Nội dung ôn tập môn Tiếng anh 12 – lần 2 – Trường THPT Hoài Đức B

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ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN TUẦN 3- NGHỈ HỌC PHÒNG DỊCH CORONA

PRACTICE TEST 9

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. bats B. dates C. days D. speaks

Question 2: A. confide B. install C. kidding D. rim

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 3: A. romantic B. attitude C. important D. attractive

Question 4: A. attract B. polite C. promise D. approach

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that 
needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that 
have become extinct have increased.

A. industrialized B. species C. extinct D. have

Question 6: Caroline refused taking the job given to her because the salary was not good.

A. taking B. given C. because D. was

Question 7: The General Certificate of Secondary Education (GCSE) is the name of a set of 
English qualifications, generally taking by secondary students at the age of 15-16 in England.

A. the name B. a set of C. taking D. at the age

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each 
of the following questions.

Question 8: The old woman accused the boy _________ window.

A. in breaking B. on breaking C. at breaking D. of breaking 
Question 9: The more you study during semester, _________ the week before the exam. 
A. you have to study the less B. the less you have to study

C. the least you have to study D. the study less you have

Question 10: Neither the students nor their lecturer _________ English in the classroom

A. have used B. use C. are using D. uses

Question 11: In order to make the house more beautiful and newer, the Browns had it 
_________ yesterday.

A. to be repainted B. repaint C. repainted D. to repaint 
Question 12: Last summer, he _________ to Ha Long Bay.

A. went B. has been going C. has gone D. was going 
Question 13: Universities send letters of _________ to successful candidates by post. 
A. accept B. acceptance C. acceptably D. acceptable 
Question 14: Many people lost their homes in the earthquake. The government needs to 
establish more shelters to care for those _________ have homes.

A. which doesn’t B. who doesn’t C. which don’t D. who don’t
Question 15: I love _________ films but I seldom find time to go to the cinema.

A. seeing B. see C. saw D. seen

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A. come up B. go into C. take off D. get on 
Question 17: I saw him hiding something in a _________ bag.

A. black small plastic B. plastic small black C. small plastic black D. small black plastic 
Question 18: George won five medals at the competition. His parents _________ very proud 
of him.

A. could have been B. can’t have C. can’t be D. must have been 
Question 19: She spent _________ her free time watching TV.

A. a few B. most of C. a lot D. most

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response 
to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Carol is wearing a new dress and Helen loves it. 
- Helen: “_______”

- Carol: “Thanks. I’m glad you like it. My sister give it to me yesterday.”

A. What a fashionable dress you are wearing! B. Oh! I like your fashionable dress 
C. I think you have a fashionable dress. D. Your fashionable must be expensive
Question 21: Harry and Mai are talking about their plan for the weekend.

Harry: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this weekend?”

Mai: “_______”

A. You’re welcome B. That would be great

C. I don’t agree, I’m afraid D. I feel very bored

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: That is the instance where big, obvious non-verbal signals are appropriate.

A. matter B. place C. attention D. situation

Question 23: My close friend, Lan, helps me when I am in need.

A. sends money B. gives a hand C. buys a book D. gives care

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 24: The Vietnamese consider it rude to interrupt a person while he is talking. 
A. bad mannered B. polite C. uneducated D. ignorant

Question 25: Differently from English taught to all Vietnamese students, Chinese and Russian
have been made optional languages taught at secondary schools in Vietnam.

A. compulsory B. important C. comfortable D. necessary

Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest 
in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: People say that he was born in London.

A. That is said he was born in London B. He was said to be born in London 
C. He is said to have been born in London D. It was said that he was born in London 
Question 27: We started working here three years ago.

A. We have worked here for three years 
B. We worked here for three years 
C. We will work here for three years.

D. We have no longer worked here for three years.

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A. Kevin put a fence because he wants to remind people to walk on his garden. 
B. Kevin put a fence to prevent people from walking on his garden

C. In order to tell people to walk on his garden, Kevin put a fence 
D. So as to encourage people to walk on his garden, Kevin put a fence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best 
combines each pair of sentence in the following questions.

Question 29: The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday. 
A. The old man whom is working in this factory, I borrowed his bicycle yesterday 
B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory 
C. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory 
D. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday 
Question 30: The film was not interesting. However, he tried to watch the whole film. 
A. In spite of the film uninteresting, he tried to watch the whole film

B. Uninteresting as the film was, he tried to watch the whole film 
C. Despite of uninteresting film, he tried to watch the whole film. 
D. Uninteresting as was the film, he tried to watch the whole film

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

BRINGING THE LEARNING OUTDOORS

Kindergarten is a fun place (31) ________ young children learn. In some special
kindergartens, children learn outside most of the day! Some kindergartens are (32) ________
the forest. In these "forest kindergartens," children play freely. They're outside in all kinds of
weather. At forest kindergartens, children learn by climbing trees and picking fruit. They also
learn about and (33) ________ animals. For example, they collect chicken eggs and feed baby
mice. Little Flower Kindergarten is in Dong Nai, Vietnam. At this school, children learn about
farming. They also learn that it is important (34) ________ healthy food. They grow

vegetables in gardens on the roof! They eat the vegetables they grow in their lunches. At Fuji
Kindergarten in Tokyo, Japan, trees grow inside the building! The classroom windows and
sliding

doors (35) ________ open to the outside most of the year. The roof is a big, wooden circle.
Children love to play and run on it.

Question 31: A. why B. when C. where D. which

Question 32: A. at B. in C. on D. by

Question 33: A. take care of B. take over C. take on D. take after 
Question 34: A. to eat B. eating C. ate D. eaten

Question 35: A. make B. stay C. do D. be

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Southern Thailand was hit by the most severe haze from forest fires in Indonesia,
forcing all schools in a province to close and disrupting flights in a popular tourist area,
officially said.

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record-high reading of 365. A reading of 101-200 is unhealthy, 201-300 is very unhealthy and
above 300 is hazardous.

“This is a crisis,” said Halem Jemarican, head of the Southern Environment Office. He
said the pollution index in southern Thailand has never exceeded 300 before. Halem said his
office hadworked with other authorities to have all schools in Songkhla province send students
home and all outdoor sports stadiums to close temporarily. Warnings have been issued to
vulnerable people such as children, the elderly and people with illnesses not to go out of their
homes.

“The wind speed is very low this year in the south, causing haze to stay in our skies
longer,” Halem said by telephone.

An airport official in Hat Yai, a popular tourist area, said three flights bound for Bangkok were
delayed Thursday morning because of the haze. A flight from Bangkok to Hat Yai was

diverted to Surat Thani on Wednesday evening. The official declined to be identified because
of working rules.

Local media reported that cloud seeding has been discussed as a way to dispel the haze in

southern Thailand, which is hundreds of kilometers (miles) from the forest fires in Indonesia's
Sumatra island.

Southern Thailand boasts tropical beaches popular among tourists in Surat Thani and Phuket,
two of the seven provinces suffering from the haze.

Question 36: The word "dispel" in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.

A. solve B. eliminate C. discourage D. lessen

Question 37: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage? 
A. The pollution index in southern Thailand used to exceed 300

B. Seven provinces in Thailand suffered from the haze

C. The haze reached a hazardous level in the city of Songkhla 
D. The local authorities warned the citizens against going out

Question 38: The following actions are taken by the authorities in response to the haze 
EXCEPT ______.

A. closing sports stadiums B. sending students home

C. issuing warnings D. disrupting flights

Question 39: The word "their" in the passage refers to ______.

A. vulnerable people B. the elderly C. students D. stadiums
Question 40: What is the event reported in the news?

A. Southern Thailand was hit by the haze from Indonesia 
B. People suffered because of the haze from Indonesia 
C. The flights were disrupted by the haze on Thursday 
D. The haze from Indonesia was the worst ever last year

Question 41: The haze stayed longer in the southern Thailand because of ______. 
A. the fine particles of dust in the air B. the tropical weather in the area 
C. the high pollution index D. the low speed of the wind 
Question 42: What is the main idea of paragraph 2?

A. Thailand is the most polluted country in Asia 
B. Thailand's pollution index reads 201-300 
C. The haze reached a dangerous level

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Marianne Moore (1887-1972) once said that her writing could be called poetry only
because there was no other name for it. Indeed her poems appear to be extremely compressed
essays that happen to be printed in jagged lines on the page. Her subject were varied: animals,
laborers, artists, and the craft of poetry. From her general reading came quotations that she
found striking or insightful. She included these in her poems, scrupulously enclosed in
quotation marks, and sometimes identified in footnotes. Of this practice, she wrote, " 'Why
many quotation marks?' I am asked ... When a thing has been so well that it could not be said
better, why paraphrase it? Hence, my writing is, if not a cabinet of fossils, a kind of collection
of flies in amber." Close observation and concentration on detail and the methods of her
poetry.

