Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Phạm Công Bình

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BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MƠN TIẾNG ANH 11

NĂM 2021 CĨ ĐÁP ÁN TRƯỜNG THPT PHẠM CƠNG BÌNH

1. Đề số 1

PART I. LISTENING

Session 1. Listen to a senior teacher Ms. Potts discussing an assessment schedule for
the next academic year with a new teacher, John and do the tasks that follow. The
recording will be played TWICE.

Questions 1-3. Listen to the conversation and choose the correct option to complete the
sentences.

1. Ms. Potts prefers to work with .

A. a computer B. a pencil and paper C. spreadsheets
2. She believes it is essential to have .

A. a good system B. the final exam C. one major assessment
3. John thinks continuous assessment .

A. makes him sick B. affects his performance C. is fair

Questions 4-10. Complete the table. Write no more than THREE WORDS AND/ OR A
NUMBER for each answer.

ASSESSMENT SCHEDULE
January No assessment - summer holiday

February 4. ; set essay topics

March Field trip; 5. with photographs
April 6. with visual aids. Break

May A 7. of quizes (short-answer _questions)
June Mid-year exams

July Break. 8.
August 9.

September 10. . Break.
October Test

November Final exam

December No assessment - summer holiday

Session 2. Listen to two students talking about a music course and do the tasks that
follow. The recording will be played TWICE.

Questions 1-3. According to Josie, which THREE things are necessary for Music 103?
Choose THREE letters A-H.

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C. computer skills D. ability to play a musical instrument
E. good maths F. independent learning skills

G. membership of the music department

Questions 4-6. Which THREE of the following activities does Music 103 involve? Choose
THREE letters A-H.

A. designing a software programme B. writing and playing back your own
music

C. writing music for films D. attending lectures at the university
E. listening to examples from the Internet F. going on study tours abroad
G. comparing modern and classical music

Questions 7-8. List TWO more things a student’s computer needs for Music 103. Write NO
MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

7. megabytes of RAM CD-ROM
8.

Questions 9-10. Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR
A NUMBER for each answer.

9. When does the next course begin? .
10. How many assignments must be done to pass the course? .
PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Session 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following
sentences.

1. Would you mind me a favour and post this letter for me?

A. making B. doing C. getting D. causing
2. It is important that your facebook password confidential.

A. keeping B. kept C. be kept D. keeps
3. You should look up the meaning of that word in the dictionary misuse it again.

A. in order to not B. in case C. so as not to D. unless
4. I would be very rich now working long ago.

A. if I would give up B. if I didn’t give up C. were I to give up D. had I not given up
5. I know you have been working very hard today. Let's and go home.

A. pull your leg B. call it a day C. mind your manners D. split the bill
6. It seems to me that your sister won’t be able to do this sum you help her.

A. as long as B. imagining C. unless D. supposing
7. All children have the right to an education of their sex, creed, race or nationality.
A. regardless B. providing C. despite D. because
8. Mark first his wife three years ago when they at university.

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A. It’s a bit dear B. Oh. Poor man C. Never mind D. My pleasure
10. Children should be by their parents on the first day of school.

A. accompanied B. stalked C. involved D. associated
11. People have used coal and oil to electricity for a long time.

A. discover B. invent C. raise D. generate
12. We are considering having for the coming New Year.

A. redecorating our flat B. redecorate our flat C. our flat to be redecorated D. our flat
redecorated

13. She should have been here but she’s flu.

A. gone through with B. gone down with C. come in for D. come up against
14. The salary of a computer programmer is a teacher.

A. twice more than B. as much as twice of C. more than twice D. twice as much
as that of

15. Tony didn’t study hard for the test. His answers from someone else.
A. should have copied B. can have copied C. must have been copied D. would have
copied

16. No one had informed me about that. I resented .
A. not to be informed

B. not having been informed
C. not to inform

D. not informing

17. Safety should take over all other matters in the workplace.

A. precede B. precedent C. preceding D. precedence
18. ..., these students are among the best prepared who have been through this
university.

A. On the whole B. At the whole C. In the general D. In generally
19. Caller: “Can I speak to Mr James, please!” Secretary: “ ”

A. No problem! I’m fine with that.
B. It’s his turn.

C. I’m sorry, he’s away at the moment.
D. Can you take a message?

20. By 1820, there were over sixty steamboats on the Mississippi river, were quite
luxurious.

A. which many B. many of them C. many of which D. many that
Session 2. In each line of the following passage, there is an error. Write down the line
number, the corresponding error, and correct it. There is an example at line 11.

Line number Mistake Correction

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… … …

Clothing is a distinctly human artifact. Even more than an use of tools, it distinguishes humans
from other creatures on this planet. While there are other creatures who use implements in a
greater or lesser degree, clothing is unique to humanity. Clothing is also uniquely human in
what it serves more than one function. The basis purpose of clothing was originally utilitarian.
By putting on an artificial skin, humans were unable to move into regions where they otherwise
would have been unable to cope with the climate. An extreme example of this use of clothing
can see among the Eskimos, and other people who live with extreme cold. However, clothing
was not yet used for protection from the elements, but has also been a mean of displaying
one's status and sense of style for as long as humans have had civilisation. Thus clothing also
developed in countries which there is no real practical need for it, except from the other, very
human function of preserving the modest of the wearer.

Session 3. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to
the right of each line.

FOOD PRODUCTION

In the not-too-distant past farm animals were able to live (1) lives NATURE in

what we would now term 'free-range' conditions. Such farming methods, however,
were not able to supply the rapidly growing (2) of the world and
the POPULATE

increasing demands on

food (3) . CONSUME
In order to cope with those ever-increasing demands, factory farming methods

were introduced along with the (4) of genetically

engineered DEVELOP (5) hormones, which together
resulted in a massive increase in food GROW

(6) . P
RODUCE

However, these developments in the use of factory farming and drug (7) have led to a
widespread feeling that animals are being caused a lot of distress and TREAT

that the quality of the food (8) suffers as a consequence. Certainly,

many IT people (9) with the idea of keeping animals in one building for
their AGREE

entire existence and argue that more emphasis should be given to (10) farming
methods.

ALTERNATE

PART III. READING

Session 1. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the
questions that follows.

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Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of
research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of

“natural leaders”. It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in
common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities
that meet the needs of that particular group.

Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader,
research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by
different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of
tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things done”.
Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective
well-being of a social group’s members. Expressive leaders are less concerned with the overall
goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to
minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members expect expressive leaders to
maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group
members. They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the
group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in
the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to
discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that
threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders
generally receive more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they
are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more distant respect.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The problems faced by leaders

B. How leadership differs in small and large groups
C. How social groups determine who will lead them
D. The role of leaders in social groups

2. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders
EXCEPT .

A. recruitment

B. formal election process
C. specific leadership training
D. traditional cultural patterns

3. In mentioning “natural leaders” in paragraph 2, the author is making the point that .
A. few people qualify as “natural leaders”

B. there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist

C. “natural leaders" are easily accepted by the members of a social group
D. “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics

4. Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
A. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in
another group.

B. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.

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D. Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
5. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on .

A. ensuring harmonious relationships
B. sharing responsibility with group members
C. identifying new leaders

D. achieving a goal

6. The underlined word “collective” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. necessary B. typical C. group D. particular
7. The underlined word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to .

A. expressive leaders B. goals of the group C. group members D. tension and conflict
8. As mentioned at the beginning of paragraph 4, a “secondary relationship” between a leader
and the members of a group could best be characterized as .

A. distant B. enthusiastic C. unreliable D. personal
9. The underlined word “resolve” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .

A. avoid repeating B. talk about C. avoid thinking about D. find a solution for
10. Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in terms of .
A. examples that illustrate a problem

B. cause and effect analysis
C. narration of events
D. comparison and contrast

Session 2. Choose the correct answer to complete each gap in the following passage by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

MY DUTCH HOLIDAY

It was the first time I had ever been to Holland before and when I set off in early September, I
never (1) ... what adventures lay ahead of me.

In order to (2) ... the most of my time, I had carefully planned a route to (3) ... a
number of small islands as well as some pretty countryside. I reached Wijkam See, a (4)
... starting point for cyclists where a local tourist office gave out information. I headed off
along one of Holland’s many cycle tracks which (5) ... out of town and made my way to
Holtheim, where I had planned to spend my first night.

