20 ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH CỦA BỘ GDĐT (CÓ ĐÁP ÁN, GIẢI THÍCH, DỊCH NGHĨA)

ĐỀ SỐ 1
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. watched
B. collapsed
C. caused
D. laughed
Question 2: A. ship
B. lift
C. fit
D. drive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. implant
B. waver
C. worship
D. double
Question 4: A. summary
B. interact
C. portable
D. specify
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: People like to be made to feel important, ______?
A. did they

B. don’t they
C. were they
D. aren’t they
Question 6: Joe’s leg ______ while he was playing football.
A. broke
B. was breaking
C. was broken
D. was being broken
Question 7: I didn't realize we had to write each answer ______ a new sheet of paper.
A. for
B. to
C. in
D. on
Question 8: ______ you drive, the more likely you are to have an accident.
A. Fastest
B. The fastest
C. Faster
D. The faster
Question 9: She gave him a ________ wallet as a gift at his birthday party.
A. small brown leather B. small leather brown C. brown small leather D. leather small brown
Question 10: He has taught many pupils of all ages since he ______ our school.
A. joins
B. joined
C. will join
D. was joining
Question 11: He hated being in the army ______ he had to obey commands.
A. because of
B. instead of
C. because
D. although

Question 12: You should take your car in for a service ______.
A. until it was starting to make weird noises B. because it's starting to make weird noises
C. in case it had started to make weird noises D. as long as it has started to make weird noises
Question 13: ________ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. To win
B. Being won
C. Having won
D. Won
Question 14: The fund provides money to clean up chemically polluted ______ sites.
A. industrial
B. industry
C. industrialize
D. industrially
Question 15: He ______ playing the piano to answer the door.
A. left off
B. let out
C. put off
D. put out
Question 16: I don't let the children ______ sweet fizzy drinks.
A. make
B. take
C. throw
D. have


Question 17: The new teaching ______ encourage children to think for themselves.
A. methods
B. subjects
C. tools
D. locations

Question 18: She didn’t do much, but she got the lion’s ______ of the attention from the teachers.
A. part
B. bite
C. share
D. meal
Question 19: We want clean rivers and lakes, where you can swim without risk to your ______ .
A. thought
B. health
C. feeling
D. mind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: This booklet provides useful information about local services.
A. helpful
B. medical
C. grateful
D. similar
Question 21: What the dogs do is a natural function but where they do it is chosen by humans.
A. feature

B. portion

C. part

D. role

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We need to think carefully about the possible consequences of this decision.
A. smoothly

B. solemnly
C. incautiously
Question 23: My mother feels a bit under the weather today.
A. wealthy
B. healthy
C. weak

D. seriously
D. sick

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Tom is inviting Linda to his birthday party.
Tom: “Would you like to come to my birthday party next week?”
Linda: “__________”
A. Why not?
B. Yes, I’d love to.
C. I don’t think so.
D. No, I’d love to.
Question 25: Minh want to borrow Hoa’s pencil as he left his at home.
Minh: “May I borrow your pencil for a while?”
Hoa: “__________”
A. Sure.
B. Yes, you can.
C. Why don’t you carry yours?
D. No, you can.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The Pennsylvania Department of Health is working to ensure all enrolled vaccine providers
have information publicly available for those currently eligible to be vaccinated. This map will be

(26) ________ weekly on Monday afternoon. Click on a marker to see details on vaccination
locations. All locations listed on the map are enrolled providers. The dark blue circles represent
locations (27) ________ received vaccine from the Pennsylvania Department of Health (28)
________ the light blue diamonds are locations which received vaccine directly from the federal
government. It is important to note that the supply of vaccine compared to the demand is very
limited. Please note that an allocation of vaccine does not guarantee that appointments are still
available. Contact the provider directly to schedule an appointment if you are eligible in Phase 1A.


This map is intended for people seeking their first (29) ________ of vaccine. If you already
received your first dose of Pfizer or Moderna vaccine, you should return to
provider for your second dose regardless of whether they appear on this map.
Question 26: A. prevented
B. updated
C. discussed
Question 27: A. who
B. where
C. whose
Question 28: A. and
B. although
C. because
Question 29: A. piece
B. dose
C. drop
Question 30: A. each
B. another
C. same

the (30) ________
D. realized

D. which
D. but
D. unit
D. every

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In both the Convention on the Rights of the Child and the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs), countries committed to end violence against children. The SDGs call for the end of abuse,
exploitation and all forms of violence and torture against children by 2030. UNICEF works with
governments and partners worldwide to prevent and respond to violence against children in all
contexts.
We collaborate with governments across sectors – including health, education, the justice
system, and other social services – and with partners in business, civil society, faith-based
organizations and the media to prevent and respond to violence against children. At the national
and local levels, our efforts strengthen laws and policies to improve public service delivery for
children and families in their homes, communities and schools.
We also support parents and caregivers through parenting initiatives, while working with
young people themselves to ensure their voices shape UNICEF programming. And we work with
communities, too, to tackle harmful behaviours and social norms, advocating for social change
that promotes safe environments.
UNICEF plays a pivotal role in establishing global alliances and setting technical guidance
to comprehensively address violence against children. By improving data availability and building
evidence, we help raise awareness, enhance political will and hold decision makers to account.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Violence against Children and Development
B. UNICEF’s Response to Violence against Children
C. All Violence against Children is Preventable
D. Typical Violence against Children
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, UNICEF works with governments and partners

worldwide because ________.
A. It tries to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals
B. It ignores all forms of violence and torture against children
C. It cooperates economically more with governments
D. It wants to prevent violence against children
Question 33: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. behaviours
B. social norms
C. social change
D. environments


