Đề cương ôn tập giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 - Trường THPT Phú Bài (Hệ 7 năm)

SỞ GD&ĐT THỪA THIÊN HUẾ
TRƯỜNG THPT PHÚ BÀI

ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP GIỮA KÌ II - KHỐI 12
NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
Mơn: Tiếng Anh - 12 CB (Hệ 7 năm)

I. LANGUAGE
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of primary stress in each of the following questions. (0.5 point)
1. PHONOLOGY
Question 1. A. depend
B. reduce
C. destroy
D. damage
Question 2. A. attention
B. assistance
C. industry
D. defender
Question 3. A. interview
B. compliment
C. sacrifice
D. represent
Question 4 A. impression
B. concentrate
C.insurance
D. commercially
Question 5 A. hospital
B. inflation
C. policy
D. constantly

Question 6 A. voluntary
B. compulsory
C. necessary
D. stationary
2. GRAMMAR
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
(1.5 point)
Question 1. To win the gold medal in the coming competition, he
train much harder.
A. must
B. may
C. can
D. might
Question 2. The less time my boss has,
.
A. the more effectively he works
B. he works more effectively
C. the more he works effectively
D. he works the more effectively
Question 3. My brother gave me a letter to post. I _________ remember to post it.
A. need
B. needn‟t
C. mustn‟t
D. must
Question 4: The more polluted the water is,__________ our lives become.
A. more dangerous
B. the dangerous
C. the dangerouser D. the more dangerous
Question 5. There's no reply. He__________ be out.
A. can

B. must
C. can't
D. mustn't
Question 6. My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that _____ it is at night, _____he plays his music!
A. the less / the more loud
B. the less / less
C. the more late / the more loudlier
D. the later / the louder
3. VOCABULARY
Question 1. The young man was very happy
he was offered a job in a big company.
A. because
B. although
C. so
D. but
Question 2. Many more wildlife habitat reserves need to be
to protect manyendangered species.
A. established
B. identified
C. constructed
D. provided
Question 3. The panda‟s natural _______ is the bamboo forest .
A. environment
B. habitat
C. population
D. conservation
Question 4. Governments have_________laws to protect wildlife from commercial trade.
A. established
B. enacted
C. made

D. used
Question 5. I didn't buy the new shoes ___________ I didn't have any money.
A. and
B. but
C. because
D. so
Question 6. Viet Nam's successful hosting of the 22nd SEA Games is considered a/an _____ example for
other countries to follow, particularly in honesty, consistence and organizing method.
A. festival
B. peaceful
C. energetic
D. outstanding
4. PREPOSITION
Question 1. Each year, many species of plants and animals become extinct due _____habitat loss.
A.to
B. of
C. for
D. with
Question 2. The president had only a few minutes to dip _____the report before the board meeting.
A. into
B. down
C. after
D. up
Question 3. Did Mr. Tan take __ ________the class while Miss Fiona was ill in hospital?
A. away
B. over
C. up
D. off
Question 4. Humans depend ______ species diversity to have food , clean air and water .
A. to

B. at
C. on
D. of


Question 5. 15,589 species (7,266 animal species and 8,323 plant species) are now considered ___ risk of
extinction.
A. at
B. on
C. for
D. in
Question 6. Many people are not interested ________ reading books as much as seeing films.
A. in
B. with
C. for
D. about
5. WORD FORM
Question 1. Our school has organized different activities to raise the students‟
of the
need to protect the environment.
A. aware
B. awareness
C. unawared
D. unawareness
Question 2. Staying up too late playing games every night may
the health of many
young people.
A. endanger
B. danger
C. dangerous

