Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Hà Trung

PHÒNG GD & ĐT

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN

HUYỆN HÀ TRUNG

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7
Năm học: 2020-2021
(Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút)

PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)
The Birthday Gift
It is going to be my father's birthday. What can I give him?
I don't have much money. I have looked all through the (1)..............................................., and I have not
found anything that I think he would like, or that I can afford.
I have thought very (2)............................................... about what to buy for him. I thought that he might
like some (3)..............................................., but my father really doesn't eat many sweets. I thought that he
might like a new shirt, but he has lots of (4)................................................ I can't afford a new car or
computer for him. I was (5)............................................... him on the weekend. He cut the grass, washed
the car, took out the garbage, weeded the garden and (6)............................................... the plants.
I got an idea. I went to my room and took out some paper, I cut (7)............................................... pieces of
paper, and I wrote on them. I wrote on one piece of paper that I would wash the car every weekend for
the summer.
I wrote on another piece that I would (8)............................................... out the garbage every week for the
summer. I (9)............................................... wrote that I would cut the grass, weed the garden and water
the plants every week for the summer. I made a birthday (10)............................................... for my dad,
and I put the pieces of paper inside it.
I went (11)............................................... and gave my gift to my dad. My dad thought that the
(12)............................................... was very thoughtful. He said that it was a gift from the heart. I did all
those things for my dad all summer. He said that he had a lot of free time because I
(13)............................................... him so much.

My dad and I are good friends. I don't mind doing things for him because I know that he is always there
to help me out.
A good gift doesn't have to be something that (14)............................................... a lot.
My dad says that the best gifts are the ones that (15)............................................... how much you care for
the other person. I'm glad my dad liked his gift.
PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)
16. A. durian

B. hurry

C. duty

D. computer

17. A. character

B. chemistry

C. scheme

D. chapter

18. A. wanted

B. returned

C. worried

D. preferred

19. A. height

B. weight

C. eight

D. freight

20. A. serious

B. sunbathe

C. sugar

D. symptom

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:
(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
21. A. harvest

B. contain

C. flower

D. awful


22. A. explore

B. cartoon

C. dislike

D. absence

23. A. comfortable

B. anniversary

C. education

D. information

24. A. decorate

B. equation

C. history

D. satellite

25. A. interview

B. regular

C. restaurant

D. selection

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
26. ……………..do your father play chess at the Chess Club, Lan? - Twice a week.
A. How much

B. How long

C. How often

D. How many

27. My little brother is used to ……………..late in the morning.
A. stay

B. to stay

C. staying

D. stayed

28. My cousin, Ly Hung, is ……………..student in our school.
A. more intelligent

B. the most intelligent C. intelligenter

D. intelligentest

29. The …………..always comes early, so my father gets his letters before he goes to work.
A. engineer

B. mailman

C. porter

D. chemist

30. My friends agreed to come to the festival ……………..from Thomas.
A. except

B. only

C. apart

D. accept

31. Don't forget ……………..your teeth before going to bed, little boys and girls!
A. to brush

B. brushing

C. about brushing

D. not to brush

32. I didn’t see the end of the movies last night because I ……………..asleep.
A. felt

B. fell

C. went

D. felled

33. We are rehearsing a play for our school anniversary ……………..
A. celebrate

B. celebrated

C. celebrating

D. celebrations

34. I never play video games in my free time and..................................
A. so does Ha.

B. Ha doesn’t, too

C. Ha doesn’t, either D. Neither doesn’t Ha

35. The letter is ………………..French but I can’t speak a word of French. Can you help me?
A. in

B. with

C. by

D. on

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)
36. I like this kind of tree because it has a lot of green ............................. (LEAF)

