. absolutely B. Relavently C. Almost D. comparatively
Question 28: Sharks are single – minded , and will usually ignore rescuers.

A. concentrate on only one purpose/aim … B. are selfish C. are cruel D. attack suddenly
Question 29: When Americans are invited to formal or informal get – togethers they usually try to make 
others feel comfortable and relaxed.

A. meetings B. conferences C. conversations D. social reunions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.

Question 30: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the 
festivities. A B C D

Question 31: The media have produced live covering of Michael Jackson’s fans around the world
mourning for him A B C

D

Question 32: Helen likes to listen to music, to go to the cinema, to chat on the phone and going shopping.

A B C D

Question 33: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in 
the film industry. A B C D

Question 34: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010-World-Cup
A B C

matches so annoyed.
D

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Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (35) __ _ as
much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (36) _ _ and tone of voice
are obvious ways of showing our (37) _ _ to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express
views that we are trying to hide. The art of being ( 38) __ _ lies in picking up these signals, realizing what
the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we
may understand that they are in fact (39) __ __ to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body
movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way
a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind
of appearance while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (40)
__ __ stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete
psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (41) __ __ results. For
many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (42) __ _ into their private
lives.

After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his
or her family doctor to provide (43) _ _ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests
predict whether a person is likely to be a (44) __ __ employee or a values colleague?

Question 35: A. rely B. estimate C. reckon D. trust

Question 36: A. looks B. image C. manner D. expression

Question 37: A. feeling B. view C. notion D. reaction

Question 38: A. good at B. tactful C. successful D. humble

Question 39: A. reluctant B. used C. hesitant D. tending

Question 40: A. psychological B. relevant C. physical D. similar

Question 41: A. faithful B. regular C. reliable D. predictable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 45 to 54.

Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment
surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest known subsistence strategy and has
been practised for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary (sơ đẳng)
farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago. Because hunter-gatherers have fared
poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal
(giới hạn) environments, such as deserts and arctic (thuộc bắc cực) wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons
have restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along
the coasts and waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a
greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have
limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our
prehistoric ancestors. We know from the observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based

on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests
the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area has become exhausted, the community moves on
to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division
of labor between the sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic
Period. (đồ đá cũ)

Question 45: The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means ______. 
A. adapting animals to suit a new working environment

B. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home 
C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home 
D. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans

Question 46: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ______.

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A. disadvantaged B. suburban C. forgotten D. abandoned 
Question 48: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers ______.

A. can free themselves from hunting B. have better food gathering from nature 
C. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing D. harvest shorter seasonal crops

Question 49: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a ______. 
A. further understanding of prehistoric times B. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments 
C. further understanding of modern subsistence societies D. deeper insight into the dry-land farming 
Question 50: The word “conditions” in the second paragraph refers to ______.

A. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found 
B. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops 
C. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow 
D. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat

Question 51: A typical feature of both modern and prehistoric hunter-gatherers is that ______.

A. they live in the forests for all their life B. they don’t have a healthy and balanced diet 
C. they don’t have a strong sense of community D. they often change their living places 
Question 52: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?

A. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up. 
B. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.

C. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient. 
D. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.

Question 53: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share ______. 
A. some methods of production B. some patterns of behavior

C. some restricted daily rules D. only the way of duty division 
Question 54: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?

A. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies B. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods 
C. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming D. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects, an estimated 90 percent of the world's
species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are, perhaps, the best group of insects for examining
patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the
general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and
conservation issues such as diversity.

Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is
the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.

For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he
mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the
British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of
tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.

A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and
tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal
and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical
regions, rather than between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among
the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for
vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still
in the documentation phase.

In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are
made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the
evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples
because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by
imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.

Question 55: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats

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Question 56: The word "consequence" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".

A. requirement B. analysis C. result D. explanation

Question 57: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they _______.

A. are found mainly in temperate climates B. have been given scientific names
C. are simple in structure D. are viewed positively by people
Question 58: The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".

A. noticeable B. successful C. confusing D. physical

Question 59: The word “exceed” in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".

A. allow B. go beyond C. come close to D. locate

Question 60: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of
diversity EXCEPT _______.

A. differences between temperate and tropical zones

B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
C. patterns of distribution of species in each region

D. migration among temperate and tropical zones

Question 61: The author mentions "tropical Asia" in the passage as an example of a location where 
_______.

A. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
B. butterflies are affected by human populations

C. butterfly behavior varies with climate

D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 62: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?

A. European butterfly habitats

B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions

Question 63: The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that _______.
A. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution

B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution

D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent

Question 64: The word "generated" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".

A. assisted B. estimated C. requested D. caused

WRITING:

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence 
printed before it

65. It would have been a superb weekend if it hadn’t been for the weather.



But……….………..
66. Mary is the most warm- hearted person I have ever known.



I have ………..……….………
67.“You didn’t pay attention to what I said,” the teacher said to him

 The teacher accused ………
68. It was such a boring film that we left before the end.



The film ……….………...
69. He tried hard. He wasn’t successful



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SỞ GD-ĐT QUẢNG TRỊ
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN THỊ

TÂM

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) 
Đề thi gồm có 06 trang

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÃ ĐỀ THI: 783

Họ và tên thí sinh:... Số báo danh:...
Choose the word phrase that best completes each sentence.

Question 1: ______, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

A. He felt very tired though B. As he might feel tired

C. Tired as it was D. Tired as he might feel

Question 2: James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so ____.
A. sensible B. insensible C. sensitive D. senseless
Question 3: _______ that she burst into tears.

A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so
Question 4: At first sight I met her. I was impressed with her _______

A. big beautiful round black eyes B. beautiful black big round eyes 
C. beautiful big round black eyes D. beautiful round big black eyes

Question 5: Grace Kelly was first famous as a Hollywood actress and then ______ Prince Rainier of 
Monaco.

A. to be the wife of B. she was the wife of C. the wife of D. as the wife of
Question 6: - "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" - "______"

A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that.

C. Yes, of course. It's expensive. D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. 
Question 7: I like reading books________ this is a good way to get information.

A. because B. because of C. so that D. in order to

Question 8: John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” 
Laura: “______”

A. Of course not. You bet! B. Well, that’s very surprising. 
C. There’s no doubt about it. D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea. 
Question 9:He was very lucky when he fell off the ladder. He _____ himself.

A. could have hurt B. must have hurt C. should have hurt D. will have hurt
Question 10: John contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute ______)

A. the same amount also B. more fifty dollars C. another fifty D. one other fifty dollars
Question 11: The old houses were ______ down to make way for a block of flats.

A. banged B. hit C. knocked D. put

Question 12: Will you just tidy your room, and stop ______ excuses!”

A. having B. making C. doing D. taking

Question 13 : _________ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On the contrary B. On my part C. On the whole D. On the other hand

Question 14 The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have ______ by 2015. 
A. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out

Question 15: She had to hand in her notice ______ advance when she decided to leave the job.

A. with B. from C. in D. to

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A. That I only like B. Which better I like C. What I like most D. The food what I like 
Question 17: : ______ but he also proved himself a good athlete.

A. Not only he showed himself a good student B. He did not show himself only a good student 
C. Not only did he show himself a good student D. A good student not only showed him 
Question 18: The beautiful girl died of an______morphine.

A. overweight B. overhear C. overdo D. overdose
Question 19: You should make a(n) ______ to overcome this problem.

A. trial B. impression C. effort D. apology

Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following questions
Question 20: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize

Question 21: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.

A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor

Question 22:The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.

A. absolutely B. Relavently C. Almost D. comparatively
Question 23: Sharks are single – minded , and will usually ignore rescuers.

A. concentrate on only one purpose/aim … B. are selfish C. are cruel D. attack suddenly
Question 24: When Americans are invited to formal or informal get – togethers they usually try to make 
others feel comfortable and relaxed.