From personal (6) ..., when you are travelling on your own, unexpected and often
pleasant surprises tend to crop up and this trip was no (7) ________ . I popped into a local bar
in the outskirts of Amsterdam for a coffee and ended up chatting with a really friendly man who
turned (8) ... to be the owner of the only restaurant in the village. He insisted on (9)

________me for lunch. Not only that, but he

(10) ... two enormous glasses of beer to celebrate! After a delicious lunch, Johann (11)
... me luck on the rest of my cycling trip and gave me the address of a friend in Amsterdam
who would (12) ... me up for the night. Not a bad start to my first day in the Netherlands.

1. A. wondered B. doubted C. imagined D. realised

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3. A. consist B. contain C. include D. conclude
4. A. appropriate B. adequate C. convenient D. capable
5. A. lead B. reach C. ride D. join
6. A. knowledge B. belief C. experience D. viewpoint
7. A. contrast B. difference C. opposite D. exception

8. A. into B. in C. up D. out

9. A. arrange B. inviting C. paying D. give
10. A. asked B. ordered C . demanded D. fixed
11. A. hoped B. sent C. wished D. expected

12. A. put B. pass C. stay D. keep

Session 3. Read the passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
Whatever you do in tourism, you are likely to have a (1) of contact with other people.
This can be both enjoyable (2) difficult. You will soon find out how often people behave unlike
their usual selves while (3) holiday, or trying to arrange a holiday. (4) they stay in
their own country or go abroad, they want to get away from it all: they (5) paying
hard-earned money to relax from work, and they want value (6) money.

They will also be in unfamiliar surroundings and unsure of themselves. When things go well
their happiness is infectious - it is very rewarding helping others and contributing (7) the

enjoyment of their holiday. When things go badly, clients blame the hotel staff or tour operator's
representative,

(8)
if it isn't their fault. You've just got to keep calm and keep smiling when people are
shouting at you.

PART IV: WRITING

Session 1. Combine the following pairs of sentences using the suggestions given.
1. Richard was exhausted after the long trip. Still, he helped me to cook dinner.

Exhausted ...

2. Joaquin wanted to brush up on his English. Therefore, he enrolled on a course at the
language centre.

Since ...

3. The old woman had never visited Mecca before. She was mightily impressed.
Not ...

4. Harry had failed in his driving test. I was not surprised at all to hear that.
It ...

5. Mr Mitchell was very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.
Mr Mitchell, .

Session 2. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar
meaning to the one printed before it.

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It won't ...

2. You can use it as long as you like, and it won't wear out.
No matter ...

3. My little sister always blames me for everything that goes wrong.
My little sister always puts ...

4. Don't pay any attention to what she says.

Take ... .
5. The headmaster will give special prizes to the top five students of the year.

The top five students ...
Session 3: Essay writing.

Some people say that the only reason for learning a foreign language is in order to travel to or
work in a foreign country. Others say that these are not the only reasons why someone should
learn a foreign language.

Which point of view do you agree with?
Write at least 250 words.

---Hết---
ĐÁP ÁN
Line 1: an ->

the

Line 2: in ->
to

Line 3: what
->

that

Line 4: basis
->

basic

Line 5: unable
->

able
Line 6: see ->

be
seen

Line 7: yet ->
only

Line 8: mean
->

means

Line 9: which
->
where/ in
which
Line 10:
except ->
apart

Câu Đáp án Điểm

PART I LISTENING

2pts;0,1/item

Section 1

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. (a knowledge)
quiz 5. (a) poster 6. (an) oral
presentation

7. series 8. (a) 5,000-word

essay 9. research projects 10.
(a) seminar
1pt: 0,1/item
Section 2
1pt: 0,1/item
1

-3
4

-6

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C, E,
F B, E, G

at
least
64

Sound

card (in/ next) January 6

PART

II: LEXICO- GRAMM
AR

2 pt: 0.05/item

Section 1

1 pt; 0.05/item
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

B C C D B C A B C A
11 1₂ 1₃ 14 1₅ 16 1₇ 18 19 20
D D B D C B D A C C

Section 2

0.5 pt;

0.05/item Identifie
d

and
corrected
Section 3

1. natural 2.
population 3.

consumption 4. development 5.
growth

6. production 7.
treatment(s) 8.

itself 9. disagree 10.
alternative

0.5 pt; 0.05/item

PART III: READING
3 pts: 0.1/item

Section 1

1 pt; 0.1/item
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

D C B A D C C A D D
Section 2

1.2 pt; 01/item
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1₀ 1₁ 12

C D C C A C D D B B C A
Section 3

1. lot 2. and 3. on 4. Whether 5.
are 6. for 7. to 8. even

0.8 pt; 0.1/item
Section 1 (0.1 point for each correct answer)

1. Exhausted as Richard was after the long
trip, he (still) managed to help me cook
dinner.

2. Since Joanquin wanted to brush up on his
English, he enrolled in/on a course at the

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PART IV: WRITING
3 pts

3. Not having visited Mecca before, the old
woman was mightily impressed.

4. It came as no surprise to me that Harry
had failed in his driving test.

5. Mr Mitchell, who(m) I spoke to on the
phone last night, was very interested in
our plan. OR Mr Mitchell, to whom I spoke
on the phone last night, was very

interested in our plan.

Section 2 (0.1 point for each correct answer)
1. It won’t be long before he returns from

Africa.

2. No matter how long you use it, it won’t
wear out.

3. My little sister always puts the blame on
me for everything that goes wrong.
4. Take no notice of what she says.
5. The top five students of the year will be

given special prizes by/from the
headmaster.

0.5 pt; 0.1/item

Section 3 : Total score: 2 points;

Task achievement (25 % of total
mark)

Grammar range and Accuracy (25 %
of total mark) Coherence and

cohesion (25 % of total mark) Lexical
resource (25 % of total mark)

0,5pt 0,5pt 0,5pt

0,5pt

TOTAL

10

I. LISTENING (0.1*20 = 2 points)

Session 1: Listen to the conversation and complete the notes below. Use NO MORE
THAN TWO words and/or a number for each answer.

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. (a knowledge) quiz 5. (a) poster
6. oral presentation 7. series 8. (a) 5,000-word _essay 9. research projects 10. (a) _seminar
Session 2. Listen to the conversation and do the tasks that follow.

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C, E, F B, E, G at least 64 Sound card (this/ in/ next) _January 6
PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (0.5/item * 40 = 2 pts)

Session 1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the best answer A, B, C or D.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

B C C D B C A B C A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

D D B D C B D A C C

Session 2: In each line of the following passage, there is an error. Write down the line

number, the error in that line, and correct it.

Line 1: an -> the Line 2: in -> to Line 3: what -> _that Line 4: basis -> _basic Line 5: unable -> _able
Line 6: see -> be

seen

Line 7: yet ->
also

Line 8: mean ->
means

Line 9: which ->
where/ in which

Line 10: except
-> apart

Session 3. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to
the right of each line.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

natur
al

populatio
n

consumpti
on

developme
nt

growt
h

productio
n

treatment(
s)

disagre
e

itsel
f

alternativ
e
II.READING (0.1 * 30 =3pts)

Session 1. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the
questions that follows.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

D C B A D C C A D D

Session 2. Choose the correct answer to complete the following passage by writing the
corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

C D C C A C D D B B C A

Session 3. Read the passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

lot and on Whether are for to even

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Session 1. Combine the following pairs of sentences using the suggestions given. (0.1 pt
* 5 = 0.5 pt)

1. Exhausted as Richard was after the long trip, he (still) managed to help me cook dinner.
2. Since Joanquin wanted to brush up on his English, he enrolled in a course at the language
centre.

3. Not having visitted Mecca before, the old woman was mightily impressed.
4. It came as no surprise to me that Harry had failed in his driving test.

5. Mr Mitchell, who I spoke to on the phone last night, was very interested in our plan.
Session 2. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar
meaning to the one printed before it. (0.1 * 5 = 0.5 pt)

1. It won’t be long before he returns from Africa.

2. No matter how long you use it, it won’t wear out.

3. My little sister always puts the blame on me for everything that goes wrong.
4. Take no notice of what she says.

5. The top five students of the year will be given special prizes (by/from) the headmaster.
Session 3: Essay Writing (2 pts)

Task achievement (25 % of total mark)

Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark) Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total
mark) Lexical resource (25 % of total mark)

2. Đề số 2

PART I: LISTENING

Section 1. Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each
answer.