Question 34: The word “pivotal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. crucial
B. anxious
C. senior
D. secret
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a method
UNICEF does to prevent violence against children?
A. Collaborating with governments
B. Strengthening laws and policies
C. Supporting parents and caregivers
D. Asking decision makers to improving data
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Simply put, children are not equipped to manage life on their own. After all, children can’t
earn income and provide for their own economic security. They need a stable home and strong
parents who are committed to their well-being. Children need to feel safe and protected to engage
in a healthy way with the world.
When children feel protected, they can enjoy the magic and wonder of childhood. They

won’t need to waste energy worrying about issues that they can’t control and can engage in
meaningful play and favorite pastimes. If difficulties do arise, children can trust that their parents
will handle those issues as well.
While physical protection is important, don’t overlook the importance of family providing
emotional protection. You may have concerns about finances, the health of aging family members,
or the stability of your employment. These are common concerns for adults, but it’s usually best
to shield children from unnecessary burdens that they have little or no influence over. By doing
so, you give them better odds of being able to shoulder the emotional burdens that are typical for
their age - keeping up with homework, making new friends, and so forth.
What if a serious issue arises? While it may be necessary to involve them at some point, it
should be done in a way that is age-appropriate, and only after you have discussed the issue with
your partner, spouse, or other adults. Make sure such conversations are not able to be overheard
by children. Then, when it’s time to discuss the concern with them, limit the details to those that
are appropriate, while answering their questions honestly. In doing so, you’ll help your children
feel secure and loved.
When serious difficulties arise, seek support from trusted friends and family to ensure you
have enough time for self-care and reflection. Taking care of yourself is key to ensuring that you
can be a sensitive and loving parent when your children need you most.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Income and economic security
B. Concerns about Finances
C. Families Provide Protection
D. Why a serious issue arises
Question 37: The word "magic" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. affair
B. study
C. level
D. charm
Question 38: In paragraph 2, children can enjoy their childhood when ______.
A. they can’t control some issues

B. they don’t have meaningful play and favorite pastimes


C. they can handle issues they encounter as well
D. they feel protected
Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. concerns
B. children
C. burdens
D. odds
Question 40: The word “appropriate” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. relevant
B. envious
C. critical
D. tolerant
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A stable home and strong parents are crucial to children’s well-being.
B. It’s also important for the family to provide children with emotional protection.
C. All adults’ conversations must be overheard by children.
D. Parents should be sensitive and available when children need them most.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3?
A. Only physical protection is important, other things can be overlooked.
B. Children themselves have their own burden, so don’t force them to shoulder more.
C. Children also have concerns about finances, the health of aging family members.
D. All common concerns for adults must be discussed directly with children.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: He left London 2 years ago and I didn’t see him since then.
A. London
B. ago

C. didn’t see
D. since
Question 44: Australia has their own cultural identity, which is very different from that of Britain.
A. their
B. identity
C. very
D. that
Question 45: The whole matter is farther complicated by the fact that Amanda and Jo refuse to
speak to each other.
A. The whole
B. farther
C. the fact that
D. to each
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: I last talked to my daughter 2 months ago.
A. I haven’t talked to my daughter for 2 months.
B. I didn’t talk to my daughter 2 years ago.
C. I have talked to my daughter for 2 years.
D. I had a conversation with my daughter for 2 years.
Question 47: “Why don’t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.
A. Adam advised Gavin to have his hair cut.
B. Adam invited Gavin to have his hair cut.
C. Adam promised to cut Gavin’s hair.
D. Adam suggested Gavin should have his hair cut.
Question 48: Perhaps I will not go jogging this afternoon.
A. I may not go jogging this afternoon.
B. I must go jogging this afternoon.
C. I mustn’t go jogging this afternoon.
D. I shouldn’t go jogging this afternoon.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Her father is away on business. She really needs his help now.
A. If only her father had been at home and could have helped her.
B. As long as her father is at home, he will be able to help her.
C. If her father is at home, he can help her now.
D. She wishes her father were at home and could help her now.
Question 50: Her negative thoughts are serious. They have damaged her self-esteem.
A. Only if her negative thoughts were serious would they damage her self-esteem.
B. Not until her negative thoughts had damaged her self-esteem were they serious.
C. So serious are her negative thoughts that they have damaged her self-esteem.
D. But for her serious negative thoughts, they would have damaged her self-esteem.
--------------------HẾT--------------------


ĐỀ SỐ 2
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. structured
B. embroidered
C. preserved
D. embarrassed

Question 2: A. put
B. bulb
C. slum
D. hunt
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. unique
B. attire
C. custom
D. pursue
Question 4: A. designer
B. ancestor
C. proposal
D. tradition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: ______ the wind, the heavier the rain.
A. The stronger
B. stronger
C. The strongest
D. strongest
Question 6: He bought a ________ house near the city center.
A. big pink beautiful B. beautiful big pink C. pink big beautiful D. beautiful pink big
Question 7: She didn’t study modern European history at college, ______?
A. isn’t she
B. was she
C. doesn’t she
D. did she
Question 8: I almost missed my flight ______ there was a long queue in the duty-free shop.
A. in spite of