A. meetings B. conferences C. conversations D. social reunions
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.

Question 25: A. gesture B. handle C. retain D. famine

Question 26: A. reflection B. interview C. astronomy D. division

Question 27: A. Facilitate B. necessity C. academic D. humanity

Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently.

Question 28. A. solved B. stylizled C. survived D. wounded

Question 29. A. cough B. enough C. laughter D. plough

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.

Question 30: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the 
festivities. A B C D

Question 31: The media have produced live covering of Michael Jackson’s fans around the world mourning for him A 
B C

D

Question 32: Helen likes to listen to music, to go to the cinema, to chat on the phone and going shopping.
 A B C D

Question 33: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in 
the film industry. A B C D

Question 34: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010-World-Cup
 A B C

matches so annoyed.
D

Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.

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are obvious ways of showing our (37) _ _ to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express
views that we are trying to hide. The art of being ( 38) __ _ lies in picking up these signals, realizing what
the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we
may understand that they are in fact (39) __ __ to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body
movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way
a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind
of appearance while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (40)
__ __ stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete
psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (41) __ __ results. For
many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (42) __ _ into their private
lives.

Question 35: A. rely B. estimate C. reckon D. trust

Question 36: A. looks B. image C. manner D. expression

Question 37: A. feeling B. view C. notion D. reaction

Question 38: A. good at B. tactful C. successful D. humble

Question 39: A. reluctant B. used C. hesitant D. tending

Question 40: A. psychological B. relevant C. physical D. similar

Question 41: A. faithful B. regular C. reliable D. predictable

Question 42: A. infringement B. invasion C. interference D. intrusion
Question 43: A. reticent B. classified C. confidential D. secretive
Question 44: A. conscientious B. particular C. laborious D. thorough
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is
the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.

For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he

mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the
British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of
tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.

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Question 45: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats

C. Their names D. Their variety

Question 46: The word "consequence" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".

A. requirement B. analysis C. result D. explanation

Question 47: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they _______.

A. are found mainly in temperate climates B. have been given scientific names
C. are simple in structure D. are viewed positively by people
Question 48: The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".

A. noticeable B. successful C. confusing D. physical

Question 49: The word “exceed” in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".

A. allow B. go beyond C. come close to D. locate

Question 50: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of
diversity EXCEPT _______.

A. differences between temperate and tropical zones

B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
C. patterns of distribution of species in each region

D. migration among temperate and tropical zones

Question 51: The author mentions "tropical Asia" in the passage as an example of a location where 
_______.

A. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
B. butterflies are affected by human populations

C. butterfly behavior varies with climate

D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 52: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?

A. European butterfly habitats

B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region

D. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions

Question 53: The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that _______.
A. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution

B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution

D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent

Question 54: The word "generated" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".

A. assisted B. estimated C. requested D. caused

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 55 to 64.

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to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division
of labor between the sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic
Period. (đồ đá cũ)

Question 55: The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means ______. 
A. adapting animals to suit a new working environment

Question 56: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ______.

A. hunter-gatherers’ tools B. nature’s provision C. farming methods D. agricultural products 
Question 57: The word “marginal” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.

A. disadvantaged B. suburban C. forgotten D. abandoned 
Question 58: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers ______.

A. can free themselves from hunting B. have better food gathering from nature 
C. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing D. harvest shorter seasonal crops

Question 59: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a ______. 
A. further understanding of prehistoric times B. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments
C. further understanding of modern subsistence societies D. deeper insight into the dry-land farming 
Question 60: The word “conditions” in the second paragraph refers to ______.

Question 61: A typical feature of both modern and prehistoric hunter-gatherers is that ______.

A. they live in the forests for all their life B. they don’t have a healthy and balanced diet 
C. they don’t have a strong sense of community D. they often change their living places 
Question 62: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?

A. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up. 
B. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.

C. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient. 
D. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.

Question 63: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share ______. 
A. some methods of production B. some patterns of behavior

C. some restricted daily rules D. only the way of duty division 
Question 64: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?

A. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies B. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods 
C. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming D. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move 
WRITING:

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence 
printed before it

65. It would have been a superb weekend if it hadn’t been for the weather.



But……….………...
66. Mary is the most warm- hearted person I have ever known.



I have ………..……...……….………
67.“You didn’t pay attention to what I said,” the teacher said to him

 The teacher accused ……….………
68. It was such a boring film that we left before the end.



The film ……….
69. He tried hard. He wasn’t successful



No matter ………..
Part II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about your hobby

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...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
...
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 985

PHẦN I: PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM ( 8 ĐIỂM) MỖI CÂU = 0.125 ĐIỂM.

SỐCÂU ĐÁP ÁN SỐ

CÂU
ĐÁP
ÁN
SỐ
CÂU
ĐÁP
ÁN
SỐ
CÂU
ĐÁP
ÁN

1 C 17 C 33 B 49 A

2 D 18 C 34 D 50 C

3 C 19 D 35 A 51 C

4 D 20 D 36 D 52 B

5 D 21 C 37 D 53 B

6 A 22 B 38 B 54 C

7 C 23 C 39 A 55 D

8 C 24 A 40 A 56 A

9 B 25 B 41 C 57 D

10 C 26 A 42 D 58 A

11 D 27 D 43 C 59 B

12 C 28 A 44 A 60 D

13 C 29 A 45 D 61 A

14 D 30 C 46 B 62 D

15 D 31 B 47 A 63 A

16 A 32 D 48 B 64 D

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 783

PHẦN I: PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM ( 8 ĐIỂM) MỖI CÂU = 0.125 ĐIỂM.

SỐCÂU ĐÁP ÁN SỐ

CÂU
ĐÁP
ÁN
SỐ
CÂU
ĐÁP
ÁN
SỐ

CÂU
ĐÁP
ÁN

1 D 17 C 33 B 49 B

2 C 18 D 34 D 50 D

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4 C 20 B 36 D 52 D

5 D 21 A 37 D 53 A

6 D 22 D 38 B 54 D

7 A 23 A 39 A 55 D

8 C 24 A 40 A 56 B

9 B 25 C 41 C 57 A

10 C 26 B 42 D 58 B

11 C 27 C 43 C 59 A

12 B 28 D 44 A 60 C

13 C 29 D 45 D 61 D

14 D 30 C 46 A 62 B

15 C 31 B 47 D 63 B

16 C 32 D 48 A 64 C

PHẦN II: PHẦN TỰ LUẬN ( 2 ĐIỂM)
PART I: 0.5 ĐIỂM (MỖI CÂU 0.1 ĐIỂM)

65. But for the weather, it wouldn’t have been a superb weekend.

66. I have never known such a warm-hearted person./ I have never known a more warm-heated person
than this one.

67. The teacher accused him of not paying attention to what he had said.
68. The film was so boring that we left before the end.

69. No matter how hard he tried, he wasn’t successful
PART II: 1.5 ĐIỂM

Mơ tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa

1. Bố cục 0.40

o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc

o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài
o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận

2. Phát triển ý 0.25

o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic

o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình

3. Sử dụng ngơn ngữ 0.30

o Sử dụng ngơn từ phù hợp nội dung

o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại
o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển

4. Nội dung 0.30

o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc
o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận

o Độ dài: Số từ khơng nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%

5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 0.25

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- Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một
lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)

- Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi

o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi
ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.)

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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ
QUÝ ĐÔN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐCGIA 
NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015

Môn: Tiếng Anh - Thời gian: 90 phút

Mã đề thi 246

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase SIMILAR in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of thefollowing questions.