Rented properties customer’s requirements

Name: Steven Godfrey

Example:

No. of bedrooms:

Answer:
Four

Preferred location: In the _______________ (1) area of town
Maximum monthly rent: £ ________________ (2)

Length of let required: __________________ (3)

Starting: September 1st

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Address Rooms Monthly rent Problem

Oakington Avenue Living/dining room, _{separate kitchen} £ 550 No ___________(4)
Mead Street

Large living room and
kitchen, bathroom and

a cloakroom £ 580

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Hamilton Road

Living room,
kitchen-diner, and a

_______________(6)

£ 550 Too ___________(7)

Devon Close Living room, dining _{room, small kitchen} £ _____________(8) None

Which two facilities in the district of Devon Close are open to the public at the moment?
____________ (9) hall and ____________ (10) pool.

Section 2. Choose the correct answer

LATIN AMERICAN STUDIES

1. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted
A. to teach English there B. to improve his Spanish
C. to learn about Latin American life D. to improve his English
2. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in?

A. construction B. agriculture
C. tourism D. architecture
3. Why did Paul change from one project to another?

A. his first job was not well organized B. he found doing the routine work very
boring

C. the work was too physically demanding D. his first job was boring
4. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to

A. respect family life B. develop trust

C. use money wisely D. spend time with neighbors
5. What does Paul say about his project manager?

A. he let Paul do most of the work B. his plans were too ambitious
C. he was very supportive of Paul D. he was too ambitious

PART II. PHONETICS

I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the
other words.

1. A. latter B. label C. ladder D. latitude
2. A. pour B. roar C. flour D. soar
3. A. chase B. purchase C. bookcase D. suitcase
4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead
5. A. Prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words.
1. A. amphibian B. champagne C. cathedral D. creature
2. A. accommodation B. antibiotic C. counterclockwise D.

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3. A. consciousness B. ecotourism C. biosphere D. confirm
4. A. architectural B. cosmopolitan C. appreciative D.

archeologist

5. A. consolidate B. context C. conference D.
confidence

PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.
1. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O’keeffe made New Mexico _______.

A. her permanent residence was
B. where her permanent residence
C. permanent residence for her

D. her permanent residence

2. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, _______
employed to investigate the deep sea.

A. can be robots
B. robots can be
C. can robots

D. can robots that are

3. _______ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct.
B. Why dinosaurs became extinct

C. Did dinosaurs become extinct
D. Dinosaurs became extinct

4. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established _______ 1956.
A. while B. until C. on D. when

5. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled
effect on the enamel of teeth.

A. containing B. in which containing
C. contains D. that contain

6. In the 1820’s physical education became _______ of the curriculum of Harvard and Yale
Universities.

A. to be part B. which was part C. was part D part
7. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.

A. the so much better B. the better so much
C. so much the better D. so the much better

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9. Which __________ agency do you work for?

A. ads B. advertised
C. advertising D. advertisement

10. Van Gogh suffered from depression ____________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on B. coming about

C. taken up D. put through

II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR
CORRECT FORMS.

1. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they would have
realized that the second was superior than the first:

2. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the cultivation of rice have
been impeded by recurrent drought.

3. Because the residents had worked so diligent to renovate the old building, the manager had
a party.

4. John’s wisdom teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to see about having
them pull.

5. Time spends very slowly when you are waiting for a bus to arrive

6. Judy decided to wait until after she had taken her exams before having her wisdom teeth
pull.

7. Hardly the plane had landed when Adam realized that he had left the file that he needed at
his office.

8. When she was asked for her opinion on the course, she said it had been a waist of time.
9. I try to remember your name but I am afraid I cannot remember it.

10. I’d prefer to do it on myself because other people make me nervous.
III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE.
1. I know ________ experience that I do my best work early in the morning.

2. I am astonished ________ the way my students can spend all night at the disco and still
remember their prepositions next morning.

3. Is it possible to insure yourself ________ nuclear attack?

4. At school today, we had a long discussion _______ the best way to learn a foreign language.
5. “How can I discourage my boyfriend _______ trying to kiss me all the time?” “Eat plenty of
garlic.”

6. Raise the gun to your shoulder, aim _______ the target, and try not to kill anyone.
7. Small children should be watched ____________ carefully.

8. Would you give up your country cottage __________ a town flat?
9. He’ll inherit the money when he comes ______________ age.

10. The performance on the first night came ______________ pretty.
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word.

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2. Police asked (PASS) ______________ if they had seen the accident happen.

3. What a (WORRY) ______________pair of children. They have to be watched every minute
of the day.

4. Children are taught from young to be (RESPECT) _____________ to their elders.

5. They frequently (MOBILE) _________________ the traffic as they march through the streets.
6. He shook his head in _____________ (APPROVE)

7. He fought the illness with courage and ________________ (DETERMINE)
8. She seems (REASON) __________happy in her new job.

9. Can we (ARRANGE) _____________the meeting for next Monday at 7?
10. If you weren’t so (ACT)_______________, you wouldn’t be so fat!
PART IV. READING

I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D.
Action scenes in films

Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes,
which are (1) __________ as stunts, are usually performed by stuntmen who are specially
trained to do dangerous things safely. (2) ________ can crash a car, but if you are shooting a
film, you have to be extremely (3) __________ sometimes stopping right in front of the camera
and film crew. At an early (4) ___________ in the production, an expert stuntman is (5)

__________ in to work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can

go (6) __________ the wishes of the director, although he will usually only do this in the (7)
__________ of safety.

Many famous actors like to do the dangerous parts themselves, which produces better shots,
since stuntmen don’t have to (8) _________ in for the actors. Actors like to become (9)

_________ in all the important aspects of the character they are playing, but without the recent
progress in safety equipment, insurance companies would never let them take the risk. To do
their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also be sensible and know their
(10) ___________.If they were to be hurt, the film would come to a sudden halt.

1. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named
2. A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No one
3. A. detailed B. plain C. straight D. precise
4. A. period B. minute C. part D. stage
5. A. led B. taken C. drawn D. called
6. A. over B. against C. through D. across
7. A. interests B. needs C. purposes D. regards
8. A. work B. get C. put D. stand
9. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected
10. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.

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The T-shirt, or at least the T-shirt as we know it, was born in the theatre. When Tennessee
William's play A Streetcar Named Oesire opened in New York in December 1947, a young actor
(1) ____________ Marlon Brando went (2) __________ stage wearing a (3) _________ of blue
jeans and a bright, white, capped-sleeve T-shirt. It was the first time the T-shirt had been seen
publicly as anything (4) ____________ an item of underwear and it set a fashion trend that was
to last through (5) _____________ the end of the century. The idea for the T-shirt came (6)
__________ Brando himself. He had worn one at rehearsals for the play. The director was so

impressed by the look that was created that he asked Brando to wear the shirt in the play itself.
Brando may have seen the shirt being advertised by the American company Sears Roebuck.
They had decided to market the shirt (7) ___________ a fashionable garment in its (8)

____________ right, rather than just something to be worn (9) __________ warmth beneath a
denim workshirt (10) ___________ an army uniform. It was Brando, however, who popularized
it, especially with the release of the film version of Streetcar in 1951. A short leather jacket
completed the look that was to be adopted by teenage rebels in many countries for decades
afterwards.

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.

Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become
extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed
the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated
that they will become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this
extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources,
are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of
the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals, such as Bengal tiger,
as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International
laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival and the survival of our
planet.

Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some
countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to
animal reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the
parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables
them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the

increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered

species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted
and killed.

1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first paragraph?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
3. The word “poachers” as used in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the
following?

A. illegal hunters B. enterprising researchers
C. concerned scientists D. trained hunters

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A. indirectness B. independence C. incompetence D.
insensitivity

5. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast.

A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
6. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to in the passage?

A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain

C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger
population

7. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?

A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
8. The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. lower B. raise

C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
9. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas

B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival

D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks

10. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?

A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
PART V. WRITING

I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.

1. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard.

Hard _____________________________________________________.
2. Do all the washing, please!