Marianne Moore grew up in Kirkwood, Missouri, near St. Lois. After graduation from
Bryn Mawr College in 1909, she taught commercial subjects at the Indian School in Carlisle,

Pennsylvania. Later she became a librarian in New York City. During the 1920’s she was
editor of The Dial, an important literary magazine of the period. She lived quietly all her life,
mostly in Brooklyn, New York. She spent a lot of time at the Bronx Zoo, fascinated by

animals. Her admiration of the Brooklyn Dodgers-before the team moved to Los Angeles was
widely known. Her first book of poems was published in London in 1921 by a group of friends
associated with the Imagism movement. From that time on, her poetry has been read with
interest by succeeding generations of poets and readers. In 1952 she was awarded the Pulitzer
Prize for her Collected Poems. She wrote that she did not write poetry "for money or fame. To
earn a living is needful, but it can be done in routine ways. One writes because one has a
burning desire to objectify what is indispensable to one's happiness to express.

Question 43: The word "succeeding" in line 19 is closest to ___________. 
A. inheriting B. prospering C. diverse D. later

Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that Moore wrote because she ___________. 
A. wanted to win awards B. was dissatisfied with what others wrote 
C. felt a need to express herself D. wanted to raise money for the Bronx Zoo 
Question 45: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Essayists and poets of the 1920's 
B. The use of quotations in poetry 
C. Marianne Moore's life and work

D. The influence of the imagists on Marianne Moore. 
Question 46: Where did Moore grow up?

A. In Kirkwood B. In Brooklyn. C. In Carlisle. D. In Los Angeles 
Question 47: Which of the following can be inferred about Moore's poems?

A. They do not use traditional verse forms

B. They are better known in Europe than the United States 
C. They were all published in The Dial

D. They tend to be abstract

Question 48: The author mentions all of the following as jobs held by Moore EXCEPT 
___________.

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A. workers B. animals C. fossils D. artists

Question 50: The word "it" in line 19 refers to ___________.

A. writing poetry B. becoming famous C. earning a living D. attracting readers

PRACTICE TEST 10

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose

underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following 
questions.

Question 1: A. research B. resent C. resemble D. resist 
Question 2: A. jumped B. traveled C. stared D. seemed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from 
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. economy B. presentation C. accompany D. successfully

Question 4: A. deliver B. promotion C. average D. essential 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that 
needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process applying wherever 
climatic conditions make it possible.

A. means of B. applying C. Drying D. make it possible 
Question 6: More and 90 percent of the calcium in the human body is in the skeleton.

A. the B. human C. is D. and

Question 7: Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class 
should be for the students to practice speaking words.

A. objective of any B. speaking words C. should be D. Regardless of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each 
of the following questions.

Question 8: I regret going to the cinema. I wish I ______.

A. hadn’t gone there B. haven’t gone there C. didn’t go there D. would not go there 
Question 9: He may be quick ______ understanding but he isn't capable ______ remembering
anything

A. of/at B. at/of C. on/at D. in/of

Question 10: Vitamin D is necessary to aid the ______ of calcium from food. 
A. absorption B. absorbent C. absorbance D. absorbency

Question 11: The ______ were told to fasten their seat belts as the plane began its descent. 
A. flyers B. customers C. passengers D. riders

Question 12: I get quite depressed when I think about the damage we are ______ to the 
environment.

A. having B. taking C. making D. causing

Question 13: Unfortunately, we’ve made ______.

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A. Remarkable as it seems B. As it seems remarkable 
C. No matter remarkable it seems D. Remarkable however it seem

Question 15: ______ parents of Thomas claimed that he was at ______ time of ______ 
robbery.

A. The-the-the B. X-X-the C. The-X-X D. X-X-a

Question 16: Like most marine mammals and land mammals, whales are ______ creatures 
A. blood-warmed B. warm-blood C. warm-blooded D. warm-blooding

Question 17: We insist that more money ______ in education.

A. investing B. invested C. invests D. be invested

Question 18: Certainly, man must ______ the future, and find ways of providing for his need. 
A. look for B. put off C. put on D. look to

Question 19: After I ______ from college, I ______ as a teacher.

A. had graduated/ worked B. had graduated/ work

C. graduate/ work D. graduated/ worked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response 
to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: John: “You’re already leaving? The ball is only starting.” 
Mary: “But it is very late, so ______.”

A. it’s great fun B. take care C. goodbye for now D. have a good day 
Question 21: Daisy: “______?”

Mary: “No, that’s about it for now.”

A. Nothing to declare B. When can we stop

C. Anything else D. What’s on your mind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth.

A. marked B. hidden C. shared D. separated

Question 23: I stayed there with her for a while before I left.

A. in the difficult time B. whenever she needed me 
C. for relaxation D. for a short period of time

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: I am glad that we see eye to eye on the matter of the conference location.

A. dislike B. agree C. disagree D. approve

Question 25: I don’t want to live in this filthy colony.

A. dirty B. nice C. pretty D. clean

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest 
in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Apart from being conveniently located near the beach, that hotel has nothing 
about it to make me recommend it to you.

A. The only feature of that hotel that I can recommend to you is that it’s close to the beach. 
B. The hotel I’ve recommended to you is very comfortable as it is near the beach.

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Question 27: Although she was very old, she looked very grateful. 
A. In spite of very old, she looked very grateful.

B. Despite she was very old, she looked very grateful. 
C. Despite her old age, she looked very grateful 
D. In spite her being old, she looked very grateful

Question 28: “Why don’t you ask your parents for advice?” said Tom. 
A. Tom advised me asking my parents for advice.

B. Tom said to me to ask my parents for advice.

C. Tom wanted to know the reason why I don’t ask my parents for advice. 
D. Tom suggested that I ask my parents for advice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best 
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 29: Farmers depend on meteorologists. They need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts
for successful agricultural planning.

A. Due to meteorologists’ accurate forecasts, farmers depend on them for successful 
agricultural planning.

B. Farmers depend on meteorologists who need their accurate forecasts for successful 
agricultural planning.

C. Farmers need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning and so 
they depend on you.

D. Farmers depend on meteorologists, whose accurate forecasts they need for successful 
agricultural planning.

Question 30: Sports clear my mind. They also help me maintain a healthy lifestyle. 
A. My mind is cleared so is the maintenance of a healthy lifestyle

B. Not only do sports clear my mind, but they also help me maintain a healthy lifestyle. 
C. Sports clear my mind so that I can maintain a healthy lifestyle.

D. All that sports can do is to clear my mind instead of maintaining a healthy lifestyle. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 31 to 35.

Swim, Cycle, and Run

For athletes who like to (31) ______a variety of endurance sports in a single race,
triathlons are a great fit. These competitions (32) ______running, cycling, and swimming into
one race, and they take place one after the other in a single continuous timed race. Athletes
who participate must be in top physical form and have the skills needed to complete each
portion of the race.

Training for triathlons means the athletes have to become proficient not only in the
sport required in each stage, but they also have to become familiar with what (33) ______from
one to the other does to their bodies. Many inexperienced triathletes are surprised to (34)
______hard it can be to switch from swimming to cycling to running, and how tired their
muscles can suddenly feel. One thing all triathletes can agree (35) ______is that no one ever
told them that running a triathlon would be easy

Question 31: A. compete B. compete in C. contest D. take part

Question 32: A. combine B. join C. fasten D. connect

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Question 35: A. in B. with C. at D. on

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Productivity Hacks for Great Success

No matter who we are or where we are from, we only have 24 hours each day to get
things done. Some people seem to make the most of their time, using it to achieve their goals
and dreams. Others feel that life is passing them by and they aren’t accomplishing anything. If
you are in the latter group, it is not too late to turn things around. By implementing a few
simple hacks, you can start getting better results very quickly.

If you want to become more productive, it pays to learn about the Pareto principle
(which is also known as the 80-20 rule). It states that for most tasks, 80 percent of the results
we get come from 20 percent of the work we do. For example. 80 percent of the company
sales usually come from 20 percent of customers. Therefore, the trick is to focus your efforts
on the key 20 percent of actions that truly matter to greatly improve your results.

In some cases, people may be busy from morning to night but still seem to get nothing
done. In this situation, the problem might be that clear goals haven’t been set. To fix this, set
some time aside to list the things you want to achieve in life. Then, select the top three or four
that you want to focus on for the next year. Look at your goals every night before bedtime and
ask yourself what are the next actions to accomplish each day. Then, promise yourself that you
will finish these tasks no matter how busy you get. If possible try completing the tasks first
thing in the morning so you are assured of success.

