Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Tô Hiến Thành

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BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MƠN TIẾNG ANH 10

NĂM 2021 CĨ ĐÁP ÁN TRƯỜNG THPT TÔ HIẾN THÀNH

1. Đề số 1

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.

1. A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
2. A. increase B. widespread C. death D. residential
3. A. coughed B. weighed C. laughed D. photographed
4. A. realize B. teacher C. reason D. feature

5. A. treated B. asked C. sacred D. suggested

II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.
6. A. impossibly B. especially C. naturally D. importantly

7. A. damage B. pollute C. defense D. erode
8. A. recognize B. enemy C. yesterday D. responding
9. A. electrician B. comfortable C. manufacture D. accidental
10. A. comedy B. collection C. comical D. calculate
SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.
11. Hurry up! They’ve only got _______ seats left.

A. a little B. a few C. a lot of D. plenty of

12. The technological and economic changes of the 19th_{century had a marked________ on}

workers

A. cause B. effect C. impact D. consequence
13. Using the computer competently is an important________ to help one get a good job.
A. reason B. aspect C. factor D. issue
14. The children _______ to the zoo.

A. were enjoyed taken B. enjoyed being taken
C. were enjoyed taking D. enjoyed taking

15. I'd rather you _______ anyone what I said.

A. don't tell B. won't tell C. didn't tell D. not to tell
16. We were so late that we ______ had time to catch the train.

A. nearly B. almost C. hardly D. simply
17. Frank's wallet is lying on the coffee table. He _______ it here last night.

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A. eat/chew B. bite/swallow C. bite/chew D. eat/swallow
19. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when________ next.

A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet
20. Washing machines, dishwashers and vacuum cleaners are _______.

A. working machines B. useless machines
C. sewing machines D. labour-saving machines

21. I got up late. I’ve spent all day making up________ the lost time.

A. on B.to C. for D. with
22. Both she and her husband are________ work.

A. out of B. for C. on D. in
23. Tom is having someone________ the newspaper to her.

A. bring B. to bring C. bringing D. who brings
24. They were just________ us about Anna's new boyfriend.

A. talking B. saying C. speaking D. telling
25. Your dress is really nice! Who made it for you?

A. - Oh. It was to the beg B. - Oh. It was on the beg
C. - Oh. It was of the beg D. - Oh. It was off the beg

II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
26. The sick needs to be looked after. So money must be spent on hospitals.

27. The accident looked seriously at first but nobody was injured.

28. All the students are looking forward to spending their free time to enjoy their Tet holiday.
29. My family lived in Hue since 1990 to 1996, but we are now living in Sai Gon.

30. She left her job soon to devote more time into her family.
31. We won't mind your being late. Beside, it's hardly your mistake.
32. Congratulations! You’ve gained the first prize in the competitions!

33. Her well-known film, that won several awards, was about the life of Lenin.

34. Mr. Tam, who has a lot teaching skills at junior level, will be joining our school in August.
35. You've seen her new car, haven't you? What does it like?

III. Fill in the each gap with the most correct forms of the block word on the right.

36. They daren’t leave their children__________ for even a moment ATTEND

37. Marry wants to _______ her knowledge of the subject. BROAD

38. His _______ to retire surprised all of the workers. DECIDE

39. Some people _______ didn't come. INVITE

40. It is _______ to turn off the lights when it is bright enough. ECONOMY

41. My _______ opinion is that the students should be doing more work

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42. These workers got a bonus because they did their jobs _______. EFFECT
43. From 1865 to 1875, a remarkable _______ of inventions was

produced. VARIOUS

44. She received a lot of _______ from her mother. COURAGE

45. He doesn‘t agree with the _____________ that there is life on other

planets. BELIEVE

SECTION C – READING

I. Read the following passage, and fill in the numbered gaps with the correct options
(from A, B, C , D and E below) to make a meaningful reading:

Animals live everywhere. (46)_______. They burrow in the ground. They swim in the sea. They
fly through the air. They creep, they leap, they soar, and they dive. A very few - including corals
and barnacles -stay in one place. (47)_______. The biggest animals are whales, which can be
100 feet (30 meters) long. The smallest animals can only be seen through a microscope.
Zoologists (scientists who study animals) have found more than 2 million species of animals.
(48)_______.

Several things make animals different from other living things. (49)_______. Animals eat other
living things - plants and other animals - to get energy. Animal bodies are made up of more than
one cell, unlike bacteria and other life forms with only one cell. Cells are the building blocks of
living things. (50)_______.

A. Unlike plants, animals cannot make their own food.

B. They think they have discovered only a small portion of all animals on Earth.

C. Animals also have senses, such as eyes or ears, that tell them what is going on around
them.

D. They roam the land.
E. Animals come in all sizes.

II. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word.

The Great (51)_______ of Giza was built as a (52)_______ of Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 BC.
(53)_______ it was built a long time ago, its (54)_______ makes it one of the true (55)_______
of the world. The four (56)_______ of the pyramid are put almost exactly on true north, south,

east and west.

Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many interesting
lines. Further (57)_______ study indicates that (58)_______ represent a type of line of
events-past, present and future. Many of the (59)_______ have been interpreted and found to coincide
with known facts of the past.

Was this super structure made by ordinary beings or one built by a race (60)_______ superior
to any known today?

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D:

Lighthouses are towers with strong lights that help mariners plot their position, inform them that
land is near, and warn them of dangerous rocks and reefs. They are placed at prominent points
on the coast and on islands, reefs, and sandbars.

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signal is a steady beam. A flashing signal has periods of darkness longer than periods of light,
while an occulting signal’s periods of light are longer. A group- flashing light gives off two or
more flashes at regular intervals, and a group – occulting signal consists of a fixed light with two
or more periods of darkness at regular intervals. Some lighthouses use lights of different

colours as well, and today, most lighthouses are also equipped with radio beacons. The three
types of apparatus used to produce the signals are the catoptric, in which metal is used to
reflect the light; the dioptric, in which glass is used; and the catadioptric, in which both glass
and metal are used.

In the daytime, lighthouses can usually be identified by their structure alone. The most typical
structure is a tower tapering at the top, but some, such as the Bastion Lighthouse on the Saint
Lawrence River, are shaped like pyramids, and others, such as the Race Rock light, look like
wooden houses sitting on high platforms. Still others, such as The American Shoal lighthouse

off the Florida Coast, are skeletal towers of steel. Where lighthouses might be confused in
daylight, they can be distinguished by day- marker patterns – designed of checks and stripes
painted in vivid colors on lighthouse walls.

In the past, the job of lighthouse keeper was lonely and difficult, if somewhat romantic.

Lighthouse keepers put in hours of tedious work maintaining the lights. Today, lighthouses are
almost entirely automated with humans supplying only occasional maintenance. Because of
improvements in navigational technology, the importance of lighthouses has diminished. There
are only about 340 functioning lighthouses in existence in the United States today, compared to
about 1,500 in 1900, and there are only about 1,400 functioning lighthouses outside the United
States. Some decommissioned lighthouses have been preserved as historical monument.
61: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as one of the functions of
lighthouses?

A. To help sailors determine their location
B. To warn of danger from rocks and reefs

C. To notify sailors that bad weather is approaching
D. To indicate that land is near

62: The word “prominent” is closest in meaning to_________.