Question 1: Marsha found it difficult to cope with the loss of her job.
A. anticipate B. deal with C. think about D. confirm

Question 2: After the alien spacecraft had hovered the park for a shortwhile, it vanished.
A. landed B. disappeared C. attacked D. rose

Question 3: Efficient air service has been made available through modern technology.
A. affluent B. inexpensive C. modern D. effective

Question 4: The professortried to stimulate interest in archaeologyby takinghis students on expeditions.
A. simulate B. encourage C. fake D. diminish

Question 5: The question was discarded because it was ambiguous.
A. incorrect B. biased C. vague D. dull

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each ofthefollowing questions.

Question 6:

A. opponent B. penalty C. maintenance D. counterpart
Question 7:

A. outstanding B. destructive C. financial D. infinite
Question 8:

A. neglect B. enact C. argue D. dispose

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other threein pronunciationin each ofthefollowing questions.

Question 9:

A. composed B. noticed C. appalled D. ploughed
Question 10:

A. compliment B. gorilla C. advocate D. compulsory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

Question 11: - Shall I ring you at one o’clock?

- No, my lunch houris earlier tomorrow so _______my lunch in the canteen then. Ring me at about
one-thirty.

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Question 12: We saw an ancient, ________ , stone-built house risingout of the mist.
A. beautiful B. huge C. manor D. grey

Question 13: Most ofthe houses in this country have ________

A. a garden B. the garden C. garden D. the gardens

Question 14: My manager says we ________ take more than ten minutes for our break and, if we
do, he’ll make us work extra hours.

A. don’t have to B. don’t need to C. mustn’t D. won’t have to

Question 15: I ran allthe wayto the station but when I got there I realized that_______ because all the trains
were delayed.

A. Ididn’t need to hurry B. Ineedn’t have hurried C. I didn’t have to hurry D. Imight have hurried
Question 16: The building_______ the earthquake butthen _______by a fire.

A. was survived… destroyed B. survived… was destroyed
C. survived… destroyed D. was survived…was destroyed
Question 17: A llthe way along the windingstreet ________

A. he came B. came he C. did he come D. comes he
Question 18: The mothersat by her_______ child’s bedside allnight.
A. sleeping B. sleep C. asleep D. overslept
Question 19: _________ theyslept soundly.

A. Hot though was the night air B. Hot as was the night air
C. Hot although the night air was D. Hot as the night air was
Question 20: Is there any chance _______ the machineries repaired ?
A. to have B. of being C. for having D. of having

Question 21: Starvation and poverty are the result of global economic________, notlack ofresources.
A. exploitation B. exploitative C. exploiter D. exploits

Question 22: Scientists ________ a carefully controlled experiment on the mysteryvirus.
A. carried over B. measured out C. carried out D. put up

Question 23:- Laura: “Come on, let’s go or we’llbe late.” - Jane: “_______”
A. Hangon, give me a moment B. Oh, what a shame

C. No way! You are pulling my leg D. Let me sleep on it

Question 24: - John: “Thanks for inviting me to dinner.” -Jane: “______”

A. I’m allears B. You’rewelcome. Come in andmake yourself at home
C. I’m having second thoughts D. Ok. Thanks all the same

Question 25: As it’s not out on DVD yet, we might________get it on the video, Isuppose.
A. also B. as well C. too D. and

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Question 27: The sky suddenlywent dark as a huge _______ of birds passed overhead.
A. herd B. flock C. pack D. tribe

Question 28: The fire spread the building veryquickl y but everyone_______ escape.
A. could B. were able to C. was able to D. couldn’t

Question 29: _______ he began to make friends more easily.
A. Havingentered schoolin the new cit y,itwas found that
B.After entering the newschool,

C. When he had been enteringthe new school,
D. Upon entering into the new school,

Mark the letter A,B,C, or Donyour answer sheet to indicate the underlined partthat needs correction
in each of the following questions:

Question 30: Hay fever symptoms, (A) ranged from mild (B) to severe, (C) differ in degree (D)
according to the individual.

Question 31:Geochemistryincludes (A) the study of the movement (B) of elements from one place to
another (C) as a result of (D) processes chemical.

Question 32: The (A) growth rate of the Pacific Rim countries is five (B) times fast as (C)
comparable areas (D) during theIndustrial Revolution.

Question 33: While verbalization (A) is the most common form of language in (B) existence,
humans make use of many (C) others systems and techniques (D) to express their thoughts and feelings.
Question 34: Humming birds are (A) the onl y birds capable (B) to fly backward (C) as well as
(D) forward, up, and down.

Read the following passage and markthe letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet toindicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 44.

Martin Luther King, Jr., is well known for his workin civil rights and for his many famous
speeches, among them is his moving "I Have A Dream" speech. But fewer people know much
about King's childhood. M.L., as he was called, was born in 1929, in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home
of his maternal grandfather. M.L.'s grandfather, the Reverend A.D. Williams, purchased their home
on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L. was born. The Reverend Williams, an
eloquent speaker, played an important role in the communitysince so many people's lives centered
around the church. He allowed his church and his home to be used as a meeting place for a number
of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in this

atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering place, and was no doubt
influenced by it.

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Question 35: What is this passage mainl y about?

A. the prejudice that existed in Atlanta B. Martin Luther King's childhood
C. M.L.'s grandfather D. the neighborhood King grew up in
Question 36: The word "eloquent" means most nearly:

A. Powerful B. Active C. Romantic D. Fascinating
Question 37: Which line best describe King’s childhood neighbourhood?
A. Line 5-6 B. Line 8-9 C. Line 10-11 D. Line 11-15

Question 38: The word “eventful”is closest in meaningto which of the following?
A. Valued B. Memorable C. Admirable D. Emotional

Question 39: The word “it”refers to which of the following?

A. Achievement B. Neighbourhood C. Segregation D. Services

Question 40: According to the author, blacks in King's neighborhood were involved in all the
followingbusinesses and services EXCEPT________

A. Dentistry B. Medicine C. Law D. Banking
Question 41: According to the author, King was influenced by_______

A. Communityspirit B. Black lawyers C. His mother D. His speeches
Question 42: The word "thrived" refers to which of the following?

A. achieved B. surrendered C. flourished D. held

Question 43: As used in line 16, which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "seemingly"?
A. apparently B. inevitable C. inexplicable D. hastily

Question 44: According to the author, M.L.________

A. had a difficult childhood B. was a good musician as a child

C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak D. grewup in a relativelyrich area of Atlanta

Read the following passage and markthe letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet toindicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.

Many flowering plants woo insect pollinators and gently direct them to their most fertile blossoms by
changing the color of individual flowers from day to day. Through color cues, the plant signals to the insect
that it would be better off visiting one flower on its bush than another.The particular hue tells the
pollinator that the flower is full of far more pollen than are neighboring blooms. That nectar-rich flower
also happens to be fertile and ready to disperse its pollen or to receive pollen the insect has picked up from
another flower. Plants do not have to spend precious resources maintaining reservoirs of nectarin all their
flowers. Thus, the color-coded communication system benefits both plants and insects.

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In other types of plants, blossoms change from white to red,others from yellow to red, and so on. These
color changes have been observed in some 74 families of plants.

Question 45: The first paragraph of the passage implies thatinsects benefitfrom the color-coded
communication system because_______

A. the colors hide them from predators. B. other insectspecies can notunderstand the code.
C.the brightcolors attract fertile females D. they can gatherpollen efficiently.

Question 46: The word “woo”is closest in meaningto_______
A. deceive B. attract C. frighten D. trap
Question 47: The word “it” refers to_______

A. a blossom B. an insect C. a signal D. a plant
Question 48: The word “hue” is closet in meaning to_______
A. smell B. texture C. color D. shape

Question 49: Which of the following describes the sequence of color changes that lantana blossom
undergo?