B. before
C. thanks to
D. because
Question 9: ________ the homework, she ate a sandwich.
A. Having done
B. Did
C. To do
D. Being done
Question 10: Her ______ isn't good with her father, but she's very close to her mother.
A. relate
B. relationship
C. relative
D. relatively
Question 11: All the houses in the area ______ immediately.
A. have to rebuild
B. have to be rebuilt C. had to rebuild
D. has to be rebuilt
Question 12: The actor was happy with a part in a movie ______.
A. even though the part was small
B. because the part has been small
C. when the part will be small
D. after the part had been small
Question 13: The fire doesn't seem to be ______ much heat.
A. giving up
B. giving off
C. taking up
D. taking off
Question 14: He seemed very young, but he was ______ reality older than all of us.
A. by
B. with

C. in
D. at
Question 15: When you buy a new ______, you usually get software included at no extra cost.
A. insurance
B. cigarette
C. computer
D. medicine
Question 16: Mr. Trung has met many foreigners since he ______ here last summer.
A. moves
B. will move
C. was moving
D. moved


Question 17: Hotel bookings are at a pace to ______ a new record this year.
A. set
B. earn
C. send
D. owe
Question 18: Politicians promise the ______ before an election, but things are different
afterwards.
A. sea
B. earth
C. hill
D. moon
Question 19: Our neighbours are very inconsiderate - they're always playing loud ______ late at
night.
A. toy
B. tennis
C. virus

D. music
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: An additional grant has enabled the team to push forward with research plans.
A. global
B. extra
C. typical
D. serious
Question 21: None of Arrino's vague references or allusions had prepared me for what she was saying.
A. hints
B. illusions
C. proposal
D. suggestion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Healthcare in the capital compares poorly with that in the rest of the country.
A. terribly
B. swiftly
C. suddenly
D. acceptably
Question 23: It has been raining cats and dogs since yesterday.
A. constantly
B. continuously
C. lightly
D. heavily
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Linda is talking to David about friends in the class.
Linda; “Do you think Anna is the best student in our class?”
David: “__________”

A. Do you think so?
B. Yes, I don’t think so.
C. You cant say so.
D. You can say that again.
Question 25: Laura is asking Tom for his idea about a vacation at the beach.
Laura: “Do you think a vacation at the beach will do me good?”
Tom: “__________”
A. Sure. Have a good time there.
B. Yes, I think.
C. Could you bye me something?

D. Yes, it does.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The Isthmus of Suez, the sole land bridge between the continents of Africa and Asia, is of
relatively recent geologic origin. Both continents once (26) ________ a single large continental
mass, but during the Paleogene and Neogene periods (about 66 to 2.6 million years ago) the great
fault structures of the Red Sea and Gulf of Aqaba developed, with the opening and subsequent
drowning of the Red Sea trough as far as the Gulf of Suez and the Gulf of Aqaba. In the succeeding
Quaternary Period (about the past 2.6 million years), there was considerable oscillation of sea (27)


________, leading finally to the emergence of a low-lying isthmus (28) ________ broadened
northward to a low-lying open coastal plain. There the Nile delta once extended farther east—as a
result of periods of abundant rainfall coincident with the Pleistocene Epoch (2,588,000 to 11,700
years ago)—and two river arms, (29) ________ distributaries, formerly crossed the northern
isthmus, one branch reaching the Mediterranean Sea at the narrowest point of the isthmus and the
(30) ________ entering the sea some 14.5 km (9 miles) east of present Port Said.
Question 26: A. made

B. solved
C. occurred
D. formed
Question 27: A. level
B. basket
C. basement
D. amount
Question 28: A. when
B. what
C. that
D. who
Question 29: A. or
B. so
C. since
D. but
Question 30: A. many
B. other
C. every
D. another
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
There are generally considered to be eight subspecies of tiger (Panthera tigris), three of
which are now extinct. The remaining subspecies include the Bengal, Indo-Chinese, South China,
Amur, and Sumatran tigers. Pressures from illegal killing, a shrinking food supply, and habitat
loss led to the extinction of the Bali, Javan, and Caspian subspecies, and continue to threaten the
survival of the remaining subspecies.
Tigers live in a variety of habitats from the temperate forests of the Russian Far East, to the
mangrove swamps of the Sunderbans of Bangladesh and western India, to the tropical forests,
grasslands, and marshes of India and Indonesia. Historically, they were also found near the Caspian
Sea in Turkey and Iran, and on the islands of Bali and Java in Indonesia.

By some estimates, a century ago 50,000 to 80,000 tigers roamed India alone. Today, the
tiger is classified as Endangered in the Red List of Threatened Species published by the
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and it is estimated that there are only 3,500
tigers remaining in the wild worldwide.
Until it was banned, trophy hunting and a market for tiger rugs and coats threatened the
tiger’s survival. Today, habitat destruction, human population growth, and a demand for tiger parts
threaten the tiger’s survival. In some cultures, tiger parts are thought to cure diseases such as
rheumatism, convulsions, typhoid fever, and dysentery. Tiger bone used in these traditional
medicines sells for as much as $75 to $115 per pound. In the Russian Far East, logging threatens
the Amur tiger’s already shrinking habitat. Poaching has also increased since the international
borders between Russia and its neighbours opened.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Tigers under Threat
B. The Number of Subspecies of Tiger
C. Tigers Living in India
D. Market for Tiger Rugs and Coats
Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. subspecies
B. tiger
C. Bengal
D. pressure
Question 33: According to paragraph 4, before hunting was banned, the tiger’s survival was
threatened because of ________.