Another common mistake regarding productivity is not considering our energy levels. If
we try to work around the clock, we will eventually get tired and quit. Everyone needs time to
sleep, eat, socialize with friends, and unwind from the stress of the day. To make sure you
don’t burn out, be sure to schedule some time for breaks and fun activities into your schedule
every day. Finally, no matter how difficult your goals may seem, remember the old saying
that “a journey of a thousand miles begins with a single step”.

Question 36: What is implied in the last sentence of the passage? 
A. It is best to take a big first step.

B. Start moving toward your dreams little by little. 
C. Think twice before taking any steps.

D. People get their best ideas when traveling.

Question 37: In order to achieve our goals, we should______.

A. select the most important goals for each day and take the priority to achieve them within the
day.

B. eat a lot to burn enough energy for our daily activities.

C. set the goals just before bedtime in order to remember them better.

D. set as many goals as possible so that we can achieve some of them or at least 20 percent. 
Question 38: Which of the following statements does the author support most?

A. How difficult our goals may seem, we should take steps to travel a thousand miles to 
achieve them.

B. Reasonable goals and good techniques of time management may help you get great 
achievements.

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D.We need time to sleep, eat, socialize with friends, and achieve our goals for 20 percent of 
the day’s time.

Question 39: The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to______.

A. a lack of time B. setting no aims C. clear goals D. failing in business 
Question 40: The phrase “hacks for” in the title is closest in meaning to______.

A. leads to B. cut off C. secretly achieve D. kicks without control 
Question 41: Which of the following sentences is true?

A. No one ever achieves all of their goals. B. Everyone has the same time in a day. 
C. No one has any spare time these days. D. Everyone manages time the same way. 
Question 42: What is the Pareto principle?

A. If you work hard 80 percent of the time, you can relax for 20 percent 
B. A few important things produce most of the results.

C. You need to do lots of work to increase sales by 20 percent. 
D. Companies don’t need to hire more than 80 people.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic natural material; it has
been used successfully in archeology to determine the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as well
as in a variety of other fields. The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that carbon
is a part of all living things on Earth. Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14 has a
known half-life, the amount of carbon-14 remaining in an object can be used to date that
object.

Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that number of years, half of
the carbon- 14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14. It is the ratio of carbon-14 in that

substance that indicates the age of the substance. If, for example, in a particular sample the
amount of carbon-14 is roughly equivalent to the amount of nitrogen-14, this indicates that
around half of the carbon-14 has decayed into nitrogen-14, and the sample is approximately
5,570 years old.

Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are older than 80,000
years. When objects are that old, much of the carbon-14 has already decayed into nitrogen-14,
and the molecule amount that is left doesn’t provide a reliable measurement of age. In the case
of older objects, other age-dating methods are available, methods which use radioactive atoms
with longer half-lives than carbon has.

Question 43: This passage is mainly about______. 
A. archeology and the study of ancient artifacts. 
B. one method of dating old objects.

C. various uses for carbon.

D. the differences between carbon-14 and nitrogen-14.

Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about carbon-14? 
A. It and nitrogen always exist in equal amounts in any substance.
B. Its half-life is more than 5,000 years.

C. It can decay into nitrogen-14. 
D. It is radioactive.

Question 45: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to______.

A. carbon dating B. the age

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Question 46: The word “underlying” could best be replaced by______.

A. below B. requiring

C. serving as a basis for D. being studied through

Question 47: The word “roughly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______. 
A. precisely B. approximately C. harshly D. coarsely 
Question 48: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses______. 
A. what substances are part of all living things.

B. how carbon-14 decay intonitrogen.-14. 
C. why carbon-14 has such a long half-life. 
D. various other age-dating methods.

Question 49: It is implied in the passage that______. 
A. carbon dating has no known uses outside of archeology. 
B. fossils cannot be age-dated using carbon-14.

C. carbon dating could not be used on an item containing nitrogen. 
D. carbon-14 does not have the longest known half-life.

Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that if an item contains more carbon-14 than 
nitrogen-14, then the item is______.

A. not as much as 5,570 years old B. too old to be age-dated with carbon-14 
C. too radioactive to be used by archeologists D. more than 5.570 years old

PRACTICE TEST 11

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from 
the rest in the position of the main stress in the following question.

Question 1: A. substantial B. applicant C. terrorist D. industry

Question 2: A. stagnant B. tableland C. survive D. swallow 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the rest in the pronunciation in the following question.

Question 3: A. derived B. requi red C. blamed D. coughed 
Question 4: A. islander B. alive C. vacancy D. habitat 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the 
following question.

Question 5: I’m afraid we no longer sell that model of laptop because we had ______ a lot of 
complaints

A. so B. such C. enough D. too

Question 6:Mrs. Jekins was too ill to go out and pay her phone bill, and they’ve just cut 
______. She ought to complain!

A. out B. off C. down D. up

Question 7: There’s a lot ______ violent crime in this area than there used to be.

A. fewer B. least C. less D. fewest

Question 8: The move to a different environment had brought about a significant ______ in 
Mary’s state of mind.

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Question 9: The party leader traveled the length and ______ of the country in an attempt to 
spread his message.

A. width B. distance C. diameter D. breadth

Question 10: The amount Sahra earned was ______ on how much she sold. 
A. dependence B. dependant C. dependent D. independent

Question 11: They would ______ go by air than spend a week traveling by train 
A. always B. rather C. prefer D. better

Question 12: The party, ______ I was the guest of honor, was extremely enjoyable. 
A. at that B. at which C. to that D. to which

Question 13: If only I ______ play the guitar as well as you!.

A. would B. should C. could D. might

Question 14: The windows are in ______ frames.

A. circular huge wooden B. huge wooden circular 
C. wooden huge circular D. huge circular wooden

Question 15: James was asking about a lot of personal things. I didn’t like ______ about my 
private life.

A. asking B. being asked C. to ask D. to be asking

Question 16: Vietnam U23 made not only Asia but also Europe keep a close eye on them. 
They ______ internationally.

A. have made headlines B. had made headlines 
C. have done headlines D. did headlines

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence.

Question 17: A US man with a large online following in Vietnam has caused widespread 
anger, and faces possible criminal charges, over a Facebook post thought to have insulted a
military hero.

A. embarrassed B. offended C. confused D. depressed

Question 18: Jack persisted in attempting to convince his employers to use more technology 
and fewer people.

A. endured B. remained C. repeated D. insisted

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in 
meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence.

Question 19: The doctor asked John to exhale slowly

A. inhale B. move in C. enter D. breathe out

Question 20: The soldier was demoted for improper behavior.

A. promoted B. lowered C. resigned D. let off

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response 
to fill in the following exchange.

Question 21: Ann and Mary are studying in their classroom.

-Ann: “Can I borrow your dictionary?”.
-Mary: “______”.

A. I’m afraid I can’t B. Here you are! C. I think so D. It doesn’t matter 
Question 22: Jack and Joe are discussing how to make salad for dinner.

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-Joe: “How about putting some grapes in it, instead?”.

A. We could fry some onions with it too. B. I’d rather just have some bread, thanks 
C. Let’s put some pieces of apple in the salad. D. Good idea! I’ll go and make one. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate words that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Chess, often (23) ______ to as a Royal Game, is the oldest of all board games which do
not contain an element of chance.

The origins of chess are uncertain, (24) ______ there are a number of legends regarding its
invention. One story says that it was King Solomon who invented chess, another says that it
was the Greeks god Hermes, and yet another supposes that the Chinese mandarin, Han-Sing,
was responsible for its creation. In fact, chess almost certainly originated in India in the sixth
or seventh century AD. The game’s popularity then spread

quickly through Persia (now known as Iran) and from there came to Europe. The first

documented reference to chess in literature is in a Persia romance which was written about 600
AD.

It is (25) ______ the word ‘chess’ comes from ‘shah’, the Persian word for ‘King’ and
that ‘checkmate’, the game’s winning (26)______, comes from the phrase ‘shah mat’,

(27)______ ‘the king is dead’.

The rules and pieces used in the game have undergone changes over the centuries.
Modern chess owes much to the Spaniard Lopez de Segura, who in 1561 wrote the first book
on how to play the game. In it, he introduced the concept of ‘castling’, which has not been part
of the game until then.