A. Yellow to orange to red B. Red to yellow to white
C.Red to purple D. White to red

Question 50: The word “triggering”is closestin meaning to_________
A. maintaining B. limiting C. activating D. renewing

Question 51: The passage implies thatinsects would be most attracted to lantana blossoms_______
A. on the first daythat theybloom B. on the third day that theybloom

C.after theyproduce anthromyacin D.when they turn orange

Question 52: According to the passage, whatis the purpose of the experiments involving paper flowers and
painted flowers?

A. To prove that flowers do not always need pollen to reproduce.

B. To demonstrate how insects changecolor dependingon the type of flowers theyvisit.
C. To support the idea thatinsects respond to the changing color of flowers.

D. To strengthen the idea that butterflies are attracted bythe smell of flowers.

Question 53: The word “haphazard” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Dangerous B. Random C. Fortunate D. Expected
Question 54: What is known from the passageabout the other types of plants?

A. They have notbeen studied as thoroughly as the lantana.
B.They have exactl y the same pigments as the lantana.
C.Theyfollow varioussequences of color changes.

D. They use scent and othermethods of attracting pollinators.

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MUSIC

Nobody knows for certain what theorigin ofmusic was. Music is certainly olderthan poetr y and paintingbut
as early man had no way of (55) _______ it, we can only (56)_______ what it sounded like.
Watching a child (57 ) ______ on a drum with its hands or a (58 ) ______ of wood, it is easy to see that
this is the simplest of instruments. It does not (59) ______ much effort to produce a rhythm on it.

Wall paintings show what some of the first instruments looked like. Early civilizations had already
discovered the three basic ways of producing music: blowing into a tube, striking an object, and
scraping a string. We know that western music comes from the (60) _______ Greeks. The musical
scales we use now are (61) ______ on certain sequences of notes which the Greeks used to create a
particular (62)_______.

Until the sixteenth century, most players of instruments were single performers, but as music became

more (63)_______, orchestras and musical groups began to appear. This (64 ) _______ about the
writing of music to be played byseveral musicians at one time. This can certainlybe called the birth of
modern music.

Question 55. A.recording B. playing C. producing D. performing
Question 56. A.think B. reckon C. guess D. realize
Question 57. A.hitting B. knocking C. crashing D. banging
Question 58. A.slice B. point C. piece D. shape
Question 59. A. make B. call C. take D. do
Question 60. A. ancient B. old C. aged D. antique
Question 61. A.raised B. based C. established D. supported
Question 62. A.spirit B. temper C. mood D. humour
Question 63. A.widespread B. enlarged C. expanded D. extended
Question 64. A.produced B. affected C. caused D. brought
WRTING

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.

Question 65: If the guests arrived this week, there’d be no rooms available.

Were the guests______________________________________________________________________
Question 66: People thought at first thatthe Crown Prince had been attacked.

The Crown Prince____________________________________________________________________
Question 67: “You didn’t do what I said,” the mother said to her son.

The mother accused___________________________________________________________________
Question 68: Just as sheput the phone down,it rangagain.

Scarcely____________________________________________________________________________
Question 69: It isn’t necessaryfor them to call for help after all.

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ĐÁP ÁN

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase SIMILAR in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of thefollowing questions.

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each ofthefollowing questions.

6. A 7. D 8. C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other threein pronunciationin each ofthefollowing questions.

9. B 10. A

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. D 20. D
21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. B

Mark the letter A,B,C, or Donyour answer sheet to indicate the underlined partthat needs correction
in each of the following questions:

30. A 31. D 32. B 33. C 34. B

Read the following passage and markthe letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet toindicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 44.

35. B 36. A 37. D 38. B 39. B 40. A
41. A 42. C 43. A 44. D

Read the following passage and markthe letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet toindicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.

45. D 46. B 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. C
51. A 52. C 53. B 54. C

Read the following passage and markthe letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct wordor phrase for each ofthe blanks from 55 to 64.

55. A 56. C 57. D 58. C 59. C 60. A
61. B 62. C 63. A 64. D

WRITING

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same asthe sentence
printed before it.

65. Were the guests TO ARRIVETHIS WEEK, THERE’D BENO ROOMS AVAILABLE

66. The Crown Prince WAS THOUGHT AT FIRST/ WAS AT FIRSTTHOUGHT TO HAVEBEEN
ATTACKED

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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN

---(Đề thi gồm 08 trang, 80 câu trắc nghiệm)

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC LẦN 2
NĂM 2013 - 2014

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI D + A1
Thời gian: 90 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

Fortunately there are still a few tasty things for us gourmands to enjoy in relative security. Their numbers,
however, are depleted almost daily, it seems, by ruthless proclamations from the ever-vigilant Food and
Drug Administration and its allies, our doctors. The latest felon to face prosecution is the salt of life,
sodium chloride.

Ostensibly, overuse of salt causes high blood pressure and hypertension, the cause of half the deaths in the
United States every year. A few years ago the anti-salt campaigners raised such a rumpus that salt was banned from
baby food. Currently pressure is being applied to food manufacturers to oblige them to label their products to show
sodium content. Because doing so would cost mercenary manufacturers money, they argue that they have no
idea how much salt remains on such things as potato chips and how much sticks to the bag. Furthermore,
salt isn’t the only harmful ingredient in food. If the manufacturer has to provide sodium content, and why
not require him to list every ingredient and specify which are detrimental to our health? Cigarettes have a
warning printed on them. Shouldn’t the same type of warning appear on canned foods that are notoriously
oversalted?

There are endless ifs and buts in the controversy, but the most telling of these is the questionable proof of
salt’s diabolic effect upon the blood pressure. True, people who cut their salt intake lowered their blood

pressure, but where is the scientific proof that something other than salt didn’t do the trick? The most
common means of providing dubious proof that salt causes hypertension is to compare societies that use little salt
with those that use mountains of salt in their daily diets. Which group has the higher rate of hypertension?
Whose blood pressure is lower? What happens when salt is introduced into a group where salt is a novelty?
Does the blood pressure rise significantly? Studies of the Japanese indicate that as the world’s greatest
salters, they suffer the most from hypertension. On the other hand, the simple salt-free cuisine of several
tribes in the Solomon Islands has kept older tribesmen and women from developing hypertension and high
blood pressure, ailments traditionally killing their peers in America. No account is taken of the effect of
inflation, recession, pollution, crime, and sundry other ills to which Americans, unlike people on primitive
islands, are exposed.

To salt or not to salt? That is the question. Now that the question has arisen, it must not be treated with
levity but, rather, with searching scientific investigation so that those of us who are preoccupied with both
savory food and longevity may decide which of the two is worth its salt.

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a. we must stop eating salt immediately.
b. she is not convinced that salt is harmful.

c. The Food and Drug Administration works well with doctors.
d. soon there won’t be anything tasty left to eat.

Question 2: Presumably a gourmand is a ……

a. person b. theory c. food d. protest

Question 3: The word "mercenary" could be best replaced by ………

a. humane b. temporary c. mad for money d. worthy

Question 4: Canned goods should have the same type of warning as cigarettes because ……

a. both contain salt b. the author like to smoke and eat
c. the cigarette warning reduces smoking d. both are harmful to your health
Question 5: The word "notorious" in the second paragraph means…………

a. popular b. infamous c. famous d. ambitious

Question 6: The word ‘those’ in the third paragraph refers to………….
a. the most common means b. dubious proof

c. societies d. mountains of salt

Question 7: According to the passage, the Japanese use a lot of salt ………

a. but they suffer from hypertension. b. and they suffer from hypertension.
c. because they suffer from hypertension. d. when they suffer from hypertension.
Question 8: The author suggests that Americans suffer from hypertension as a result of ……
a. too much salt b. emotional stress c. salt-free cuisine d. ailments
Question 9: The word ‘levity" in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ……..

a. leverage b. lightness

c. concentratio d. carelessness

Question 10: The author’s approach to the topic is ………

a. angry b. humorous c. scientific d. sympathetic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 11: Alan worked too hard at the office. This led to his illness.
a. Because Alan worked too hard at the office, and this led to his illness.
b.Alan’s illness resulted from his working too hard at the office.

c. Alan’s working too hard at the office which led to his illness.
d. His working too hard at the office resulted from his illness.