Let ______________________________________________________.
3. I regret not going to the airport to say good bye to him.

I wish ___________________________________________________.

4. Mick thought that we were married.

Mick was under ____________________________________________.

5. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect.
But for his command _______________________________________.

II. Write an essay ( about 250 words) about the following topic:

Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of

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ĐÁP ÁN
PART I: LISTENING

Section 1. (10pts)

1. central 2. 600 3. 2 year(s) 4. garage 5. garden
6. study 7. noisy 8. 595 9. concert 10. swimming
Section 2 (10pts)

1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C

PART II. PHONETICS

I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the
other words. (5pts)

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. D

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other

words. (5pts)

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D

PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.
(10pts)

1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. A

6. D 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. A

I. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR
CORRECT FORMS. (10pts)

1. to the first 2. has 3. diligently 4. them pulled 5. Time passes
6. pulled 7. had the plane 8. waste of time 9. am trying 10. by myself
III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10pts)

1. from 2. at/by 3. against 4. about 5. from

6. at 7. over 8. for 9. of 10. off

IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts)

1. Adaptation 2. passers-by 3. worrisome 4. respectful 5. immobilize
6. disapproval 7. determination 8. reasonably 9. rearrange 10. inactive
PART IV. READING

I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D.
(10pts)

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. D

6. B 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. A

II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts)

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6. from 7. as 8. own 9. for 10. or
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. A

6. C 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. B

PART V. WRITING

I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (10pts)

1. Hard as/ though she works, she never seems to succeed.
2. Let all the washing be done.

3. I wish I had gone to the airport to say good bye to him.
4. Mick was under the impression that we were married

5. But for his command of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison / jail.
II. Write an essay (of about 250 words) about the following topic (20pts)

Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes.
Others blame for man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three relevant
evidences.

Marking scheme

The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate

2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students

3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

---The end ---

3. Đề số 3

PHONETICS (5 points)

Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.

16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15
points).

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A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.

22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!” Mr John: “____________________”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.

23. You have never been to Italy, __________?

A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their__________.

A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “____________________”
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn’t grumble
26. __________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.

A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. __________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.

A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test

28. As a famous person__________ many children admire, it is important for her to act
responsibly.

A. whose B. whom C. which D. when

29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great of the sea.

A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular__________ the whole team.

A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you__________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.

A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on__________ Prime Minister.

A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been
33. In 1870, __________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices

C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time__________.

A. going B. making C. doing D. being

35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “____________________”
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure

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38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked (SUCCESS)___________.
39. Many people expressed (DISAGREE)___________ with the whole idea.

40. There was a (WIDE)___________ dissatisfaction with the government’s policies.
41. Her health has (BAD)___________ considerably since we last saw her.

42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart

diseases and other (SICK)___________.

43. He was (INFORMATION)___________ of the consequences in advance.

44. I was kept (WAKE)___________ last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
45. This road is so bad that it needs (SURFACE)___________.

III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5
points).

46. Last week unless my mother had had enough money, she would have bought that toy for
me.

A. unless B. had had C. enough money D. would have bought
47. It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.

A. takes B. about fifteen minutes C. to go D. by foot
48. Those people say that it is such polluted air that they can’t breath, don’t they?
A. that B. such polluted air C. can’t breath D. don’t they
49. It is noisy enough in this room, so I would rather you stop shouting like that.
A. noisy enough B. so C. would D. stop

50. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president of the university, is intelligent, capable
and awareness of the problem to be solved.

A. elected president B. is C. awareness D. to be solved
READING

I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all of

them. (5 points)

A. terrible B. size C. hope D. wrong E. loose F.
problem G. want

Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people (51)_________ to be fashionable, but they don’t
want to look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or school, perhaps
because they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the

(52)_________ size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit
overweight. Very (53)_________ clothes make you feel slim, but when

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Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As

(56)_________ as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at
all. The number of public school libraries increased dramatically (57)_________ the federal
government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, ( 58)_________
provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including
their libraries. (59)_________ , many educators claim that since the legislation was passed
federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (60)_________ of new library
technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.

Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school
districts (61)_________ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public
school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the

(62)_________ capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy
suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (63)_________ abundant resources, spacious
facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (64)_________, school districts in many
poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such

areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and (65)_________ books that are
often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.

56. A. freshly B. recently C. frequently D. newly
57. A. though B. with C. during D. when
58. A. that B. who C. which D. this

59. A. Nevertheless B. Therefore C. Consequently D. Otherwise
60. A. fine B. fee C. cost D. sum
61. A. go B. come C. rely D. stay
62. A. educational B. economical C. political D. financial
63. A. for B. with C. on D. by
64. A. country B. converse C. contrast D. conflict
65. A. attain B. obtain C. contain D. maintain
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D (10 points).

Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season.
Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh
meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in
1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of
canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing
and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the
1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however,
inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from
tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily
diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers
to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship
perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s,
northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes,

previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased
use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice

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a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the
1920’s and 1930’s.

Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods
that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford

meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits,
vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.

66. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage

B. Commercial production of ice

C. Population movements in the nineteenth century
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
67. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to_________.

A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
68. During the 1860’s, canned food products were_________.
A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities

C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.
69. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use_________.
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
70. The word ”them” in line 13 refers to_________.

A. refrigerator cars B. growers C. perishables D. distances.
71. The word ”fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to_________.

A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device
72. The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice_________.
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer

C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
73. The word “Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to_________.
A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because

74. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage

75. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.

C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners

Writing

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76. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.

→ Since...
77. She was not only bad-tempered but also very lazy.

→ As well ...

78. “ Nothing will persuade me to apply for that kind of job.” She said.

→ She flatly...
79. The school I studied at last year was better than this one.

→ This school isn’t...
80. You must leave now, or you’ll miss the bus.

→ You’ll miss...
II. Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (10 points)

“Technological advances are greatly contributing to the bad situation of high rate
unemployment”

__________THE END__________
KEYS TOTAL: 100 points
LISTENING: (15 points; 1 point for each correct answer)

Part 1. 01. 10 am 02. Lee 03. June 1st 04. University Hall 05. Health for Life
Part 2: 06. T 07. F 08. F 09. T 10. NG

11. T 12. NG 13. T 14. F 15. NG

PHONETICS: (5 points; 1 point for each correct answer) 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.

I. (15 points; 1 point for each correct answer) 21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27.
A 28.B 29. D 30.A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35.A

II. (10 points; 1 point for each correct answer)

36. THRILLING 37. EXPLANATION 38. UNSUCCESSFULLY 39. DISAGREEMENTS
40. WIDESPREAD 41. WORSENED 42. SICKNESSES 43. INFORMED
44. AWAKE 45. RESURFACING

III. (05 points; 1 point for each correct answer) 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. C
READING:

I. (05 points; 1 point for each correct answer) 51. G 52. D 53. E 54. F 55. A
II. (10 points; 1 point for each correct answer)

56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C 61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D
III. (10 points; 1 point for each correct answer)

66. D 67. A 68. B 69. B 70. C 71. A 72. C 73. B 74. B 75. C
WRITING.

I. (05 points; 1 point for each correct answer)

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Or (Since we didn’t have anything else to do, we decided to go for a walk.)
77. As well as being bad-tempered, she’s very lazy.

78. She flatly refused to apply for that kind of job.

79. This school isn’t as/so good as the one (that/which) I studied at last year.
Or (This school isn’t as/so good as the one at which/ where I studied last year.)

80. You’ll miss the bus if you don’t leave now. Or (You’ll miss the bus unless you leave
now.)

II. Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (20 points)

4. Đề số 4

SECTION A: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer in
the numbered box provided below.

1. Whatever your ambition is, as long as you try your utmost, you will be able to achieve your
________.

A. potential B. objective C. outcome D. motivation
2. It is ______ impossible to tell these twins apart.

A. extremely B. virtually C. basically D. naturally
3. As we were waiting on the pavement, a black Mercedes ________ beside us.
A. pulled up B. pulled down C. pulled off D. pulled through
4. ________ she’s got a job that she likes, she’s a lot happier.

A. Since when B. Just as C. Now that D. Just now

5. Sorry, but that book is ________. We’ll get some copies from the publisher next Monday.
A. out of print B. out of order C. off shelf D. out of stock

6. ________ amount of money can buy true friendship.