A. dangerous B. conspicuous C. picturesque D. famous
63: In the context of this passage, the author uses the term “characteristic” to refer to
a_________.

A. period of darkness B. person who operates a lighthouse
C. pattern painted on a lighthouse D. distinctive light signal

64: According to the passage, what kind of signal has long periods of light that are regularly
broken by two or more periods of darkness?

A. Group occulting B. Flashing C. occulting D. Group flashing
65: According to the passage, a catoptric apparatus is one that uses_________.
A. lights of various colors B. metal C. glass D. a radio beacon

66: For which of the following does the author NOT provide a scientific example in the third
paragraph?

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C. A lighthouse with day-marker patterns
D. A lighthouse that resembles a house on a platform

67: The word “tapering” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Narrowing B. Soaring C. Opening D. Rotating

68: It can be concluded from the passage that lighthouses with day- marker patterns would
most likely be found in areas where_________.

A. the weather is frequently bad

B. the structure themselves cannot be easily seen by passing mariners
C. there are not many lighthouses

D. there are a number of lighthouses with similar structures

69: The author implies that, compared to those of the past, contemporary
lighthouses___________.

A. employ more powerful lights B. require less maintenance
C. are more difficult to operate D. are more romantic

70: There is information in the fourth paragraph to support which of these statements?
A. There are more lighthouses in the United States now than there were in 1900.

B. There are more lighthouses in the United States today than in any other single country.
C. There are more functioning lighthouses in the United States today than there are lighthouses
preserved as historical monuments

D. There were more lighthouses in the United States in 1900 than there are elsewhere in the
world today.

SECTION D – WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one.
71. The painters painted his house last week.

He ...
72. Joan eats very little so as not to put on weight.

Joan eats very little because ………. .
73. Andrew went to the supermarket despite the heavy rain

Although ...
74. They made him wait for two hours.

He was ...
75. David went home before I arrived.

When I arrived, ...
76. He is determined to campaign for his son’s freedom.

He has no …………...
77. I’m always nervous when I take exams.

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78. We were late because it rained heavily.

But for ...
79. It is not worth asking Ms. Hoa to help.

There’s no ...
80. If people drive faster, it is more dangerous.

The ...
II. Make right sentences using the following suggestions.

81. Mike/ offer/ opportunity/ study abroad/ yesterday.

...

82. They/use/change/scene/camera positions/tell/story/, /actors/play/character parts.
...

83. Many species/ plants/ animals/ danger/extinction.

...
84. Plants/animals/sea/,/ however/small/oversized/contribute/biodiversity.
...

85. Nairobi National Park/Kenya’s smallest/park/,/but/you/surprised/large
variety/animals/live/there.

...
_________THE END__________

ĐÁP ÁN
SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.

1C; 2A; 3B; 4A; 5B

II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.
6C; 7A; 8D; 9B; 10B

SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.

11.B 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.C

16.C 17.A 18.C 19.C 20.D

21.C 22.A 23.A 24.D 25.D

II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.

Mistake Correction Mistake Correction

26. needs need 31. Beside Besides

27. seriously serious 32. competitions competition

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29. lived Had been living 34. A lot A lot of

30. into to 35. like Look like

III. Fill in theeach gap with the most correct forms of the block word on the right.

36. unattended 37. broaden 38. decision 39. invited 40. economical

41. personal 42. effectively 43. variety 44. encouragements 45. belief

SECTION C – READING

I. Read the following passage, and fill in the numbered gaps with the correct options
(from A, B, C , D and E below) to make a meaningful reading:

46. D 47. E 48. B 49. A 50. C

II. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word.

51. pyramid 52. tomb 53. Although 54. construction 55. wonders

56. sides 57. scientific 58. these 59. events 60. far

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D :

61.C 62.B 63.D 64.A 65.B

66. C 67. A 68. D 69. B 70.D

SECTION D – WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one.
71. He ....had his house painted last week.

72. Joan eats very little because …..she doesn’t want to put on weight.
73. Although ...it rained heavily, Andrew went to the supermarket.
74. He was ...made to wait for two hours.

75. When I arrived, ...David had gone home.

76. He has no ……intention of stopping campaign for his son’s freedom.
77. Taking ...exams always makes me nervous.

78. But for ...the heavy rain, we wouldn’t have been late.
79. There’s no ...need asking H to help.

80. The ...faster people drive, the more dangerous it is.
II. Make right sentences using the following suggestions.
81. Mike was offered an opportunity to study abroad yesterday.

82. They used changes of scene and camera positions to tell a story, with actors playing
character parts.

83. Many species of plants and animals are in danger of extinction.

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2. Đề số 2

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.

1. A. sun B. sure C. succeed D. sort

2. A. measles B. tease C. please D. measure

3. A. new B. sew C. few D. nephew

4. A. thus B. with C. smooth D. maths

5. A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. wanted

Choose the word whose the primary stress differs from the other.

6. A. important B. headmaster C. interested D. motorbike

7. A. disappearance B. confusion C. acceptable D. impossible

8. A. polite B. accept C. custom D. provide

9. A. career B. about C. receive D. passage

10. A. kitchen B. enter C. behind D. people

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase A, B, C or D to complete each sentence.
1. __________ he has never borrowed any money from me.

A. Last week

B. Up to now
C. Since
D. A week ago

2. ‘Go on, finish the food. It needs __________ up because it won’t stay fresh until tomorrow.
A. eat

B. eating
C. to eat
D. eaten

3. Before he left on his trip to America, the young man promised __________to his parents
regularly.

A. writing
B. will write
C. to write
D. wrote

4. I'm on a(n) __________. I want to lose some weight.
A. excursion

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5. Andrew couldn’t __________ himself laughing at the expression on Maggie’s face.
A. help

B. stop
C. escape
D. avoid

6. It looks like they're going to succeed __________ their present difficulties.

A. despite

B. because of
C. even though
D. yet

7. This motorbike is very economical.
A. is inexpensive

C. doesn't pollute the air
B. uses little petrol
D. is powerful

8. You must make them __________their homework.
A. do

B. did
C. to do
D. doing

9. No one in my neighborhood knew who the __________ man was.
A. dies

B. dead
C. died
D. death

10. Nam Cao devoted most of his time __________
A. in writing

B. to write
C. to writing
D. to have written

11. My brother sang __________ of all the pupils of the group.
A. more beautifully

B. the most beautifully
C. less beautifully
D. most beautifully

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A. listen
B. will listen
C. had listened
D. listened

13. His government insisted that he __________ until he finished his task.
A. should

B. shall stay
C. stay
D. stayed

14. In Buckingham Palace two men work __________ to look after the 300 clocks.
A. fully

B. full-time
C. round-clock
D. full o'clock

15. My father still hasn’t really recovered from the death of my mother.
A. looked after

B. taken after
C. gone off
D. got over

16. I've been trying to __________ him all day.
A. fall in love with

B. take track of
C. take advantage of
D. keep in touch with

17. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to _____ the gas supply to
the flat.