Question 12: George participated in the robbery. As a result, he received a six-month sentence for that.
a. For his participation in the robbery, George had been in prison for six months.

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c. George was sentenced to six months in prison for his part in the robbery.
d. For his participation in the robbery, George wrote a sentence for six months.
Question 13: There was a storm. They couldn’t climb up the mountain.

a. The storm made it unable to climb up the mountain.

b. The storm made them impossible to climb up the mountain.
c. The storm discouraged them from climbing down the mountain.
d. The storm made it impossible for them to climb up the mountain.

Question 14: He was careless. This was the reason why we didn’t finish our work.
a. Had it been for his carelessness, we could have finished our work.

b. If he were careful, we could finish our work.

c. But for his carelessness, we couldnot have finished our work.

d. If it had not been for his carelessness, we could have finished our work.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST

in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 15: If you cannot get to work on time, I shall have to dispense with your services.

a. disperse b. do without c. charge for d. time

Question 16: Millions of Americans were down and out in 1932.

a. illiterate b. imprudent c. divided d. impoverished

Question 17: He’s such a(n) affable fellow that people sometimes take advantage of him.

a. accessible b. good-natured c. wealthy d. weak

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions:

Question 18: The (A) public ceremonies of the Plains Indian are (B) less elaborate (C) than that of the
Navajo in (D) the Southwest.

Question 19: (A) Each chemical element is characterized (B) to the number of protons that (C) an atom of
that element contains, called (D) its atomic number.

Question 20: (A)Although pure diamond is colorless and transparent, (B)when comtaminated with other
materials (C) it may appear in various (D) color, ranging from pastels to opaque black.

Question 21: California (A) has more land (B) under irrigation (C) than any (D) another state. Question 22:
(A) Beside the ages of nine and fifteen, (B) almost all (C) young people undergo a (D) rapid series of
physiological changes.

Mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 23: You shouldn’t have allowed them to watch too much TV.
a. You were wrong to let them watch too much TV.

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c. It was not necessary to allow them to watch too much TV.
d. Watching too much TV is not good for them.

Question 24: Apparently the car did not sustain any damage.
a. The car seems to have sustained some damage.

b. The car appears not to have sustained any damage.

c. It looks as if the car did not sustain any apparent damage.
d. It is apparent that the damage to the car was not sustainable.
Question 25: ‘ I’ll return it tomorrow afternoon,’ said Lucy.
a. Lucy offered to return it tomorrow afternoon.

b. Lucy said me that she would return it tomorrow afternoon.
c. Lucy agreed to come back tommorow afternoon.

d. Lucy promised to return it tomorrow afternoon.

Question 26: If I had known about their wedding plan earlier, I would have been able to make time to
attend the reception party.

a. I knew their wedding would be planned earlier so I made some time to attend the reception party.

b. I wish I had known their wedding plan sooner so that I could arrange time to attend the reception

party.

c. I don’t know their wedding plan earlier so I can’t make time to attend the reception party.
d.When I knew their wedding party, it was too late to attend the reception party.

Question 27: Living on the moon is still a far-fetched dream of human beings.
a. The moon is too far for us to live on.

b. It will take us a long time to be able to live on the moon.
c. We should not dream of living on the moon.

d. We will be able to live on the moon in a very near future.

Question 28: The airline requested a confirmation call to ensure a seat on my flight back home.
a. The airline made sure I got a seat on my flight back home.

b. I secured a seat on my flight back home.

c. The airline confirmed a seat on my flight back home.
d. It was necessary to confirm a seat on my flight back home.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.

Question 29: a.seasonality b.conservatory c.honourable d.discordant
Question 30: a.rejection b.regardless c.represent d.religiously
Question 31: a.assessment b.passages c.passionate d.pessimism
Question 32: a.essentially b.gradually c.mutualised d.unpunctually
Question 33: a.Switzerland b.zigzag c.systematize d.zoo

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GADGETS FOR THE FUTURE

This year’s Future Product of the year Award has attracted a number of unusual entries, including the
Inculpable Mousetrap and an alarm-clock duvet and pillow. Stuart Penny and Gianni Tozzi, both 29, …
34……the Inculpable Mousetrap as an ‘exercise in morality’ and accept it is unlikely to …35....commercial
success. You set the trap, wander off to the pub and wait to see what happens. If a mouse approaches the
trap, a transmitter …36…..to it sends a signal to your mobile phone. You are then asked to decide whether
to activate the trap or not. You send back your answer as a text message and the trap’s metal bar slams
down or stays open accordingly.

Rachel Wingfield’s alarm-clock duvet and pillow could …37…..the end for alarm clocks . They use
pulsating light beams to wake sleepers and can be used individually or together. The sleeper…
38…….programmes the alarm clock on their mobile phone, plugs it into a socket on the duvet or pillow
and is woken at the correct time – with light. The whole effect is …39..….to replicate the break of …
40…….. . The duvet and pillow are woven through with electro-luminescent cords. At the …41…..time the
mobile phone sends a tiny electric current through them and they begin to glow. Rachel, 24, says: ‘Alarm
clocks needlessly wake up …42…..households. I wanted to design something …43….at the individual
sleeper.’

Question 34: a.projected b.held c.conceived d.evaluated

Question 35: a.favour b.enjoy c.appreciate d.support

Question 36: a.enclosed b.attached c.collated d.united

Question 37: a.say b.speak c.write d.spell

Question 38: a.uniquely b.simply c.plainly d.purely

Question 39: a.pretended b.assumed c.supposed d.suggested

Question 40: a.light b.sunlight c.dawn d.silence

Question 41: a.said b.stated c.announced d.specified

Question 42: a.full b.total c.whole d.high

Question 43: a.intended b.targeted c.planned d.thought

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 44: He tended to advocate the return of capital punishment on the grounds that it was vital to
combating crimes.

a. support b. aprrove of c. oppose d. deny

Question 45: The housing market has been very sluggish in the past few years.
a. sanguine b. flourishing c. slow d. weak

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions:

RISING SEA LEVELS

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retreat in Alaska. NASA scientists determined that Greenland's ice sheet is thinning by about 1 m per year.
The additional meltwater, especially from continental ice masses and glaciers, is adding to a rise in sea
level worldwide. Satellite remote sensing is monitoring global sea level, sea ice, and continental ice.
Worldwide measurements confirm that sea level rose during the last century.

Surrounding the margins of Antarctica, and constituting about 11% of its surface area, are
numerous ice shelves, especially where sheltering inlets or bays exist. Covering many thousands of square
kilometers, these ice shelves extend over the sea while still attached to continental ice. The loss of these ice
shelves does not significantly raise sea level, for they already displace seawater. The concern is for the
possible surge of grounded continental ice that the ice shelves hold back from the sea.

Although ice shelves constantly break up to produce icebergs, some large sections have recently
broken free. In 1998 an iceberg (150 km by 35 km) broke off the Ronne Ice Shelf, southeast of the
Antarctic Peninsula. In March 2000 an iceberg tagged B-15 broke off the Ross Ice Shelf (some 90°
longitude west of the Antarctic Peninsula), measuring 300 km by 40 km. Since 1993, six ice shelves have
disintegrated in Antarctica. About 8,000 km of ice shelf are gone, changing maps, freeing up islands to
circumnavigation, and creating thousands of icebergs. The Larsen Ice Shelf, along the east coast of the
Antarctic Peninsula, has been retreating slowly for years. Larsen-A suddenly disintegrated in 1995. In only
35 days in early 2002, Larsen-B collapsed into icebergs. This

ice loss is likely a result of the 2.5℃ temperature increase in the region in the last 50 years. In
response to the increasing warmth, the Antarctic Peninsula is sporting new vegetation growth, previously
not seen there.