A. the low temperate in forests

B. the demand for tiger rugs and coats

C. human population growth

D. the long Russian international borders
Question 34: The word “traditional” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. potential
B. practical
C. conventional
D. financial
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor
causing the extinction of the Bali, Javan, and Caspian subspecies?
A. Illegal killing
B. Shrinking food supply
C. Habitat loss
D. Mangrove swamps
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The largest bear in the world and the Arctic's top predator, polar bears are a powerful symbol
of the strength and endurance of the Arctic. The polar bear's Latin name, Ursus maritimus, means
"sea bear." It's an apt name for this majestic species, which spends much of its life in, around, or
on the ocean–predominantly on the sea ice. In the United States, Alaska is home to two polar bear
subpopulations.
Considered talented swimmers, polar bears can sustain a pace of six miles per hour by
paddling with their front paws and holding their hind legs flat like a rudder. They have a thick
layer of body fat and a water-repellent coat that insulates them from the cold air and water.
Polar bears spend over 50% of their time hunting for food. A polar bear might catch only
one or two out of 10 seals it hunts, depending on the time of year and other variables. Their diet
mainly consists of ringed and bearded seals because they need large amounts of fat to survive.
Polar bears rely heavily on sea ice for traveling, hunting, resting, mating and, in some areas,
maternal dens. But because of ongoing and potential loss of their sea ice habitat resulting from
climate change–the primary threat to polar bears Arctic-wide–polar bears were listed as a
threatened species in the US under the Endangered Species Act in May 2008. As their sea ice
habitat recedes earlier in the spring and forms later in the fall, polar bears are increasingly spending

longer periods on land, where they are often attracted to areas where humans live.
The survival and the protection of the polar bear habitat are urgent issues for WWF. In
October 2019, the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Polar Bear
Specialist Group released a new assessment of polar bear populations showing that the number of
polar bear subpopulations experience recent declines has increased to four, with eight populations
still being data-deficient. The good news is that five populations are stable while two have been
experiencing an upward trend.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Facts about Polar Bears
B. The Polar Bear's Latin Name
C. One or Two out of 10 Seals Polar Bears Hunt
D. Urgent Issues for WWF
Question 37: In paragraph 1, The polar bear's Latin name means “sea bears” because ______.
A. it spends much of its life on the sea ice


B. it’s the largest bear in the world
C. it’s the most powerful animal of the Arctic
D. it can be found on Alaska sea only
Question 38: The word "pace" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. mood
B. debt
C. mode
D. speed
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Polar bears’ thick layer of body fat prevents them from being cold.
B. Polar bears need large amounts of fat to survive.
C. Polar bears’ sea ice habitat recedes earlier in the fall.
D. It’s urgent for WWF to protect polar bear habitat.
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.

A. periods
B. polar bears
C. areas
D. humans
Question 41: The word “declines” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. database
B. conclusion
C. reductions
D. judgement
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. IUCN’s assessment is important to maintain polar bear populations.
B. WWF survives thanks to the protection of polar bears.
C. No polar bear subpopulation experiences decline.
D. The number of polar bears of some subpopulations has increased.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: My mother couldn't bare waste - she always made us eat everything on our plates.
A. couldn't bare
B. always
C. eat everything
D. our plates
Question 44: I don’t go to work tomorrow, so I was staying up late tonight.
A. work
B. so
C. was staying
D. tonight
Question 45: Since their establishment two years ago, the advice centre has seen over 500 people
a week.
A. their
B. ago

C. over
D. week
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Perhaps she will not come to see me this evening.
A. She must come to see me this evening.
B. She may not come to see me this evening.
C. She have to come to see me this evening. D. She should come to see me this evening.
Question 47: I last ate this kind of food five years ago.
A. I ate this kind of food for five years.
B. I didn’t eat this kind of food five years ago.
C. I have eaten this kind of food for five years.
D. I haven’t eaten this kind of food for five years.
Question 48: “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady at the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.


B. The lady promised to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
C. The lady agreed to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
D. The lady deny calling the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: His mother has gone to London. He really needs her advice now.
A. If only his mother had been at home and could have given him some advice.
B. He wishes his mother at home and could give him some advice.
C. As long as his mother is at home, she can give him some advice.
D. If his mother is at home, she can give him some advice now.
Question 50: My relationship with my father is important. It has shaped my attitude towards men.
A. But for the important relationship with my father, it would have shaped my attitude towards men.
B. Only if my relationship with my father were important would it shape my attitude towards men.

C. So important is my relationship with my father that it has shaped my attitude towards men.
D. Not until my relationship with my father had shaped my attitude towards men was it important.
--------------------HẾT--------------------


ĐỀ SỐ 3
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. finished
B. defeated
C. developed
D. looked
Question 2: A. climb
B. hide
C. sit
D. fine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you’re answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. unite
B. lifelong
C. urban
D. trailer
Question 4: A. benefit
B. activate

C. article
D. aquatic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: This is a ________ bag that I bought for my son.
A. new sleeping black B. sleeping black new C. new black sleeping D. black new sleeping
Question 6: I have to save this coupon ______.
A. in case I come back to the store tomorrow
B. so that I has come back to the store tomorrow
C. when I will come back to the store tomorrow
D. as I had come back to the store tomorrow
Question 7: She was in Mumbai to ______ an award for her latest novel.
A. acceptance
B. acceptable
C. accept
D. acceptably
Question 8: My digital camera ______ away. I can’t find it.
A. is taken
B. took
C. was taken
D. has been taken
Question 9: ________ his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Having finished
B. Finished
C. To finish
D. Being finished
Question 10: Security checks have become really strict ______ the airport.
A. like
B. on
C. about