A. cut down
B. cut out
C. cut off
D. cut up

18. She didn't mind __________ going with her .
A. she

B. his
C. he
D. himself

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B. clear up

C. be prepared
D. stop talking

20. Mexico was a Spanish colony.
A. a large coffee farm

C. an international company
B. a farming area

D. a place or a country that belongs to another country
III. Error identification:

1. Light can travels from the Sun to the Earth in eight minutes and twenty seconds.
A. Light

B. travels
C. in
D. seconds

2. How did you manage getting here so quickly?
A. How

B. did
C. getting
D. so

3. Ms Baker , she spent her life working with the health and welfare of the families of workers, is
an successful woman in the world.

A. she
B. her life
C. welfare
D. the

4. My family lived in Hue since 1990 to 1996, but we are now living in Sai Gon.
A. lived

B. since
C. but
D. in

5. You've seen her new car, haven't you? How is it like?
A. seen

B. have
C. How
D. like

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B. that
C. about
D. of

7. Mr. Tam, who has a lot teaching skills at junior level, will be joining our school in August.
A. who

B. a lot
C. be joining
D. in

8. It is not until his father came home which he did his homework.
A. not until

B. came
C. which
D. did

9. The children are exciting about the field trip.
A. The

B. are
C. exciting
D. about

10. If I didn’t liked you, I wouldn’t invite you to my house.
A. If

B. didn't liked
C. wouldn't invite
D. to

IV. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D, best fits each space.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is (1)______ complicated as it is
serious. It is complicated (2)______ much pollution is caused by things that benefit people.
(3)______, exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the
automobile (4)______ transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge much

(5)______ the material that pollutes the air and water, but factories give employment to a large
number of people.

Thus, to end (6)_______ greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (7)______
using many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of course. But
pollution can be (8)______ reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find
ways to lessen the (9)______ of pollution that such things as automobiles and factories cause.
Governments can pass and enforce laws that (10)______ businesses and traffic to stop, or to
cut down on certain polluting activities.

1. A. as B. more C. less D. like

2. A. so B. while C. though D. because

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4. A. takes B. affords C. carries D. provides
5. A. about B. for C. of D. with

6. A. or B. and C. as well D. then
7. A. start B. continue C. stop D. go on

8. A. carefully B. unexpectedly C. gradually D. little
9. A. way B. figure C. number D. amount

10. A. forbid B. prevent C. request D. require

V. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D for each question.
Aspirin's origins go back at least as early as 1758. In that year, Englishman Edward Stone
noticed a distinctive bitter flavor in the bark of the willow tree. To Stone, this particular bark
seemed to have much in common with "Peruvian Bark", which had been used medicinally since
the 1640s to bring down fevers and to treat malaria. Stone decided to test the effectiveness of
the willow bark. He obtained some, pulverized it into tiny pieces, and conducted experiments on
its properties. His tests demonstrated that this pulverized willow bark was effective both in
reducing high temperatures and in relieving aches and pains. In 1763, Stone presented his

findings to the British Royal Society.

Several decades later, further studies in the medicinal value of the willow bark were being
conducted by two Italian scientists. These chemists, Brugnatelli and Fontana, determined that
the active chemical that was responsible for the medicinal characteristics in the willow bark was
the chemical salicin, which is the active ingredient of today's aspirin.

The name "aspirin" is the trade name of the drug based on the chemical salicin, properly known
as acetylsalicylic acid. The trade name "aspirin" was invented for the drug in the 1890s by the
Bayer Drug Company in Germany. The first bottles of aspirin actually went on sale to the public
just prior to the turn of the century, in 1899.

1. According to the passage, aspirin originated

A. no later than 1758 B. sometime after 1785
C. definitely sometimes in 1758 D. no earlier than 1758
2. It can be inferred from the passage that Peruvian Bark

A. caused fevers B. was ineffective in treating malaria

C. was described to the British Royal Society by Stone D. was in use prior to aspirin
3. The pronoun "it" in line 5 refers to

A. malaria B. willow bark

C. effectiveness D. The British Royal Society

4. The word "properties" in line 5 could best be replaced by

5. What did the willow bark look like after Stone prepared it for his experiments?

A. It was in large chunks B. It was a thick liquid

C. It was a rough powder D. It was in strips of bark

6. The Italian chemists mentioned in the passage most probably conducted their studies on
willow bark

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7. What is true about Brugnatelli and Fontana?

A. They were from America B. They added a chemical to the willow bark
C. They conducted studies on the willow bark D. They were chemical doctors
8. The expression "prior to" in line 15 could best be replaced by _____.

A. at B. before C. during D. after
9. The word "turn" in line 15 could best be replaced by

A. spin B. corner C. change D. reversal
10. Where in the passage does the author name the scientific compound that makes up
aspirin?

A. Lines 2-4 B. Line 7 C. Lines 8-9 D. Lines 12-13
VI. Fill in each blank with a suitable word.

LOOKING FOR A JOB

I finished university six month (1)………….., I’ve got a degree in business

administration. I enjoyed the course very much though I realize I should have studied a lot
harder! A few of my friends have (2)………got full-time jobs but most, me, are still waiting
(3)………..… something suitable to turn up. Meanwhile, I make sure that I keep myself busy. I

look through the job advertisements (4)……… the newspapers every day and I also ask all
the people I know to tell me if they hear of any vacancies (5)………...they work . What I am
looking for is something challenging and I would certainly be happy to move to another city or
even work abroad for a while. The (6)………….… is not so important at this stage , provided I
earn enough to live on, because I don’t want to continue having to depend on my parents,
although they are (7)………..generous to me . At the moment, I’m working in a nearby
restaurant two evenings (8)……….... week, washing up and generally helping out, which
brings a little money. The other people working there are very friendly, and many of them are in
the same (9)………as me, so we have lots of to talk (10)………

VII. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.
Use the word given and other words to complete each sentence.

1. They are going to repair my car tomorrow.

I'm going to ...
2. The trip was so interesting that we couldn't forget it.

It ...
3. Immediately after their arrival, things went wrong.

No sooner……….
4. If people drive faster, it is more dangerous.

The...
5. Hearing that an earthquake had occurred was a great shock to us.

We were ...
6. John finds astronomy very interesting.

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Were...
8. I have never seen such beautiful pictures before.

These pictures... ... ... ...
9. "Don't forget to go to the supermarket after work".

He reminded ... ... ... ...
10. It was a mistake of mine to park outside the police station.

I shouldn’t... ...
VIII. Writing:

Write a short paragraph (about 120 words) about the advantages and disadvantages of the
Internet

____________THE END____________
ANSWER KEYS

Tổng: 20 điểm, cụ thể như sau:

CÂU I: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D

6. A 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C

CÂU II: (4 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2điểm:

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A

6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10 C

11. B 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. D

16. D 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. D

III: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C

6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. B

CÂU IV: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C

6. A 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. D

CÂU V: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C

6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. D

CÂU VI: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. ago 2. already 3. for 4. in 5. where

6. salary 7. very 8. a/per 9. situation 10. about

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2. It was such an interesting trip that we couldn't forget it.
3. No sooner had they arrived than things went wrong
4. The faster people drive, the more dangerous it is.

5. We were (greatly/very) shocked to hear/when we heard that an earthquake had occurred
6. John is interested in astronomy.

7. Were we to take effective actions now, we could still save the rainforests.
8. These pictures are the most beautiful (that) I've ever seen

9. He reminded me/her/us/them to go to the supermarket after work.
10. I shouldn’t have parked outside the police station.