A loss of polar ice mass, augmented by melting of alpine and mountain glaciers (which experienced
more than a 30 % decrease in overall ice mass during the last century) will affect sea- level rise. The IPCC
assessment states that "between one-third to one-half of the existing mountain glacier mass could disappear
over the next hundred years". Also, "there is conclusive evidence for a worldwide recession of mountain
glaciers... This is among the clearest and best evidence for a change in energy balance at the Earth's
surface since the end of the 19th century. "

Sea-level rise must be expressed as a range of values that are under constant
reassessment. The 2001 IPCC forecast for global mean sea-level rise this century, given regional
variations, is from 0.11- 0.88 m. The median value of 0.48 m is two to four times the rate of previous
increase. These increases would continue beyond 2100 even if greenhouse gas concentrations are

stabilized.

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profound effect on weather and, indirectly, on agriculture and soil moisture. In fact the ocean system
appears to have delayed some surface global warming during the past century through absorption of
excess atmospheric heat.

A quick survey of world coastlines shows that even a moderate rise could bring changes of
unparalleled proportions. At stake are the river deltas, lowland coastal farming valleys, and low-lying
mainland areas, all contending with high water, high tides, and higher storm surges. Particularly tragic
social and economic consequences will affect small island states--being able to adjust within their present
country boundaries, disruption of biological systems, loss of biodiversity, reduction in water resources,
among the impacts. There could be both internal and international migration of affected human populations,
spread over decades, as people move away from coastal flooding from the sea-level rise.

Question 46: It may be inferred from this passage that icebergs are formed ______
a. by a drop in ocean temperatures b. when an ice shelf breaks free

c. from intensely cold islands d. if mountain glaciers melt

Question 47: There is more new plant life in Antarctica recently because ______
a. the mountain glaciers have melted b. the land masses have split into islands
c. the icebergs have broken into smaller pieces d. the temperature has risen by a few degrees
Question 48: The word "there" in the passage refers to _________

a. polar ice mass in the last 50 years b. the temperature increase
c. new vegetation growth d. in the Antarctic Peninsula

Question 49: In paragraph 4, the author explains the loss of polar and glacial ice by ________
a. stating an educated opinion b. referring to data in a study

c. comparing sea levels worldwide d. presenting his research

Question 50: The word "conclusive" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______
a. definite b. independent c. unique d. valuable

Question 51: Why does the author mention the Scripps Institute of Oceanography in paragraph 6?
a. The location near the coast endangers the Scripps facility.

b. Research at Scripps indicates that the ocean is getting warmer.
c. One quarter of the rising sea levels has been recorded at Scripps.
d. Records at Scripps have been kept for nearly one hundred years.

Question 52: Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in
the passage? The other choices change the meaning or leave out important information.

Global warming on the surface of the planet may have been retarded during the last hundred
years because heat in the atmosphere was absorbed by the oceans.

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Too much heat in the atmosphere has caused global warming on the surface of the planet for
the past hundred years in spite of the moderation caused by the oceans.

There is less heat being absorbed by the oceans now than there was a hundred years ago before
the atmosphere began to experience global warming

Question 53: According to paragraph 7, why will people move away from the coastlines in the future?
a. It will be too warm for them to live there.

b. The coastlines will have too much vegetation.
c. Flooding will destroy the coastal areas.

d. No agricultural crops will be grown on the coasts.

Question 54: Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the author's opinion about rising
sea levels?

a. Sea levels would rise without global warming. b. Rising sea levels can be reversed.

c.The results of rising sea levels will be serious. d. Sea levels are rising: because of new glaciers.

Question 55: Look at the four squares and choose where the following sentence would best fit, ‘During the
last century, sea level rose 10-20 cm, a rate 10 times higher than the average rate during the last 3,000.’
a. square b. square c. square d. square

Mark letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

Question 56: By the end of last year, the number of adult English speakers in Asia ……350 million.
a. was reaching b. were reaching c. had reached d. would have reached

Question 57: On returning home from abroad, ………..
a. she found it hard to adapt to her home country.

b. it was hard for her to adapt to her home country.
c. adapting to her home country was hard.

d. she was hard adapting to her home country.

Question 58: ’Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?’ - ‘………!’
a. My Gosh b. Yes, I would c. Not at all d. What a pity

Question 59: It may have …….your notice, but it’s Mrs Hodges’ birthday today.
a. slipped b. escaped c. missed d. skipped

Question 60: How long are you going to be ……the computer? I need to send an email.
a. at b. in c. on d. to

Question 61: Color and light, taken together, …….the aesthetic impact of the interior of a building.
a. very influence powerfully b. very powerfully influence

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Question 63: The librarian asked the students to ………from talking.
a. suppress b. repeal c. refrain d. subdue

Question 64: …..he should have spent all the weekend preparing for the test, he in fact just lay in bed
watching videos.

a. Whereas b. However c. Nevertheless d. Despite

Question 65: There are lots of … in this part of the city. Put your money and phone somewhere safe.
a. muggers b. burglars c. shoplifters d. pickpockets

Question 66: I wouldn’t want …….of my parents to know I have a boyfriend.
a. any b.either c. none d. neither

Question 67: His parents gave him everything he asked for. He was thoroughly ……
a. disturbed b. ashamed c. full up d. spoilt

Question 68: …….resigned, we would have been forced to sack him.
a. Had he not b. Had not he c. He had not d. He not had
Question 69: When the children ….their toys, I donated them to a charity.
a. outdated b. outlasted c. outgrew d. outwore

Question 70: There were still …….students who failed to submit their assignment by the deadline.
a. little b. a lot c. few d. a few

Question 71: These people are in ……need of help, I can tell you.
a. short b. big c. dire d. full

Question 72: Please ………me as to why you did not inform me of such an important matter.
a. lead b. assist c. direct d. enlighten

Question 73: It falls …..Marry to care for her mother since her sister moved.
A. over b. from c. to d. away

Question 74: Bob couldn’t …..a moustache to the photo of his Headmaster in the newspaper.
a. resist from adding b. resist to add c. resist adding d. resist for adding

Question 75: I don’t think he’d……..such a pathetic lie, but he believed every word of it.
a. take up b. fall for c. take in d. fall out

Question 76: By and ……, the pupils are well-behaved.
a. by b. large c. forward d. from

Question 77: - Hello, I’d like to speak with Mrs.Smith. - ………
a. Who are you? b. Hang on, please. I will put you through

c. Sure. d. Of course you can.

Question 78: Mr.Black: ‘I’d like to try on these shoes, please.’ Salesgirl: ‘………..’
a. By all means, sir. b. That’s right, sir. c. Why not? d. I’d love to.

Question 79: Susan : ‘Sorry, Brian is not here.’ Peter : ‘……..’

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c. Can I speak to Brian, please? d. Can I leave a message then?
Question 80: I am …………..of something. Can I call you back in a minute?
a. in the middle b. in front c. in between d. instead

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ĐÁP ÁN

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. B

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Sở GDDT Quảng Trị

Trường THPT Lê Lợi ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014KHỐI A1

(Thời gian làm bài : 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

Họ và tên thí sinh : ………...

Số báo danh :……….

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in 
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. habitat B. antelope C sociable D. politeness
Question 2. A. volunteer B. competition C. advantage D. capability

Question 3. A. famous B. climate C. enter D. attend

Question 4. A. acceptance B. confidence C. apologize D. diversity
Question 5. A. surround B. increase C. remove D. mature
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs

correction.