Question 23: A. mentioned B. called C. known D. referred 
Question 24: A. despite B. nevertheless C. although D. however 
Question 25: A. believed B. imagined C. held D. taken

Question 26: A. place B. stand C. go D. move

Question 27: A. representing B. suggesting C. intending D. meaning 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Rain poured down on the roof. I was trying to read but the sound was too loud. I

couldn’t help myself from being a little grumpy. I want to be outside playing, but the rain was
keeping me inside.

My mom had gone to the grocery store, and my dad was spending Saturday at the office. I had
planned to spend the day hiking, but Mother Nature decided that today was the perfect day for
rain.

It meant that I would have to entertain myself. I spent most of the morning playing with my
stuffed animals and reading. I was sitting next to the windows staring out when I got a strange
idea: why not just go outside anyway?

I put on my boots and a big raincoat and stepped out into the wet world. It was raining hard but
it wasn’t cold. All I could hear were raindrops and the wind. I decided to go on my hike

anyway.

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“Oh my Gosh! It’s really you, Martha!” She said. “I can’t believe that you’re out here right
now. I thought I would be the only person crazy enough to go for a walk in the rain.”

I was very happy to have some company. We decided that hiking in the rain was just as fun as
hiking in the sunshine. We planned on hiking in the rain again.

Question 28: What is the best title for the story?

A. Rainy Day Work B. A Rainy Day Hike

C. A Rainy Day Indoors D. Rainy Day Homework

Question 29: The word “grumpy” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. stupid B. bad - tempered C. uninterested D. unsatisfactory 
Question 30: What was keeping Martha inside?

A. The heat B. Her parents C. Bad weather D. Lots of homework 
Question 31: What does Martha mean when she says “It meant that I would have to entertain 
myself”?

A. She was tired B. She was feeling sick.

C. She had to find something to do D. She was bored with doing homework. 
Question 32: The word “company” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. time B. space C. friend D. business

Question 33: What did Martha think about being outside?

A. It was too hot B. It was cold

C. It was very nice D. It was too wet to walk

Question 34: What will Martha and Ellen probably do next time its rains?

A. Stay inside B. Doing homework.

C. Go for another hike D. Go to their friend’s house.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.

Life in the Universe

Exobiology is the study of life that originates from outside of Earth. As yet, of course,
no such a life form has been found. Exobiologists, however, have done important work in the
theoretical study of where life is most likely to evolve, and what those extra-terrestrial life
forms might be like.

What sorts of planets are most likely to develop life? Most scientists are likely to agree that a
habitable planet must be terrestrial, or rock-based, with liquid surface water and

biogeochemical cycles that somewhat resemble the continuous movement and transformation
of materials in the environment. These cycles include the circulation of elements and nutrients

upon which life and the Earth climate depend. Since (as far as we know) all life is
carbon-based, a stable carbon cycle is especially important.

The habitable zone is the region around a star in which planets can develop life.
Assuming the need for liquid surface water, it follows that most stars around the size of our
sun will be able to sustain habitable zones for billions of years. Stars that are larger than the
sun are much hotter and burn out more quickly; life there may not have enough time to evolve.
Stars that are smaller than the sun have different problems. First of all, planets in their

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life; they also must have terrestrial planets with the right kind of orbits. Most solar systems
have more than one planet, which influences each other’s orbits with their own gravity.
Therefore, in order to have a stable system with no planets flying out into space, the orbits
must be a good distance from one another. Interestingly, the amount of space needed is
roughly the width of a star’s habitable zone. This means that for life to evolve, the largest
possible number of life-supporting planets in any star’s habitable zone is two. Finally, not all
planets meeting the above conditions will necessarily develop life. One major threat is large,
frequent asteroid and comet impacts, which will wipe out life each time it tries to evolve. The
case of Earth teaches that having large gas gains, such as Saturn and Jupiter, in the outer part
of the solar system can help keep a planet safe for life. Due to their strong gravitation, they
tend to catch or deflect large objects before they can reach Earth.

Question 35: Which is the topic of the passage?

A. The search for intelligent life. B. Conditions necessary for life. 
C. Characteristics of extraterrestrial life. D. Life in our solar system. 
Question 36: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as necessary for the 
development of life except ______.

A. rock B. carbon C. oxygen D. water

Question 37: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. star B. zone C. region D. planet

Question 38: It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that ______.

A. the Earth is in the sun’s habitable zone. 
B. the Earth is tidally locked to the sun. 
C. the sun varies in its luminosity.

D. variations in luminosity help life to develop.

Question 39: The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ______.

A. assist B. have C. need D. experience

Question 40: In order for life to develop, a planet’s orbit must not be______.

A. stable B. very close to another planet’s orbit.

C. on the same planet as another planet’s orbit. D. less wide than the star’s habitable zone. 
Question 41: In can be inferred from paragraph 4 that______.

A. most stars have more than two planets in their habitable zone. 
B. no star has more than two planets in its habitable zone.

C. it is not possible for a star to have three planets with life on them.

D. for life to develop, a star must have at least two planets in its habitable zone. 
Question 42: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the

highlighted sentence in the passage?

A. Because of their nearness, habitable planets orbiting smaller stars usually have either 
constant daylight or constant night.

B. The habitable zones of smaller stars are so close to the star that planets within them do not 
spin.

C. One problem with some stars is that their habitable zones are tidally locked into either light 
or darkness.

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Question 43: The school officials are considering comprehensive planning to alleviate the 
problem of overcrowding in the dormitories.

A. are B. planning C. alleviate D. overcrowding

Question 44: Spanish is the only course that it is not offered in the summer term, but there are 
several classes offered in the fall.

A. the only course B. it C. several D. offered

Question 45: Sarah was not best speaker in the class, but her personality and ability to convey 
her feelings helped her become the most requested.

A. not best B. ability C. feelings D. requested

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest 
in meaning to the following question.

Question 46: There won’t be peace in the conflict if both sides do not really desire it.

A. It is only if both sides actually want the conflict to end peacefully that it will happen. 
B. As both sides in the conflict apparently desire peace, it is likely that there will be peace 
soon.

C. The main problem in the conflict seems to be that neither side really desires peace.

D. There has been a lot of fighting in the conflict because both sides seem to want it that way. 
Question 47: The accident happened as the result of the driver’s not paying attention to the 
road.

A. If the driver would have paid attention to the road, the accident hadn’t happened. 
B. Had the driver been paid attention to the road, the accident wouldn’t have happened. 
C. If the driver had been paying attention to the road, the accident wouldn’t have happened 
D. Had the accident not happened, the drive would not have had to pay attention to the road. 
Question 48: “Shall I help you do the dishes, Carlot?” said Robert.

A. Robert suggested helping Carlot do the dishes. 
B. Robert suggested to help Carlot do the dishes. 
C. Robert offered Carlot to help do the dishes. 
D. Robert offered to help Carlot do the dishes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best 
combines each pair of sentences in the following question.

Question 49: I started training to be an accountant six months ago. I’ve got more months to 
go, then I have to take exams.

A. By the time I’ve taken my exams, I will have started training to be an accountant for a year.
B. By the time I take my exams, I will have been in training to be an accountant for a year.

C. By the time I took my exams, I would have trained to be an accountant for a year. 
D. By the time I’ve taken my exams, I will be training for a year.

Question 50: Why did Danny decide to enter the marathon? Danny’s totally unfit.

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PRACTICE TEST 12

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. politician B. genetics C. artificial D. controversial 
Question 2: A. delegate B. fabulous C. external D. slippery

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancestor

Question 4: A. choice B. chaos C. charge D. chase

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” - Anna: “__________!”

A. Better luck next time B. So poor

C. Congratulations D. That was nice of them

Question 6: Mary: “It’s a nice day today. Let’s play a game of tennis.”

Linda: “________________”

A. Will we not play? B. Why not do we play?

C. Why not? D. Shall not we play?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: The relationship between structure, process and outcome is very unclear . 
A. disappear B. external C. apparent D. uncertain

Question 8: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now. 
A. constant B. changable C. objective D. ignorant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: The conference is governed by its newly elected board.

A. watched B. chosen C. ruled D. advised

Question 10: After a long lunch hour, business resumes as usual.

A. continues B. resurfaces C. delays D. responds

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of 
the following questions.

Question 11: Could you please tell me _________?

A. where does my uncle’s room B. where is my uncle’s room 
C. where my uncle’s room is D. where my uncle’s room 
Question 12: Gordon wants to look his best at the wedding so he’s _________

A. make a suit B. having a suit made

C. to get made a suit D. having made a suit

Question 13: This book provides students _________ useful tips that help them to pass the 
coming exam.

A. at B. about C. for D. with

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A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although 
Question 15: My car isn’t _________. It’s always letting me down.