D. at
Question 11: The more he learns, ______ he becomes.
A. smarter
B. the smarter
C. smartest
D. the smartest
Question 12: They flew from Los Angeles to Toronto by way of Chicago, ______?
A. didn’t they
B. was they
C. don’t they
D. are they
Question 13: I didn't tell her that he was late ______ I didn't want to cause her any alarm.
A. because
B. however
C. although
D. unless
Question 14: We walked to the next beach to ______ from the crowds.
A. pass away
B. pass over
C. get away
D. get over
Question 15: For most people, the desire to study ______ begins with a love of reading.
A. science
B. literature
C. psychology
D. mathematics


Question 16: You have violated the rules for many time since you ______ here.
A. will come

B. come
C. was coming
D. came
Question 17: If you ______ the rule, you’re going to be punished for it.
A. added
B. broke
C. found
D. solved
Question 18: Although they are twins, they are ______ apart in their attitude to life.
A. gates
B. lakes
C. miles
D. worlds
Question 19: This research seems to give some validity to the ______ that the drug might cause
cancer.
A. theory
B. fame
C. reaction
D. lesson
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Recently there has been some movement away from traditional methods of teaching.
A. realistic
B. obvious
C. conventional
D. efficient
Question 21: The building scheme comes as an enormous boon for the building industry.
A. source
B. gift
C. obstacle

D. help
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: They were both critically injured in the accident.
A. slightly
B. vaguely
C. verbally
D. seriously
Question 23: She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.
A. nervous
B. comfortable
C. depressed
D. relaxing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jack is asking Laura to open the window.
Jack: “Would you mind opening the window?”
Laura: “__________”
A. Yes, I would.
B. Of course not.
C. Forget it.
D. No, I mind.
Question 25: The hotel receptionist is asking the customer his name.
Receptionist: “Could you please say your name again please?”
Customer: “__________”
A. How can you say so?
B. Why do I have to?
C. No, I don’t remember.

D. Sure, that’s Mike.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Autism, or autism spectrum disorder (ASD), refers to a broad range of conditions
characterized by challenges with social skills, repetitive behaviours, speech and nonverbal (26)
______. According to the Centres for Disease Control, autism affects an estimated 1 in 54 children
in the United States today.
We know that there is not one autism but many subtypes, most influenced by a combination
of genetic and environmental factors. (27) ______ autism is a spectrum disorder, each person with


autism has a distinct set of strengths and challenges. The ways in (28) ______ people with autism
learn, think and problem-solve can (29) ______ from highly skilled to severely challenged. Some
people with ASD may require significant support in their daily lives, while others may need less
support and, in some cases, live entirely independently.
Several factors may influence the development of autism, and it is often accompanied by
sensory sensitivities and medical issues (30) ______ as gastrointestinal (GI) disorders, seizures or
sleep disorders, as well as mental health challenges such as anxiety, depression and attention
issues.
Question 26: A. authorization
B. promotion
C. reflection
D. communication
Question 27: A. So
B. Because
C. And
D. Although
Question 28: A. which
B. that
C. where

D. whom
Question 29: A. suffer
Question 30: A. such

B. follow
B. some

C. range
C. any

D. invest
D. no

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The clouds floating overhead contain water vapour and cloud droplets, which are small drops
of condensed water. These droplets are way too small to fall as precipitation, but they are large
enough to form visible clouds. Water is continually evaporating and condensing in the sky. If you
look closely at a cloud you can see some parts disappearing (evaporating) while other parts are
growing (condensation). Most of the condensed water in clouds does not fall as precipitation
because their fall speed is not large enough to overcome updrafts which support the clouds.
For precipitation to happen, first tiny water droplets must condense on even tinier dust, salt,
or smoke particles, which act as a nucleus. Water droplets may grow as a result of additional
condensation of water vapour when the particles collide. If enough collisions occur to produce a
droplet with a fall velocity which exceeds the cloud updraft speed, then it will fall out of the cloud
as precipitation. This is not a trivial task since millions of cloud droplets are required to produce a
single raindrop. A more efficient mechanism for producing a precipitation-sized drop is through a
process which leads to the rapid growth of ice crystals at the expense of the water vapour present
in a cloud. These crystals may fall as snow, or melt and fall as rain.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. How much water falls during a storm
B. What do raindrops look like?
C. How do raindrops form?
D. Precipitation size and speed
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, the condensed water in clouds does not fall as rain because
________.
A. the fall speed is not large enough
B. it is too small to fall
C. it is continually evaporating
D. the fall speed makes it disappear
Question 33: The word “additional” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. administrative
B. supplementary
C. representative
D. competitive
Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. particles
B. collisions
C. droplet
D. fall velocity


Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor
causing precipitation to happen?
A. Tiny water droplets condensed on a nucleus
B. Collision of particles
C. Fall velocity larger than the cloud updraft speed
D. Growth of ice crystals
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