Question 6. I didn't understand his directions. However, I asked him to repeat what he’d said.
A B C D

Question 7. Those who have never been abroad is eager to see how different the other cultures are.
A B C D

Question 8. With the development of the Internet and the World Wide Web, businessmen do not
A B
hardly have as much traveling as they used to.

C D

Question 9. As a child grows on, his physical health is affected by many elements in the air, water and
A B C D

food.

Question 10. Although caffeine is a habit-forming drug, coffee is not harmfully to the average healthy
A B C D
adult.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word for each of the blanks

Technology is used for the (11) ______ of human needs and production is increased by technology.
Science and technology, the (12) __________ concerned with know- what and latter with know- how, are
continuously conditioning man’s world view and have (13) ______ material standards beyond any earlier
vision of man’s potential. However, in this science and technology, there is too much concerned with

quantity instead of (14) ________. Technology has made the mass production of articles (15) _______and
mass production seems to have reduced the quality of goods. If a motor-car in the past was made to last,
today it is made to be thrown away and (16) _______. While the quality in terms of new features has
improved, (17) __________is of little concern to manufacturers. In their drive to expand markets and be
competitive, manufacturers ignore quality and are concerned with quantity or the number of products that
can be sold. Evolving technology encourages the economy of transience which is fast replacing the
economy of permanence of the old world. Medical technology prolongs life and reduces the mortality rate,
but the quality of life (18)_______ . Genetics has increased agricultural productivity, and the Green
Revolution that it set in motion had resulted in high- yielding variety of wheat, rice paddy, etc., but they
(19)________ the quality which the traditional variety through low- yielding had. Alvin Toffler in his
Future Shock considers the lowering of costs of manufacture and increased demand as factors
(20)_________ for the sacrifice of quality. Science and technology should be concerned equally with
quality and quantity. This concern is of great importance since science and technology are to make further
strides.

Question 11. A. satisfaction B. requirement C. disappoinment D. demand

Question 12. A. before B. older C. former D. first

Question 13. A. raised B. risen C. lifted D. aroused

Question 14. A. number B. value C. evaluation D. quality
Mã đề thi

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Question 15. A. necessary B. possible C. available D. important
Question 16. A. replaced B. refunded C. repaired D. refilled
Question 17. A. endurance B. strength C. duration D. durability
Question 18. A. deteriorates B. diminished C. loosens D. devastates

Question 19. A. wanted B. needed C. lacked D. missed

Question 20. A. used B. responsible C. asking D. explaining
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in 
meaning to each of the following sentences.

Question 21. As he gets older, he wants to travel less.
A. As soon as he wants to travel less, he gets older.
B. The less he wants to travel, the older he gets.

C. The more old age he gets, the less he wants to travel.
D. The older he gets, the less he wants to travel.

Question 22. If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because we hadn’t finished the work.

B. If he was careful, we would finish the work.

C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.

Question 23. The President offered his congratulations to the players when they won the cup.
A. The President congratulated that the players had won the cup.

B. When they won the cup, the players had been offered some congratulations from the President.
C. The President would offered the players congratulations if they won the match.

D. The President congratulated the players on their winning the match.
Question 24. My father couldn’t stand Tom’s behavior.

A. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerant B. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerable

C. My father was tolerant towards Tom’s behavior D. Tom’s behavior was not tolerable

Question 25. The scientists succeeded in finding a vaccine for that disease.
A. The scientists were able to find a vaccine for that disease.

B. The scientists were finding a vaccine for that disease.
C. The scientists should have found a vaccine for that disease.
D. The scientists couldn't find a vaccine for that disease.

Question 26. She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting.
A. She hardly had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

B. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.
C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting.
D. She hadn’t begun to speak when people started interrupting.
Question 27. If only you told me the truth about the theft
A. You should have told me the truth about the theft
B. Only if you had told me the truth about the theft.

C. Had you had told me the truth , there wouldn’t have been the theft.
D. You only told me the truth if there was a theft.

Question 28. My sister worries so much about fitness that she wastes a lot of time and money.
A. My sister wastes a lot of time and money though she worries so much about fitness.

B. My sister worries about fitness so that she wastes a lot of time and money.
C. Worrying too much about fitness, my sister wastes a lot of time and money.
D. Fitness worried, my sister wasted a lot of time and money.

Question 29. People believe he won a lot of money on the lottery.

A. He is believed that he won a lot of money on the lottery.
B. He won a lot of money on the lottery, it is believed.
C. He is believed to have won a lot of money on the lottery.
D. He was believed to win a lot of money on the lottery.

Question 30. “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

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C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is 
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part each of the following questions.

Question 31. If petrol price goes up any more, I shall have to use a bicycle.

A. develops B. rises C. raises D. decreases

Question 32.Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.

A. dissatisfied B. excitedC. shocked D. interested

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is 
NEAREST in meaning to the underlined part each of the following questions.

Question 33. My little boy Tom never screams though he is scared.

A. in pain B. frightened C. embarrassed D. confused
Question 34:. I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself .

A. be quiet B. be private C. be lonely D. be special
Question 35. We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.

A. every single day B. every other day C. every second day D. every two days
 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions .

In the United States, presidential elections are held in years evenly divisible by four (1888, 1900,
1964, etc.). Since 1840, American presidents elected in years ending with zero have died in office, with one
exception. William H. Harrison, the man who served the shortest term, died of pneumonia only several
weeks after his inauguration.

Abraham Lincoln was one of four presidents who were assassinated. He was elected in 1860, and
his untimely death came just five years later. James A. Garfield, a former Union army general from Ohio,
was shot during his first year in office (1881) by a man to whom he wouldn't give a job. While in his
second term of office (1901), William McKinley, another Ohioan, attended the Pan-American Exposition in
Buffalo, New York. During the reception, he was assassinated while shaking hands with some of the
guests. John F. Kennedy was assassinated in 1963 in Dallas only three years after his election.

Three years after his election in 1920, Warren G, Harding died in office. Although it was never
proved, many believe he was poisoned. Franklin D. Roosevelt was elected four times (1932, 1936, 1940
and 1944), the only man to serve so long a term. He had contracted polio in 1921 and eventually died of
the illness in 1945.

Ronald Reagan, who was elected in 1980 and reelected four years later, suffered an assassination
attempt but did not succumb to the assassin's bullets. He was the first to break the long chain of unfortunate
events. Will the candidate in the election of 2020 also be as lucky?

Question 36.All of the following were election years EXCEPT ____

A. 1860 B. 1960 C.1888 D.1963

Question 37. Which president served the shortest term in office?

A. Abraham Lincoln B. Warren G. HardingC. William McKinley D.William H. Harrison
Question 38. Which of the following is true?

A. All presidents elected in years ending in zero have died in office.
B. Only presidents from Ohio have died in office.

C. Franklin D. Roosevelt completed four terms as president.

D. Four American presidents have been assassinated.

Question 39. How many presidents elected in years ending in zero since 1840 have died in office?

A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3

Question 40. The word "inauguration" in the first paragraph means most nearly the same as

A. election B. acceptance speech C. swearing-in ceremony D. campaign

Question 41. All of the following presidents were assassinated EXCEPT ____

A. John F. Kennedy B. Franklin D. Roosevelt C. Abraham Lincoln D. James A. Garfield

Question 42. The word "assassinated" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. murdered B. decorated C. honored D. sickened

Question 43. The word "whom" in the second paragraph refers to ____

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Question 44. In the third paragraph, "contracted" is closest in meaning to ____

A. communicated about B. developed C. agree about D. notified

Question 45. How long did Warren G, Harding work as a president?

A. 2 years B. 3 months C. 3 years D. 4 years

Mark the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following question.

Question 46. The polar bear’s ___________ depends on its ability to catch fish.

A. survival B. survive C. surviving D. survivor

Question 47. The university is proud of their students, ________ earn national recognition.