A. believable B. reliable C. colorable D. conceivable 
Question 16: Each of the guests _________ a bunch of flowers.

A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give 
Question 17: Let’s go to the beach this weeken, _________?

A. do we B. shall we C. will we D. don’t we

Question 18: Peter _________ a book when I saw him.

A. is reading B. reading C. read D. was reading 
Question 19: It is recommended that he _________ this course.

A. took B. takes C. take D. taking

Question 20: We need _________ information before we can decide.

A. further B. farther C. far D. furthest

Question 21: I was doing my homework _________ the light went out.

A. after B. before C. since D. when

Question 22: It gets _________ to understand what the professor has explained. 
A. the more difficult B. difficult more and more

C. more difficult than D. more and more difficult

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather pattern (23)________ strongly
affect the world. When the water is warm, the amount of rainfall in Indonesia and surrounding
regions decreases. Australia could (24) ________ experience a drought in many parts. On the
other hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for severe rainstorms. In
Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and
makes the area much drier.

This happening is called El Nino and is used (25) ________ weather forecasters to
make long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will bring unusually rain to
the southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the
same time.

According to research, weather forecasters (26) ________ know about the coming
weather with certainty. Now everything has become completely different.

El Nino itself used to be predictable. It would occur every two to seven years. But now this
weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or
cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (27) ________ on the global scale
either.

Question 23: A. what B. when C. that D. whether

Question 24: A. even B. ever C. nevertheless D. however

Question 25: A. on B. by C. to D. at

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

The election of Andrew Jackson to the presidency in 1928 marked the political

ascendancy of the “common man” in American politics. His name became a household word
during the war of 1812, when, as a U.S Army major general, he led troops against the Creek
Indians in the Mississippi Territory and later defeated the British at New Orleans.

After his presidential inauguration, Jackson rode on horseback to the White House to attend a
private party. Crowds of well-wishers suddenly appeared at the reception and nearly destroyed
the White House as they tried to glimpse the new president. The common man had made a
dramatic entrance onto the national political scene.

Jackson’s two terms moved American society toward truer democracy. Many states
abandoned property requirements for voting. Elected officials began to act more truly as

representatives of the people than as their leaders. As president of the common man, Jackson
waged a war against the Bank of the United States, vetoing the bill that re-chartered the
institution, declaring it a dangerous monopoly that profited the wealthy few.

Although he had built his reputation as an Indian tighter during the War ol 1812,
Jackson was not an Indian hater. He adopted what was at the time considered an enlightened
solution to the Indian problem-removal. Many tribes submitted peacelully to being moved to
the West. Others were marched by force to the Indian Territory, under brutal conditions,
along what the Cherokees called the Trail of Tears.

One of Andrew Jackson’s most enduring legacies was the Democratic Party, which
under him became a highly organized political party. In opposition to the Democrats were the

Whigs, a party that attracted supporters of the Bank of the United States and opposed the
tyranny of the man called “King Andrew”. A less specific but more basic legacy is the

populist philosophy oi politics that still bears the name “Jacksonian Democracy.”
Question 28: The phrase “became the household word” in paragraph I means that _______. 
A. a house style was called Jackson. B. Jackson acquired fame.

C. people criticized Jackson. D. Jackson was a popular boy’s name. 
Question 29: The author suggests that Jackson’s election and inauguration _______. 
A. destroyed the White House.

B. brought a new style to the presidency. 
C. made a lot of common people angry.

D. put a military man in the White House for the first time.

Question 30: According to the passage, why did Jackson oppose the Bank of the United

States?

A. He thought it benefited only rich people. 
B. It started a war.

C. It opposed electing him “King Andrew”.

D. It opposed giving common people the right to vote.

Question 31: According to the passage, Jackson’s policy toward American Indians was 
___________.

A. developed during the War of 1812. B. forceful and cruel

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A. tearful B. abrupt C. humane D. harsh 
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT attributed to Andrew Jackson?

A. The Whig Party. B. Jacksonian Democracy.

C. The rise of the common man. D. The Democratic Party.

Question 34: Which of the following could NOT be inferred about Andrew Jackson? 
A. He served his country throughout his life.

B. He supposed democratic reforms. 
C. He inspired populist politics.

D. He was the president during a violent war.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in
college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in
1933. In 1936, she was hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of
her life.

Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent
reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea
Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing
human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic
quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous

correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always
realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.

In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable
controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of
insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds, and

contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal
attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed.

However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory
Committee.

Question 35: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work _____________. 
A. at college B. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service

C. as a researcher D. as a writer

Question 36: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins 
University?

A. Oceanography B. Zoology C. Literature D. History

Question 37: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ________.

A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45

Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea 
Wind

A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books 
C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies

Question 39: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of 
information for The Sea Around Us

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Question 40: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible 
Question 41: The word “flawed” is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive

Question 42: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s 
Science Advisory Committee?

A. To provide an example of government propaganda.

B. To support Carson’s ideas.

C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment. 
D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in 
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.

A. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.

B. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do. 
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.

D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.

Question 44: It is expected that tax increases will be announced in tomorrow’s budget 
statement.

A. Tax increases are expected to be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement. 
B. It is expected that people will announce in tomorrow budget tax increases. 
C. In tomorrow’s budget statement tax increases are expected to announce. 
D. Hope that they will announce tax increases in tomorrow’s budget statement. 
Question 45: Fiona has been typing the report for an hour.

A. It took Fiona an hour to type the report.

B. It is an hour since Fiona started typing the report. 
C. Fiona finished the report an hour ago.

D. Fiona will finish typing the report in an hour.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: The museum contains sixth century sculptures, eighteenth century swords and 
the dress worn by nineteenth century royal family.

A. contains B. eighteenth C. the dress worn by nineteenth century D. royal 
Question 47: When the children realized that they were by themselves in the dark, they 
became really frightening.

A. by themselves B. the dark C. became D. frightening

Question 48: The foreign student advisor recommended that she studied more English before 
enrolling at the university.

A. foreign B. studied C. enrolling D. the

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best 
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair 
it.

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B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the mornings. 
C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings. 
D. My motorbike I will get it repaired which cannot start in the mornings. 
Question 50: Phillip snored all night. I didn’t sleep a wink.

A. I didn't sleep a wink, which made Phillip snore all night. 
B. Phillip snored all night as a result of a my sleeplessness. 
C. What with Phillip snoring all night, I didn't sleep a wink. 
D. What made Phillip snore all night was my sleeplessness.

PRACTICE TEST 13

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. maximum B. vacancy C. terrorist D. investment 
Question 2: A. vertical B. contractual C. domestic D. outstanding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. sugar B. season C. serious D. secret

Question 4: A. amuse B. purse C. blouse D. please

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: - Tom: “Would you mind holding the door open for me, please?”
- Mary: “_________.”

A. Oh, with pleasure B. Ready C. You’re welcome D. I can do 
Question 6: Mary is talking to her professor in his office.

- Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?”

- Professor: “___________”

A. I like it that you understand. 
B. Try your best, Mary.

C. You can borrow books from the library. 
D. You mean the podcasts from other students?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: People in Vietnam nod their head to show that they agree with something.

A. blink B. shake C. wave D. slump

Question 8: It’s difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed.

A. wise B. modest C. arrogant D. generous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

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Question 10: There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year
ago.

A. closed up B. closed C. closed down D. closed into

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.

Question 11: He was offered the job thanks to his _________ performance during his job 
interview.

A. impressive B. impressively C. impression D. impress

Question 12: Someone who is _______is hopeful about the future or the success of something
in particular.

A. pessimist B. optimistic C. optimist D. pessimistic 
Question 13: Ben went _______the competition and won the first prize.

A. on B. in for C. away D. through

Question 14: As an _______, Mr.Pike is very worried about the increasing of teenager crimes.
A. educational B. education C. educator D. educate

Question 15: I ________hurry. It’s nearly 8.00, and my first class starts at 8.15. 
A. would prefer B. can’t help C. can’t D. had better

Question 16: He managed to keep his job ________ the manager had threatened to sack him. 
A. although B. despite C. unless D. therefore

Question 17: Don’t touch that wire or you’ll get an electric __________.

A. shock B. fire C. charge D. current

Question 18: The car had a(n) _________tire, so we had to change the wheel.

A. bent B. flat C. cracked D. injured

Question 19: The children have every reason to be proud _________ their efforts.

A. at B. to C. in D. of

Question 20: As a famous person _______ many children admire, it is important for her to act
responsibly.

A. whose B. which C. when D. whom

Question 21: A number of students _______ for a rise since last year.