A. None B. Never C. No D. Not only
7. The garden ________ as far as the river.

A. advances B. lies C. enlarges D.

extends

8. You can't get through on the phone because the number you want is ________.

A. engaged B. occupied C. in use D. busy
9. ________ you were shocked is perhaps not surprising.

A. What B. That C. Which D. How
10. I don’t see any ________ in arriving early at the theatre if the show doesn’t start until 9
o’clock.

A. cause B. aim C. reason D. point
11. We should arrive home safe and __________

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A. opposition B. disagreement C. dislike D. denial
13. The picnic ________________to be a terrible disaster.

A. turned out B. turned up C. turned down D. turned round
14. This national park ____________an area of 2,000 square kilometers.

A. covers B. surrounds C. consists D. spreads
15. Those gloves are much too small for you. Don’t try to put them on or you

will _________them.

A. extend B. spread C. stretch D. swell
16. This is ____________ the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do.

A. by far B. by chance C. by heart D. by myself
17. The teacher suspected the student ______________cheating in examination.

A. on B. about C. in D. of
18. I am so tired that I can’t take ___________________what you are saying.
A. up B. out C. in D. on

19. There is a fault at our television station. Please don’t______________ your set.
A. change B. adjust C. repair D. switch

20. A trade union membership has declined, the number of _____________and strikes has
also decreased.

A. quarrels B. arguments C. disagreements D. disputes
Your Answer:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

II. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the space. Write your answer
in the numbered box provided below.

Volunteering has many other intangible benefits. It can help you give back to society, break
down barriers of _______ (1. UNDERSTAND) or fear, explore _______ (2. PERSON) issues
and even have fun. It also has a _______ (3. MEAN) and positive impact on your community.
But did you know that it can have many benefits for you, too? You may have heard that
volunteering helps you get into college, but keep in mind they’re not just looking for a list of
_______ (4. ORGANIZE) and dates. Colleges want to see a complete picture of you and real

examples of your _______ (5. COMMIT), dedication and interests.

Volunteering brings together a _______ (6. VARY) of people. Both the recipients of your
volunteer efforts and your co-workers can be rich sources of insight. For example, maybe you’ll
learn about the legal profession from a former lawyer you visit at a convalescent centre.

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Your answer:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. There is ONE mistake in each line in the following passage. Find it and correct it
.Write your answer in the numbered box provided below.

We all know stories about people with exceptional memories who have the possibility to

remember hundred of numbers after hearing them only once. Now experts are saying that such
feats can be taught.

For example, almost people can repeat about nine numbers if they are read out slowly.

In one experiment, ten hours’ training producing only a small improvement, but the result after
practicing for a thousand hours was amazing: some people remembered 80 and even 100
numbers. Similarly, a number of adults can identify only about five out a set of 21 colours what
are only slightly different. But after 80 training hours one person could recognize 18 of theirs.
Studies of 76 major composers show that it took at least ten years of musical training before
any of them wrote a major work. Psychologists are therefore rising the possibility that genius is
the production of teaching.

Your answer:

Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction

1 6

2 7

3 8

4 9

5 10

SECTION B: READING COMPREHENSION.

I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.
Everyone needs somewhere to live and work, and humans will construct buildings almost
(1)_______, using even ice or mud as materials if nothing else is available. In the industrialized
world, the problem is not finding materials for building but limited space and the high price of
land. The solution in most big cities is to build skyscrapers high (2) _______ the air but is there
an alternative to building up? Some architects have proposed turning skyscrapers on their
heads and building down into the (3) _______. This may seem an unusual concept but
extensive railway systems exist underground so why not huge cities? Such places could

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the surface but a special shower system can create the (10)_______ of rain. It seems that
subterranean workers miss real weather even when it is bad!

1. A. somewhere B. nowhere C. anywhere D. wherever
2. A. in B. to C. onto D. into

3. A. ground B. land C. soil D. earth
4. A. valueless B. valuable C. worthy D. worthless
5. A. bar B. barrier C. fence D. border
6. A. do B. solve C. provide D. deal
7. A. attraction B. attractively C. attract D. attractive
8. A. which B. that C. what D. whether
9. A. make B. do C. take D. have

10. A. depression B. impression C. admission D. suggestion
Your answer:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

II. Read the following passage. Five sentences have been removed from it. Choose from
sentences A-G the one which best fits each gap numbered from 1 to 5. There are two
extra sentences which you do not need to use.

International students who come to the United States may wonder about their American

classmates’ prior education. Due to its local variations, the American education system appears
confusing. In addition, the structure and procedures at American universities differ somewhat
from other systems, such as the British model. This is a brief overview of the American school
and university systems.

To begin, because the country has a federal system of government that has historically valued
local governance, no country-level education system or curriculum exist in the United States.
The federal government does not operate public schools. (1) __________. Public schools also

receive some funding from the state, although much of the funding comes from local property
taxes. Public colleges and universities receive funding from the state in which they are located.
Each state’s legislative body decides how many tax dollars will be given to public colleges and
universities. Students in grades 1-12 do not pay tuition. (2) __________. Much of the control of
American public schools lies in the hands of each local schools district. Each school district is
governed by a school board, a small committee of people elected by the local community or
appointed by the local government. The school board sets general policies for the school district
and insures that state guidelines are met.

(3) __________ . Elementary schools are composed of students in kindergarten and grades
1-6. Many children attend kindergarten when they are five years old. Children begin 1st_{grade at}

age six. Middle school is composed of students in grades 6-8 and high school contains grades
9-12.

High school students are required to take a wide variety of courses in English, Mathematics,
Science, and Social Science. (4) __________. A course can be one semester or two semesters
in length. The academic year generally begins in late August and ends in early June.

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graduates after he or she has successfully passed all of the required courses. Grades are given
to students for each course at the end of each semester. The grading scale is A (excellent), B
(above average), C (average), D (below average), and F (failing). A student who fails a required
course must take the course again.

A. They may also be required to take foreign language or physical education,
and they

may select to take music or art courses

B. Most high school students graduate at the age of seventeen or eighteen

C. Generally, school districts are divided into elementary schools, middle
schools,

and high schools

D. College and university students do pay tuition, but many earn scholarships or
receive loans

E. Today, nearly three out of four American high school graduates go to
college or

university

F. Each of the fifth states has its own Department of Education that sets
guidelines

for the schools of that state

G. Admission to a community college is easier, tuition is lower, and class sizes
are

often smaller than in a university
Your answer:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

III. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the
numbered

box provided below.

Environment plays an important part in our life. Many people are aware of this. But few of
them pay attention to how to protect it. These days, it is impossible to open a newspaper (1)
_______ reading about the damage we are doing to the environment. The earth is (2) _______
threatened now and the future looks bad. What can each of us do?

We can not (3) _______ up our polluted rivers and seas overnight. (4) _______ can we stop
the disappearance of plants and animals. But we can stop adding the problem while scientists
search (5) _______ answers, and laws are (6) _______ in nature’s defense.

It may not be easy to change your lifestyle completely, but some steps are easy to (7)
_______: cut down the amount of driving you do, or use as little plastic as (8) _______. It is
also easy to save energy, which also reduces (9) _______ bills. We must all make a personal
(10) _______ to work for the future of our planet if we want to ensure a better world for our
grandchildren.

Your answer:

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6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
SECTION C: WRITING

I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.

1. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.

All dogs are...
2. John didn't celebrate until he received the offer of promotion in writing.

Not until ...

3. We left quietly, so that we wouldn't disturb the children.

So as ...
4. The machine is undeniably of great help.

It is ...
5. We must continue our efforts, whether there are problems or not.

Regardless ...
II. Rewrite the following sentences using the capital words given in brackets. Do NOT
change these words.

1. You should wash your shirt right now before that stain dries. (NEEDS)
...

2. I haven't been to Oxford for at least ten years. (WENT)
...

3. The girl’s behavior was incomprehensible to the Head Teacher. (LOSS)
...

4. Some old people are finding it difficult to adjust to a digital technology. (USED)
...

5. When the minister was asked about the strike, he declined to comment. (ON)
...

III. COMPOSITION

Write a composition (200 words) about the following topic: People attend college or

university for many different reasons (for example, new experiences, career pre[aration,
increased knowledge). Why do you think people attend college or university? Use
specific reasons and examples to supports your answer.