If you’re an Australian Facebook user who loves to share the news on your timeline, you
may have noticed something different recently: You can’t.
In the next few days, though, things should go back to normal. Less than a week after
suddenly banning news links for Australian users and shutting down Australian news pages to
protest an upcoming law, Facebook says it’s gotten reassurances from the Australian government
that it won’t be forced to pay publishers but will instead be given the chance to negotiate
agreements with them — which it’s already starting to do. According to the Sydney Morning
Herald, Facebook has agreed to pay the major Australian media company Seven West Media for
news content and is in negotiations with another called Nine Entertainment.
Australia has now passed the News Media and Digital Platforms Mandatory Bargaining
Code, which could force Facebook and Google to pay publishers if they host their content. The
law is a response to years-long complaints from news outlets around the world about the role that
Google and Facebook — and their mammoth digital ad businesses — have played in the decline
of journalism and the decimation of its business model in the internet age. The two companies
responded to the then-potential law in very different ways: Google made deals with Australian
news publishers; Facebook decided to cut them off entirely.
After a few days of Australians seeing what Facebook was like without the news, a sizable
amount of worldwide backlash against the company, and talks with the Australian government
that resulted in a few last-minute changes to the law, Facebook decided that the new terms were
good enough for its ban to end. The law passed a few days later.
Previously, Facebook had banned all users from sharing links to Australian news sources,
Australian publications’ pages from hosting any of their own content, and Australian users from
sharing any news links, Australian or international.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. News Links for Australian Users
B. Australia and The News Media and Digital Platforms Mandatory Bargaining Code
C. A Sizable Amount of Worldwide Backlash Against A Company
D. Why Facebook Banned and Then Unbanned News in Australia
Question 37: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. publishers

B. reassurances
C. Australian media D. negotiations
Question 38: In paragraph 2, Facebook suddenly banned news links for Australian users to
______.


A. protest an upcoming law
B. get reassurances from the Australian government
C. protect Australian news pages
D. negotiate agreements with publishers
Question 39: The word “major” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. public
B. stupid
C. main
D. stylish
Question 40: The word “content” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. word
B. article
C. force
D. name
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Facebook has agreed to pay Seven West Media for news content.
B. Google and Facebook responded to the law differently.
C. The laws issued by Australian government was changed at the last minute.
D. Facebook has never banned users from sharing links to Australian news sources.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. Australians will never see the news on Facebook.
B. Facebook ended its ban thanks to acceptable teams, and things went back to normal.
C. There was a huge amount of worldwide protest against the Australian government.
D. Australian government’s law shouldn’t have been changed at the last minute.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: I prefer the second option - their advantages are simplicity and cheapness.
A. prefer
B. their
C. simplicity
D. cheapness
Question 44: I arrived in Wolverhampton lately this evening, as I'm doing a small part in a short
film here tomorrow.
A. arrived in
B. lately
C. as
D. in a short film
Question 45: I detest having to get up when it was dark outside.
A. having
B. when
C. was
D. outside
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “I will help you to finish this work, Gloria” said Ivan.
A. Ivan promised to help Gloria to finish her work.
B. Ivan expected to help Gloria to finish her work.
C. Ivan admitted helping Gloria to finish her work.
D. Ivan suggested helping Gloria to finish her work.
Question 47: Perhaps the boy will not take a nap today.
A. The boy should take a nap today.
B. The boy need to take a nap today.
C. The boy may not take a nap today.
D. The boy mustn’t take a nap today.

Question 48: They last visited this museum 3 years ago.
A. They paid a visit to this museum for 3 years.
B. They didn’t visit this museum 3 years ago.


C. They have visited this museum for 3 years.
D. They haven’t visited this museum for 3 years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Nam’s friends have all gone to the movie. He really needs their help now.
A. If Nam’s friends are here, they can help him now.
B. If only Nam’s friends hadn’t gone to the movie and could have helped them.
C. Nam wishes his friends were here and could help him now.
D. As long as Nam’s friends are here, they will be able to help him now.
Question 50: The new generation of computers is powerful. It can process faster than any earlier models.
A. Not until the new generation of computers had processed faster than any earlier models was it powerful.
B. So powerful is the new generation of computers that it can process faster than any earlier models.
C. But for the new powerful generation of computers, it would have processed faster than any earlier models.
D. Only if the new generation of computers were powerful could it process faster than any earlier models.
--------------------HẾT--------------------


ĐỀ SỐ 4
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part

differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. approached
B. washed
C. noticed
D. supported
Question 2: A. cheat
B. great
C. meat
D. heat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. college
B. upset
C. mature
D. support
Question 4: A. decorate
B. privacy
C. collection
D. modify
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Friends and relatives came to ______ their last respects to Mr Clarke.
A. pack
B. pay
C. give
D. send
Question 6: The business ______ better than expected and profits were slightly up.
A. found for
B. found out
C. made for

D. made out
Question 7: We are aiming our campaign ______ at young people.
A. specify
B. specification
C. specific
D. specifically
Question 8: ________ the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis
championship.
A. Being defeated
B. Having defeated
C. Defeated
D. To defeat
Question 9: Make sure your hands are clean ______.
A. after you had your dinner
B. though you will have your dinner
C. before you have your dinner
D. unless you was having your dinner
Question 10: I have the greatest respect for his ideas ______ I don't agree with them.
A. in spite of
B. although
C. because of
D. because
Question 11: My father ______ as a journalist since he graduated from the university.
A. has worked
B. was working
C. works
D. will work
Question 12: It is an ________ woman whom I met at the supermarket.
A. intelligent English young
B. English young intelligent

C. young intelligent English
D. intelligent young English
Question 13: The more she eats, ______ she becomes.
A. the fattest
B. fattest
C. the fatter
D. fatter
Question 14: Those seats are reserved for senior members ______ the club.
A. of
B. over
C. by
D. from
Question 15: The gallery doesn’t have any excellent collection of modern art, ______?
A. is it
B. wasn’t it
C. does it
D. didn’t it


Question 16: This newspaper ______ every day. It’s a daily newspaper.
A. publishing
B. is publishing
C. is published
D. published
Question 17: She has an intimate ______ of Tuscany, where she has lived for 20 years.
A. service
B. economy
C. knowledge
D. reputation
Question 18: The losing team went off with their tails between their ______.