A. ask B. have asked C. has asked D. asked

Question 22: Our flight was delayed, but the plane finally _______shortly after midnight. 
A. took on B. put off C. took up D. took off

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27

Perry had a rough childhood. He was physically and sexually abused growing up, got
kicked out of high school, and tried to commit suicide ___(23)___— once as a preteen
andagain at 22. At 23 moved to Atlanta and took ___(24)___ odd jobs as he started workin g
onhis stage career.

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Question 23: A. twice B. two C. second D. double

Question 24: A. up B. off C. in D. to

Question 25: A. producer B. productivity C. production D. productive

Question 26: A. went B. broke C. got D. put

Question 27: A. same B. as C. like D. as soon as

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

One of the highest honors for formalists, writers, and musical composers is the Pulitzer
Prize. First awarded in 1927, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Ernest Hemingway, Harper
Lee, John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous
awards, this prize was named after its founder, Joseph Pulitzer.

Joseph Pulitzer's story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of
hardship, hard work and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to the United States
in 1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but he started his American life by fighting in the

American Civil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the German - language newspaper, the
Westliche Post. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon became a partial owner of
the paper.

In 1978, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition,
the newspaper took a controversial approach to new. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the average
reader, so he produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue. Such an approach is

commonplace today, but in Pulitzer's time it was new and different. The approach led to the
discovery of many instances of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer ‘paper became very
famous and is still produced today.

The success of Joseph Pulitzer's newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he
wanted to give something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to

establish university programs for the teaching of journalism, and he funded numerous
scholarships to assist journalism students. Finally, he wanted to leave a legacy that would
encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. On his death, he gave two million
dollars to Columbia University so they could award prizes to great writers

The Pulitzer Prize recipients are a very select group. For most, winning a Pulitzer Prize
is the highlight of their career. If an author, journalist, or composer you know has won a
Pulitzer Prize, you can be sure they are at the top of their profession.

Question 28: Why does the writer mention “John F. Kennedy” in line 3? 
A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards.

B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize.

C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners. 
D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.

Question 29: According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer 
Prize?

A. to encourage people to remember his name and success. 
B. encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. 
C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals.

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A. in part only B. brand new C. one and only D. very important 
Question 31: According to the passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize?

A. Columbia University graduates B. journalism students 
C. noted writers and composers D. most newspaper reporters

Question 32: According to the reading passage, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the average 
reader?

A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature. 
B. He wrote stories about the war.

C. He produced his own experience.

D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue.

Question 33: Which snentece about oseoph Pulitzer is true according to the reading passage? 
A. He received a scholarship when he was a university student.

B. He was rich even when he was young.

C. He was a reporter during the American Civil War. 
D. He immigrated to the United States from Hungary.

Question 34: Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is NOT true according to the reading 
passage?

A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first time writer to the win the prize in 1917. 
B. The prize is aimed at encouraging a writer’s career.

C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award the prizewinners. 
D. Receiving the prize on the highest honors for writers.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Being aware of one's own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they
happen - is at the very heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not
only moods but also thoughts about those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings
as they arise are less likely to be ruled by them and are thus better able to manage their

emotions.

Managing emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does it mean giving free rein
to every feeling. Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have popularized
the notion of Emotional Intelligence, insisted that the goal is to balance and that every feeling
has value and significance. As Goleman said, "A life without passion would be a dull

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on impulse. Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, "the root of all emotional
self-control."

Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate
gratification and to persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related
to success - whether one is trying to build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a
diet. One researcher examined whether this trait can

predict a child's success in school. The study showed that 4-year-old children who can delay
instant gratification in order to advance toward some future goal will be “far superior as
students" when they graduate from high schooltthan will 4-year-olds who are not able to resist
the impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes.

Question 35: Which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?

A. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be also able to manage them. 
B. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better. 
C. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.

D. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.

Question 36: According to paragraphs 1 to 3, people should be aware of their emotions so that
they can ________.

A. stop feeling angry B. manage their emotions appropriately 
C. experience feelings more intensively D. explain their emotions to others

Question 37: All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions EXCEPT 
_________.

A. we can manage our emotions B. we should ignore some feelings 
C. every feeling is important D. emotions are part of a satisfying life 
Question 38: The word “critical” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. 
A. indecisive B. inessential C. dynamic D. important 
Question 39: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to_______.

A. intense emotions B. psychologists

C. individuals D. individual differences

Question 40: In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of
emotions by ________.

A. giving an example of why people get angry

B. describing how people learn to control their emotions

C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion

D. explaining why some people are aware of their emotions

Question 41: The word “pursue” in paragraph 4 mostly means __________. 
A. be involved in something B. improve or develop something 
C. try to achieve something D. find out about something

Question 42: According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they 
can resist impulses because they can _________.

A. have more friends at school B. easily understand new information
C. focus on their work and not get distracted D. be more popular with their teachers

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in 
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: I would rather you wore something more formal to work. 
A. I’d prefer you wearing something more formal to work.

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C. I’d prefer you will wear something more formal to work.
D. I’d prefer you wear something more formal to work.

Question 44: Had we left any later, we would have missed the train. 
A. We didn't miss the train because it left late.

B. We left too late to catch the train.

C. Because the train was late, we missed it. 
D. We almost missed the train.

Question 45: “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” said Henry’s boss.

A. Henry's boss criticized him for doing his job carelessly.

B. Henry's boss asked him not to do his job with care. 
C. Henry's boss suggested doing the job more carefully. 
D. Henry's boss warned him to do the job carefully.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: Helen Killer, who was both blind and deafness, overcame her inabilities with the
help of her teacher, Ann Sulivan

A. who B. blind C. deafness D. inabilities

Question 47: Education, whether it happens at school or anywhere else, is a important part in 
our life.

A. Education B. whether C. or D. a important part 
Question 48: I can’t go out tonight because I have too many work to do.

A. can’t B. because C. too many D. to do

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best 
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Computer is a miraculous device. It is capable of doing almost anything you ask 
it to.

A. Computer can’t do anything you ask it to because it is a miraculous device.

B. Computer is unable to do almost anything you ask it to so it is a miraculous device. 
C. Computer is a miraculous device since it is possible for doing anything you ask it to.

D. Computer is a miraculous device because it is impossible for doing almost anything you ask
it to.

Question 50: The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue. 
A. The house, which is very beautiful, was painted blue.

B. The house, the gate of whom was painted blue, is very beautiful. 
C. The house, the gate of which was painted blue, is very beautiful. 
D. The house, the gate of that was painted blue, is very beautiful.

PRACTICE TEST 14

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. cat B. flat C. mate D. spat

Question 4: A. scissors B. sugar C. sense D. soft

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.

Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”

Anne: “____________”

A. I’m half ready. B. God save you.

C. Thank you so much. D. Don’t mention it! 
Question 6: - “You look beautiful with your new hairstyle!” 
- “___________”.

A. Not at all B. It’s kind of you to say so. 
C. Very kind of your part D. Willingly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community. 
A. cooperate B. put together C. separate D. connect

Question 8: This new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still 
dirty.

A. to be expensive B. to be strange C. to be broken D. to be better
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: He makes money by raising poultry and cattle.

A. spends B. produces C. earns D. creates

Question 10: She was born and grown up in a picturesque fishing village in Ha Long Bay.

A. dangerous B. pretty C. wealthy D. poor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of 
the following questions.

Question 11: _____________ giraffe is the tallest of all _____________ animals.

A. A/the B. The/ ∅ C. A/ ∅ D. / the ∅

Question 12: You’d better get someone ___________ your living room. 
A. redecorated B. to redecorate C. redecorating D. redecorate 
Question 13: Can you take _________ of the shop while Mr. Green is away? 
A. operation B. charge C. management D. running 
Question 14: They held a party to congratulate their son _______ his success.

A. in B. with C. on D. for

Question 15: They always kept on good ______ with their next-door neighbors for the 
children’s sake.

A. terms B. relations C. will D. relationship

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Question 17: The judge gave __________. 
A. him the special prize with good comments 
B. him to the special prize with good comments 
C. the special prize with good comments him 
D. him for the special prize with good comments

Question 18: Her mother’s dream __________ a family doctor will be fulfilled in six years.

A. by B. with C. of D. at

Question 19: They _________ their service up to now.

A. didn’t do B. haven’t done C. don’t do D. aren’t doing 
Question 20: You should make a(n) ___________ to overcome this problem.

A. trial B. impression C. effort D. apology

Question 21: My responsibility is to wash dishes and _________ the garbage. 
A. take care of B. take out C. take off D. take over

Question 22: It was only ___________ he told me his surname that I realized that we had 
been to the same school.