CÂU VIII: (3 điểm)
Yêu cầu:

+ Viết đúng bố cục của một bài luận.
+ Trình bày rõ ràng, sạch sẽ.

+ Khơng phạm nhiều lỗi về chính tả và ngữ pháp

3. Đề số 3

Part A. PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY

I. Phonetics: Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest (1point).

1. A. explored B. delighted C. composed D. fastened

2. A. emotions B. fines C. crops D. features

3. A. serene B. solemn C. jellyfish D. endanger

Pick out a word which is stressed on different position from the others.

4. A. powerful B. comedy C. variety D. stimulate

5. A. ordinary B. solemn C. altitude D. communicate

II. Vocabulary. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete each sentence:
(1points).

6. Van Mieu was representative of Confucian ways of thought and behavior.
A. traditional

B. typical
C. memorial
D. cultural

7. The stone stelae were_______ with the name of the doctor laureates.
A. written

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8. The collection has been sold to the British Museum where it will be_______ for the nation.
A. conserved

B. existed
C. preserved
D. impressed

9. She felt intense fear mingled_______ excitement.
A. in

B. to
C. of
D. with

10. Hoi An is famous tourist attraction with many_______ sites.
A. royal

B. natural
C. cultural
D. attractive

III/Complete the passage with appropriate words from the box. (1point).
short, short, comic, character, moustache, terrifying

Charlie Chaplin was an English film actor and director who did most of his work in the US. Most
people consider him the greatest (11)_______ actor of the silent cinema. He appeared in many
of his films as the best- known (12)_______ he created, a poor man with a small (13)_______
and trousers and shoes that are too big for him, causing him to walk in a funny way. He made
many (14)_______ comedy films, such as The Kid ( 1921), and several longer films, such as
City Lights (1931) and Modern Times (1936), which combined comedy with social and political
comments. He was made a (15)_______ in 1975.

PART B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR

IV/Choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D that best completes that best the sentences
or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase. (3points).

16. These plants_______ in a damp climate.
A. root

B. found
C. exist
D. flourish

17. New York is_______ by its hundreds of tall offices and apartment buildings.
A. symbolized

B. characterized
C. realized
D. famous

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A. with
B. to
C. on
D. for

19. About 90 percent of all the people_______ New Jersey live_______ cities.
A. in/ in

B. on/ in
C. in/ at
D. in/ on

20. The match has been_______ from Wednesday night to Friday night because of the bad
weather.

A. cancelled

B. competed
C. postponed
D. watched

21. _______ been diverted, they would have arrived early.
A. Hadn’t the plane B. Had the plane not

C. The plane had not D. The plane not had
22. I won’t lend you this money_______ to pay it.
A. in case you promise B. if you promise
C. if you didn’t promise D. unless you promise
23. The door was locked_______.

A. a five minutes ago by Ann B. with Ann five minutes ago
C. by Ann five minutes ago D. in five minutes ago by Ann

24. This park is the orphanage where lots of orphaned and abandoned animals are taken care
of.

A. look after B. involved in C. dealt with D. moved in

25. Many people come to the national parks to see the work being done to protect endangered
species.

A. plants or animals that may be dangerous to people
B. plants or animals that disappeared from the world
C. plants or animals that are about to die

D. planets and animals that may soon become extinct

26. When the wastes are poured into the atmosphere, the air become contaminated and
unpleasant to breath.

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A. waste B. lived C. hurt D. poisonous
28. “Should we turn left or go straight?” “Hmm. I’m not sure which way_______”.
A. do we turn B. to turn C. should we turn D. it turned

29. “Why don’t you join us for the coffee, Don?” After the movie, we asked Don_______.
A. Would he join us for coffee B. why he didn’t join us for the coffee

C. to join us for coffee D. join us for coffee
30. Somebody forgot this hat. I wonder_______.

A. whose this hat B. whose hat this is C. whose hat is D. is this whose hat

V/ Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the given words. (1point).
31. All the newspaper praised the_______ of the firemen. BRAVE

32. Saucepans are sold in the_______ good department. HOUSE
33. The group called” Friends of the Earth” is concerned about the_______ of the natural
environment. CONSERVE
34. The thief replaced the diamond with a_______ stone. WORTH

35. _______ about the company” s future meant that few people wanted to invest money in
it. CERTAIN

VI/Choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (2points).
36. Elderly people often belong to a_______ group.
A. low- fat

B. poor- quality
C. high- tech
D. low-income

37. Reporters took_______ every word of his speech.
A. in

B. down
C. out
D. after

38. I didn’t buy oranges; she gave them to me_______ nothing.
A. as

B. for
C. in addition to
D. due to.

39. All his plans for starting his own business fell_______.
A. in

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40. Frank_______ when he noticed a large packing case lying on the floor.
A. has about to leave

B. had about to leave

C. is about to leave
D. was about to leave

41. Rosa suggested_______ a suit and tie when he went for the interview.

A. him to wear

B. he must wear
C. he wear

D. that he wear

42. Hello! Aviation Electronics? Could I speak to Mr. Jones on_______ 8183, please.
A. branch

B. extension
C. system
D. exchange

43. _______ the book, please return it to me.
A. Should you find
B. Will be finding

C. Will you find
D. Will you have found

44. The tests in this book are arranged, _______.
A. in order of difficult

B. in order of difficulty

C. in orderly difficult
D. in the order of difficulty

45.The increase from5 million to 350 speakers of English has not_______ because of any

special merits in the language itself.

A. come to
B. come up
C. come about
D. come forward
Part C: READING:

VII/Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks.
(2points).

A new threat to our health seems to have arisen in our midst, confusion and stress caused by
technology. All you need to do to (46)_______ this to yourself is to telephone a large company;
a recorded voice will offer you a be wildering list of choices, and when you have finished

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before you eventually make (48)_______ with a human being. But the stress you undergo as a
result is negligible compared to the impression on the telegraph (49)_______ on people 150
years ago. Until then, message could only travel as fast as a messenger could carry them. But
now they could be sent great distances in seconds. Before long, submarine cables were
(50)_______ across the oceans, and thirty years later, the network reached 20,000 towns
around the world. When the first transatlantic able was completed in 1858, the Queen and the
President exchanged messages, preachers found (51)_______ for it in the Bible, and the New
York jewelers, Tiffany’s, bought unused pieces of the cable and sold them as souvenirs. But
then, as now, everyone was not (52)_______ of the technological advantages.

Information arrived so quickly, often (53)_______ what had previously been transmitted, that
businessmen had to work much harder to (54)_______ up with developments. They arrived
home tired and stressed. If we find difficulty with the Internet, which is technological evolution,
not revolution, our (55)_______ had afar harder task in getting used to the invention in the first
place.

46. A. confirm B. prove C. show D. test

47. A. oppressed B. subdued C. subjected D. submitted
48. A. collision B. connection C. communication D. contact
49. A. did B. got C. made D. worked

50. A. said B. lain C. put D. set

51. A. apology B. argument C. excuse D. justification
52. A. believed B. convinced C. pleased D. satisfied

53. A. contradicting B. differing C. disagreeing D. objecting
54. A. keep B. maintain C. remain D. stay

55. A. ancestors B. elders C. fathers D. forerunner
VIII/Read and answer the questions. (1point).

From the beginning, Philadelphia was a prosperous settlement. At the time of the American
Revolution, a hundred years later, it was a political center and one of the large American cities
as it is today.