A. legs
B. hands
C. teeth
D. fingers
Question 19: Computer literacy is now as essential as the ______ to drive a car.
A. amount
B. repair
C. ownership
D. ability
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It's the good weather that makes Spain such a popular tourist destination.
A. nervous
B. sudden
C. massive
D. favourite
Question 21: The postwar vogue for tearing down buildings virtually destroyed the city's architecture.
A. means
B. fashion
C. trend
D. media
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: In 1918, the Spanish flu infected one in five people globally.
A. locally
B. happily
C. usefully
D. truthfully
Question 23: I'm looking for something a little more out of the ordinary.
A. different

B. popular
C. similar
D. foreign
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Linh is inviting Loan to her company’s party.
Linh: “Will you come to my company’s year end party tomorrow?”
Loan: “__________”
A. Yes, I promise you.
B. No, I don’t know.
C. Welcome.
D. Tomorrow’s too early.
Question 25: Linh’s mother is asking her about the test.
Linh’s mother: “How have you done with the test?”
Linh: “__________”
A. The test is good
B. I could have done it better if I had had more time.
C. I don’t know.

D. Don’t ever ask so.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Violence against children takes many forms. It can be physical, emotional or sexual. It
happens in all countries and any setting – in a child's home, community, school and online. In (26)
________ parts of the world, violent discipline is socially accepted and common. And for many
girls and boys, violence comes at the hands of the people they trust – their parents or caregivers,
teachers, peers and neighbours.

(27) ________ the most devastating types of violence are often hidden from public view.
Perpetrators go to great lengths to conceal their acts, leaving children – especially those (28)
________ lack the capacity to report or even understand their experience – vulnerable to further
exposure.
Violence affects all children. But children living with disabilities or HIV and AIDS, those
suffering extreme (29) ________ , girls and boys in institutional care, and children separated from
their families or on the move – as migrants, refugees or asylum seekers – face the greatest risk.
Sexual orientation, gender identity and belonging to a marginalized social or ethnic group also
(30) ________ a child’s chance of suffering violence.
Question 26: A. some
B. another
C. many
D. much
Question 27: A. Until
B. Since
C. But
D. Although
Question 28: A. which
Question 29: A. question
Question 30: A. heightens

B. whom
B. poverty
B. hesitates

C. why
C. training
C. persuades

D. who

D. business
D. happens

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Depression and anxiety while abroad are more common than people like to admit. It’s hard
to complain when you’ve spent the whole day lounging in the European countryside and get to go
home to your castle-view new apartment, but for people with depression or anxiety, even the most
amazing things can be drowned out by emotion. It’s easy for people who are battling this type of
disorder to feel guilty, spoiled, or even confused for being down even when they’re “living the
high life” abroad, so they keep their feelings to themselves and hide the problem, potentially
ruining their time abroad.
Chances are, if you think you’re developing depression or anxiety while abroad, you’ve
probably been feeling some of these things for a long time, but nothing has made them surface
quite like going abroad does. It’s crucial to deal with the problem as you first begin to notice it and
take self-care seriously while abroad, as they aren’t feelings that are going to be magically fixed.
Illnesses like depression and anxiety are different for everyone, but ultimately you will need
to take similar steps to make it more bearable while abroad. Start by talking to your family back
home, program director, or school guidance counsellor and have them help you speak with your
host family, find a suitable doctor and/or therapist while abroad, and work through any
international treatment or insurance issues. You are not the first person to go abroad with baggage,
and there are people available and programs set up to help those who need it.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Culture Shock Stages
B. Final Tips for Handling the Culture Shock
C. Months of Ups and Downs Abroad
D. Recognizing Depression and Anxiety
Question 32: The word “who” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. amazing things
B. emotion

C. people
D. disorder
Question 33: According to paragraph 1, those who are battling disorder may have their time
abroad ruined because they _______.


A. never feel guilty, spoiled, or even confused
B. keep their feelings to themselves and hide the problem
C. spend too much time lounging in the European countryside
D. are living the high life abroad
Question 34: The word “bearable” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. acceptable
B. suitable
C. reasonable
D. inevitable
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a step to
make depression and anxiety more bearable abroad?
A. Going abroad without any baggage
B. Talking to the family back home
C. Speaking with the host family
D. Finding a suitable doctor and/or therapist
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Panama, country of Central America located on the Isthmus of Panama, the narrow bridge
of land that connects North and South America. Embracing the isthmus and more than 1,600
islands off its Atlantic and Pacific coasts, the tropical nation is renowned as the site of the Panama
Canal, which cuts through its midsection. It is equally well known for its natural beauty, for its
diverse plant and animal life, including hundreds of bird and tree species, and for its vibrant music
and culture.
The home of several Native American peoples, such as the Guaymí, Kuna, and Chocó,