A. then B. until C. as soon as D. when

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 
The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is the Internet, which has been (23)____
for broken relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now
recognize Internet Addiction Syndrom (IAS) as a new illness that could (24)_____ serious
problems and ruin many lives. Special help groups have been set up to (25) ______ suffers
help and support.

IAS is similar to (26)_____ problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts
have dreams about the Internet, they need to use it first thing in the morning; they (27) ______
to their partner about how much time they spend online; they wish they could cut down, but
are unable to do so.

Question 23: A. accused B. mistaken C. blamed D. faulted

Question 24: A. take B. cause C. affect D. lead

Question 25: A. recommend B. offer C. suggest D. advise 
Question 26: A. others B. another C. the other D. other

Question 27: A. lie B. cheat C. deceive D. betray

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Most Americans look forward to their vacation. Most American employees receive an
annual vacation with pay, and it is traditional to use this time off for travel.

Travelling within the United States is very popular because foreign travel generally takes more
time and money. Every year about thirteen million people travel abroad. The most popular
periods are during the summer and the two-week school break on Christmas and New Year
holidays. These periods are also the most crowded and the most expensive time to travel, so
people who can adjust their schedules sometimes choose to travel in the autumn.

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miles an hour. Tourists that want to travel faster often fly to their destination and then rent a
car when they get there.

Question 28: According to the writer __________. 
A. Americans have no vacations

B. Americans do not like travel

C. it is imposible to have a day-off in the USA 
D. most Americans are fond of travelling

Question 29: How many people travel abroad every year? 
A. 13 million people B. 66 million people 
C. 30 million people D. 55 million people 
Question 30: Which of the following NOT mentioned in the text? 
A. Travelling on Christmas and New Year holidays take much money. 
B. Most American employees use their vacation to travel every year. 
C. Most families use cars as an economical way to travel.

D. American people always choose to travel in autumn. 
Question 31: There are many people travelling ________.

A. in the winter B. on Women’s day

C. on Christmas and New Year D. on Thanksgiving

Question 32: _______ are the most popular means of transport in the USA.

A. Buses B. Cars C. Ships D. Planes

Question 33: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to _______. 
A. destination B. restaurant C. vacation D. car 
Question 34: In the USA, _________.

A. the highways are not in good condition. 
B. tourists cannot rent a car

C. there are not any highways

D. along the highways there are motels and restaurants available for tourists.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

For the last few years, my children have been going to a summer camp in northern
Greece called Skouras Camp. They always seem to have a good time, so if you’ re wondering
what to do with the kids for three weeks this summer, you could do worse than send them to
this beautiful camp on the shores of the Aegean Sea. If your children, like mine, are keen on
adventure, sports and good company, the Skouras Camp will keep them busy all day doing the
things they most enjoy. Skouras is an international camp with children from all over the world.
My children have made friends with children of their own age from Poland, China, Demark
and the United States. Naturally, they get lots of opportunities to practise their English as this
is the only language spoken. The camp is located in one of the most beautiful parts of

Chalkidiki. It is huge (120.000 square meters) and is just a stone’s throw away from clear, blue
Aegean Sea. It takes the children just five minutes to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot.
The programme is packed with exciting activities such as horse riding and table tennis. Other
sports in clude baseball, volleyball and athletics. The Camp ends with a sports contest in the
last week which all parents are invited to attend.

Question 35: All the children come to the Camp have to __________. 
A. be only keen on adventure B. be at the same age.

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Question 36: How many kinds of sports can be played in the Camp?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Question 37: All the statements are true EXCEPT _________.

A. The parents can attend their children’sports contest.

B. The children will be busy taking part in the Camp’s programmed activities. 
C. The camp is far from the Aegean Sea.

D. The children will take more chances of English practise.

Question 38: The tone of the passage could best be described as __________. 
A. supportive B. negative C. disbelieving D. humorous 
Question 39: What should be the best title for the passage?

A. Chalkidiki’s landscape – The Aegean Sea. B. An international summer camp. 
C. Children’s summer activities. D. Advice on children caring in summer. 
Question 40: How long does it take the children to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot?

A. 20 minutes B. an hour C. 5 minutes D. a day

Question 41: Where is the camp located?

A. in Porland B. in Greece C. in the United States D. Denmark 
Question 42: The word contest in the last sentence could be replaced by ___________.

A. competition B. runner C. competitor D. athlete

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in 
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: “ The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it 
depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

A. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the 
purpose of any invention is to make our lives better.

B. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.

C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This 
depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

D. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose to make our lives better. 
Question 44: California attracted people from many countries when gold was discovered in 
1848.

A. Discovered in 1848, gold was attractive to people in California.

B. Discovered in California in 1848, gold attracted people from many countries there. 
C. Gold in California was discovered in 1848 after many people came here.

D. When people are attracted to California, they discovered gold in 1848. 
Question 45: I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.

A. I travel by bus only as a last resort. 
B. It’s my only alternative to travel by bus.

C. I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative. 
D. Travelling by bus is my only alternative.

Question 43: “ The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it 
depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

A. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the

purpose of any invention is to make our lives better.

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C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This 
depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

A. Discovered in 1848, gold was attractive to people in California.

B. Discovered in California in 1848, gold attracted people from many countries there. 
C. Gold in California was discovered in 1848 after many people came here.

D. When people are attracted to California, they discovered gold in 1848. 
Question 45: I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.

A. I travel by bus only as a last resort. 
B. It’s my only alternative to travel by bus.

C. I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative. 
D. Travelling by bus is my only alternative.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of 
the rain.

A. wooden B. surrounded C. is beginning D. because of

Question 47: The amounts of oxygen and nitrogen in the air almost always remain stable, but 
the amount of water vapor vary considerably.

A. The amount of B. almost always C. stable D. vary

Question 48: Quinine, cinnamon, and other useful substances are all derived of the bark of 
trees.

A. other useful substances B. are C. derived of D. bark of trees
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best 
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: He has been studying for many years. He should have realized sooner that his 
grammar was incorrect.

A. He has been studying for many years to have soon realized that his grammar was incorrect. 
B. He has been studying for many years that he should have realized sooner that his grammar 
was incorrect.

C. No sooner has he been studying for many years than he should have realized that his 
grammar was incorrect.

D. Though he has been studying for many years, he did not realize sooner that his grammar 
was incorrect.

Question 50: Colour is an important facet of nature. It influences the life of almost every 
creature.

A. Influencing the life of almost every creature in nature, colour is important.

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PRACTICE TEST 15

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. imagine B. horizon C. property D. computer 
Question 2: A. equip B. vacant C. secure D. oblige

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. entrance B. paddy C. bamboo D. banyan

Question 4: A. shortage B. storage C. garage D. encourage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: Mr John: “What do you do for a living?” Mr Mike: “___________”.
A. I work in a bank B. I want to be a doctor, I guess

C. It’s hard work, you know D. I get a high salary, you know 
Question 6: - “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.” 
- “_______.”

A. Nothing more to say B. You can say that again 
C. Yes, I hope so D. No, dogs are very good, too

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: She lived with a rich family in London during her childhood. 
A. selfish B. well-off C. famous D. penniless

Question 8: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were 
banned.

A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it. 
A. paid nothing B. turned a deaf car

C. was offered D. paid much more than usual

Question 10:My hard-working students expected a good fortune to come in addition to their 
intelligence.

A. thoughtful B. dilligent C. courteous D. bright

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of 
the following questions.

Question 11: Does television adequately reflect the ethnic and cultural ____________ of the 
country.

A. custom B. diversity C. alternation D. minority 
Question 12: She _________ him for her father’s death.

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Question 13: John proposed __________Mary on a fine day at the crowded beach in their 
hometown.

A. to B. of C. on D. with

Question 14: “Have you __________ this contract yet?” – “Not yet. I’ll try to read it this 
weekend.”

A. looked over B. looked out C. looked up D. looked into 
Question 15: He left the country ________ arrest if he returned.

A. in fear of B. under threat of C. with fear of D. with threat of 
Question 16: She brought three children up __________.

A. single-handed B. single-mindedly C. single-handedly D. single-minded 
Question 17: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as __________. 
A. a bell B. a mirror C. a waterfall D. a lake

Question 18: He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his __________when he 
meets the right girl.

A. shoe B. hole C. shed D. shell

Question 19: The city has _________ of young consumers who are sensitive to trends, and 
can, therefore, help industries predict the potential risks and success of products.