D. endangered
Question 3. Before the 22nd SEA Games, Vietnam had made a good _______ in every aspect.
A. prepare
B. preparation
C. preparative
D. preparer
Question 4. This book is not really ________. It is a waste of money buying it.
A. inform
B. information
C. informative
D. informatively
Question 5 . _______, the athlete broke the world's record with two attempts.
A. Surprise
B. Surprised
C. Surprising
D. Surprisingly
nd
Question 6. The 22 SEA Games consisted of athletes from eleven _____ countries.
A. participate
B. participant
C. participation
D. participating
II. READING
1. CLOZE TEST
1. Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits the blanks.
Water polo is a rapidly (1) ______ sport in the United States and internationally as well. For anyone
interested in playing or being a spectator, it is important to understand the rules of the game.
Each team consists (2)______one goalie and six field players. Each field player plays both offense and
defense, and the goalie isn‟t allowed on the other half of the pool. There are (3)______ different

arrangements of players in front of the goal. The position of the players depends on the play that is being
run, (34) ______ to basketball or hockey.
One important rule is that the ball can only be handled by one hand at a time. If a player holds the
ball,(35)______is the size of a volley ball, yellow and with rubber grip, by both hands, the referee calls a
turnover and the possession of the ball goes to the opposing team.
Question 1. A. growing
B. grown
C. grew
D. growth
Question 2. A. of
B. on
C. in
D. at
Question 3. A. many
B. much
C. most
D. must
Question 4. A. the same
B. similar
C. like
D. as
Question 5. A. which
B. who
C. that
D. where
2. Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits the blanks.
Reading is one of the simplest forms of relaxation for mind and body. Relaxation reading helps us take
our minds (1)_________our problems if even only for a short time, which helps to reduce stress levels. The
pressures of work and life these days mean that more people are getting stressed and (2)_______ it difficult

to relax. A good story can aid you in relaxing the mind.
Reading can also be fun. Lately, fewer people are reading books and more people are watching
television and playing video games. Many people have forgotten how much fun it is to read a book. A book
can open a world of excitement and adventure for the reader. Reading helps improve your knowledge and
(3)_______ your understanding of the world.
Choosing a book that suits you is as (4)_________ as choosing a DVD! There are many different kinds
of books, and authors have different styles of writing. Most people have a favorite actor or kind of film. It is
just as easy to have a favorite book or author. There are books for everyone: Fiction, Romance, Thriller,
Action Adventure, or Horror. Why don‟t you start reading a new book today? You might be lucky
(5)_______ to find a book that changes your life!
Question 1: A. on
B. in
C. off
D. for
Question 2: A. find
B. see
C. feel
D. discover


Question 3: A. rises
B. reduces
C. increases
D. gets up
Question 4: A. ease
B. easy
C. easily
D. uneasy
Question 5: A. too
B. such

C. so
D. enough
3. Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits the blanks.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future because
they have been (1) _____ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found
nowhere else in the world but they are (2) _____ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents
and non-native plants.
The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to prevent the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian
plants with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the wild. Since 1990, (3) _____ a result of their 'Plant
Extinction Prevention Program', sixteen species have been brought into cultivation and three species have
been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to protect
plants in the wild.
In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (4) _____ collecting genetic material from the
remaining plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild
populations and (5)_______________ possible reintroduce species into reserves.
1. A. disappeared
B. reduced
C. increased
D. developed
2. A. guarded
B. invested
C. conserved
D. threatened
3. A. so
B. due
C. as
D. but
4. A. at
B. for

C. with
D. on
5. A. where
B. which
C. who
D. whose
2. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Will people still read books 100 years from now? A few years ago, many people would have
said no. It seemed likely that computers and the Internet would replace books. Now, however, most
experts think that books are here to stay.
There are a number of reasons why computers will not replace books entirely. One reason is
that books on paper are much cheaper than computers. And books do not need a power source. You
can read a book for as long as you want and wherever you want. You never have to worry about
losing power. Also, many people feel more comfortable reading words in a book than reading them
on a computer screen because it is less tiring to the eyes.
Will books in the future be exactly the same as the books you can buy today? The answer to
that is no. In the future, you may only need to buy one book. With this book, you will be able to read
novels, plays, and newspapers. It will look like today's books, but it will be electronic.
One of the people working on the book of the future is Professor Joseph Jacobson from
Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Professor Jacobson's electronic book will have a small
button on the side. When you press the button, words will instantly appear on the page. When you
want to read a different story, you can push the button again and a new story will quickly appear.
(Adapted from )
Question 1: The phrase “are here to stay” in the first paragraph mostly means
.
A. won‟t come
B. are nearby
C. won't disappear
D. are useless

Question 2: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Reading today‟s books needs a power source.
B. Reading words on computer screens is tiring to the eyes.
C. In the future, computers will replace paper books completely.
D. Books will disappear completely sooner or later.
Question 3: What will the book of the future look like?
A. It will look like a book you buy today.
B. It will look like a computer.
C. It will look different from today's books.
D. We don't know what it will look like.
Question 4: The pronoun “them” in paragraph 2 refers to
.
A. people
B. computers
C. words
D. eyes
Question 5: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The decline of today's books.
B. How to use an electronic book.
C. The book of the future.
D. Why a power source is important.


2. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Football is one of the world‟s most popular sports .People have played the game for hundreds of
years and almost every country has a national football team .A football match consists of two
teams with eleven players on each side .Each team is on one half of the pitch at the start of the
game .When the referee blows his whistle, the game begins . The object of the game is to score
goals to the other team .A goal is scored by putting the ball in the other team‟s net, either with
your foot or head .Each football match lasts for ninety minutes .There is a half-time break after

forty-five minutes which lasts for about fifteen minutes
The team that has scored the most goals by the end of the match is the winner .If no team
has scored a goal ,the match is called a draw .The goalkeeper is the person who stands between the
goalposts and tries to stop people scoring goals .He is the only player who can touch the ball with
his hands .The ball is not allowed to go outside of the pitch .If it does ,the game stops for a short
time .
1. A football match starts when ………….
A. Both teams are on the pitch
B. each team is on one half of the pitch
C. Everybody is ready
D. the referee blows his whistle
2. How long does a football game last ?
A. one hour and a quarter
B. One hour and a half
C. three quarter of an hour
D. a quarter of an hour
3. A match is called a nil-draw if ………….
A. All the players score goals
B. both teams score lots of goals
C. no goals have been scored
D. one team scored more goals than the other
4.What is the goalkeeper’s job?
A. He must stand between the goalposts.
B. He must try to stop goals with his feet.
C. He must try to stop the ball going into the net.
D. He must not go outside the goalpost.
5. Which of the following sentences is TRUE about football rules ?
A. all players can handle the ball with their hands during the match
B. The game stops for a while when the ball goes outside the line of the pitch
C. A goal is scored by hitting the ball into the other team „s net with the foot only

D. The players are not allowed to go outside the line of the pitch
3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
The 22nd SEA Games, hosted this year by Vietnam, has joined the international movement to rid sports of
tobacco. For the first time, the regional sporting event will be tobacco-free under a landmark cooperative
agreement signed in April 2003 between the World Health Organization (WHO), the 22nd SEA Games
Organizing Committee and the Vietnamese Ministry of Health. Hanoi Health Department has organized a
press seminar to celebrate and raise awareness about the tobacco-free SEA Games. The 22nd SEA Games is
the first games hosted by Vietnam and 10 countries from the Southeast Asian region with nearly 8,000
athletes and coaches will participate. It will be the first tobacco-free international sporting event in Vietnam,
joining other international tobacco-free sporting events such as the FIFA World Cup 2002, and the Winter
Olympic Games 2002. The 22nd SEA Games will ban all sales, advertising and other promotion of tobacco
products, and restricts smoking in all Games venues. The aim is to protect spectators, athletes, event staff,
media and other visitors from the serious health hazards of second-hand tobacco smoke, as well as to change
public attitudes about the social acceptability of smoking. Madame Pascale Brudon, WHO Representative in
Vietnam, stated, "Vietnam has established 3 years ago a comprehensive, ambitious national tobacco control
policy and a national tobacco control program. The tobacco-free 22nd SEA Games will be yet another area
where Vietnam is leading the way for other countries in the region and the world in protecting its citizens
from the debilitating and disastrous consequences of tobacco use." WHO has provided funding and technical
assistance to the SEA Games Organizing Committee and Vietnamese Ministry of Health to train of over
4,000 SEA Games organizers and volunteers on the implementation of the tobaccofree policy. An
international team of trainers from the Ministry of Health, International Organization for Good Temper
(lOGT), WHO and International Development Enterprises (IDE) began a series of national training


workshops for volunteers in April, 2003.The tobacco-free SEA Games are an inspiration and a model for
other sport events, big and small, not only in Vietnam but also in the Southeast Asian and Western Pacific
Region.
1. In the 22nd SEA Games _______.
A. there will be the attendance of athletes from the World Health Organization
B. smoking is not allowed