Philadelphia contains so many buildings of historical interest. On July 4, 1776, the Declaration
of Independence was signed in the famous Independence Hall now. There we can also see the
Liberty Bell, which was rung on that memorable occasion, and the room where the Constitution
of the United States was adopted. The City was once the headquarter of Revolution, and from
1790 to 1800 it was the capital of the new republic.

Answer the questions.

56. Was the Philadelphia a prosperous from the beginning?
57. What did it become at the time of the American Revolution?
58. When and where was the Declaration of Independence signed?
59. What can we also see there?

60. When was it rung?

IX/ Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers. (2points).

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America’s greatest Wilderness area, the park has had limited access to visitors in 1990. The
increasing popularity of this park is prompting serious discussions about the future use of Denali
as well as how to preserve wilderness areas in general.

One important issue of land use arises when parts of National Parks are owned by
individuals. In Denali, though most of land in this vast tract of more than a million acres is
owned as mining tracts. These mining tracts in Denali were once abundant source of gold, but
they were sources of heavy metals such as arsenic and lead that polluted rivers and streams.
Environmentalists are successful in getting the government to require mining companies to
submit statements showing the potential impact of a mining project before they are allowed to
begin mining. Because of this requirement, many individuals closed their mines and some sold
their land to the National Park Service. Some land owners, however, are wondering if it is better
to sell their land to the government or keep it for possible future use. Tourism in this previously
remote area is bound to rise, as more roads are built to provide easier access to the park. This
increase in the number of visitors creates a demand for hotels and other real estate

development. The economic implications of this are of interest to the land owners, but are
dismaying to those interested in preserving the wilderness.

61. What is the primary focus of this passage?
A. controversies over land use in Denali.

B. miners selling their property in Denali
C. Alaska building more roads to Denali
D. limiting tourist access to Denali

62. The word “wilderness” could be replaced by the word_________.
A. dangerous

B. natural
C. rural
D. pastoral

63. Which of the following is the most similar to the word “abundant”?
A. plentiful

B. sparse
C. hopeful
D. absolute

64. According to the passage, which of the following are pollutants in the Denali area?
A. gold

B. pesticides
C. human waste
D. arsenic

65. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the phrase “potential impact”?
A. approximate cost

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D. possible effects

66. The word “preserve” is similar to_________.
A. protect

B. enclose
C. investigate
D. foster

67. The word “tract” is similar to_________.
A. trail

B. resort
C. frontier
D. expanse

68. The author infers that some mine owners might hesitate to sell their land to the Park Service
for which of the following reasons?

A. There may be increasing demand for the ore in the mines
B. They might want to move the towns.

C. They might receive more money selling their land to developers.
D. They might want to build a house on their property.

69. What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage?
A. to demonstrate the changes in Denali National Park
B. to use Denali as an example of common park issues
C. to introduce the wonders of the wilderness area of Denali
D. to explain the problems occurring in Denali Park

70. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph in this passage?

A. conflict between land owners and environmentalist

B. the role of the National Park Service in development
C. tourist needs in Denali Park

D. wildlife in the park
PART D: WRITING

Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence
(2,4 points).

71. They’re going to paint the house for us at the weekend

We’re going………
72. I couldn’t concentrate because it was so noisy.

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By the age of……….
75. She left university two years ago.

It is……….
76. Jenny does not play tennis as well as she used to.

Jenny used to……….
77. Tim insisted on being told the complete story.

Nothing but………

78. It was to be another twenty- five years before Michael returned to his hometown.
Not until……….

79. It was wrong of you not to call the doctor at once.

You should………..
80. I can meet you if you arrive before eleven.

So………
81. I’m sure she didn’t do it on purpose.

She can’t………..
82. Driving fast is dangerous, whether you are an experienced driver or not.
However………
Circle the letter of the underlined portion which is not correct.
83. She was studying medicine while I last saw her.

A B C D

84. Although the traffic was heavy he went to his office late.
A B C D

85. I hope that she would have a good time next Sunday.
A B C D

86. She asked them if they will spend their holidays at the seaside.
A B C D

87. When I first met him he is working in a bank.
A B C D

X/ Write a description of a city or town in Vietnam you know well, (about 150- 200 words)
(2,6 points).

ANSWER KEYS
Part A. PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY

I/ Phonetics: Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest (1point).

1. B 2. C 3. A

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II/ Vocabulary. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete each sentence:
(1points).

6. B 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. C

III/Complete the passage with appropriate words from the box. (1point).
11. comic, 12. character, 13. moustache, 14.short, 15. terrifying
PART B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR

IV/Choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D that best completes that best the sentences
or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase. (3points).

16. D 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. D 28.
B 29. C 30. B.

V/ Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the given words. (1point).
31. BRAVERY, 32. HOUSEHOLD, 33. CONSERVATION, 34. WORTHLESS 35.
UNCERTAINLY

VI/Choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (2points).

36. D 37. B 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. D 45. C
Part C: READING:

VII/Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks.
(2points).

46. B 47. C 48. D 49. C 50. A 51. D 52. B 53. A 54. A 55. A
VIII/Read and answer the questions. (1point).

56. Yes, it was.

57. It became a political center and one of the large American cities as it to day.

58. The Declaration of Independence was signed on July 4, 1776 in the famous Independence
Hall in Philadelphia.

59. We can also see the Liberty Bell.

60. It was rung on that memorable occasion.

IX/ Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers. (2points).
61. A 62. B 63. A 64. D 65. D 66. A 67. D 68. C 69. B 70. A
PART D: WRITING

Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence
(2,4 points).

71. We’re going to have the house painted at the weekend.
72. There was too much noisy for me to concentrate

73. There are more than a thousand employees in the factory where (in which) I work
74. By the age of twenty Mackenzie had written four best -sellers.

75. It is two years since she left university.

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77. Nothing but the complete story would satisfy Jim (Nothing but the complete story was
enough for him.)

78. Not until twenty – five years later did Michael return to his hometown.
79. You should have called the doctor at once.

80. So long as arrive before eleven, I can meet you.
81. She can’t have done it on purpose.

82. However experienced you are, driving fast is dangerous.
Circle the letter of the underlined portion which is not correct.

83. B – WHEN 84. A – BECAUSE 85. B – WILL HAVE
86. B – WOULD SPEND 87. C – WAS WORKING.

X/ Write a description of a city or town in Vietnam you know well, (about 150- 200 words)
(2,6 points).

4. Đề số 4

B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

PART IV. Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the
following sentences.

1. _________ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.
A. What the woman was B. That the woman was

C. The woman was D. When was the woman
2. -“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - “_____________.”

A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please
C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please

3. As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000 _________ gave them a standing
ovation.

A. bystanders B. spectators C. viewers D. audiences
4 My parents lent me the money. _________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.

A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise
5. It is interesting to take _________ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.
A. over B. on C. in D. up

6. Jack made me _________ him next week.

A. promise calling B. to promise calling C. to promise to call D. promise to call
7. “I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.” - “ _________.”

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10. ________ you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.

A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am D. If I had been
11. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _________ a good answer.