A. a high proportion B. a great level C. a high rate D. a high tendency 
Question 20: It’s not easy to make Lisa furious. The girl is very gentle by _________. 
A. herself B. nature C. personality D. reaction

Question 21: ________ eighty percent of the students in our school are eager to work with 
foreign teachers, aren’t they?

A. Most B. Most of C. Almost D. Mostly

Question 22: _______ we work with her, we get confused because of her fast speaking pace. 
A. So that B. Although C. Whenever D. Lest

Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he
gets close to a tornado, he puts a special tool (23) ______ a turtle probe on the ground. This
tool measures things like a twister’s temperature. Humidity, and wind speed. With this

information, Samaras can learn what causes tornadoes to develop. If meteorilogists understand
this, they can warn people (24) _____ twisters sooner and save lives.

How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It’s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too
small to see using weather satellites. So Samaras can’t rely on these tools to find a twister. (25)
______, he waits for tornadoes to develop.

Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some
tornadoes change (26) _____ several times – for example, moving east and then west and then
east again. When Samaras finally gets near a tornado, her puts the turtle probe on the ground.
Being this close to a twister is (27) ______. He must get away quickly.

Question 23: A. called B. known C. made D. meant

Question 24: A. with B. about C. at D. for

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

The human criterionfor perfect vision is 20/20 for reading the standard lines on a
Snellen eye chart without a hitch. The score is determined by how well you read lines of
letters of different sizes from 20 feet away. But being able to read the bottom line on the eye
chart does not approximate perfection as far as other species are concerned. Most birds would
consider us very visually handicapped. The hawk, for instance, has such sharp eyes that can
spot a dime on the sidewalk while perched on top of the Empire State Building. It can make
fine visual distinctions because it is blessed with one million cones per square millimetre in its
retina. And in water, humans are farsighted, while the kingfisher, swooping down to spear fish,
can see well both in the air and water because it is endowed with two foveae – areas of the
eyes, consisting mostly of cones that provide visual distinctions. One foveae permits the bird,
while in the air, to scan the water below with one eye at a time. This is called monocular
vision. Once it hits the water, the other foveae joins in, allowing the kingfisher to focus both
eyes, like binoculars, on its prey at the same time. A frog’s vision is distinguished by its ability
to perceive things as a constant moving picture. Known as “bug detectors”, a highly developed
set of cells in a frog’s eyes responds mainly to moving objects. So, it is said that a frog sitting
in a field of dead bugs wouldn’t see them as food and would starve.

The bee has a “compound” eye, which is used for navigation. It has 15,000 facets that
divide what it sees into a pattern of dots, or mosaic. With this kind of vision, the bee sees the
sun only as a single dot, a constant point of reference. Thus, the eye is a superb navigational
instrument that constantly measures the angle of its line of flight in relation to the sun. A bee’s
eye also gauges flight speed. And if that is not enough to leave our 20/20 “perfect vision”
paling into insignificance, the bee is capable of seeing something we can’t – ultraviolet light.
Thus, what humans consider to be “perfect vision” is in fact rather limited when we look at
other species. However, there is still much to be said for the human eye. Of all mammals, only

humans and some primates can enjoy pleasures of colour vision.

Question 28: What does the passage mainly discuss? 
A. limits of the human eye

B. perfect vision

C. different eyes for different uses 
D. eye variation among different species

Question 29: The phrase “without a hitch” is closet in meaning to __________. 
A. unaided B. without glasses

C. with little hesitation D. easily

Question 30: According to the passage, why might birds and animals consider humans very 
visually handicapped?

A. humans can’t see very well in either air or water
B. humans eyes are not as well suited to our needs

C. the main outstanding feature of human eyes is color vision 
D. human eyes can’t do what their eyes can do

Question 31: The word “that” in line 9 refers to _________.

A. foveae B. areas of the eye C. cones D. visual distinctions 
Question 32: According to the passage, “bug detectors” are useful for _______.

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B. seeing moving objects

C. avoiding bugs when getting food 
D. avoiding starvation

Question 33: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? 
A. kingfishers have monocular vision

B. bees see patterns of dots

C. hawks eyes consist mostly of cones that can allow it to scan with one eye at a time 
D. humans are farsighted in water

Question 34: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? 
A. eyes have developed differently in each species

B. bees have the most complex eye

C. humans should not envy what they don’t need 
D. perfect vision is not perfect

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

It’s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do
the minimum of work because they’re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often
scream before their piano practice because it’s so boring. They have to be given gold stars and
medals to be persuaded to swim, or have to be bribed to take exams. But the story is different
when you’re older.

Over the years, I’ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a college and did

courses in History and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so
there was no reason to be late – I was the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor
was late, not the other way round. Indeed, if I could persuade him to linger for an extra five
minutes, it was a bonus, not a nuisance. I wasn’t frightened to ask questions, and homework
was a pleasure not a pain. When I passed an exam, I had passed it for me and me alone, not for
my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I got was entirely personal.

Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But
the joy is that, although some parts have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other
things since you were young. It has learnt to think independently and flexibly and is much
better at relating one thing to another. What you lose in the rust department, you gain in the
maturity department.

In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you’re older, you get less
frustrated. Experience has told you that, if you’re calm and simply do something carefully
again and again, eventually you’ll get the hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas –
from being able to drive a car, perhaps – means that if you

can’t, say, build a chair instantly, you don’t, like a child, want to destroy your first pathetic
attempts. Maturity tells you that you will, with application, eventually get there

Question 35: It is implied in paragraph 1 that ______. 
A. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning 
B. young learners are usually lazy in their class

C. teachers should give young learners less homework 
D. parents should encourage young learners to study more

Question 36: The writer’s main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up, 
______.

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B. they cannot learn as well as younger learners 
C. they get more impatient with their teachers

D. they have a more positive attitude towards learning

Question 37: The phrase “For starters” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “______”. 
A. For beginners B. At the starting point

C. At the beginning D. First and foremost

Question 38: While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised 
______.

A. to have more time to learn B. to be able to learn more quickly 
C. to feel learning more enjoyable D. to get on better with the tutor 
Question 39: In paragraph 3, the word “rusty” means ______.

A. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice 
B. impatient because of having nothing to do

C. staying alive and becoming more active

D. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be

Question 40: All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT ______. 
A. young people usually feel less patient than adults

B. experience in doing other things can help one’s learning 
C. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners

D. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people

Question 41: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning
process because adult learners ______.

A. pay more attention to detail than younger learners

B. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners 
C. are less worried about learning than younger learners

D. have become more patient than younger learners

Question 42: What is the writer’s main purpose in the passage?

A. To encourage adult learning. B. To show how fast adult learning is. 
C. To explain reasons for learning. D. To describe adult learning methods.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in 
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: It is not until the sun is shining brightly that the little girl woke up.

A. No sooner is the sun shining brightly than the little girl woke up. 
B. Not until the little girl woke up is the sun shining brightly. 
C. Not until the sun is shining brightly did the little girl wake up. 
D. As soon as the little girl woke up, the sun hasn’t shone brightly yet.

Question 44: “What language do you find the most difficult to learn of all?”, Mary asked 
Tim.

A. Mary asked Tim what language Tim found the most difficult to learn of all.

B. Mary wanted to know what language they founded the most difficult to learn of all. 
C. Mary asked Tim what language did you find the most difficult to learn of all. 
D. Mary asked Tim what language you found the most difficult to learn of all. 
Question 45: Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.

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C. It's useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order. 
D. There's no point calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: United Nations is aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based on 
respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples.

A. develop B. based C. principle D. self-determination

Question 47: All members shall give the United Nations every assistance in any action it does 
in accordance with the present Charter.

A. shall B. every C. it does D. the

Question 48: Cutural diversity is important because out country, workplaces, and schools 
increasingly consist of various culture, racial and ethnic groups.

A. is B. increasingly consist C. culture D. groups

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best

combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: The teacher has done his best to help all students. However, none of them made 
any effort on their part.

A. The teacher has done his best to help all student, or none of them made any effort on their 
part.

B. Although the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on
their part.

C. Because the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on 
their part.

D. When the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on 
their part.

Question 50: Finish your work. And then you can go home. 
A. You can’t go home until you finish your work.

B. You finish your work to go home as early as you can. 
C. When you go home, finish your work then.

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Nội dung ôn tập môn Tiếng anh 12 – lần 2 – Trường THPT Hoài Đức B

<b>PRACTICE TEST 9</b>

<b>PRACTICE TEST 10</b>

<b>PRACTICE TEST 11</b>

<b>PRACTICE TEST 12</b>

<b>PRACTICE TEST 13</b>

<b>PRACTICE TEST 14</b>

<b>PRACTICE TEST 15</b>

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