Panama became the first Spanish colony on the Pacific. Celebrated as “the door to the seas and
key to the universe,” it served in the 1530s as the staging point for the Spanish conquest of the
Inca empire, and until the 19th century it was a transhipment point for gold and silver destined for
Spain. With the independence of Colombia, which once controlled Panama, from Spain, Panama
came to serve as another staging point, this time for oceangoing migrants to the gold fields of
California.
Since 1914 the 51-mile-long Panama Canal, which connects the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans,
has afforded a long-sought shortcut for shipping and assures the country’s standing as one of the
most strategic transportation hubs of the world. The canal also secures Panama’s ongoing role in
international affairs and world commerce. The United States relinquished jurisdiction of the
Panama Canal on December 31, 1999, marking an unprecedented shift in Panamanian society. For
the first time in nearly a century as an independent nation, Panama controlled the entirety of its
national territory.
Panama enjoys a lively mix of cultural influences, expressed in the country’s cuisine,
artwork, music, and literature. Its capital, Panama City, is located on the Pacific coast just east of
the canal. A cosmopolitan city where skyscrapers tower above whitewashed bungalows, it enjoys
a handsome setting and a growing importance as a commercial and financial services centre for
the region. However, its economic progress has been hampered periodically by environmental
problems and political turmoil.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Central America
B. Facts on Panama


C. Native American peoples in Panama

D. a lively mix of cultural influences of Panama

Question 37: The word “vibrant” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. exciting

B. clumsy
C. steady
D. dynamic
Question 38: In paragraph 2, Panama functioned in the 1530s as the staging point for ______.
A. the Spanish to conquest the Inca empire
B. gold and silver destined for Spain
C. Colombia to achieve its independence
D. Panama to control Spain
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. colony
B. Inca empire
C. Panama
D. transhipment point
Question 40: The word “affairs” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. services
B. courses
C. objects
D. events
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The Isthmus of Panama connects North and South America.
B. Panama became the first Portugese colony on the Pacific.
C. The United States renounced jurisdiction of the Panama Canal in 1999.
D. Panama City is located on the Pacific coast.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. There is no cultural mix in Panama.
B. Panama is such a small country that it has no capital name.
C. Panama is a beautiful and important country in the region with its own problems.
D. All skyscrapers in Panam are whitewashed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: We have a very happy party at Tom’s house last weekend.
A. have
B. very
C. party
D. Tom’s
Question 44: Everyone has its own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
A. its
B. about
C. way
D. children
Question 45: How long does it take for the planet Jupiter to make a complete evolution around
the sun?
A. How long
B. for
C. to make
D. evolution
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: She last travelled by bus many years ago.
A. She has travelled by bus for many years. B. She travelled by bus for many years.
C. She hasn’t travelled by bus for many years. D. She didn’t travel by bus many years ago.
Question 47: “If I were you, I would take a break,” Tom said to Daisy.
A. Tom informed Daisy to take a break.
B. Tom advised Daisy to take a break.
C. Tom warned Daisy to take a break.
D. Tom apologized to Daisy for taking a break.
Question 48: Perhaps he will finish all his work tonight.
A. He must finish all his work tonight.
B. He shouldn’t finish all his work tonight.
C. He needn’t finish all his work tonight.

D. He may finish all his work tonight.


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I have to do my homework. I can’t go out with my friends.
A. As long as I don’t have to do my homework, I will be able to go out with my friends.
B. If I don’t have to do my homework, I can go out with my friends.
C. I wish I didn’t have to do my homework and could go out with friends.
D. If only I hadn’t had to do my homework and could have gone out with my friends.
Question 50: The man was presumed innocent. He was then proven guilty.
A. Not until the man had been presumed innocent was he proven guilty.
B. Had the man been proven guilty, he wouldn’t be presumed innocent.
C. Only after the man was proven guilty was he presumed innocent.
D. Having been proven guilty, the man was presumed innocent.
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ĐỀ SỐ 5
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. toured
B. jumped
C. solved

D. rained
Question 2: A. post
B. role
C. dome
D. loch
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. impose
B. childcare
C. access
D. curfew
Question 4: A. analyst
B. organise
C. emission
D. emperor
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: I think I'll ______ a visit to Louvre museum while I'm in Paris this summer.
A. drop
B. raise
C. bring
D. pay
Question 6: I was trying to remember what I had learnt about gravity in school ______ .
A. science
B. chemistry
C. history
D. literature
Question 7: Modern computers can hold huge amounts of information, ______?
A. were they
B. can’t they

C. did they
D. don’t they
Question 8: Several people were hurt in the accident but only one ______ to hospital.
A. was taken
B. was taking
C. has taken
D. has been taking
Question 9: You can walk from here ______ the school in under ten minutes.
A. against
B. after
C. to
D. about
Question 10: The more she sleeps, ______ she becomes.
A. laziest
B. the laziest
C. lazier
D. the lazier
Question 11: She wore a ________ dress that made her more pretty.
A. long white wedding
B. long wedding white
C. white long wedding
D. wedding white long
Question 12: Mr. Nam ______ many items in his grocery since he moved to this area.
A. will sell
B. has sold
C. sells
D. was selling
Question 13: At 84 he's still quite active ______ he walks with the aid of a stick.
A. since
B. moreover

C. although
D. instead of
Question 14: It may be many years ______.
A. if the situation improved
B. when the situation had improved
C. before the situation improves
D. because the situation will improve
Question 15: ________ his composition, Louie handed it to his teacher.
A. To write
B. Being written
C. Having written
D. Wrote
Question 16: An unexpected surge in ______ power caused the computer to crash.
A. electricity
B. electrical
C. electrically
D. electrify