A. put up with B. keep pace with C. made way for D.

came up with

12. Not only ________ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.
A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she
refused

13. The judge ________ the pedestrian for the accident.

A. accused B. charged C. caught D. blamed
14. She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was _________.

A. out of work B. out of order C. on duty D. off work

15. We should participate in the movement _________ to conserve the natural environment.
A. to organize B. organizing C. which organized D. organized
16. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very_________.
A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D.
absent-minded

17. There is _________ in my bedroom.

A. a square wooden old table B. an old square wooden table

C. a wooden old square table D. an old wooden square table
18. “I am sorry. I broke the vase”. - “ _________.”

A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, certainly
C. Don’t worry. Things break D. I’d rather not.

19. One’s fingerprints are _________ other person.

A. different from B. different from any

C. differ from any D. different from those of any
20. He is very happy because he passed his exam with __________ colours.

A. flying B. failing C. imagining D. changing
PART V. From four underlined parts, choose the one that needs correction then correct
it.

For example : The teacher did not allow the students discussing the take-home exam with
each other.

discussing → to discuss

1. A Geiger counter is an electronic instrument is used to measure the presence and intensity
of radiation.

2. A dolphin locates underwater objects in their path by making a series of clicking and whistling
sounds.

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4. Before she moved here, Alene has been president of the organization for four years.
5. That Marta's been chosen as the most outstanding student on her campus make her
parents very happy.

6. My cousin composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major
Broadway musicals.

7. Our civilization is so commonplace to us that rarely we stop to think about its complexity.
8. Ever since the world began, nations have difficulty in keeping peace with their neighbors.

9. Those of us who have a family history of heart disease should do yearly

appointments with our doctors.

10. If one had thought about the alternatives, he would not have chosen such difficult a topic for
a term paper.

PART VI. Fill in each space in the following sentences with the most suitable
prepositions.

1. I'm afraid Tom's _______ work. But Jack's in. Would you like to speak to him?
2. Have you been to the theatre recently? ~ Yes, I was _______ the Old Vie last night.
3. At first I found the work very tiring, but _______ a few weeks I got used to it.

4. _______ the daytime the streets are crowded but at night they are quite deserted.

5. I saw Tom at the bus stop this morning but couldn't speak to him because we were standing
_____ a queue.

6. He is always in a hurry. He drives _______ a tremendous speed.
7. Write ________ ink and put your name on the top of the page.

8. The man with the pipe and red hair is the brother of the girl ________ blue.

9. He sits at his desk all day with his head in his hands. It gets ________ my nerves.

10. The children hastily changed _______ bathing things and jumped into the river with shouts
of delight.

PART VII. Give the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage.

Your answers:
The __1__ (say) “never judge a book by its cover” could not be

more true for Ridiculous Rules by Marjorie Allen. The cover is
completely blank, whereas the book is crammed full of wonderful
examples and anecdotes. Allen is an __2__ (speak) critic of what
is taught to native and non-native speakers of English, and has
issued a __3__ (declare) of war against textbooks and style
books which tell lies.

Take the ridiculous and __4__ (mean) rule of never ending a
sentence with a preposition. The lovely - if famous – story goes,
that Winston Churchill, well-known for his numerous __5__
(write) as well as for being British Prime Minister during the
Second World War, received a manuscript back from an ignorant
__6__ (edit), who had told him rather rudely that he had to __7__
(phrase) a sentence which ended with a preposition. Churchill
responded by making the simple yet forceful __8__ (state) in the

1.

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margin: “This is an impertinence up with which I will not put.” –
the __9__ (imply) being that not to end a sentence with a
preposition often sounds ridiculous in English, Sadly, Allen
informs us that the story is probably mere __10__ (hear), and
that Churchill may have actually only written “rubbish!” in the
margin.

C. READING

PART VIII. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each of the
questions

Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the
effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb
the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice

of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body

temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy,
desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and
temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The
overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may
fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage
since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an
excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.

Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that
would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight
as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of
their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at
one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been
known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand,
cannot drink enough water to dehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not
sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water
intoxication.

The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to
remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures.
Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated,

it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate
thirst.

1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals
C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals.
2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators.

B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.
C. It helps them see their young at night

D. It keeps them cool at night.

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A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying
4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of ___________.

A. an animal with a low average temperature

B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel

C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature

5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?

A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day
C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking
6. The word "tolerate" is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce
7. What causes water intoxication?

A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water
C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water.

8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?

A. They do not need to eat much food. B. They can eat large quantities quickly
C. They easily lose their appetites. D. They can travel long distances looking
for food.

9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?

A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals.
C. To give instructions about desert survival. D. To show how they have adapted to
desert life.

10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated

C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART IX. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space.

When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently (1)______ across words you
do not fully understand. Sometimes you check the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you
(2)______. The strategy you adopt depends very much upon the (3)______ of accuracy you
require and the time at your disposal.

If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is worth

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In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (7)______ you are allowed to use one,
it is very time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are,

(8)______ , forced to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words.

When you find unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if you develop
efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will (9)______ a number of possible

problems and help yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought likely.
Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues,
both within the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (10)______ from the formation
of the word.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

A. put
A. look
A. extent
A. limitations
A. multiple
A. survey
A. or else
A. so
A. surpass
A. derived
B. drop
B. guess
B. range
B. values
B. variety
B. consult
B. Provided
B. therefore
B. get over
B. extracted
C. see
C. examine
C. degree
C. advantages
C. variation
C. refer
C. Although
C. completely
C. go over
C. coming

D. come
D. inspect
D. level
D. entry
D. diversity
D. inquire
D. Even if
D. so that
D. overcome
D. originated
D. WRITING

PART X. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one.
1. This will be my student's first performance in Canada.

→ This will be the first time ………...
2. This course will take us six months to complete.

→ In six months time ………
3. The number of people who understand his ideas exceed his expectations.

→ More people ………
4. She'll have to make her presentation at the end of his speech.

→ The moment he ………..
5. Sharon will finish her exams. Then she will have more free time.

→ Once ………
6. Both Mary and Peter prefer jazz to classical music.

→ Neither………
7. They repaired my car at the garage in town.

→ I...
...

8. This is the last time I will speak to you.

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9. I prefer staying in to going out.
→ I'd

rather...
10. They passed the driving test because of the easy questions.

→ If ………
PART XI. ESSAY WRITING

Some people say that cell phones have improved modern life. Others believe that cell phones
have caused many problems to people. What is your opinion? In about 250 words, write an
essay to assert your point of view on this problem.

………
………
………

THE END
ANSWER KEYS
Tổng: 20 điểm, cụ thể như sau:

A. LISTENING – 3 ĐIỂM

PART I: 1,5 điểm = 0,15/ 1 câu đúng
1. twenty-three/

23 2. blonde / blond 3. blue 4. average 5. computer programmer

6. music 7.( watching ) TV 8. outgoing 9. music/ sports 10. sports/ music

PART II: 0,7 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

1. F 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. T 7. T 8.F

PART III: 0,8 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. B

B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR – 8 ĐIỂM
PART IV: 4 điểm = 0,2 / 1 câu đúng

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. D

6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10.A

11. D 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. D

16. C 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. A

PART V: 2 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng

1. is used → used 6. composes not only → not only composes

2. their path → its path 7. rarely we stop → rarely do we stop

3. great impact → greater impact 8. have difficulty → have had difficulty

4. has been → had been 9. do yearly → make yearly

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PART VI: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng

1. at 2. at 3. for 4. in 5. in

6. at 7. in 8. in 9. on 10. into

PART VII: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng

1. saying 2. outspoken 3. declaration 4. meaningless 5. writings

6. editor 7. rephrase 8. statement 9. implication 10. hearsay

C. READING – 4 ĐIỂM

PART VIII: 2 điểm = 0,2 / 1 câu đúng

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A

6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. D

PART IX: 2 điểm = 0,2 / 1 câu đúng

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B

6. B 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. A

D. WRITING – 5 ĐIỂM

Part IX: 2 điểm = 0,2 / 1 câu đúng

1. This will be the first _time my student has performed in Canada.

my student has given the performance in Canada.