37. Now, the students in my class are having a ............................. check-up. (MEDICINE)
38. Give me something to drink please! I’m dying of............................. (THIRSTY)
39. You shouldn’t eat ............................ food because it’s not good for your health. (HEALTH)
40. All of the us must remember to eat ............................. (SENSE)
41. Please help me with this sentence: “............................. is better than cure.” (PREVENT)
42. All the words in a dictionary are in ............................. order. (ALPHABET)
43. People of all............................. can join the walking activity. (ABLE)
44. The noise in the city kept Hoa ............................. at night last week. (WAKE)


45. Last Sunday, we went to the ............................. center. (AMUSE)
III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
46. I’m very hungry, Mom. I think we should stop (have) ………………dinner.
47. I (phone) ………………my parents when I arrive in Da Lat this afternoon.
48. My father decided (not/ buy) ………………that new car.
49. The worker (break) ………………his leg yesterday?
50. Mommy! Could you tell me how (make) ………………a conical hat?
PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)
I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
British parents are always complaining that (51)……….…… children spend too much time
(52)………………TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading. A
(53)……….……survey of people’s free time activities (54)………………that young people spend about
23 hours a week in (55)……….……of the television set, that means over 3 hours a day
It is (56) ………………that the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week. Every household in
the county has a TV set and over half have two or more. According (57)……………… the survey people
do not only watch TV in their living room, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as (58) ……………….
We cannot deny that television also has some negative effects (59) ……….…… children, because many
films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things. Excessive watching of TV by children
has lowered their results in (60) ……….……at school.
51. A. he

B. they

C. their

D. theirs

52. A. to watch

B. watch

C. watching

D. watched

53. A. late

B. lately

C. recent

D. recently

54. A. show

B. shows

C. showing

D. to show

55. A. between

B. behind

C. opposite

D. front

56. A. surprise

B. surprises

C. surprising

D. to surprise

57. A. to

B. in

C. from

D. at

58. A. well

B. good

C. happy

D. also

59. A. special

B. specialise

C. especial

D. especially

60. A. learn

B. learned

C. learning

D. to learn

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 = 2.0pts)
Mark Twain is a famous American writer. His (61) .....………….…. was Samuel Longhorn Clemens and
“Mark Twain” was (62) .....………….…. pen-name. Samuel Clemens was born in a small town (63)
.....………….…. the Mississippi river in the USA. The boy (64) .....………….…. many friends at school
and when he became a writer, he described them in his stories. (65).....………….….Samuel was twelve,
his father died and the boy began to work and learned the (66).....………….…. of a painter. Samuel
always (67).....………….…. to be a sailor and when he was twenty he found work on the river boat.
After some time he (68).....………….…. the boat and went to live in California. Here he began to write
short (69).....………….…. under the name of Mark Twain. He sent (70) .....………….….to newspapers.
The readers liked his stories very much.
III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

I get a lot of letters at this time of year from people complaining that they have a cold which won’t go
away. There are so many different stories about how to prevent or cure a cold, it’s often difficult to know
what to do. Although colds are rarely dangerous, except for
people who are already weak, such as the elderly or young babies, they are always uncomfortable and
usually most unpleasant. Of course, when you have a cold, you often buy lots of medicines which help to
make your cold less unpleasant, but you must remember that nothing can actually cure a cold or make it
go away faster. Another thing is that any medicine which is strong enough to make you feel better could
be dangerous if you are already taking drugs for some other illness so always check with your chemist or
doctor to see whether they are all right for you. And remember they might make you sleepy – please
don’t try to drive if they do! Lastly, as far as avoiding colds is concerned, whatever you may be told
about magic foods or drinks, the best answer is to keep strong and healthy – you’ll have less chance of
catching a cold, and if you do, it shouldn’t be so bad!
71. What should/ you/ do before/ buying/ medicine/ cold/ if/ already taking/ drugs/ ?/
……………………………………………………………………………………………?
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
72. In/ what/ case/ colds/ dangerous/ ?/
……………………………………………………………………………………………?
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
73. What/ people/ often/ do/ when/ have/ cold/ ?/
……………………………………………………………………………………………?
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
74. What/ writer’s/ advice/ avoid/ colds?/
…………………………………………………………………………………………….?
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
75. What/ this passage/ from/ ?/
…………………………………………………………………………………………….?
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
76. For me - Going fishing is more interesting than reading books at home.
-> I prefer ………..……………………………………………………………………………..
77. My uncle is a slower and more careful driver than I am.
-> My uncle drives………………….………………………….………………………………
78. We didn’t enjoy the trip because of the heavy rain.
-> The heavy rain prevented…….………………………………………………………………
79. Life in the past is not as comfortable as life nowadays.
-> Life nowadays………………………………….………………………………………….
80. It took us about two hours to plant those trees yesterday.
-> We spent..............................................................................................................................