...
...
IV. Read the following advertisement:

English-speaking Tour Guides Wanted

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hard for long hours, please contact: The Manager, Vinatour, 450 Nguyen Du Street , Hanoi.
Telephone No: 04 824 0139.

Write a letter to Vinatour, applying for the job mentioned in that advertisement .

...
...

5. Đề số 5

LISTENING (40 pts)

I. You will hear a woman and a man talking about their work in the library. Complete the
information below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each
answer. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (10 pts)

City library
Head librarian Example: Mrs. Phillips
Hours (1)_____________ to 4.30
Books

Ground floor
Second floor
Third floor

Reference books
(2) ____________
(3)_____________
Book carts

Brown cart
Black cart
White cart

books to re-shelve

books to (4) ____________
books to (5) ____________
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

II. You are going to hear a conversation between a university student and a company
representative at a graduate fair. Listen and complete the form by using no more than
three words and/or a number. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes.
(20 pts)

GRADUATE FAIR REGISTRATION TGS GLOBAL
Graduate details

Area of work: Example: Marketing

Name: Dominica (1) _____________________
Nationality: (2) _____________________.

Email address: (3)
University: (4) ___________________
Type of course: a full-time BA

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Other activities: organize a (6) _____________ for charity
Interests: (7) ___________ and____________
Previous job(s): (8) _________________

Career plans: want to be a (9) ____________________
Heard about fair through: (10) ______________________

Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. Listen to the conversation and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each of the
following questions. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (10 pts)
1. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted __________.
A. to teach English there

B. to improve his Spanish

C. to learn about Latin American life
D. to learn how to speak Spanish

2. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in?

A. construction B. agriculture C. tourism D. engineering
3. Why did Paul change from one project to another?

A. His first job was not well organized. B. He found doing the routine work very boring.
C. The work was too physically demanding. D. He wanted to find something challenging.
4. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to ____________.

A. respect family life B. develop trust
C. use money wisely D. save money
5. What does Paul say about his project manager?

A. He let Paul do most of the work. B. His plans were too ambitious.

C. He was very supportive of Paul. D. He did not give Paul any work to do.
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 pts)

I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write
your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (20 pts)

1. The ______ are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal.
A. chances

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2. The police have been ordered not to ______ if the students attack them.

A. combat

B. rebuff
C. retaliate
D. challenge

3. _____ the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.
A. Akin to

B. Prior to

C. In addition to
D. With reference to

4. He was ___________ with an extraordinary ability.
A. entrusted

B. ensured
C. endowed
D. entreated

5. Four people drowned when the yatch ______ in a sudden storm.
A. inverted

B. overflowed
C. upset
D. capsized

6. ______, he remained optimistic.
A. Though badly wounded he was

B. Badly wounded as he was
C. As he was badly wounded
D. As badly wounded he was

7. ______imagined what would happen.

A. Not for one minute had they B. Never they had C. No minute had they D. Not one minute
had they

8. We were taken out for a meal ______ the company's expense.
A. for

B. in
C. at
D. from

9. Nathalie seems very tough at work. She’s a different person at home, _______.
A. though

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D. even though

10. The entire city was _______ electricity last night – it was chaotic.
A. no

B. almost no
C. hardly any
D. without

11. Henry was overweight, so he went on a strict diet and ______ twenty kilos.
A. missed

B. lost
C. failed
D. fell

12. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for ______
materials.

A. live
B. raw
C. crude
D. rude

13. ______, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered

B. Having left uncovered
C. Left uncovered

D. Been left uncovered

14. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’d sooner you _______ me the whole truth
yesterday.

A. could have told
B. told

C. have told
D. had told

15. Life’s very easy for you. You were born with a _______ spoon in your mouth.
A. silver

B. golden
C. bronze
D. diamond

16. There has been a lot of ________ surrounding the government’s proposed scheme.
A. controversy

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D. consequence

17. You can’t bury your head ________ and hope that this problem goes away, you know.
A. in the mud

B. in the pool
C. in the sand
D. in the water

18. I’m working long hours this week._______, the au-pair girl has asked for a few days’ leave.
A. Even so

B. All the same
C. On top of that
D. After all

19. Everything from chairs and fishing poles to ropes and papers can be made from bamboo.
Equally important, ________.

A. this giant grass grows in warm climate

B. fresh spring bamboo shoots take longer to cook than winter ones
C. a variety of food can be made from this giant grass

D. preserved bamboo shoots can be used in soups instead of fresh ones

20. ______ of all of us who are here tonight. I would like to thank Mr. Jones for his talk.
A. On behalf

B. On account
C. In person
D. Instead
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets.
Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (10 pts)

1. _______ (LEAD) skill is the one skill that can grant you the opportunity to get a good job.
2. The teacher warned the children that if they _______ again, they would be punished.

(BEHAVE)

3. His busy schedule made him completely _________ (ACCESS) to his
students.

4. If you are worried about wrinkles, use a ________ (MOIST) cream every

day.

5. She ______ (ROOT) herself, left the farm and moved to
London.

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7. Next week, the Sunday mass will be held to ______(MEMORY) the victims of the
holocaust.
8. That bicycle lacks a few spokes in the wheels, but I think you can ignore such a minor
_______ (SHORT) and buy it at the low cost offered.
9. The key to the peaceful coexistence of a multiracial community is the reduction of the
social_______ (EQUAL)

10. Some of you must have forgotten to _______ (CONNECT) the iron before leaving the
house and therefore the fire broke out.

Your answers

1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

III. There is ONE mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out the mistake and
correct it. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. No. (0) has been
done for you. (10pts)

0. Most people are afraid from sharks.

1. They have replaced workers with computer-controlled machines in near all their factories.
2. We spent a great deal of time looking through a large number of books to help him find a few
information about Bermuda, but he knew most of it already.

3. Not many people realize that a spider is not insect because insects don’t have eight legs and
neither of them make webs.

4. The school advised William's parents to let him go on the adventure holiday as it might
develop him self-confidence.

5. By the year 2015 it may be possible to travel faster than the speed of the light.

6. Probably a number of people is going to be working on space stations in fifty years' time.
7. It seems almost inevitable that the lead actor will be replaced before the show will close.
8. In general, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a minimum
of distort.

9. The railway police have finally arrested the man who has been responsible to biting all the
buttons off railway carriage seats.

10. Migration is a perilous seasonal journey undertake by many bird species.
Your answers

Mistake Correction Mistake Correction

0. from of

1. 6.

2. 7.

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4. 9.

5. 10.

IV. Fill in the gaps of the following sentences with suitable particles or prepositions.
Write the answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (10pts)

1. His heart attack was brought _______ by too much stress at work.

2. We don’t quite like the new employer’s approach. He seems to lie_______ the job.
3. Learning this long definition _______ heart seems to be an impossible task.

4. At the moment, I am ___________ to my ears in work, so I can't go out with you.

5. The government’s plans to reduce crime came ________for a lot of criticism from freedom
groups.

6. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.

7. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.
8. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.

9. The teacher was deaf__________ Nick's explanation of why he hadn't done his homework.
10. Although Mrs. Parker was bitterly jealous_______ her friends’ higher wage in the company,
she managed to avoid making sharp comments.

Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

READING (50 points)

I. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answer in correspondent numbered boxes. (10pts)

People’s personalities vary considerably from one another as there are no two alike. Our
ingrained characters which (1) ______ the patterns of our behavior, our reactions and
temperaments are unparalleled on (2) ______ of the diversified processes that mould our
personality in the earliest (3) ______ of human development.

Some traits of character may to some (4) _____ be hereditary simulating the attributes that
identify our parents. Others may (5) _____ from the conditions experienced during pregnancy
and infancy in this way reflecting the parents’ approach towards (6) _____ their offspring.
Consequently, the environmental factor (7) _____ a crucial role in strengthening of eliminating
certain behavioral systems making an individual more prone to comfort to the patterns that (8)
______ a prize.

Undoubtedly, human personality (9) ______ the most profound and irreversible formation
during the first period of its development, yet, certain characteristics may still be (10) ______ to
considerable changes conditioned by different circumstances and situations.