2. In six months time we will have completed this course.

3. More people understand him than he expected./ has expected/ expects.

4. The moment he finishes she'll have to make her presentation.

5. Once Sharon finishes her exams, she will have more free time

6. Neither Mary nor Peter prefers classical music to jazz.

7. I had my car repaired at the garage in town.

8. I will not/never speak to you (again).Bottom of Form

9. I'd rather stay in than go out.

10. If

the questions hadn’t been easy, they wouldn’t have passed the driving test.

the questions had been (more)

difficult, they would have failed the driving test.

It hadn’t been for the easy
questions,

Part X: 3 điểm

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- Tính mạch lạc và trôi chảy (coherence and cohesion) + độ dài (length): 0.5 điểm

5. Đề số 5

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)

PART I. Listen to passage. Choose the best answer for each question below. (5ps)
1. How many percents do graduate schools in the United States increase in applications from
international students this year?

A. seven percents B. eight percents C. nine percents D. ten percents
2. When is the increase the same as?

A. two years ago B. three years ago C. four years ago D. five years ago

3. Which countries showed the biggest increases in applications to enter master’s and doctoral
programs this fall?

A. China B. China, Mexico

C. Mexico and Brazil D. China, Mexico and Brazil

4. Which is the top area of study for international students?

A. Engineering B. Business C. Physical D. Earth sciences
5. Who made the survey?

A. South Korea B. The Council of Graduate Schools
C. India D. Brazil

PART II. You'll hear a conversation between two people. Listen and fill in the blanks.
(10pts)

This is the VOA Special English Agriculture Report.

Some (6)_________ in the Netherlands are spending (7)_________ hundred thirty thousand
dollars on a (8)_________ The people are scientists at the University of Maastricht. They want
to (9)_________ that they can make a hamburger that tastes good and does not require an
animal to be (10)_________

Researcher Mark Post and his team have been growing muscle-tissue cells in a laboratory with
muscle taken from (11)_________

MARK POST: “We have committed ourselves to make a couple of thousand of these small
tissues and then assemble them (12)_________ a hamburger.” Several teams around the
world are trying to (13)_________ meat without killing animals. So far the Dutch team appears
to have (14)_________ the most progress.

Mr. Post says he wants to show that the world’s growing demand for meat could be (15) ______
more efficiently and with less harm to the environment.

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (3pts)

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Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other
three words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (2pts)
19. A. pollution B. accident C. relation D. agreement
20. A. picture B. number C. water D. canal
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write
the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

21. 1. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a __________day.
A. rainy B. foggy C. snowy D. windy

22. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
23. A: Congratulation! You did great. B: __________

A. That’s okay B. It’s my pleasure

C. You’ve welcome D. It’s nice of you to say so

24. “You . __________have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”
A. wouldn’t B. oughtn’t C. needn’t D. couldn’t

25. The trouble started only__________the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
26. You’ll have to __________a better idea than that if you want to win .

A. come in for B. get down to C. bring out D. come up with

27. The curriculum at the public school is as good__________of any private school.
A. or better than B. as or better than that

C. as or better that D. as or better than those
28.Taxis don't follow any schedule: they come and go ________.

A. chronologically B. punctually C. in sequence D. at random
29. Samuel Clemens, __________under the pen name Mark Twain, created characters that
reflected purely American traits and habits.

A. wrote B. who wrote C. and he wrote D. he wrote

30.They received __________advice from their parents that they became successful.
A. so good B. such a good C. so good an D. such good

Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet .(8 pts)

31. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look)_________ for the escaped prison.
32. The woman said she (live) ______________ in this village for over fifty years.
33. The envelop (lie) ____________ on the table has no stamp on it.

34. Peter along with his parents (watch) _________ TV at the moment.

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36. Don’t make the children (come)___________with us if they don’t want to.

37. If you want to see us, come to Tom’s on Sunday. We (wait) _________ for you there at
midday.

38. (Do) ________________ his homework, Nam went to bed late last night.

Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (7pts)

39. They used to be _________ enemies, but now they have managed to bury the hatchet for
the sake of mutual benefits. (RECONCILE)

40. List the problems facing poor and _________ countries. (POPULATE)
41. I think most of the local ________ around here are very friendly. (INHABIT)
42. It is ________ for beginning students to make mistakes in English. (AVOID)
43. Both Nam and Hoa are stamp _______They share the same hobby (COLLECT)
44. Their plan seemed to be _________ possible. (THEORY)
45. Air ______is a big problem in many cities in the world. (POLLUTE)

Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ). Recognize the
mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)

Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to kept between ourselves and other
people. When someone we do not know well gets too close we usually begin to feel

comfortable. If a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response
is to move away. Some interesting studies have done in libraries. If strangers come too close,
many people get up and leave the building, others use different methods such as turning their
back on the intruder. Live in cities has made people develop new skills for dealing with

situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on so crowd trains try not to look
at strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by mistake. People using
newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have one,

they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes..

Example: Line 1: kept→ keep

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)

The birthday cake is traditionally highly decorated,and typically covered(51)______ lit
candles when presented; the number of candles often equals the(52)________of the
person.The person (53)_______birthday it is makes a silent wish and then (54)____out the
candles;if done in one breath,the wish is supposed to come (55)______,but only if the person
keeps the wish to himself(or herself). It is also common for the "birthday boy" or" birthday girl" to
cut the initial (56)______of the cake as a newlywed couple might with a wedding cake.Birthday
cakes have been a tradition dating back as (57)_______as the Middle Ages when the English
would conceal symbolic items (58)_______as gold coins,rings and thimbles inside their
cakes.Each item was associated with a prediction.For example, a person (59)_______a gold
coin in a birthday cake would supposedly (60)_______wealthy.

Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or
phrase for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)

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Over the last few years, the use of the Internet has increased dramatically in French schools,
offices, and homes and this trend continues to grow. Who could have imagined, even in the last
decade, that we would be able to (61) _______our friends, colleagues and clients around the
world simply through the (62) _______ of a mouse and a modem? There is no doubt, like any
invention, that the Internet can be used for good or bad but it is here to stay and has (63)
_______ the way we communicate.

In the world of business, no corporation can be competitive unless it has (64) _______to
the Internet. It has become essential to advertise your product and service in this way and an
increasing number of companies are using this opportunity to reach a greater number of (65)
_______ consumers. Indeed, the bigger the website, (66) _______ professional the company
seems to be.

Similarly in education, the opportunities that the Internet can (67) _______are vast. More
and more students are (68) _______ on the Internet for their research; for instance, a physics
undergraduate in Paris can download information from a university library in the States in
minutes. From the latest research in scientific and linguistic fields to new theories in psychology
and history; all this may be published on the world-wide web.