II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the
necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
81. We/ going/ have/ two- week/ summer vacation/ Da Nang/ next month/ ./
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….
82. You/ should/ eat/ variety/ food/ without/ eat/ too much/ anything/ ./
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….
83. My mother/ worried/ about/ let/ me/ go/ zoo/ alone yesterday/ ./
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….
84. Visitor/ spoke/ too quickly/ me/ understand/ what/ said/ ./
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….
85. Miss Lan/ not/ go/ schoo/l last Monday/ because/ sickness/ ./
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….
III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about your last holiday: (3.0 pts)
(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.
Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)
ĐÁP ÁN
PART ONE: LISTENING

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)
1. stores 2. hard 3. candy 4. clothes 5. watching
6. watered 7. out 8. take 9. also 10. card
11. downstairs 12. gift 13. helped 14. costs 15. show
PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2= 1.0 pt)
16. B. hurry 17. D. chapter 18. A. wanted 19. A. height 20. C. sugar
II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
21. B. contain 22. D. absence 23. A. comfortable 24. B. equation 25. D. selection
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
26. C. How often 27. C. staying 28. B. the most intelligent 29. B. mailman 30. C. apart
31. A. to brush 32. B. fell 33. D. celebrations 34. C. Ha doesn’t, either 35. A. in
II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)
36. leaves 37. medical 38. thirst 39. unhealthy 40. sensibly
41. prevention 42. alphabetical 43. abilities 44. awake 45. amusement
III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
46. to have 47. will phone 48. not to buy 49. Did...break 50. to make
PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)
I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)


51 - C. their 52- C. watching 53 - C. recent 54 - B. shows 55 - D. front
56 - C. surprising 57 - A. to 58 - A. well 59 - D. especially 60 - C. learning
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0pts)
61. name 62. his 63. on 64. had 65. when
66. job/ career/ profession 67. wanted/ wished 68. left 69. stories 70. them
III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
71. What should you do before buying medicine for a cold if you are already taking drugs?
-> I/ We should talk to the chemist or doctor.

72. In what case are colds dangerous?
-> When the patients are weak, such as the elderly or young babies.
73. What do people often do when they have a cold?
-> They often buy lots of medicines which will help to make their cold less unpleasant.
74. What is the writer’s advice to avoid colds?
-> Keep strong and healthy.
75. What is this passage from?
-> It’s from a newspaper or a magazine.
PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
76. I prefer going fishing to reading books at home.
77. My uncle drives slowlier and more carefully than I do.
78. The heavy rain prevented us from enjoying the trip.
79. Life nowadays is more comfortable than life in the past.
80. We spent two hours planting those trees yesterday.
II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the
necessary changes and additions if necessary. (50.2=1.0 pt)
81. We are going to have a two- week summer vacation in Da Nang next month.
82. You should eat a variety of foods without eating too much of anything.
83. My mother was worried about letting me go to the zoo alone yesterday .
84. The visitor spoke too quickly for me to understand what he/she said.
85. Miss Lan didn’t go to school last Monday because of her sickness.
III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about your last holiday: (3.0 pts)
(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.
Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)
- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic. (0.5pt)
- The body: Write details about the holiday/ the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0
pts)
- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the holiday.(0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:
- Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).
- Correct vocabulary and structures.
- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).