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6. A. breeding B. rearing C. growing D. yielding
7. A. makes B. does C. finds D. plays
8. A. yearn B. deserve C. wish D. necessitate

9. A. under acts B. undertakes C. undergoes D. underlies
10. A. practicable B. feasible C. subject D. potential
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word
in each gap. Write your answer in correspondent numbered boxes. (10pts)

What is the difference between creative thinking and logical thinking? In creative thinking, we try
to (1) ______ up with as many ideas as (2) ______ .We call this brainstorming. We keep (3)
______ open mind about the ideas for the time being, (4) ______ the ideas are practical or not.
No idea is considered ridiculous because (5) ______ the most outlandish idea may work. This
way we have a (6) ______of several possible solutions. In logical thinking, we are looking for (7)
______ right answer. (8) ______ we find a working solution, we stop looking for alternatives,
without realizing that there could be better solutions. Most problems have more than one
possible solution. Creative thinking (9)______ us to choose the best of them. Creative thinking
and logical thinking don't oppose (10) ______ other but they complement each other in fact.
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to
the passage. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (10 pts)

Over the last century the world has become increasingly smaller. Not geographically, of
course, but in the sense that media, technology and the opening of borders has enabled the
world’s citizens to view, share and gain access to a much wider range of cultures, societies and

world views. In this melting pot that the world has become, today’s child is privy to facets of the
human experience that his immediate predecessors had no inkling even existed. It stands to
reason that in order to absorb, configure and finally form opinions about this information-laden
planet, children must be supplied with certain tools. Included in this list of ‘tools’ are: education,
social skills, cultural awareness and the acquisition of languages, the most important of these
being the latter. Until recently, a child who had the ability to speak more than one language
would have been considered a very rare entity. This one-language phenomenon could

be attributed to a combination of factors. Firstly, the monolingual environment in which a child
was raised played a strong role, as did the limited, biased education of the past. With regard to
immigrants, the sad fact was that non-native parents tended to withhold the teaching of the
mother tongue so that the child would acquire the ‘more prestigious’ language of the adopted
country.

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goal. In other instances, children are born to bilingual parents, who, if they so desire, may teach
the children two languages.

Bringing up one’s child bilingually is not a decision to be taken lightly. Both parents must
consider long and hard the implications involved in raising a child in a two-language home. This
decision is one of those all-important choices which will affect not only the parents’ lives but
also the life of the child. Raising a child bilingually has a two-fold effect. Firstly, of course, the
child learns the two languages of the parents. Secondly, the parents’ decision will influence
factors which will have a far-reaching effect on the child’s life. Some of these factors include:
style and place of education; diameter of social circle; employment potential and preference;
and, most importantly, the way in which the child views himself and his global environment.
One of the more advantageous by-products of being a member of a bilingual family is
the inherent awareness of two different cultures. This bicultural child inherits a wealth of
knowledge brought about by an exposure to: historical backgrounds; traditional songs and
folklore; rituals of marriage; models of social interaction; and therefore, two varying

interpretations of the world. The monolingual child seems to be at a disadvantage in
comparison to the bilingual child, who has a set of languages and an accompanying set of
abstract cultural ideas. Practically speaking, when a child comes from a two-language family, he
must be taught both languages in order to communicate with the extended family members.
When, for example, the grandparents speak a language which differs from that of the child’s
locale, a monolingual child would be deprived of the interaction which occurs between
grandparents and grandchildren. On the other hand, a bilingual child will not only be able to
speak to grandparents, but will also comprehend where these people have ‘come from’. There
will be a shared cultural empathy within the family. Because all family members can

communicate, on both a verbal and cultural level, no one will feel excluded and the child will
develop a sense of rootedness.

On a more abstract level, it has been said that a bilingual child thinks differently from a
monolingual child. Current research in linguistics indicates that there may be a strong

correlation between bilingualism and cognitive skills. This new research concerns itself with the
fact that a bilingual child has two lexical structures for any given physical or abstract entity. This
leads logically to the assumption that the child also has two associations for many words, as a
word can mean different things in different languages. For example, the word ‘fire’ in many
western hemisphere languages connotes warmth and relaxation. In the Inuit language however,
where fire is a necessity of life, it may connote heat and survival. For the bilingual child, then,
vocabulary items and the abstract idea behind them are both dual in nature and more elastic.
Researchers maintain that this elasticity of ideas may allow the child to think more flexibly and,
therefore, more creatively.

1. In the author’s view, the world is becoming a _____.
A. more culturally diverse place.

B. place where only privileged children will prosper.

C. less complex place to live in.

D. much more integrated place.

2. According to the first paragraph, which of the following was true of immigrants?
A. Children were reluctant to use their mother tongue.

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3. The phrase “privy to” in paragraph 1 mostly means _____.

A. acquainted with B. advised of C. apprised of D. in the know about
4. The phrase “attributed to” in paragraph 1 mostly means _____.

A. ascribed to B. associated with C. connected with D. held responsible
for

5. According to the writer, second or foreign language learning is something _____.
A. people are still apathetic towards.

B. mainly associated with private sector education.
C. that few people take seriously.

D. about which general attitudes have evolved considerably.

6. According to the article, the decision to raise bilingual children is difficult because ______.
A. it may limit the child’s choice of friends.

B. though simple for parents, it can impact negatively on children.
C. it may cause children to lose their sense of identity.

D. it needs to be considered from many different angles.

7. With regard to the extended family in immigrant situations, the writer feels it is important that
_____.

A. adults try to understand the child’s difficult cultural situation.

B. children are not pressured to speak their parents’ native language.
C. adults recognize the child’s need to identify more with local culture.
D. children can relate to all aspects of their parents’ native culture.
8. The word “by-products” in paragraph 4 mostly means _____.

A. entailments B. knock-on effects C. side effects D. spin-offs
9. The word “connotes” in paragraph 5 mostly means _____.

A underpins B. implies C. signifies D. smacks of
10. According to current research, the benefit of learning two languages is that _____.
A. different types of knowledge can be accessed in different languages.

B. bilinguals become more aware the origin of words in languages.
C. it helps to develop different capabilities of the mind.

D. bilinguals develop a greater sense of the value of culture.
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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STAYING HEALTHY IN SPACE

The range of foods available to astronauts is vast, and great care is taken to ensure that it looks
and smells appetizing. Meals are organized to provide an average of 3,000 calories a day,

which seems high for living in an enclosed environment in which there is no gravity. But

astronauts can expend a great deal of energy in doing the simplest things. For example, if they
try to turn a handle, they turn themselves as well. If they bend down to do up a shoelace, (1)
________. Finding unusual ways of doing such ordinary things uses up the excess calories.
The space diet is balanced rather differently from a terrestrial diet. This is to try and

compensate for changes that take place in the body during space flight. Bodily changes begin
as soon as astronauts go into space (2) _______________Among the most serious is calcium
loss, which causes a marked reduction in the mass and strength of bones. There is also a
progressive loss of red blood cells. What causes these effects is not known,

(3) ______________ The heart muscles, with no gravity to battle against, start to waste away.
The leg muscles start to waste away too, since walking, as done on Earth, (4)

_______________ Exercise also helps to reduce muscle wastage (5) _____________ No one
yet knows the limit of human endurance in space. If astronauts can withstand two years or more
of continuous weightlessness, the mankind’s dream of visiting other planets could become
reality in the early decades of the next century.

A. can only be done if astronauts put on their heavy spacesuits
B. and will never be known

C. which is rather more than astronauts really need
D. and are quite noticeable after even a week
E. they start turning somersaults

F. and is vital on very long flights

G. and the question must be answered before long-duration space-flight is really safe

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

V. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (10pts)

The US City and the Natural Environment

A. While cities and their metropolitan areas have always interacted with and shaped the natural
environment, it is only recently that historians have begun to consider this relationship. During
our own time, the tension between natural and urbanized areas has increased, as the spread of
metropolitan populations and urban land uses has reshaped and destroyed natural landscapes
and environments.

B. The relationship between the city and the natural environment has actually been circular,
with cities having massive effects on the natural environment, while the natural environment, in
turn, has profoundly shaped urban configurations. Urban history is filled with stories about how
city dwellers contended with the forces of nature that threatened their lives. Nature not only
caused many of the annoyances of daily urban life, such as bad weather and pests, but it also
gave rise to natural disasters and catastrophes such as floods, fires, and earthquakes. In order
to protect themselves and their settlements against the forces of nature, cities built many

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furies, but often their own actions – such as building under the shadow of volcanoes, or in
earthquake-prone zones – exposed them to danger from natural hazards.