What will be the future for the Internet in France? It has been (69) _______ that 60% of
homes and 50% of business will have access to the Internet within five years. Children,
students and professionals will be able to (70) _______and explore the world as they have
never done before.

61. A. contact B. keep touch C. stay in touch D. talk
62. A. tick B. running C. clap D. click

63. A. modified B. been changed C. adapted D. revolutionized
64. A. access B. use C. approach D. downloading
65. A. future B. competent C. potential D. would-be
66. A. more and more B. the more C. more D. the most
67. A. take B. provide C. support D. miss

68. A. relying B. surfing C. working D. downloading
69. A. established B. announced C. claimed D. calculated
70. A. log on B. take on C. log off D. switch on

Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write
the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people.
They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone
shows that they are cool and connected.

The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health

professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer
health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate
about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such
ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.

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young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He
would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for
about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor
blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.

What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation.
High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone
companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry
about.

As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile
phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile
phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient,

especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says

they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often
71. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because
__________ .

A. they make them look more stylish.
B. they keep the users alert all the time.

C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
D. they are indispensable in everyday communications.

72. The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________ .

A. meanings B. expression C. transmission D. method
73. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _________ .

A. cause some mental malfunction B. change their users’ temperament.
C. change their users’ social behaviours. D. damage their users’ emotions.
74. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _________ .

A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
C. the negative public use of cell phones.
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.

75. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ______ .
A. the resident memory. B. the mobility of the mind and the body.
C. the smallest units of the brain. D. the arteries of the brain.

76. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ________ .
A. had a problem with memory. B. abandoned his family.

C. suffered serious loss of mental ability. D. could no longer think lucidly.
77. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means_________ .

A. certainly B. possibly C. privately D. obviously

78. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________ .
A. their radiant light. B. their rading power.

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79. According to the writer, people should __________ .
A. keep off mobile phones regularly.

B. never use mobile phones in all cases.

C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.
D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases.

80. The most suitable title for the passage could be __________ .
A. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular.

B. The Way Mobile Phones Work.

C. Technological Innovations and Their Price
D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time

SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer
sheet. (5 pts)

81. My grandfather had completely forgotten that he phoned me last night.
My grandfather didn’t have any____________________________________.
82. It wasn’t until he came back to the office that he remembered his mobile phone.
Not until _______________________________________________.

83. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
No sooner _______________________________________________.

84. You are allowed to play in my garden if you promise not to do anything wrong.
So long _______________________________________________.

85. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
Were you _______________________________________________.

Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it by using the word given. Do not
change the form of the given word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5pts)
86. I don’t mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year. (DIFFERENCE)
It doesn’t ________________________ whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
87. I would prefer you not to phone me at work. (RATHER)

I ______________________________________________________________
88. He is determined to campaign for his son’s freedom. (INTENTION)

He has ________________________________________________________
89. “It is not worth worrying about the past” I told him. (POINT)

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Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)

Some people say that we can get benefits from playing sports. Use relevant evidence and
examples to support this idea. You should write about 200 - 250 words.

--- THE END---
ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)

PART I. For questions 1-5, tick (ü) A, B or C. (5pts)

1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B

PART II. You will hear a conversation between two people. Listen and complete
questions 6-10. (10pts)

6.people 7. three 8. hamburger 9. prove 10.killed

11. cow 12. into 13. produce 14. made 15. satisfied

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)

16.C 17.B 18.A

Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other
three words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)

19.B 20.D

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)

21.A 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.A

26.D 27.B 28. 29.B 30.D

Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (8 pts)

31. must be looking 35. would have been

32. had been living/had lived 36. come

33. lying 37. will be waiting

34. is watching 38. Having done

Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (7pts)

39. irreconcilable 43. collectors
40. overpopulated 44. theoretically
41. inhabitants 45. polluion
42. unavoidable

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46. Line 3: comfortable → uncomfortable
47. Line 4: have done → have been done

48. Line 6: Live → Living

49. Line 8: crowd → crowded
50. Line 9: using → use

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

51. with 52. age 53. whose 54. blow 55. true

56. piece 57. far 58. such 59. finding 60. become

Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or
phrase for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)

61. A 62. A 63. D 64. A 65. C

66. B 67. B 68. A 69. D 70. A

Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write
the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

71. A 72. D 73. A 74. B 75. C

76. A 77. B 78. D 79. D 80. C

SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)

81. My grandfather didn’t have any recollection of phoning me last night.
82. Not until he came back to the office did he remember his mobile phone.
83. No sooner had he been appointed to the post than the new editor fell ill.

84. So long as you promise not to do anything wrong, you are allowed to play in my garden.
85. Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.

Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not
change the form of the given word. (5pts)

86. It doesn’t make any/ much difference to me whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
87. I would rather you did not phone me at work.

88. He has no intention to stop campaigning for his son’s freedom.
89. I told him that there was no point in worrying about the past.
90. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t get the money.

Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)

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The essay should include 3 parts:

a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed
clearly

b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic
sentence, reasonings and examples.

c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)
2. Content: 5pts

A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.

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An và các trường Chuyên khác cùng TS.Trần Nam Dũng, TS. Phạm Sỹ Nam, TS. Trịnh Thanh
Đèo và Thầy Nguyễn Đức Tấn.

II. Khoá Học Nâng Cao và HSG

- Tốn Nâng Cao THCS: Cung cấp chương trình Tốn Nâng Cao, Toán Chuyên dành cho các
em HS THCS lớp 6, 7, 8, 9 u thích mơn Tốn phát triển tư duy, nâng cao thành tích học
tập ở trường và đạt điểm tốt ở các kỳ thi HSG.

- Bồi dưỡng HSG Toán: Bồi dưỡng 5 phân mơn Đại Số, Số Học, Giải Tích, Hình Học và Tổ
Hợp dành cho học sinh các khối lớp 10, 11, 12. Đội ngũ Giảng Viên giàu kinh nghiệm: TS. Lê

Bá Khánh Trình, TS. Trần Nam Dũng, TS. Phạm Sỹ Nam, TS. Lưu Bá Thắng, Thầy Lê Phúc
Lữ, Thầy Võ Quốc Bá Cẩn cùng đôi HLV đạt thành tích cao HSG Quốc Gia.

III. Kênh học tập miễn phí

- HOC247 NET: Website hoc miễn phí các bài học theo chương trình SGK từ lớp 1 đến lớp
12 tất cả các môn học với nội dung bài giảng chi tiết, sửa bài tập SGK, luyện tập trắc nghiệm
mễn phí, kho tư liệu tham khảo phong phú và cộng đồng hỏi đáp sôi động nhất.

- HOC247 TV: Kênh Youtube cung cấp các Video bài giảng, chuyên đề, ôn tập, sửa bài tập,
sửa đề thi miễn phí từ lớp 1 đến lớp 12 tất cả các mơn Tốn- Lý - Hoá, Sinh- Sử - Địa, Ngữ
Văn, Tin Học và Tiếng Anh.

Vững vàng nền tảng, Khai sáng tương lai

Học mọi lúc, mọi nơi, mọi thiết bi – Tiết kiệm 90%

Học Toán Online cùng Chuyên Gia

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