A. many of who B. many of whom C. that D. whom

Question 48. He’d rather ___________ a hot beverage during a meal

A. I not have B. I did not have C. I do not have D. I had not
Question 49. We carried out a careful ___________of the area.

A. education B. preparation C. calculation D. examination
Question 50. A few months ago I moved into a very small flat after …. for years with my parents.
A. be living B. having lived C. being lived D. have living
Question 51. - Is the lift working?. - No , it’s ___________Let’s use the stairs.

A. out of work B. impossible C. dangerous D. out of order

Question 52.The journalist refused to ___________the source of his information.

A. disclose B. open C. propose D. enclose

Question 53. The existence of many stars in the sky ____us to suspect that there may be life on another
planet.

A. lead B. leading C. have led D. leads

Question 54. Dora _________ in university when you come back in three years' time.

A will be studying B. will have been studied C. is studying D. would study
Question 55.The school required that every student _________before September 1st .

A register B. registered C. registers D. was registered

Question 56. Charlie Chaplin was _________of the silent movies.

A. one of the great actor comics B. the greatest comic actors
C. one of the greatest comic actors D. a great comic actor one
Question 57. It looked dark and heavy ________ it was going to rain.

A. although B. as if C. unless D. whereas
Question 58. A: Can I help you, madam? B: __________.

A. Yes, it's in our summer sale. B. It's very cheap.

C. No, thanks. I'm just looking D. Right. It looks a bit small.
Question 59. - “Sorry, I’m late” - “_______________”
A. You are welcome B. No, I don’t mind

C. All right. Well done D. Not to worry. Better late than never

Question 60. - " Who wrote this poem?" - " It's said ___________ written by one of the Bronte sisters."

A. to be B. to have been C. to being D. to having been

Question 61. If too many species ___________ out, it will upset the ecosystem.

A. disappear B. die C. go D. extinct

Question 62. ___________ you to be offered that job, would you have to move to another city?

A. Should B. Were C. Had D. Provided that

Question 63. Some students in this class are from HCMC, ________ from the provinces.

A. others B. another C. the other D. each other

Question 64. The strike was caused by the_________ of two workers.

A. dismiss B. dismissing C. dismissed D. dismissal

Question 65. The problem is difficult. Therefore ______ students could answer it.

A. a great number of B. a lot of C. few D. a few

Question 66. In most_______ developed countries, up to 50% of_______ population enters higher
education at some time in their lives.

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A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates
Question 68. I don’t believe a word he said, I think he just made _________ that story .

A. up B. down C. out D. off

Question 69. Not only ____________air pollution but it also does harm to our health.
A. car exhaust causes B. car exhaust cause

C. does car exhaust cause D. do car exhaust cause

Question 70. He did not share his secrets with many people but he___________ in her.
A. confessed B. concealed C. confided D. consented

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate 
the correct answer .

ENVIRONMENTAL ACTIVISTS

Paul Watson is an environmental activist. He is a man who believes that he must do something, not
just talk about doing something. Paul believes in protecting endangered animals, and he protects them in
controversial ways. Some people think that Watson is a hero and admire him very much. Other people
think that he is a criminal.

On July 16th, 1979, Paul Watson and his crew were on his ship, which is called the Sea Shepherd.
Watson and the people who work on the Sea Shepherd were hunting on the Atlantic Ocean near Portugal.
However, they had a strange prey; instead of hunting for animals, their prey was a ship, the Sierra. The Sea
Shepherd found the Sierra, ran into it and sank it. As a result, the Sierra never returned to the sea. The Sea

Shepherd, on the other hand, returned to its home in Canada. Paul Watson and his workers thought that
they had been successful.

The Sierra had been a whaling ship, which had operated illegally. The captain and the crew of the
Sierra did not obey any of the international laws that restrict whaling. Instead, they killed as many whales
as they could, quickly cut off the meat, and froze it. Later, they sold the whale meat in countries where it is
eaten.

Paul Watson tried to persuade the international whaling commission to stop the Sierra. However,
the commission did very little, and Paul became impatient. He decided to stop the Sierra and other whaling
ships in any way that he could. He offered to pay $25,000 to anyone who sank any illegal whaling ship, and
he sank the Sierra. He acted because he believes that the whales must be protected. Still, he acted without
the approval of the government; therefore, his actions were controversial.

Paul Watson is not the only environmental activist. Other men and women are also fighting to
protect the Earth. Like Watson, they do not always have the approval of their governments, and like
Watson, they have become impatient. Yet, because of their concern for the environment, they will act to
protect it.

Question 71. According to the reading, an environmental activist is someone who ____

A. runs into whaling ship B. does something to protect the Earth
C. talks about protecting endangered species D. is a hero, like Paul Watson

Question 72. When something is controversial , ____

A. everyone agrees with it B. everyone disagrees with it
C. people have different ideas about it D. people protect it

Question 73. The members of a ship’s crew are ____.

A. people working on the ship B. the people selling ships.

C. all of the people on a ship, including the passengers D. the people who own the ship
Question 74. The main idea of paragraph one is that ____

A. Paul Watson is a hero to some people
B. activists are people who do something

C. Paul Watson is a controversial environmental activist
D. Paul Watson does not believe in talking

Question 75. The Sea Shepherd was hunting ____

A. the Atlantic Ocean B. whales C. the Sierra D. Portugal
Question 76. The author implies that Paul Watson lives in ____

A. Portugal B. a ship on the Atlantic C. the Sierra D. Canada
Question 77. The captain and the crew of the Sierra were acting illegally because ____.

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C. they were killing and selling whales D. All of the above are correct
Question 78. In paragraph 3 , ” it” refers to ____ .

A. whale meat B. the Sierra C. whales D. the Sierra crew
Question 79. The main idea of paragraph 3 is that ____ .

A. the Sierra sold whale meat in some countries
B. the people on the Sierra didn’t obey international laws.
C. the people on the Sierra killed as many whales as they could.
D. whaling is illegal according to international law.

Question 80. Watson ran into the Sierra because ____ .
A. he wanted to stop the ship’s crew from whaling
B. he was impatient with the government’s actions

C. he wanted to protect the whales from the whalers
D. All of the above are correct

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Sở GDDT Quảng Trị
Trường THPT Lê Lợi

---ĐÁP ÁN THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
MÔN ANH VĂN -KHỐI A1

STT MÃ ĐỀ

195 473 284 369

1. D D A D

2. C D B C

3. D D B D

4. B A D B

5. B C B A

6. B B D C

7. C A A A

8. C B D C

9. A B A C

10. C C A A

11. A A C D

12. C B B A

13. A B C B

14. D D D B

15. B B B A

16. A D B B

17. D A B C

18. A D A A

19. C A D C

20. B A C C

21. D C D D

22. C B C D

23. D C A A

24. B D C B

25. A B C D

26. C B A B

27. A B C C

28. C A A C

29. C D D A

30. A C B C

31. D D A A

32. A C D B

33. B A A B

34. B C C D

35. A C B B

36. D D D D

37. D C D A

38. D D D D

39. A B A A

40. C B C A

41. B B B C

42. A B A B

43. B A B C

44 B D B D

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46. A B D B

47. B C C B

48. B A D A

49. D C B D

50. B C B C

51. D D D D

52. A D A C

53. D A B A

54. A B B C

55. A D A C

56. C A B A

57. B C C C

58. C A A A

59. D D C D

60. B B C B

61. B A D A

62. B D D D

63. A A A A

64. D C B C

65. C B D B

66. D D B D

67. C C C D

68. A D C D

69. C B A A

70. C A C C

71. B C D B

72. C B C A

73. A C D B

74. C C B B

75. C A A C

76. D B C D

77. D C A C

78. A C C D

79. B A C B

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Tải Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2016 môn Tiếng Anh - Số 1 - Đề thi thử Đại học môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án

<b>ĐÁP ÁN</b>

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