C. City populations require food, water, fuel, and construction materials, while urban industries
need natural materials for production purposes. In order to fulfill these needs, urbanites

increasingly had to reach far beyond their boundaries. In the nineteenth century, for instance,
the demands of city dwellers for food produced rings of garden farms around cities. In the

twentieth century, as urban populations increased, the demand for food drove the rise of large
factory farms. Cities also require fresh water supplies in order to exist – engineers built

waterworks, dug wells deeper and deeper into the earth looking for groundwater, and dammed
and diverted rivers to obtain water supplies for domestic and industrial uses. In the process of
obtaining water from distant locales, cities often transformed them, making deserts where there
had been fertile agricultural areas.

D. Urbanites had to seek locations to dispose of the wastes they produced. Initially, they placed
wastes on sites within the city, polluting the air, land, and water with industrial and domestic
effluents. As cities grew larger, they disposed of their wastes by transporting them to more
distant locations. Thus, cities constructed sewerage systems for domestic wastes. They usually
discharged the sewage into neighboring waterways, often polluting the water supply of

downstream cities. The air and the land also became dumps for waste disposal. In the late
nineteenth century, coal became the preferred fuel for industrial, transportation, and domestic
use. But while providing an inexpensive and plentiful energy supply, coal was also very dirty.
The cities that used it suffered from air contamination and reduced sunlight, while the cleaning
tasks of householders were greatly increased.

E. In the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, reformers began demanding urban
environmental cleanups and public health improvements. Women's groups often took the lead
in agitating for clean air and clean water, showing a greater concern than men in regard to
quality of life and health-related issues. The replacement of the horse, first by electric trolleys
and then by the car, brought about substantial improvements in street and air sanitation. The
movements demanding clean air, however, and reduction of waterway pollution were largely
unsuccessful. On balance, urban sanitary conditions were probably somewhat better in the
1920s than in the late nineteenth century, but the cost of improvement often was the

exploitation of urban hinterlands for water supplies, increased downstream water pollution, and

growing automobile congestion and pollution.

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convenience of the automobile, now increased to a torrent, putting major strains on the formerly
rural and undeveloped metropolitan fringes. To a great extent, suburban layouts ignored

environmental considerations, making little provision for open space, producing endless rows of
resource-consuming and fertilizer-dependent lawns, contaminating groundwater through

leaking septic tanks, and absorbing excessive amounts of fresh water and energy. The growth
of the outer city since the 1970s reflected a continued preference on the part of many people in
the western world for space-intensive single-family houses surrounded by lawns, for private
automobiles over public transit, and for the development of previously untouched areas.

Without better planning for land use and environmental protection, urban life will, as it has in the
past, continue to damage and stress the natural environment.

Questions 1-7 (7pts)

The passage has seven sections, A-G. Choose the correct heading for each section from
the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 1-7. Three of the

headings do not fit.
List of headings

i Legislation brings temporary improvements
ii The increasing speed of suburban development
iii A new area of academic interest

iv The impact of environmental extremes on city planning
v The first campaigns for environmental change

vi Building cities in earthquake zones
vii The effect of global warming on cities

viii Adapting areas surrounding cities to provide resources
ix Removing the unwanted by-products of city life

x Providing health information for city dwellers
1) Paragraph A ___

2) Paragraph B ___
3) Paragraph C ___
4) Paragraph D ___
5) Paragraph E ___
6) Paragraph F ___
7) Paragraph G ___
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4.

5. 6. 7.

Questions 8-13 (3pts)

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage? In boxes
8-10, write

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FALSE if the statement is false according to the passage
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

8) In the nineteenth century, water was brought into the desert to create productive farming
land.

9) Women were often the strongest campaigners for environmental reform.

10) Reducing urban air and water pollution in the early twentieth century was extremely
expensive.

Your answers

8. 9. 10.

WRITING (60 points)

I. Describing the graph (20 points)

The table shows the average annual percentages of water pollution in four large cities in 2003.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make

comparisons where relevant. You should write at least 150 words.
Water pollution by major pollutants, 2003
Cities

Pollutants Taipei Sao Paulo Tokyo New York

Pesticides 28 9 31 13

Erosion 12 20 23 12

Phosphates in detergents 10 6 23 34

Domestic Sewage 50 65 23 41

II. Summary

Read the following paragraph carefully. Use your own words to summarize it. You MUST
NOT copy the original. (10pts)

The busy schedules that most adults face from day to day have created a rising health problem
in the modern world. Stress affects almost everyone, from the highly pressured executive to the
busy homemaker or student. It can cause a variety of physical disorders, ranging from

headaches to stomach ulcers and even alcoholism. Stress, like a common cold, is a problem
that cannot be cure; however, it can be controlled. A person can learn to control stress by
setting realistic goals, enjoying a hobby and/ or physical exercise, and by maintaining a good,
warm relationship with family and friends

………
………
………
………
………

III. Essay (30 points)

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Write an essay of about 250 words to express your view. Use specific reasons and examples to
support your answer.

………
………

………
………
………
………
………

--- Hết ---
ĐÁP ÁN
LISTENING (40 pts)

I. You will hear a woman and a man talking about their work in the library. Complete the
information below. (10pts)

1. 8.30 2. Adults collection 3. children books 4. be repaired 5. be sold

II. You are going to hear a conversation between a university student and a company
representative at a graduate fair. (20pts)

1. Alexandrovna
2. Russian.
3. Dom54/ dom54
4. London University

5. 21st_{July/ July 21}st_{or 21/7}

6. competition

7. cooking/ cookery; swimming
8. children’s tutor

9. project manager
10. (a) friend

III. Listen to the conversation and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each of the
following questions. (10 pts)

1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C

LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60 pts)

I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions. (20 pts)
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D

11. B 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. A

II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets.
(10 pts)

1. leadership 2. misbehaved 3. inaccessible 4. moisturizing 5. uprooted
6. impoverished 7. commemorate 8. _shortcoming9. inequalities/ _inequality 10. disconnect
III. There is ONE mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out the mistake and
correct it. (10pts)

Mistake Correction Mistake Correction

0. from of

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2. few little 7. will close closes

3. neither none 8. distort distortion

4. him his 9. to for

5. the light light 10. undertake undertaken

IV. Fill in the gaps of the following sentences with suitable particles or prepositions.
(10pts)

1. on/about 2. on/ down on 3. by 4. up 5. in

6. under 7. out 8. off 9. to 10. of

READING (50 points)

I. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
(10pts)

1. D 2. A 3.C 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.D 8.B 9.C 10. C
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. (10pts)

1. come 2. possible 3. an 4. whether 5. even
6. choice 7. the 8. Once/When 9. enables 10. each

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to
the passage. (10 pts)

1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. C
IV. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable from A to G on the list and
write it in each gap from 1 to 5. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (10 pts)

1. E 2. D 3. G 4. A 5. F

V. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (10pts)

1. iii 2. iv 3. viii 4. ix 5. v 6. i 7. ii

8. F 9. T 10. NG

WRITING (60 points)

I. Describing the graph (20 points)

1. Completion: 2pts - The writing is complete.

- The writing is neither too long nor too short.

2. Content: 6 pts - Cover the main information of the table yet not go into too _{much detail.}
- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

3. Organization: 5pts - The ideas are well-organized.

- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs.
4. Language: 5pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

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5. Handwriting, punctuation
and spelling: 2pts

- Intelligible handwriting.

- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
II. Summarizing an extract (10points)

Requirements: Good summary with enough content and clear, logical information.
Suggested content:

- Causes of stress
- Effects of stress

- Solutions to the problem of stress
III. Essay (30 points)

1. Completion: 3pts - The writing is complete.

- The writing is neither too long nor too short.

2. Content: 9 pts - Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic.
- Supported by specific example and/or reasonable
justifications.

3. Organization: 8pts

- Present the right form of an essay.

- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion
and coherence.

- The writing is sensibly divided into paragraphs.
4. Language: 7 pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

- Good use and control of grammatical structures.
5. Handwriting, punctuation

and spelling: 3pts - Intelligible handwriting.

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