C. smoking is only for the leader, not any athletes
D. is held by the Vietnamese Ministry of Health
2. According to the text, _______.
A. Vietnam has ever organized several tobacco-free sport events before the 22nd SEA Games
B. the tobacco-free SEA Games in Vietnam has not been approved by any world organizations
C. the tobacco-free SEA Games is not announced to newspapers and magazines
D. the tobacco-free SEA Games in Vietnam has been encouraged and supported by many world
organizations
3. According to the third paragraph, _______.
A. tobacco companies can have an advertising campaign during the SEA Games
B. second-hand tobacco smoke cannot cause any harm to the athletes in the 22nd SEA Games
C. cigarettes are not allowed to sell in the 22nd SEA Games venues
D. everyone can buy cigarettes in the 22nd SEA Games venues except the athletes
4. One of the aims of the tobacco-free SEA Games is ______________
A. to sell more and more tobacco during the event
B. to change public attitudes about the social acceptability of smoking
C. to reduce the production of tobacco
D. to help athletes to solve the problems of the serious health hazards
5. Which sentence is not true?
A. Vietnam itself has to pay a lot for the volunteers on the implementation of the tobacco-free policy.
B. The tobacco-free SEA Games in Vietnam get great support from several world organizations
C. The tobacco-free SEA Games is considered a model for other sport events.
D. There are national training workshops for volunteers in April, 2003 for the tobacco-free SEA Games.
III. WRITING
1. ERROR IDENTIFICATION
Choose the underlined part A, B, C, or D that needs correcting to make a meaningful
sentence. (0.5 point)
Question 1: Reading books have always been my hobby since I was very young.
A. reading
B. have always been

C. was
D. very young
Question 2: Thousands of animal and plant species around the globe threaten with extinction each year.
A. thousands
B. around
C. threaten
D. each
Question 3. The girl heard the noise while she is watching her favorite TV program.
A. the
B. while
C.is watching
D. favorite
Question 4. They have set up a research project to investigating the harmful effects of air pollution.
A. set up
B. research
C. investigating
D. effects
Question 5. Such human activities as pollution, drainage of wetlands, cutting and clearing of forests,
urbanization, and road and dam construction has destroyed or seriously damaged available habitats.
A. Such
B. drainage
C. clearing
D. has destroyed
Question 6. There are thousands of kinds of bacteria, many of whom are beneficial.
A. thousands
B. many
C. whom
D. beneficial.
2. REWRITING
Rewrite the following sentences using the guided initials/suggestion to make meaningful

sentences.
a. Comparison
Question 1: No other question in the test is as complicated as the final one.
The final___________________________________________________________
Question 2: The Nile is longer than any other river in the world.
The Nile____________________________________________________________
Question 3: I've never met any more dependable person than George.
George __________________________________________________________


b. Doubled Comparison
Question 1: You work hard, you will get good results.
The harder____________________________________________________________
Question 2: His impatience increased when he had to wait long.
The longer __________________________________________________________
Question 3: As this road gets busy, it becomes dangerous.
The ________________________________________________________________
c. Modal Verbs
Question 1: If I were you, I would pay more attention to my study.
You should
_________
Question 2: I‟m sure you are very tired after working so hard.
You must _____________________________________________________________
Question 3: Students are not allowed to use mobile phones in class.
Students must __________________________________________________________
d. Modal verbs in passive
Question 1: It is likely that an effective cure for the disease will be found out soon.
An effective cure for the disease may
________
Question 2: They shouldn‟t have played the football match in such bad weather.

The football match _______________________________________________
Question 3: Governments should offer poor women more help.
Poor women ___________________________________________________________
3. WRITE A PARAGRAPH.
1. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about a book that you have read. (1.0
point) Your writing should mention:
 The title/ type of book/ author/main character
 The brief content
 Your opinion of the book
2. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about a kind of water sport that you
like. (1.0 point) Your writing should mention:
 The name of sport /
 Where it is played/ number of player/ how to play it
 Your opinion of this kind of sport.
3. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of reading books. The following
prompts might be helpful to you. (1.0 point)
– Widening knowledge
– Improving language
– Relaxing
THE END